ML041330344
| ML041330344 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Arkansas Nuclear  |
| Issue date: | 07/23/2003 |
| From: | Operations Branch IV |
| To: | Entergy Operations |
| References | |
| Download: ML041330344 (102) | |
Text
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 1 Unit 1 is at 25% power and power escalation is in progress.
An asymmetric rod alarm comes in and control rod 7-3 API indicates 9% lower than the group average.
You are the CBOR and are required to enter the QPT because it has exceeded the allowed value by TS and OP 1015.003A Unit 1 Operations Logs. You must select the value of QPT from the most accurate equipment in order to retrieve the correct value for your logs.
In order from MOST accurate to LEAST accurate, the MOST accurate to LEAST accurate equipment for QPT is:
A. Excore NI QPT, Incore (PMS) QPT, Incore recorders B. Incore (PMS) QPT, Excore NI QPT, Incore recorders C. Incore (PMS) QPT, Incore recorders, Excore NI QPT D. Incore recorders, Incore (PMS) QPT, Excore NI QPT Answer B is the correct answer, Incore (PMS) QPT is the most accurate for QPT, followed by Excore NIs for QPT, then last are the Incore (min/backup) recorders.
References 1102.004 Power Operation, page 8, change 041-05-0.
1015.003A Unit 1 Operations Logs, Appendix D, page 65, change 050-04-0.
Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = unclassified Examination Outline Cross-reference:
00005.K1.02 00005.K1.02 Importance Rating 3.1 3.9 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR References 41.8/41.10/45.3 1
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 2 The following conditions exist:
- Plant power escalation in progress, currently at 75% power.
- The following annunciators alarm:
RCP SEAL COOLING FLOW LO (K08-E7)
RCP BLEED OFF TEMP HI (K08-C7)
- CBOT reports that all above annunciators are caused by one RCP, P-32A.
Which of the following actions is procedurally directed for the above conditions?
A. Trip P-32A RCP and verify proper ICS response.
B. Trip all RCPs, trip reactor, and go to 1202.001, Reactor Trip C. Trip P-32A RCP and isolate seal bleedoff to all RCPs.
D. Verify Letdown isolated and stop RCP Seal Cooling pumps P-114A/B Answer:
A is correct, Trip P-32A RCP and verify proper ICS response.
References:
1203.031, Reactor Coolant Pump and Motor Emergency, change 014-04-0, page 10, step 3.1 TUOI A1LP-RO-AOP, objective 4.3, Created for 2002 SRO exam by S.Pullin Pulled from ANO bank (QID 0452).
Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000015AK2.08 000015AK2.08 Importance Rating 2.6 2.6 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR References 41.7 / 45.7 / 43.5 2
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 3 The plant is in a degraded power situation with natural circulation cooldown in progress.
The ERV isolation valve CV-1000 has been closed due to leakage past the ERV. Which of the following best describes the appropriate action concerning operation of CV-1000 during the cooldown?
A. CV-1000 should remain closed during the cooldown until repairs to the ERV are completed.
B. CV-1000 should be cycled open and closed during cooldown to prevent thermal binding of the valve.
C. CV-1000 should be opened to allow the pressurizer to go solid and transition to a HPI Cooldown.
D. CV-1000 should be deenergized and hold carded to prevent operation of the valve during cooldown.
Answer B is correct, CV-1000 should be cycled open and closed during cooldown to prevent thermal binding of the valve.
Distractor Notes A is incorrect because the ERV should remain open or cycled approximately every 100
°F during cooldown. C is incorrect because with natural circulation cooling established it would be undesirable to transition to HPI Cooldown. D is incorrect because the ERV should remain open or cycled approximately every 100 °F during cooldown.
References:
1203.015, Pressurizer System Failures, provides guidance for closing CV-1000 due to leakage past the ERV.
1203.013, Natural Circulation Cooldown provides guidance for operation of CV-1000 during cooldown.
Training Objective:TUOI ANO-1-LP-RO-AOP, Objective 4.5 QID:0004, Rev Date:6/10/98 Question Source:
Bank #
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Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
BW/E09.K3.3 BW/E09.K3.3 Importance Rating 3.8 3.4 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 41.5 / 41.10, 45.6 / 45.13 3
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 4 Unit 1 Plant Conditions:
Reactor is tripped from 100% power. Four CRDMs fail to drop according to indications in the control room. You are given the order by the CRS to initiate Emergency Boration in accordance with EOP 1202.012 (RT 12) Emergency Boration.
You should set the initial batch setting of the boric acid controller to:
A. The batch size required to maintain make up tank level between 55 and 86 inches while maintaining pressurizer level >100 inches.
B. The batch size required in order to obtain a shutdown margin of 1.5% delta K/K as determined by a reactivity balance calculation.
C. The maximum batch size setting and commence adding boric acid to the make up tank.
D. The batch size determined by the plant computer boron program to offset the reactivity worth of the four stuck rods.
Answer C is the correct answer. RT-12 instructs the operator to commence emergency boration by setting the batch controller to the maximum batch size (999999 gals) and to begin adding boric acid via the batch controller if a boric acid pump is available.
Therefore, answer C is correct. Answers B and D describe actions to determine the exact batch size after commencing emergency boration. The question is asking for the initial setting of the batch controller. Answer A uses a variety of setpoints associated with emergency boration incorrectly.
References:
1202.012 (Rev 004-01-0), Repetitive Tasks, RT-12, Emergency Boration.
Developed for 1998 RO Exam. Used in 2001 RO/SRO Exam, QID 0005, Rev date 6/17/98 Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
___X___
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
0024.K1.02 0024.K1.02 Importance Rating 3.6 3.9 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 41.8 / 41.10 / 45.3 4
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 5 Given:
- Process Radiation Monitor RI-2236, Nuclear ICW, is in alarm.
- Nuclear ICW flow rate is >3100 gpm
- Local reports of Nuclear ICW Surge Tank overflowing A leak in which of the following components would be capable of causing these conditions?
A. RCP Seal Return Coolers B. Spent Fuel Coolers C. Letdown Coolers D. Pressurizer Sample Cooler Answer C is correct, Letdown Coolers. "C" is correct since it is the only component with the piping size and differential pressure to cause the indications given.
All of the other choices have either small piping size or relatively low differential pressures.
References STM 1-43, rev. 3 ch. 1, Intermediate Cooling Water System, page 27, 28 Developed for 1998 SRO Exam. Used in 2001 RO/SRO Exam.
Training Objective: ANO-1-LP-AO-ICW:9 QID 0008, Rev date:7/9/98 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 4 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
0026.A1.05 0026.A1.05 Importance Rating 3.1 3.1 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6 5
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 6 In which of the following sets of post reactor trip responses is the pressurizer spray valve leaking?
A. RCS temperature is going down, RCS pressure is going down, and pressurizer level is going down.
B. RCS temperature is going up, RCS pressure is going up, and pressurizer level is going up.
C. RCS temperature is stable, RCS pressure is going down, and pressurizer level is going down.
D. RCS temperature is stable, RCS pressure is going down, and pressurizer level is stable.
Answer D is correct, RCS temperature is stable, RCS pressure is going down, and pressurizer level is stable. A leaking PZR spray valve will cause RCS pressure to go down without affecting temperature or level.
Distractors "A", "B", and "C" are combinations of these parameters with one parameter moving in the wrong direction."
References 1203.015, Pressurizer Systems Failure, change 010-03-0, page 11, step "Used in 1999 exam.
Direct from ExamBank, QID# 2228 used in class exam Selected for use in 2002 RO/SRO exam.
Training Objective:ANO-1-LP-RO-AOP:1 QID: 0344, REV DATE: 9-7-99 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 2.5 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000027.G2.1.7 027.G2.1.7 Importance Rating 3.7 4.4 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 43.5/45.12/45.13 6
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 7 Given:
- A reactor trip has occurred.
- RCS pressure is 1800 psig,
- RCS T-cold is 532 degrees F,
- ""A"" OTSG pressure is 650 psig,
- ""B"" OTSG pressure is 970 psig,
- Reactor Building pressure is 6 psig.
Which emergency operating procedure contains the specific steps to mitigate the consequences of this event?
A. ESAS 1202.010 B. Overcooling 1202.003 C. HPI Cooldown 1202.011 D. Loss of Subcooling Margin 1202.002 Answer B is correct, Overcooling 1202.003.
References:
The key to this question is in realizing that T-cold is lower than normal and that one OTSG is <900 psig. Also, RCS pressure is above ESAS actuation pressure but RB pressure is greater than ESAS actuation setpoint. These are three of the five possible entry conditions for 1202.003, the Overcooling EOP, and all of these conditions are indicative of a steam line rupture inside the RB. Also, the floating steps for the Reactor Trip EOP send the user to the Overcooling EOP.1202.010, Rev. 005-00-0, ESAS page 2 Taken from Exam Bank QID # 556, Used in A. Morris 98 RO Re-exam, Used in 2001 RO/SRO Exam. QID:0156, REV DATE:06/28/97 Training Objective: ANO-1-LP-RO-EOP03:7 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
BW/E05.K1.3 BW/E05.K1.3 Importance Rating 3.8 3.8 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 43.5 / 45.13 7
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 8 Given:
Plant startup in progress with reactor power at 5 %.
Condenser E-11A Vacuum Pressure Switch (PS-2850) fails to 0"" Hg.
What effect will this have on Turbine Bypass Valve (TBV) and Atmospheric Dump Valve (ADV) operations?
A. All TBVs will remain open, both ADV isolations will open and both ADV control valves will remain closed.
B. Only TBVs for E-11A will close, both ADV isolations open and
'A' SG ADV will begin controlling 'A' SG pressure.
C. All TBVs will close, both ADV isolations will open and both ADV control valves control at setpoint D. Only TBVs for E-11A will close, both ADV control valves and both ADV isolations will open."
Answer C is correct, All TBVs will close, both ADV isolations will open and both ADV control valves control at setpoint. With only one vacuum pressure switch made up, all condenser TBVs will close, both ADV isolations will open and both ADV control valves will control Steam Generator pressure at a setpoint of 1020 psig.
References 1106.016, Condensate Feedwater and Steam system Operation, change 039-05-0, page 12, step 6.4 "Developed for use on A. Morris 98 RO Re-exam, Selected for use in 2002 RO/SRO exam. AK3.01 Training Objective: ANO-1-LP-AO-MS:13 QID:0229, REV DATE: 11/20/98 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 4 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000051.K3.01 000051.K3.01 Importance Rating 2.8 3.1 8
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 41.5 / 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13 Question 9 Unit 1 has been in a station blackout for 1.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> with battery bank D06 supplying bus D02 with power without a battery charger online for this entire time. If the equipment on bus D02 does NOT change, which one of the following statements describes the batterys discharge rate (in amps) as the battery is expended?
A. The discharge rate will be fairly constant until the design battery capacity is exhausted.
B. The discharge rate will go down steadily until the design battery capacity is exhausted.
C. The discharge rate will go up steadily until the design battery capacity is exhausted.
D. The discharge rate will be fairly constant until the design battery capacity is exhausted and then will rapidly go down.
Answer C The discharge rate will go up steadily until the design battery capacity is exhausted is the correct answer.
References OP 1202.008, Blackout 1203.036 Loss of 125V DC 1107.004 Battery and 125 VDC Distribution Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
___X___
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = unclassified Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000055.A1.05 000055.A1.05 Importance Rating 3.3 3.6 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6 9
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 10 During thunderstorm conditions the unit one reactor trips, and the following conditions are observed:
- NNI X Instrument Power Supply Status lights on C13 are OFF
- NNI Y Instrument Power Supply Status lights on C13 are ON What is the expected position of CV-1235, the pressurizer level control valve?
A. Indeterminate.
B. Failed 0% open.
C. Failed 50% open.
D. Failed 100% open.
Answer C is correct, Failed 50% open. On a loss of NNI X AC and NNI X DC, CV-1235 fails to 50% open; therefore C is the only correct response. If only NNI X DC had been lost then D would be correct.
References SSSTM 1-69, NNI06, 3.3.12 Pressurizer Temperature and Level, PG 20 OP-1203.015 PRESSURIZER SYSTEMS FAILURE OP-1203.047 LOSS OF NNI POWER Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
___X___
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = unclassified Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000057.A2.12 000057.A2.12 Importance Rating 3.5 3.7 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 43.5/45.13 10
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 11 What should the operator's followup actions be if two SW pump strainers are clogged?
A. Verify proper SW bay level on the standby pump and start it.
B. Realign the standby SW pump to the emergency pond and start it.
C. Start the standby pump when the low SW pressure alarm comes in.
D. Realign the cross-ties to separate the standby pump from the pump with clogged strainers and start the standby pump.
Answer B is correct, Realign the standby SW pump to the emergency pond and start it is the correct answer per the AOP. The standby pump's suction is aligned to the ECP, which should be free of the debris causing problems to the running pumps.
Answer "A" is incorrect; the standby pump's suction will still be from the lake which is causing problems for the running pumps. Answer "C" is incorrect; equipment-cooling problems will occur if this action is taken. Answer "D" is incorrect because with two pumps having clogged strainers, this will not be possible.
References 1203.030, Loss of Service Water, change 012-00-0, page 6, step 3.5 "Direct from regular exam bank QID 1899. Selected for use in 2002 RO/SRO exam."
Training Objective: A1LP-RO-AOP:5 QID: 0418, Rev Date: 4/24/2002 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000062.G2.1.23 000062.G2.1.23 Importance Rating 3.9 4.0 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 45.2 / 45.6 11
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 12 A fire occurs in unit 1 control room, forcing evacuation. All actions inside the control room are completed, with RO #1, RO#2, and CRS in the plant utilizing ONLY initial equipment as required. For the conditions below assume there is not enough time to light-off or start back-up pumps or utilize secondary tanks in the EFW system.
The SG levels are maintained at what level with what tank/pump combination:
A. SG levels controlled at 300-320 with P-7B and T41 B. SG levels controlled at 300-320 with P-7A and T41B C. SG levels controlled at 280-300 with P-7A and T41B D. SG levels controlled at 280-300 with P-7B and T41 Answer B is correct, SG levels controlled at 300-320 with P-7A and T41B is correct. P-7B is the motor driven EFW pump and is used only if there is enough time to start and line-up and T41 is the tank used when T41B is exhausted, making A and D incorrect. The correct level is 300-320, making C incorrect.
References 1203.002 Alternate Shutdown page 50, 79.
Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD =
Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000068.K3.07 000068.K3.07 Importance Rating 4.0 4.3 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 41.5 / 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13 12
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 13 What type of occurrence would make it necessary to use AOP 1203.005 (Loss of Rx Bld Integrity)?
A. Failure to perform a LLRT on personnel hatch within 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> after opening during Mode 2 operations.
B. An entry into the RB to repair an inner airlock door component failure during Mode 1 operations.
C. A motor-operated outer containment isolation valve has lost power and has an inner valve that is manually operated and is closed during Mode 5 operations.
D. The interlocks jam on the personnel hatch and both doors are open for < 5 minutes during Mode 2 operations.
Answer D is correct, The interlocks jam on the personnel hatch and both doors are open for < 5 minutes during mode 2 operations. The time given is immaterial, if both doors are inoperable, then a loss of RB integrity exists.
Answer "A" is incorrect, up to 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> are allowed to perform LLRT.
Answer "B" is incorrect, entry is allowed without AOP entry to repair one airlock door provided the other is operable and closed. Answer "C" is incorrect, the requirements for an inoperable containment isolation valve are only during mode 1-4 operations.
References 1203.005, Loss of Reactor Building Integrity, change 010-01-0, page 1, step 1.1.2 Modified from the regular exam bank QID 737, which was used in the 2002 RO/SRO exam.
Training Objective: A1LP-RO-AOP 4.1 QID: 0419, Rev Date:4/24/2002 Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
___X___
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000069.A1.01 000069.A1.01 Importance Rating 3.5 3.7 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6 13
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 14 Initial Conditions:
Unit 1 is in EOP 1202.005 Inadequate Core Cooling procedure, in region 1 of the Figure 4 curves. Heat transfer from RCS to secondary has been restored and the RCS has been returned to saturation conditions with EFW pump P-7A supplying the feedwater to both OTSGs.
The SG pressure should be controlled to:
A. The maximum cooldown rate achievable with EFW pump P-7A and the ADVs /
TBVs B. Prevent the RCS ERV from lifting C. A value higher than the minimum steam pressure for EFW pump P-7A.
D. A value that will allow the OTSG levels to be maintained at 300-320 Answer C is correct, A value higher than the minimum steam pressure for turbine-driven feed pumps, is the correct answer. A is incorrect because the initial conditions put the operator in region 1 with heat transfer in control so cooldown rate is limited to <300F/hr.
B is incorrect because the PORV will lift and should be left open until a 100psid exists between RCS and OTSGs. D is incorrect because level and pressure are not coupled directly and the level to be maintained is 370-410.
References EOP 1202.005 Inadequate Core Cooling TBD 74-1152414-09, Vol 3, III.F-8.
Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD =
Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000074.A2.02 000074.A2.02 Importance Rating 4.3 4.6 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 43.5 / 45.13 14
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 15 Given:
- A LOCA has occurred.
- All RCPs are running.
- SPDS ATOG display indicates "Loss of Subcooling Margin Elapsed Time 00:04:15.
Which of the following actions should be taken?
A. Stop all RCPs.
B. Stop one RCP in each loop.
C. Stop all RCPs except for one RCP in PZR loop.
D. Continue to keep all RCPs running.
Answer B is correct, Stop one RCP in each loop.
Per 1202.002, if subcooling margin is lost and less than two minutes have elapsed, then all RCPs should be stopped. If more than two minutes have elapsed, then one RCP in each loop should be left running. The SPDS indication given shows that 4 minutes and 15 seconds have elapsed since subcooling margin was lost, therefore B is the correct answer.
A would be correct if SPDS indication was 00:01:59 or less.
C is an action taken during a normal shutdown to cold shutdown.
D is totally incorrect, this action could lead to core uncovery with certain size primary system LOCAs.
References 1202.002 (Rev 3) 1105.014 [Rev 6]
Modified from Exam Bank QID # 540 Used in A. Morris 98 RO Re-exam.
Question Source:
Bank #
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Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
BW/E03.K2.2 BW/E03.K2.2 Importance Rating 4.3 4.3 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 41.7 / 45.7 15
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 16 Which of the following combinations of NNI power losses DOES NOT require a manual reactor trip?
A. NNI-Y AC and NNI-Y DC B. NNI-X AC and NNI-X DC C. NNI-Y AC and NNI-X DC D. NNI-X AC and NNI-Y DC Answer A is correct, NNI-Y AC and NNI-Y DC.
References 1203.047, change 000-01-0, page 1-9.
Davis-Besse 1 R 06/10/1996 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD =
Examination Outline Cross-reference:
BW/A02.A1.2 BW/A02.A1.2 Importance Rating 3.4 3.2 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6 16
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 17 Unit one is in a normal startup Procedure. Approach to criticality is in progress.
Reactor power is in the Source Range. The CBOR commences sequential withdrawal of the regulating rods.
The following indications are observed:
- SR count rate rising
- Sustained SUR of 2.5 DPM
- Continued outward rod motion without a command.
The CBOR then attempts to trip the reactor and goes to EOP 1202.001, Reactor Trip.
The Reactor did not trip and CRD Power supply breaker A-501 does not trip. Which condition would prevent the shutdown of the reactor by emergency boration?
A. Loss of power to boric acid pump P39A B. Batch controller stuck on 9999999 C. Loss of Instrument Air to CV-1250 D. Failure of the Aux key on the Boric Acid batch controller Answer C Loss of Instrument air is correct. This will cause the Boric acid batch control outlet valve (essentially the emergency boration valve, CV-1250) to fail shut, preventing emergency boration into the reactor.
A is incorrect because there are two pumps that can be used (P39A and P39B). B is incorrect because 9999999 is the max setting for emergency boration and is the value specified in the EOP for the controller setting. D is incorrect because the Aux Keys are not used on the batch controller.
References 1103.004 Soluble Poison Concentration Control, page 4.
1202.001 Reactor Trip EOP.
Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000001.A2.02 000001.A2.02 Importance Rating 4.2 4.2 Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 43.5 / 45.13 17
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 18 Unit 2 is at 100% power, BOL, Tave and RCS Pressure are in the center of their normal operating bands with all ICS stations in Auto when alarm K07-B3 ASYM ROD RUNBACK IN EFFECT sounds. A runback is now in progress.
RCS Pressure and Tave will (respectively) ____1____, then will ____2____, and finally
___3_____ with no operator action.
A. 1. Go down due to power reduction from rod movement
- 2. Go up because of negative MTC
- 3. Level out inside normal bands.
B. 1. Go up due to power reduction from ICS runback to turbine
- 2. Go down because of positive MTC
- 3. Level out inside normal bands.
C. 1. Go up due to load reduction from ICS runback to turbine
- 2. Go down due to FW demand matching new lower power at 40%
- 3. Level out inside normal bands.
D. 1. Go down due to power reduction from rod movement
- 2. Go up because of negative MTC
- 3. Level out at values slightly lower than normal bands due to new lower power of 40%.
Answer A is correct, Go down due to power reduction, Go up because of negative MTC, level out inside normal bands.
All others are combinations that have incorrect statements in them. MTC is always negative in this range of temperatures, while bands return to normal after this transient. The initial power reduction is caused by the rods driving in due to the runback (turbine load rejection is occurring simultaneously, but is not the cause of Temp/Press decreases).
References 1203.012F, TSB B3.1.4-2, STM 1-3 RCS.
Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000003.A1.06 000003.A1.06 Importance Rating 4.0 4.1 Tier #
1 18
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6 Question 19 Unit 1 of ANO-1 is in post trip recovery conditions. Plant conditions are as follows:
- A reactor trip from 55% rated power has occurred.
- Both OTSG pressures are less than 900 psig and LOWERING.
- The annunciator for K07-C5 MSSV Open is lit.
- An operator reports that a Main Steam Safety Valve (MSSV) near OTSG B is discharging to the atmosphere.
What control/safety equipment should be used FIRST to stabilize the plant IAW EOP 1202.003 OVERCOOLING?
A. Isolate SG B by depressing MSLI manual actuation pushbuttons and ensuring feedwater flow to both OTSGs.
B. Control Turbine Bypass valves (TBVs) to maintain SG pressures and levels constant or slightly rising to stop the overcooling through the MSSV.
C. Isolate BOTH OTSGs by depressing MSLI manual actuation pushbuttons and isolate EFW by closing EFW header isolation valve(s).
D. Control Turbine Bypass valves (TBVs) to quickly reduce SG pressures in an attempt to reseat the MSSV.
Answer D is correct, attempt to reseat the MSSV.
References 1202.003 EOP OVERCOOLING, change 005-00-0, page 3.
1203.012F Annunciator K07 Corrective Action, change 026-04-0, page 25.
Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
BW/E10.A1.1 BW/E10.A1.1 Importance Rating 4.0 3.5 Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6 19
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 20 Given the following plant conditions:
- 100% power
- Condensate Pump P-2A OOS
- K06-E7 "COND PUMP MTR WDG TEMP HI" is in alarm
- AO reports fire in Condensate Pump P-2C motor The CRS instructs the CBOT to trip P-2C.
Which of the following describes the correct response?
A. Trip P-2C, perform immediate actions per 1203.027, Loss of Steam Generator Feed and dispatch the fire brigade per 1203.034, Smoke, Fire or Explosion.
B. Trip P-2C, monitor ICS runback to 40% power and dispatch the fire brigade per 1203.034, Smoke, Fire or Explosion.
C. Trip P-2C and reduce power per 1203.045, Rapid Plant Shutdown, to maintain adequate main feed pump suction pressure and dispatch the fire brigade per 1203.034, Smoke, Fire or Explosion.
D. Trip P-2C then trip the turbine and reactor and carry out immediate actions per 1202.001, Reactor Trip and dispatch the fire brigade per 1203.034, Smoke, Fire or Explosion.
Answer B is correct, Trip P-2C, monitor ICS runback to 40% power and dispatch the fire brigade per 1203.034, Smoke, Fire or Explosion. The plant is designed to survive a loss of 2 condensate pumps. ICS will run the plant back at 50%/min to 40% power (360 MWe). Immediate action for fire is to dispatch the fire brigade, therefore (b) is the correct response. A is actions for a loss of a main feedwater pump which should not occur. C main feed pump suction pressure will go down but recover as ICS runs plant back. D a reactor/turbine trip should not be required.
References 1105.004 Rev 014-00-0, Integrated Control System, page 10 step 6.20 1203.034, Rev. 012-03-0, Smoke, Fire, or Explosion, p. 4 Used in 2001 SRO Exam. Selected for use in 2002 SRO exam.
Training Objective: ANO-1-LP-RO-ICS:12 QID: 0062, Rev date:5/6/2002 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 2 20
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Examination Outline Cross-reference:
BW/A01.K3.2 BW/A01.K3.2 Importance Rating 3.2 3.6 Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 41.5 / 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13 Question 21 Anticipatory rate trips for the Main Turbine in the RPS are provided to:
A. Trip the Reactor when above 43% power in order to limit reactor heat input to the system with no FW flow following a loss of the main feed pumps.
B. Trip the Reactor when above 41% power in those cases where a loss of secondary heat sinks would likely result in a reactor trip based on the primary response to the loss of heat removal capabilities.
C. Trip the Reactor when above 43% power in those cases where a loss of secondary heat sinks would likely result in a reactor trip based on the primary response to the loss of heat removal capabilities.
D. Trip the Reactor when above 41% power in order to limit reactor heat input to the system with no FW flow following a loss of the main feed pumps.
Answer C, Trip the Reactor when above 43% power in those cases where a loss of secondary heat sinks would likely result in a reactor trip based on the primary response to the loss of heat removal capabilities, is the correct answer.
The 41% value is the value that it resets when going down in power (hence B and D incorrect) while the main feed pump(s) have their own ART around 7% power.
References STM 1-63, Rev 5, page 11.
Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
___X___
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = Unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
BW/A04.K2.2 BW/A04.K2.2 Importance Rating 3.3 3.5 21
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 / 45.7 Question 22 IA leak exists on the upper tap of a Pressurizer level transmitter sensing line, causing a PZR steam space leak.
Indicated PZR level will ___________ and actual PZR level will _________.
A. Drop, Drop B. Drop, Rise C. Rise, Drop D. Rise, Rise Answer D is correct, rise, rise, D is correct since a leak on the upper tap will cause the differential pressure to go down on the affected transmitter, thus causing indicated level to rise. Likewise a steam space leak will cause actual level to go up.
Answers A thru C are combinations of the correct answer, and could be correct if the leak was elsewhere.
References 1304.022, Rev. 023-00-0, Unit 1 Pressurizer Level & Temperature Channel Calibration, page 6, 7 Created for 2001 RO/SRO Exam, 11/13/00 by J.Cork.
Training Objective: ANO-1-LP-RO-NNI: 4 Modified from Regular exambank QID #5470.
Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000008.A2.27 000008.A2.27 Importance Rating 2.9 3.2 Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 43.5 /45.13 22
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 23 A Small break LOCA has occurred at Unit 1 and the CBOR has tripped the reactor and the CBOT has tripped the turbine. Both OTSG Pressures are at 895psig with all 4 RCPs running.
The OTSG levels are being maintained with EFW using ___1___ Level instrument(s) with a fill rate of ____2______.
A. 1. Operating Range,
- 2. 2 to 8/min in manual or 280gpm/SG in Auto B. 1. Startup Range
- 2. 2 to 8/min in Auto or 280gpm/SG in manual C. 1. Operating Range
- 2. 2 to 8/min in Auto or 280gpm/SG in manual D. 1. Startup Range
- 2. 2 to 8/min in manual or 280gpm/SG in Auto Answer B is correct, Startup Range, 2 to 8/min in Auto or 280gpm/SG in manual. Operating Range does not cover the 20-40 level required for this EOP/RT. EOP/RT specifies the level and rate and the other three distracters are incorrect combinations of other instruments and manual versus auto modes of control.
Reference 1202.012 Repetitive Tasks, RT 5 for EFW initiation.
Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
__ X___
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD =
Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000009.K2.03 000009.K2.03 Importance Rating 3.0 3.3 Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 / 45.7 23
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 24 Unit 1 is at 100% Power when a medium to large break LOCA occurs. All safety injection equipment starts automatically. The purpose of piggyback mode during recovery from a LOCA is to:
A. Provide higherd reliability when combine with HPI pumps during the LOCA.
B. Provide an alternate source of water when the BWST empties.
C. Provide a low pressure discharge to the RCS when pressure in the primary is
<250psig.
D. Provide a means of transferring to long-term core cooling with the LPI pumps and the RB sump when RCS Pressure is <150psig.
Answer B is correct, Provide an alternate source of water when the BWST empties. Piggyback mode is implicitly designated for use when RCS pressure is >150psig and BWST is low so HPI pumps are required but RB sump water is needed.
References STM 1-05, Rev 11, pages 37-38.
Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
__X____
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD =
Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000011.K2.02 000011.K2.02 Importance Rating 2.6 2.7 Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 / 45.7 24
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 25 Unit 1 at ANO has entered EOP 1202.011 HPI Cooldown and neither OTSG is available. The maximum cooldown rate is ____1_____ and if exceeded then
____2_____ is required.
A. 1. < 100 degrees F
- 2. Lower HPI flow and raise letdown flow B. 1. < 100 degrees F
- 2. Lower HPI flow and lower letdown flow C. 1. < 150 degrees F
- 2. Lower HPI flow and raise letdown flow D. 1. < 150 degrees F
- 2. Lower HPI flow and lower letdown flow Answer B is correct. The others are combinations of wrong distracters such as SG tube differential cooldown rate of 150F and both flows are lowered if cooldown rate is exceeded per EOP.
References EOP 1202.011 HPI Cooldown Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
___X___
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 4 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
BW/E08.A1.3 BW/E08.A1.3 Importance Rating 3.3 3.8 Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6 25
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 26 Given:
- Plant was heating up in Mode 3
- RCS was at 420°F
- HPI pump P-36B is inoperable
- Operating HPI pump P-36A was secured due to a loss of suction event on 1/12/04 at 2330
- It is now 0000 on 1/16/04 What is the required Reactor condition and maximum RCS temperature allowed by the applicable Technical Specification LCO?
A. Less than or equal to 5% power, less than or equal to 525°F B. Less than or equal to 0.99 Keff, less than or equal to 525°F C. Less than or equal to 0.99 Keff, less than or equal to 350°F D. Less than or equal to 0.99 Keff, less than or equal to 280°F Answer C is correct, Less than or equal to 0.99 Keff, less than or equal to 350°F.
References Technical Specification 3.5.2 QID: 0469, Not used.
Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = unclassified Examination Outline Cross-reference:
0022.G2.1.12 0022.G2.1.12 Importance Rating 2.9 4.0 Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 43.2 / 43.5 / 45.3 26
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 27 An outage is in progress with the following conditions:
- The RCS is drained to 371.5 feet as indicated by RCS hot leg level.
- Decay heat removal flow becomes erratic.
- Indicated decay heat removal flow is ~2500 gpm.
Which ONE of the following actions is correct?
A. Reduce decay heat removal flow until flow has stablized.
B. Stop the operating decay heat removal pump.
C. Raise RCS level.
D. Raise decay heat removal flow.
Answer A is correct, Reduce decay heat removal flow until flow has stablized. With erratic flow, actions should be taken to stabilize the flow by throttling flow back. B is incorrect.
This is action for a loss of flow not erratic flow. C is incorrect. Although this may be necessary in the long term, the immediate response to the condition is to reduce DH flow. D is incorrect. This will make the condition worse instead of better."
References 1203.028, Loss of Decay Heat Removal, change 016-02-0, page 17, step 3.2. Taken from Exam Bank QID # 3070. Used in A. Morris 98 RO Re-exam. Selected for 2002 RO/SRO exam.
Training Objective: ANO-1-LP-RO-DHR:23 QID: 0164, Rev Date: 05/03/91 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000025.K1.01 000025.K1.01 Importance Rating 3.9 4.3 Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 41.8 / 41.10 / 45.3 27
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 28 Which one of the following describes the operation of the AMSAC (ATWS Mitigation Safety Actuation Circuit) and the DSS (Diverse Scram System) during an ATWS with a complete loss of Main Feedwater?
AMSAC:
A. Trips the main turbine while DSS trips the regulating rods and starts the EFW pumps.
B. Trips the regulating rods while DSS trips the main turbine and starts EFW pumps.
C. Trips the main turbine and starts the EFW pumps while DSS trips the regulating rods.
D. Starts the EFW pumps and trips the regulating rods while DSS trips the main turbine.
Answer C, Trips the main turbine and starts the EFW pumps while DSS trips the regulating rods, is the correct answer. The other distracters are incorrect combinations of the 4 items that both sub-systems due as parts of DROPS.
References STM 1-59, Rev 1, page 9-10.
Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = unclassified Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000029.K2.06 000029.K2.06 Importance Rating 2.9 3.1 Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 / 45.7 28
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 29 The primary reason the Technical Specifications require one channel of SR NI to be OPERABLE is:
A. 1. To provide for primary power indication at 1E-8 amp on IR NI
- 2. To provide the primary means for detecting reactivity transients initiated when RPS is not OPERABLE and would require operator action.
B. 1. To provide for primary power indication at 1E-10 amp on IR NI
- 2. To provide the primary means for detecting reactivity transients initiated at full power changes that trigger operator actions to anticipate RPS activation.
C. 1. To provide primary power indication at 1E-8 amp on IR NI
- 2. To provide the primary means for detecting reactivity transients initiated at full power changes that trigger operator actions to anticipate RPS activation.
D. 1. To provide primary power indication at 1E-10 amp on IR NI
- 2. To provide the primary means for detecting reactivity transients initiated when RPS is not OPERABLE and would require operator action.
Answer D To provide primary power indication at 1E-10 amp on IR NI and is the primary means for detecting reactivity changes and triggering operator actions to respond to reactivity transients initiated from conditions in which the Reactor Protection System (RPS) is not required to be OPERABLE, is correct. 1E-8 power is within range for IR NI making answers A and C incorrect. B is incorrect because SR is not used at full power for reactivity transients since power range detectors provide this function.
References TSB 3.3.9 Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
___X___
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD =
Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000032.K3.02 000032.K3.02 Importance Rating 3.7 4.1 Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 41.5 / 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13 29
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 30 AOP (1203.023) has been entered for a tube leak because of alarms on:
SG-A N-16 AVG Leakrate GPM (SGALRGPM)
SG-A N-16 Leakrate ROC (Rate of Change) GPM/HR (SGAROC1)
SG-A N-16 AVG Leakrate GPM (SGALRGPM) is measuring 11 gpm. The required immediate actions to take are:
A. Enter EOP for tube rupture (1203.006) because >1gpm B. Continue in AOP 1203.023, attachment 1, to use correlation table for N-16 since power is less than 100% and N-16 detectors are normally set to Gross mode.
C. Continue in AOP 1203.023, attachment 1 to use PMS indications for leak rate and rate of change.
D. Enter EOP for tube rupture, 1203.006 because > 10 gpm.
Answer D Enter EOP for Tube Rupture (1203.006) because > 10 gpm, is the correct answer.
This is an entry condition for the EOP when at power without a reactor trip. A is incorrect because a reactor trip has not occurred (with 1gpm leak rate), while B and C are incorrect because the AOP clearly states that tube leaks are defined as < 10 gpm and when above this value to enter the EOP 1203.006 for Tube Rupture.
References EOP Tube Rupture (1203.006)-entry conditions AOP Small Steam Generator Tube Leaks (1203.023)-entry conditions Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
___X___
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X___
Comprehension or Analysis LOD =
Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000037.A2.06 000037.A2.06 Importance Rating 4.3 4.5 Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 43.5 / 45.13 30
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 31 Unit 1 is at 100% power when a tube rupture is diagnosed from alarms and feed/level conditions for B OTSG. The EOP has been entered and you are designated by the CRS to check the core cooling monitor for core exit temperatures. The CET average is in an alarm state.
The alarm value is ___1____ and it is based on the average of ____2_____.
A. 1. The CET average of 770F
B. 1. The CET average of 770F
- 2. All CET inputs EXCEPT the highest, lowest, and any that has a quality other than GOOD or HIGH.
C. 1. The CET average of 670F
- 2. All CET inputs EXCEPT the highest, lowest, and any that has a quality other than GOOD or HIGH.
D. 1. The CET average of 670F
Answer C is correct, The CET average of 670F, All CET inputs EXCEPT the highest, lowest, and any that has a quality other than GOOD or HIGH. The temperature setpoint is fundamental knowledge, making A and B incorrect. CET signal quality status is based on temperatures going high, so values excluded from the average should never be those that are high (ie only low and other than good quality), making D incorrect.
Reference 1105.008 Inadequate Core Cooling Monitor and Display, change 012-05-0.
Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD =
Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000038.A1.08 000038.A1.08 Importance Rating 3.7 3.8 Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6 31
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 32 Given:
- Loss of all Feedwater
- HPI core cooling started What indicates adequate HPI core cooling?
A. CET temperatures stable after 100 minutes.
B. T-cold tracking associated SG T-sat.
C. T-hot tracking CET temperatures.
D. T-hot/T-cold differential temperature dropping.
Answer A CET temperatures stable after 100 minutes.
""A" is correct since the only criteria for evaluation of adequacy of core cooling via HPI is a go down in CET temps. "B", "C",
and "D" are individual indications of adequate primary to secondary heat transfer.
References 1202.004 Rev 3 EOP Technical Bases Document, 074-1152414, Rev. 8 Developed for 1999 exam.
Training Objectives: ANO-1-LP-RO-EOP04: 6 QID: 0335, Rev Date: 9-7-99 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2.5 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
BW/E04. A1.3 BW/E04. A1.3 Importance Rating 3.6 3.8 Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6 32
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 33 During a LOOP at Unit 1 of ANO-1, The alarm is in for K01-D1, EDG 1 Not AVAILABLE. The report to the CRS is that engine DC control power was lost to EDG
- 1.
What will be the expected effect on Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) #1 following a loss of engine DC control power?
The EDG will...
A. NOT start automatically and CANNOT be started manually B. start and run at idle speed but will NOT accelerate to run speed.
C. NOT start automatically but may be started manually.
D. start and run at load rpm speed but CANNOT be placed on its associated 4160 VAC Essential Bus.
Answer C NOT start automatically but may be started manually. The EDG can be started manually by mechanically overriding the governor run solenoid.
Reference STM 1-31, rev 8, page 18.
Taken from/modified Davis-Besse 1 08/03/1998 Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
___X___
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000058.K3.01 000058.K3.01 Importance Rating 3.4 3.7 Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 41.5, 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.1 33
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 34 What is the lowest instrument air pressure that Unit 1 and Unit 2 instrument air systems can remain cross-connected?
A. 80 psig B. 60 psig C. 55 psig D. 35 psig Answer B 60 psig, is the correct value. "A" is the value at which Breathing Air can be cross-connected with IA. "C" is the value at which the TBV's will fail closed. "D" is the value at which IA is considered lost and the Rx should be tripped."
References 1203.024 Rev 9 PC-2 "Used in 1999 exam. Direct from Exam Bank, QID# 763 used in class exam" Training Objectives: A1LP-RO-FH: 1.4 QID: 0346, Rev date: 9-7-99 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2.5 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000065.K3.04 000065.K3.04 Importance Rating 3.0 3.2 Tier #
1 Group #
3 CFR references 41.5 / 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13 34
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 35 IN reference to the following excerpt from step 4 B.2 of EOP 1202.004, Overheating:
- 4. IF any of the following criteria is met, THEN perform the following, while continuing attempts to restore secondary feed:
- ERV opens
- RCS press 2450 psig
- 1) Record current time for reference in step 10:_______
B. IF no HPI pumps are available, THEN perform the following:
- 1) IF SCM is adequate, THEN trip the running RCP.
- 2) Manually cycle ERV (PSV-1000) as follows, while continuing with this procedure:
a) Open ERV.
b) WHEN either of the following criteria is met, THEN place ERV in AUTO:
- SCM approaches minimum adequate c) WHEN RCS press reaches 2400 psig OR approaches NDTT Limit on Figure 3,THEN repeat steps a) and b) above.
Which ONE of the following describes the reason for MANUALLY operating the ERV instead of relying on automatic operation?
A. Automatic operation would result in more cycles on the ERV, which increases the chances of ERV failure.
B. Manual operation allows the pressure of the RCS to be reduced faster.
C. Automatic operation would result in over pressurization of the Quench Tank (T-42).
D. Manual operation precludes challenging the safety function of the ERV.
Answer A is correct, Automatic operation would result in more cycles on the ERV, which increases the chances of ERV failure.
35
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM References GEOG bases 74-1152414-09, Vol 2, part III.C, pages 1-37, revision 3/31/2000.
1202.004, EOP for Overheating.
Crystal River, Unit 3, Date : 03/22/1996 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD=4 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
BW/E13. K2.1 BW/E13. K2.1 Importance Rating 3.6 3.4 Tier #
1 Group #
3 CFR references 41.7 / 45.7 Question 36 Given:
LOCA in progress with Degraded Power conditions EDG #2 did NOT start RCS pressure stabilized at 140 psig SCM is 5 degrees With these accident conditions, which of the following would pose the greatest challenge to core cooling?
A. EDG #1 critical trouble alarm B. Tube Leak in the 'A' Steam Generator C. BWST level at 15 feet D. P-35A Reactor Building, Spray Pump trip Answer A is correct, EDG #1 critical trouble alarm.
References STM 1-31, EDG, Rev 8.
AOP 1203.012A, Annunciator K01 Corrective Actions, change 034-01-0.
EDG OP 1104.036, change 041-09-0.
ANO, Unit 1 RO exam 12/10/1998 36
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question Source:
Bank #
__X____
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
BW/A05.A1.3 BW/A05.A1.3 Importance Rating 3.7 3.7 Tier #
1 Group #
3 CFR references 41.7,/ 45.5, 45.6 Question 37 Given:
- Power escalation to 60% power is in progress.
- Current reactor power is 40%.
- There are 3 RCPs in service.
- "A" RCP is out of service due to an electrical fault in breaker H-11 (Reactor Coolant Pump P-32A).
Which of the following conditions would cause an automatic reactor trip?
A. Annunciator "RCP TRIP" (K08-A6) is clear, RCS flow is lowering and "C" RCP amperage is zero on SPDS.
B. Annunciator "RCP TRIP" (K08-A6) is in alarm, RCS flow is lowering and "H2 L.O.
RELAY TRIP" (K02-A5) in alarm.
C. Breaker B-7146 (ICW Booster Pump P-114A) trips open and P-114B fails to auto start causing a loss of RCP Seal Cooling.
D. Breaker H-21 (Reactor Coolant Pump P-32D) trips open due to an over-current condition causing a loss of the "D" RCP."
Answer B is correct, Annunciator "RCP TRIP" (K08-A6) is in alarm, RCS flow is lowering and "H2 L.O. RELAY TRIP" (K02-A5) in alarm. The indications are for a loss of H2 bus which leaves only one RCP running at power. RPS will trip if no RCPs are running in a loop when greater than 0% power.
A is incorrect because indications are of a sheared shaft which requires a manual reactor trip. C is incorrect because a loss of seal cooling alone will not cause a reactor trip. D is incorrect because a loss of ""D"" RCP would result in one RCP in each loop with reactor power <55% - no automatic reactor trip will result."
37
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM References 1203.012G, Rev. 032-03-0, Annunciator K08 Corrective Action, page 35 1105.001, Rev. 019-03-0, NI & RPS Operating Procedure, step 6.1, page 8" Developed for 1998 RO Exam. Modified for use in 2002 RO/SRO exam. QID: 0002.
Training Objectives: ANO-1-LP-RO-AOP: 4.1 Question Source:
Bank #
__X____
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
003.K2.01 003.K2.01 Importance Rating 3.1 3.1 Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 41.7,/ 45.5, 45.6 Question 38 For ANO Unit 1, The boron concentration is low in the RCS. The SRO directs you to create a 6000 ppmB batch of boric acid in the Boric Acid Makeup Tank (BMAT) in order to dump to the Boric Acid Addition Tanks (BAAT) using procedure 1104.003, Chemical Addition. A portion of section 7 of this Procedure, Boric Acid Mix Tank (T-7) Operation is shown below:
7.3 Add water to BAMT as follows:
7.3.1 Verify a Condensate Transfer Pump (P-9A or P-9B) in service.
7.3.2 Verify BA Mix Tank Outlet (CA-63) closed.
7.3.3 Open Condensate Transfer Supply to BAMT (CS-45).
7.3.4 When BAMT is filled to required level for the desired batch concentration, close CS-45.
7.4 Start BAMT agitator.
7.5 Place BAMT Heater (M-33) in AUTO and heat water to >10°F above crystallization temperature per Exhibit B of this procedure for Unit 1, or higher if directed by Unit 2 Operations, when mixing for Unit 2.
7.6 Unless adding follow-up batch of DI water, add barrel of boric acid.
Adding additional DI water, as specified in step 7.6 above, would be required because:
38
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM A. At this concentration dilution is recommended to prevent exceeding the heat trace capability.
B. At this concentration a second batch must be added because the volume of water exceeds the capacity of the BAMT.
C. To restore BMAT level when the solution equilibrates at the new higher temperature.
D. To zero out the actual level indication on the BMAT (zero on the remote indicator does not actually correspond to empty).
Answer B is correct, At this concentration a second batch must be added because the volume of water exceeds the capacity of the BAMT. A is incorrect, the actual concentration where heat trace capability is exceeded is 12,250ppmB. C is incorrect because during heating the level may actually go up some. D is incorrect because although partly true, water is not added to correct for this issue.
References 1104.003, Chemical Addition, change 034-00-0, page 8-11.
Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
___X___
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
004.K1.16 004.K1.16 Importance Rating 3.3 3.5 Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8 39
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 39 The plant is operating at 100% power near EOL.
During pre-outage scaffolding construction in Lower North Piping Room (LNPR), the instrument air line to the following valves has been severed:
- CV-1235, Pressurizer Level Control
- CV-1222, Letdown Orifice Block
- CV-1223, Letdown Orifice Bypass
- CV-1207, RCP Seals Total Injection Flow With no operator action, which of the following describes the expected system response?
A. Pressurizer level will rise continuously.
B. Pressurizer level will rise to a higher steady state value.
C. Pressurizer level will drop continuously.
D. Pressurizer level will drop to a lower steady state value.
Answer A Pressurizer level will rise continuously. CV-1235 and CV-1222 fail as-is on a loss of instrument air. CV-1223 fails closed and CV-1207 fails open on a loss of instrument air.
This will result in lower letdown flow and higher seal injection flow resulting in PZR level to continuously rise.
All other answers are incorrect and could be chosen if candidate fails to recall failure modes.
References 1203.024, Loss of Instrument Air, change 010-05-0, page 13, Attachment A Developed for use in A. Morris 98 RO Re-exam, Modified for use in 2002 RO/SRO exam.
Training Objectives: A1LP-RO-MU:10 QID: 0189, Rev date: 5/6/2002 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X___
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
004.K3.05 004.K3.05 Importance Rating 3.8 4.2 40
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 41.7 / 45.6 Question 40 Unit 1 Plant Conditions:
- Reactor has tripped.
- The RS1 bus vital power supply breaker trips
- RCS pressure is 1200 psig, decreasing slowly.
- RB pressure is 4.4 psig, and increasing slowly.
Which ONE of the following describes the Engineered Safeguards Channels that are expected to actuate?
ANALOG CHANNELS... / DIGITAL CHANNELS...
A....1, 2, and 3 /...2, 4, 6 B....2 and 3 /...1 and 2 C.... 2 and 3 /...5 and 6 D.... 1, 2, and 3 /...1,3,5 Answer A is correct, Analog Channels 1, 2, and 3 with Digital channels 2, 4, and 6.
References STM 1-65, Rev 3, page 5, 8, and 16.
Oconee 1 R 12/07/1998 Question Source:
Bank #
__X____
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X___
LOD = unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
013.K2.01 013.K2.01 Importance Rating 3.6 3.8 Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 41.7 41
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 41 An OTSG tube leak has occurred. The plant has been shutdown and a cooldown is in progress. The plant is operating at 100% power. The normal and backup power supplies have failed and inverter Y24 is deenergized.
After Y24 is reenergized, is a reset required on the analog and digital channels for ESAS?
A. Analog - yes; digital - yes B. Analog - yes; digital - no C. Analog - no; digital - yes D. Analog - no; digital - no Answer D Analog - no; digital - no Notes:
Y-24 powers RS-4 which does not power any of the ESAS channels, therefore the correct answer is "D".
References 1105.003, Rev. 011-01-0 Training Objective: A1LP-RO-ESAS:3 QID: 0479, Rev date: 10/7/2000 Direct from regular exambank QID#3765 for 2004 RO/SRO exam Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 4 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
013.K4.06 013.K4.06 Importance Rating 4.0 4.3 Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 41.7 42
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 42 The plant is at 80% power. The NI SASS mismatch alarm is bypassed due to a mismatch.
What would be the predicted plant response if NI-6 failed to 125%?
A. Control rods move inward, feedwater flows go up.
B. Control rods move inward, feedwater flows do down.
C. Control rods move outward, feedwater flows go up.
D. Control rods move outward, feedwater flow go down.
Answer A Control rods move inward, feedwater flows go up. The mismatch alarm disables the SASS module automatic operation. When NI-6 fails to 125% power, ICS will see NI-6 as the input power. ICS will generate an error to drive rods in. AT the same time a cross-limit is generated to keep feedwater balanced with reactor power.
Feedwater will go up.
Therefore, "B", "C", and "D" are incorrect.
References STM 1-64, Integrated Control System, rev 6, page 33, step 2.6.1, page 43, step 2.7 Used in 1999 exam.
Direct from ExamBank, QID# 3723, Selected for 2002 RO exam.
Training Objectives: ANO-1-LP-RO-NI: 10 QID: 0299, Rev date: 9-5-99 Question Source:
Bank #
__X____
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X___
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
015.K3.04 015.K3.04 Importance Rating 3.4 4.0 Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 41.7 /45.6 43
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 43 Which ONE of the following is an indication that Intermediate Range NI-3 is OVER-compensated, during a reactor startup?
A. NI-1 and 2 read 3 E+4 cpsand NI-3 reads 8 E-11 amps B. NI-3 reads 5 E-11 ampsand NI-4 is not on scale C. NI-3 reads 3 E-6 amps..and NI-4 reads 8 E-7 amps D. NI-1 and 2 read 8 E+5 cpsand NI-3 reads 2 E-11 amps Answer D is correct, NI-1 and 2 read 8 E+5 cpsand NI-3 reads 2 E-11 amps.
References STM 1-67, Rev 7.
Taken from INPO bank, Davis-Besse, 07/08/1997 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
015.K5.02 015.K5.02 Importance Rating 2.7 2.9 Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 41.7 / 45.7 44
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 44 Which inputs are supplied to the ICCMDS subcooled margin indication?
A. Core Exit Thermocouple and narrow range pressure (1700-2500 psig).
B. Hot Leg Temperature and narrow range pressure (1700-2500 psig).
C. Core Exit Thermocouple and wide range pressure (0-3000 psig).
D. Hot Leg Temperature and wide range pressure (0-3000 psig).
Answer C Core Exit Thermocouple and wide range pressure (0-3000 psig), is the correct answer.
References 1105.008 Rev. 012-05-0 New, QID#2304 for 2004 RO/SRO exam Training Objectives: A1LP-RO-NNI: 25 Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
___X___
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
017.K4.01 017.K4.01 Importance Rating 3.4 3.7 Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 41.7 45
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 45 Given:
- Plant is at 100% power
- All CETs indicate 602 °F ICC train ""B"" Core Exit Thermocouple TE-1152 fails to 900 °F.
What is the effect of this failure?
A. Core Exit Thermocouple TE-1152 will be removed from the average.
B. ICC Core Exit Thermocouple indication will go to ~627 °F.
C. "TRAIN B SUBCLG MARG LO" annunciator will alarm.
D. "B" SPDS will switch from ATOG to the ICC display.
Answer A Core Exit Thermocouple TE-1152 will be removed from the average. CETs are averaged together to generate alarms, indication, or action. Therefore, "B", "C", and "D" are incorrect and "A" is correct since ICCMDS will determine that TE-1152 is unreliable and remove it from the average.
References 1105.008 Rev 11 Developed for 1999 exam.
Training Objectives: ANO-1-LP-RO-NNI: 25 QID: 0240, Rev date: 8-17-99 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X___
LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
017.K6.01 017.K6.01 Importance Rating 2.7 3.0 Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 41.7 /45.7 46
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 46 A 5 square foot LOCA hot leg break has occurred.
Offsite power has also been lost.
- 1 EDG will not start.
All other ES systems actuate properly.
Will Reactor Building cooling be sufficient to prevent exceeding Reactor Building design limits?
A. Yes, one Spray train and one Emergency Cooling unit provides 100% cooling.
B. No, it takes two Spray trains to provide 100% cooling.
C. Yes, one Emergency Cooling unit will provide 100% cooling.
D. No, two Spray trains and two Emergency Cooling units provide 100% cooling.
Answer:
A. Yes, one Spray train and one Emergency Cooling unit provides 100% cooling.
Notes:
It takes any of the following combinations to provide 100% RB cooling:
Both trains of RB Spray Both Emergency Cooling units One RB Spray train and one Emergency Cooling unit.
The only answer that contains one of the above combinations considering the given conditions (only one ES train available) is "A", all other answers contain incorrect combinations or combinations that are not available with the conditions.
References T.S. 3.6.5.1 STM 1-08, Rev. 7, 2.7 Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
___X___
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
022.A1.01 022.A1.01 Importance Rating 3.6 3.7 Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 41.5 / 45.5 47
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 47 Which of the following Reactor Building parameters are trended on the Safety Parameter Display System (SPDS) primary graphic display for Reactor Building Conditions (RB)?
A. RB pressure, RCS pressure, RB flood level B. RB temperature, RB pressure, RB hydrogen concentration C. RB radiation levels, RB pressure, RB humidity D. RB flood level, RCS hot leg level, hydrogen concentration Answer B RB temperature, RB pressure, RB hydrogen concentration is the only correct combination of parameters. A and D are incorrect because no RCS parameters are displayed. C is incorrect because the display does not include RB humidity.
References 1105.014 (Rev 6, PC-1), Safety Parameter Display System Developed for the 1998 SRO exam.
Training Objectives: AA51002-041 10 QID: 0061, Rev date: 7/12/98 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X___
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
022.A4.05 022.A4.05 Importance Rating 3.8 3.8 Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 41.7 /45.5 to 45.8 48
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 48 Given the following plant conditions:
- 100% power
- Condensate Pumps P-2A and P-2C are in service
- Startup Xfmr #2 Feed to A1 (A-111) is inadvertently closed.
What is the expected condensate pump response and necessary operator response to this condition?
A. Condensate Pump P-2A will trip, P-2B will auto start; verify MFW pump suction pressure recovers to normal.
B. Condensate Pump Start/Stop responses are not affected by Startup Transformer operations; no operator action is required.
C. Condensate Pump P-2C will trip leaving only P-2A running; trip reactor and carry out immediate actions of 1202.001, Reactor Trip.
D. Heater Drain Pump P-8A will trip causing P-2B to auto start; verify plant runs back to 40% of 902 MWe.
Answer C Condensate Pump P-2C will trip leaving only P-2A running; trip reactor and carry out immediate actions of 1202.001, Reactor Trip is correct.
B is incorrect. Startup #1 transformer does not affect the start/stop responses of the condensate pump, however, load shed features of Startup #2 transformer do affect the start/stop features of the condensate pumps. A is incorrect. Condensate pump P-2A remains in service if both P-2A and P-2C are running. Also the standby condensate pump will not auto start on load shed. D is incorrect. P-8A will trip due to load shed, however, the standby condensate pump will not auto start on load shed."
References STM1-32 Developed for A. Morris 98 RO Re-exam Training Objective: AA51002-007 26 QID: 0218, Rev date: 11/18/98 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X___
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM K/A #
056.A2.04 056.A2.04 Importance Rating 2.6 2.8 Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13 Question 49 Given:
- 100% power
- ICS in full automatic The CBOR places the ICS Delta T-Cold Hand Auto Station meter selection switch in "POS" (position). The meter reads 54%. What does this mean in terms of ICS control of main feed water?
A. The average of feedwater loop A and feedwater loop B demand is 54%.
B. Feedwater loop B demand is greater than feedwater loop A demand.
C. The feedwater loop B demand is being boosted by a 4 °F Delta T-Cold error.
D. Feedwater loop A demand is greater than feedwater loop B demand.
Answer D Feedwater loop A demand is greater than feedwater loop B demand. A reading
>50% indicates that loop A demand is > loop B demand, therefore D is the correct response.
A is incorrect because the meter does not indicate average demand, B is an opposite response, C applies to looking at the MV reading (for which it would still be incorrect).
References STM 1-64, Rev. 6, page 35, step 2.6.2.
Developed for the 1998 RO/SRO Exam.
Selected for use in 2002 RO/SRO exam.
Training Objectives: ANO-1-LP-RO-ICS 11 QID: 0063, Rev date: 7/12/98 Question Source:
Bank #
__X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X___
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM K/A #
059.A3.07 059.A3.07 Importance Rating 3.4 3.5 Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 41.7 / 45.5 Question 50 Which of the following contains an OTSG that will have its EFW flowpath ISOLATED by EFIC vector module?
A. "A" = 585 psig, "B" = 495 psig B. "A" = 620 psig, "B" = 582 psig C. "A" = 475 psig, "B" = 565 psig D. "A" = 495 psig, "B" = 590 psig Answer:
B. "A" = 620 psig, "B" = 582 psig Notes:
EFIC Vector isolation occurs only when an OTSG is less than 600 psig or if both are less than 600, one OTSG is 100 psig less than the other. Only answer "B" contains conditions warranting Vector isolation.
References 1105.005, Rev. 027-00-0 New, QID #1530 for use in 2004 RO/SRO exam.
Training Objective: A1LP-RO-EFIC:46 Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
___X___
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
061.A3.04 061.A3.04 Importance Rating 4.1 4.2 Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 41.7 / 45.5 51
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 51 Which of the following must be performed to release T-16A contents with the Liquid Radwaste Process Monitor (RI-4642) inoperable?
A. estimate radiation level every four hours during the release B. have an independent sample obtained and analyzed prior to release C. estimate flow rate at least once every three hours during release D. T-16A can NOT be released if RI-4642 is inoperable Answer B have an independent sample obtained and analyzed prior to release Answer "B" contains the requirement from Att. B1 of 1104.020. The other answers are incorrect.
References 1104.020, Rev. 041-03-0, Att. B1, step 2.8 Modified regular exambank QID #2765 for use in 2004 RO/SRO exam.
Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
___X___
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
068.G2.1.23 068.G2.1.23 Importance Rating 3.9 4.0 Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 45.2 / 45.6 52
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 52 Given:
- C-119A H2/O2 Analyzer is OOS with repairs on parts hold
- C-119 H2/O2 Analyzer is aligned to T-17
- T-18C Waste Gas Decay Tank is in service Chemistry has requested Operations to vent the makeup tank to raise hydrogen purity.
Which of the following best describes the proper H2/O2 Analyzer system operation during the makeup tank venting operations?
A. Makeup tank venting is not allowed unless both H2/O2 Analyzers are operable in accordance with Technical Specifications.
B. Keep C119 aligned to T-17 and commence makeup tank venting operations, align C119 to T-18C if high H2/O2 concentrations occur.
C. Align C119 to T-18C and commence makeup tank venting operations while monitoring for high H2/O2 concentrations.
D. Keep C119 aligned to T-17 and have chemistry sample T-18C every 15 mins when venting the makeup tank.
Answer:
B Keep C119 aligned to T-17 and commence makeup tank venting operations, align C119 to T-18C if high H2/O2 concentrations occur.
Notes:
Operating procedure requires at least one analyzer operable to continuously monitor H2/O2 concentrations. 1104.010, Hydrogen-Oxygen Analyzer System, limits and precautions state: If only one analyzer is operable, it shall monitor T-17 except when H2/O2 concentrations in T-17 reaches region B of Attachment A during compressor operation, then it shall monitor waste gas decay tank being filled.
References 1203.010, Rev. 007-03-0, 3.2.4 Caution History:
Developed for 1998 RO/SRO Exam.
Selected for use in 2004 RO/SRO exams.
Training Objectives: A1LP-WCO-GZ01:12 QID: 0067, rev date: 7/13/98 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 53
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
071.A2.02 071.A2.02 Importance Rating 3.3 3.6 Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13 Question 53 How is it determined which pressurizer relief valve is in alarm?
A. The relief valve position indicator light on C-486 shows which PSV is open.
B. The K09 control room annunciator identifies which relief valve is open.
C. Red light on relief monitor on C-486 will flash on the relief that is open.
D. By checking the analog position indication and Hi-alarm lights on panel C-486.
Answer D By checking the analog position ind. and Hi-alarm lights on panel C-486.
"A" is incorrect because a valve open light does not exist on C-486. "B" is incorrect because a common annunciator is used for all pressurizer relief valves."C" is incorrect because the high alarm will be on for the relief valve that is open.
References 1105.013 Rev 6, 1203.012H Rev 029-02-0 Used in 1999 exam. Direct from ExamBank, QID# 1848 used in class exam Training Objectives: ANO-1-LP-RO-RCS: 17 QID: 0301, Rev Date: 9-5-99 Question Source:
Bank #
__X____
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
002.K6.12 002.K6.12 Importance Rating 3.0 3.5 Tier #
2 Group #
2 54
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM CFR references 41.7 / 45.7 Question 54 The RCS is solid following an accident.
RCS pressure = 1700 psig.
RCS temperature is stable.
The operators bump an RCP and RCS temperature cooled down 4 degrees F in one minute.
How will RCS pressure respond to this transient?
A. Rise initially and then drop to 1600 psig.
B. Remain stable due to PZR heater operation.
C. Drop below the ESAS actuation setpoint.
D. Rise to greater than 1800 psig.
Answer C Drop below the ESAS actuation setpoint.
Notes:
When solid a 1 degree temperature change can cause a 100 psig pressure change, therefore on a 4 degree temperature drop, pressure will drop 400 psig. Thus the only correct answer is "c", where pressure drops below 1590 psig.
References 1202.011, Rev. 004-02-0, step 17.B History:
New for 2004 RO exam Training Objectives: A1LP-RO-EOP02:10 QID: 0471, Rev Date: 10/06/20 Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
___X___
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
006.K5.05 006.K5.05 Importance Rating 3.4 3.8 Tier #
2 55
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Group #
2 CFR references 41.5 / 45.7 Question 55 The following conditions at ANO Unit 1 exist:
A Reactor trip from 80% power occurred with a malfunction the Rapid Feedwater Reduction circuitry (RFRC). This caused the main Feedwater to overfeed both OTSGs.
Heater Bank 3 is in Auto.
No other operator actions are taken.
Heater Bank 3 does not energize because:
A. The pressurizer spray valve is open.
B. The PORV is open.
C. AN insurge from the pressurizer has occurred.
D. An outsurge from the pressurizer has occurred.
Answer D An outsurge from the pressurizer has occurred (the low level interlock at 55 is met).
References STM 1-03, Rev 9, page 12-13.
Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
__X____
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
010.K4.02 010.K4.02 Importance Rating 3.8 4.1 Tier #
2 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 56
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 56 Initial conditions at Unit 1 of ANO-1.
-Unit 1 is at 100% power
-SASS is in manual Which of the following statements describe the plant response to the controlling pressurizer level channel failing low (assume no operator action)?
The pressurizer level control valve:
A. Position REMAINS THE SAME, actual pressurizer level and RCS pressure GOES UP B. Opens, actual pressurizer level and RCS pressure GOES UP C. Position REMAINS THE SAME, actual pressurizer level and RCS pressure GOES DOWN D. Closes, actual pressurizer level GOES DOWN and pressurizer heaters turn off Answer B Opens, actual pressurizer level and RCS pressure GOES UP.
References STM 1-03, rev 9, page 11-14.
From INPO BW bank, Davis-Besse June 1996, modified stem and distractors to fit ANO application.
Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
___X___
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
011.K3.02 011.K3.02 Importance Rating 3.5 3.7 Tier #
2 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 / 45.6 57
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 57 Given:
-"A" RPS has been placed in Channel Bypass due to RCS pressure transmitter (PT-1021) failed low.
-Plant is at 100% power and stable
-A lightning strike by the Reactor Building has resulted in the trip of 120V Vital AC distribution panel RS-3.
What is the status of the reactor and the RPS following the trip of RS-3?
A. Reactor is at 100% power with one channel of RPS tripped B. Reactor has tripped due to 1 channel of RPS tripped C. Reactor has tripped due to 2 channels of RPS tripped D. Reactor is at 100% power with no RPS channels tripped.
Answer A is the correct answer, Reactor is at 100% power with one channel of RPS tripped.
References STM 1-63, RPS, REV 5, page 16.
ANO, Unit 1 R 12/10/1998 Question Source:
Bank #
__X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
012.K2.01 012.K2.01 Importance Rating 3.3 3.7 Tier #
2 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 58
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 58 A Large break LOCA has been in progress for 1 minute with RCS pressure at 100 psig.
RB pressure is 48 psig and rising. The annunciator K-11-C6, RB Spray P35A ES Failure is in alarm.
What are the immediate concern(s)?
A. P35A spray pump has a high motor winding temperature >300 degrees F.
B. P35A is not supplying spray flow, need to ensure P35B has started and has
>1050gpm flow.
C. P35A spray block valve CV-2401 is shut while ES signal is present.
D. P35A is supplying too much spray flow, need to take manual control of RB spray block valve (CV-2401) and throttle flow to <1050gpm.
Answer B P35A is not supplying spray flow, need to ensure P35B has started and has
>1050gpm flow.
References 1203.012J, annunciator K11 corrective actions, page 6, 25, 29.
STM 1-65, rev 3 Modified from ANO bank, QID 0401, created for 2001 SRO exam.
Question Source:
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Modified Bank #
__X____
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 4 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
026.G2.4.4 026.G2.4.4 Importance Rating 4.0 4.3 Tier #
2 Group #
2 CFR references 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.6 59
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 59 ANO Unit 1 has begun a reactor startup after an outage. Procedure 1104.033 for Reactor building ventilation was used to re-establish containment conditions for Mode 1 operations.
The reason the exhaust fan hand switch VEF-15 is placed in AUTO mode during the procedure is to ensure:
A. Negative containment pressure will be maintained when the outlet exhaust fan damper is opened.
B. SPING is aligned for proper monitoring of exhaust duct.
C. Negative containment pressure will be maintained when the supply fan VSF-2 is started.
D. Remote operation of the purge exhaust system from the control room is possible.
Answer C is correct, Negative containment pressure will be maintained when the supply fan VSF-2 is started because of the interlock between the supply and exhaust fans such that when the supply fan is started the exhaust fan will automatically start. A is incorrect because the fan will open its associated damper when started but this does not ensure negative containment pressure. B is incorrect because the SPING suction valve is in the exhaust duct but is not interlocked thru the hand switch for the fan. D is incorrect, AUTO is done for the interlock only.
References Stm 1-9, Reactor Building Ventilation, rev 3, page 10.
1104.033 Reactor Building Ventilation Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
___X___
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
029.K4.02 029.K4.02 Importance Rating 2.9 3.1 Tier #
2 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 60
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 60 The WCO reports the Spent Fuel Pool level is +1.5 ft.
What problem could this level pose for Spent Fuel Pool operations or fuel handling in the SFP?
A. SFP minimum water temperature limit will be exceeded.
B. SFP ventilation ducts will be flooded.
C. Area dose rates will rise.
D. SFP must be sampled within 5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />.
Answer B is correct, SFP ventilation ducts will be flooded. Answer B is correct since normal level is 0 ft with a maximum allowable level of +1.0 ft which prevents water carryover into the ventilation ducts.
Answer A is incorrect because this answer is associated with SF cooling capacity which is largely unaffected by pool level. Answer C is incorrect since this problem is associated with a low water level. Answer D is incorrect but plausible since the time for sampling is correct but level is greater than maximum allowed.
References STM 1-7, Rev. 2 Ch. 1, Spent Fuel Cooling System, page 2 "Developed for 1999 exam. Modified for 2001 RO/SRO Exam."
Training objectives: ANO-1-LP-RO-SFC:2 QID: 0312, Rev Date: 11/16/00:
Question Source:
Bank #
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Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
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LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
033.K3.01 033.K3.01 Importance Rating 2.6 3.1 Tier #
2 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 / 45.6 61
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 61 Last week the Systems Engineering department completed a surveillance package on all of the Atmospheric Dump Valves (ADVs). All of the operating set points for all of the ADVs were set at the maximum by mistake.
Which one of the following consequences may occur?
A. Main steam pressure will be maintained at a lower value during transients because the main steam safety valves have a greater capacity B. Main steam safety valves may not reseat after operation C. Plant control during a loss of all AC event will be exacerbated because more secondary makeup will be required D. Main steam safety valves will cycle less frequently during an event, minimizing the probability of a release.
Answer B is correct. Main steam safety valves may not reseat after operation.
References STM 1-15, rev 7.
Question Source:
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Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
035.K6.02 035.K6.02 Importance Rating 3.1 3.5 Tier #
2 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 / 45.7 62
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 62 A plant startup is in progress with the reactor critical below the point of adding heat.
'B' SG Turbine Bypass Valve (CV-6688) fails full open and is unable to be closed with the handjack.
Given the following plant conditions:
- Tave 526 degrees and dropping
- Pressurizer level 205 inches and dropping
- RCS pressure 2120 psig and dropping What is the proper course of action?
A. Initiate MSLI for the 'B' SG and maintain the reactor critical using 'A' SG TBV to control RCS temperature and pressure.
B. Continue the reactor startup maintaining startup rate <1 DPM while continuing to monitor primary and secondary plant parameters.
C. Go directly to the Overcooling tab (1202.003) of the EOP for actions to mitigate the oversteaming of the 'B' SG.
D. Trip the reactor and go to Reactor Trip tab (1202.001) of the EOP.
Answer D is correct, Trip the reactor and go to Reactor Trip tab (1202.001) of the EOP.
A is incorrect. You would not want to isolate a SG and maintain the reactor critical.
B is incorrect. With the reactor below the point of adding heat with a stuck open TBV, this would not be possible. C is incorrect. This will be the ultimate tab that you will end up in, however, it is necessary to trip the reactor first and progress through the Reactor Trip tab.
References 1102.008 (Rev 018-00-0), Approach to Criticality, page 4.
Developed for use in A. Morris 98 RO Re-exam, Used in 2001 RO/SRO Exam ANO Bank, QID 0202, 11/23/98 Training Objective: AA51002-008:8.9 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM K/A #
039.A2.04 039.A2.04 Importance Rating 3.4 3.7 Tier #
2 Group #
2 CFR references 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13 Question 63
- Plant is at 100% power.
- Condenser vacuum is 24.9 in Hg and slowly trending down.
What action would be taken when condenser vacuum reaches ~24.5 in Hg?
A. Trip the operating MFW Pump Turbine.
B. Adjust programmable alarm setpoint to ~23 in Hg C. Continue operations in accordance with AOP 1203.016 for loss of condenser vacuum.
D. Trip the Main Turbine and lower power.
Answer D Trip the Main Turbine and lower power."Answer D is correct, a manual trip of the turbine is required when vacuum reaches 24.5 in Hg when turbine load is > 270 Mwe.
Answer C is incorrect, continued operation in this condition can lead to turbine blading damage. Answer A is incorrect, this action is not taken until vacuum drops to ~5"" Hg.
Answer B is incorrect, this action would be taken at 25 in Hg (not 23 in Hg) if operating
>270 Mwe to alert operator of approaching trip criteria of 24.5 in Hg.
References 1203.016 rev. 011-00-0, Loss of Condenser Vacuum, page 1 Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
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Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
055.K3.01 055.K3.01 Importance Rating 2.5 2.7 Tier #
2 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 / 45.5 64
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 64 The CRS would like you to evaluate load on several buses in accordance with Procedures 1107.001 and 1107.002 for ES and non-ES electrical systems. In order to perform the estimate of loads, you will need to use the ammeters provided for various buses on the primary side of their respective 4160v transformers. Some of these ammeters are:
A. A3 to B3, A4 to B6, and A1 to B3 B. A3 to B5, A4 to B6, and A1 to B3 C. A3 to B5, A2 to B6, and A1 to B3 D. A3 to B3, A4 to B6, and A1 to B5 Answer B is correct, A3 to B5, A4 to B6, and A1 to B3. All other combinations are incorrect.
References STM 1-32, rev 22, page 106, 107, and 116.
OP 1107.001, change 060-03-0, and OP 1107.002 change 019-05-0.
Question Source:
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Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 4 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
062.A3.01 062.A3.01 Importance Rating 3.0 3.1 Tier #
2 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 / 45.5 65
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 65 A surveillance test for the alternate power supply breaker to D11 is being performed.
The main concern during testing with the alternate power supply is:
A. The discharge rate of the battery cannot be monitored in this configuration.
B. With static guard circuit disabled, could cause inadvertent grounds on the bus.
C. A single fault may disable both trains of safety equipment such as EDGs and ES pumps.
D. Could cause EDG #2 to not start should it be required in an abnormal situation.
Answer C is correct. All others are incorrect distracters for this procedure.
References 1107.004, Section 5.2, page 6, change 012-07-0.
Question Source:
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Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
063.A4.01 063.A4.01 Importance Rating 2.8 3.1 Tier #
2 Group #
2 CFR references 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8 66
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 66 ANO Unit 1 is at 100% power with a full load test of EDG #1 in progress. It is loaded to 2500 KW when a complete loss of off-site power occurs.
In these conditions, what are the immediate concerns and corresponding actions as the CBOT?
A. Overload/grid disruptions could trip the EDG(s), open the feeders to both ES buses (A-309 and A-409)
B. Overload/grid disruptions damaging the safety equipment on the bus powered by EDG #1, open the EDG output breaker (A-308)
C. Overload/grid disruptions could trip the reactor, open the feeders to both ES buses (A-309 and A-409)
D. Overload/grid disruptions could trip the reactor, open the EDG output breaker(s) for both ES buses (A-308 and A-408)
Answer A, Overload/grid disruptions could trip the EDG(s), open the feeders to both ES buses (A-309 and A-409)
References 1104.036, change 00-041-09, page 41.
Question Source:
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Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
064.A2.16 064.A2.16 Importance Rating 3.3 3.7 Tier #
2 Group #
2 CFR references 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13 67
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 67 During a LOCA inside the Reactor Building, RE-3814, Service Water Loop I Radiation Monitor alarms. SW Loop II indications are normal.
Which of the conditions below when combined with the above condition would make it necessary to isolate the "A" & "B" RB Emergency coolers?
A. Loop II Service Water monitor is also in alarm.
B. Instrument Air is lost.
C. Discharge Flume monitor is also in alarm.
D. RB area monitors are also in alarm.
Answer C Discharge Flume monitor is also in alarm is the correct answer. Since Loop II is OK, then the confirmation of an actual release via the Discharge Flume monitor necessitates the isolation of Loop I.
A would not corroborate a problem with Loop I coolers and indicate a need to isolate the Loop I coolers. B would have no affect on the ability to isolate or determine the need to isolate Loop I.
D sounds logical but the RB area monitors would be in alarm anyway due to the LOCA.
References 1203.012I [Rev 37]
Taken from Exam Bank QID # 2571 (modified slightly)
Used in A. Morris 98 RO Re-exam K1.01 Training Objectives: ANO-1-LP-RO-RMS: 2 QID: 0136, Rev Date: 06/30/94 Question Source:
Bank #
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Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
073.K1.01 073.K1.01 Importance Rating 3.6 3.9 Tier #
2 Group #
2 CFR references 41.2-41.9 / 45.7-45.8 68
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 68 During the performance of a plant shutdown, cooldown and depressurization of the RCS, the following valves are required to be closed at one point during these evolutions:
- NaOH to P-34A/P-35A Suction (CA-61)
- NaOH to P-34B/P-35B Suction (CA-62)
- NaOH Storage Tank (T-10) Outlet (CA-49)
What is the reason for this action?
A. Prevent contamination of the NaOH Tank from RCS back leakage during decay heat removal operations.
B. Prevent NaOH from leaking into the DH system and causing chemical contamination of the RCS.
C. To prevent NaOH from being sprayed into containment when access is open to RB.
D. Prevent overpressurizing the NaOH tank outlet piping from backleak during decay heat removal operations.
Answer B Prevent NaOH from leaking into the DH system and causing chemical contamination of the RCS. A and D are incorrect. The normal pressures are such that leakage will go into the decay heat removal system instead of into the NaOH system.
B is correct. The head of the T-10 is sufficient to cause potential leakage into the decay heat system which goes into the RCS. C is incorrect. The NaOH MOV's are deenergized to accomplish this.
References 1102.010 (Rev 49)
Developed for use in A. Morris 98 RO Re-exam K1.01 Training Objectives: AA51001-007 7.4 QID:0209, Rev Date: 11/23/98 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
027.K1.01 027.K1.01 Importance Rating 3.4 3.7 Tier #
2 69
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Group #
3 CFR references 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8 Question 69 A LOCA has occurred.
Post-LOCA Reactor Building pressure is 26 psia.
Pre-LOCA RB temperature was 90 degrees F.
What power setting is required when placing hydrogen recombiner M55A in service?
A. 68 KW B. 69 KW C. 70 KW D. 71 KW Answer:
C is correct, 70 KW. Answer "C" is correct from the graph, the other answers are possible misuses of the graph if correct parameters are not applied.
References MUST SUPPLY STUDENT WITH 1104.031 ATT. B 1104.031, Rev. 014-02-0 Training Objectives: A1LP-RO-RBVEN:14 New for 2004 RO/SRO exam.
Question Source:
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LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
028.A2.01 028.A2.01 Importance Rating 3.4 3.6 Tier #
2 Group #
3 CFR references 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13 70
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 70 ANO Unit 1 is in an outage and has started the procedure 1102.015, Filling the Fuel Transfer Canal. The initial conditions are:
-Using only 1 SFP pump, PI-40A, flow rate of 1000gpm
-The initial height in the refueling canal is 396.5 ft.
-The gallons per foot in this section of the canal is 11,070 gal/ft
-Ignore the fuel tilt pit, incore instrument tank, and spent fuel pool water requirements The minimum height to fill the Refueling canal in order to remove the core support assembly (minimizes radiation exposure) is ____1_____ and will be accomplished in
_____2____ minutes.
A. > 400 ft, 60.9 B. > 401 ft, 49.8 C. > 400 ft, 38.7 D. > 399 ft, 27.7 Answer C is correct. Per Procedure, the height must be at least 400 feet in the canal to remove the core support assembly, and using the (11,070 gal/ft X 3.5 ft )/1000 = 38.7 minutes.
References Procedure 1102.015, Filling the Fuel Transfer Canal, change 021-06-0, page 6 and 12.
Question Source:
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Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
034.A1.02 034.A1.02 Importance Rating 2.9 3.7 Tier #
2 Group #
3 CFR references 41.5 / 45.5 71
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 71 During a normal startup with reactor power at 10%, a turbine bypass valve (TBV) inadvertently re-opens prior to the 50 psig bias being applied to the TBVs and prior to shifting from manual mode to Integ Cont mode. The turbine generator was being loaded when this occurred. The OTSG pressure drops several psig.
Steam header pressure will initially start to go up because:
A. TBVs will compete with turbine governor valves for control of steam header pressure.
B. Primary Coolant Temperature dropping will raise reactor power because of moderator temperature coefficient.
C. Turbine governor valves will modulate to maintain header pressure at 895 psig.
D. The Primary Coolant Pressure drop will raise reactor power because of the moderator pressure coefficient.
Answer B Primary Coolant Temperature dropping will raise reactor power because of moderator temperature coefficient, is the correct answer. A and C are incorrect because prior to placing the turbine in Integ Cont mode, the governor valves are solely controlled by the operator. D is incorrect because pressure has an insignificant effect at power on reactivity.
References STM 1-64, ICS, Revision 7, page 29-30.
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Question Cognitive Level:
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Comprehension or Analysis LOD = unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
041.K5.07 041.K5.07 Importance Rating 3.1 3.6 Tier #
2 Group #
3 CFR references 41.5 / 45.7 72
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 72 The main turbine trips from 20% RTP. Which ONE of the following combinations represents the expected normal responses of the following primary plant parameters during the FIRST 30 SECONDS of the trip?
Neutron Error Tave NR Pressure PZR Level A. Goes Up Goes Up.. Goes Up
. Goes Up B. Goes Up Goes Up.. Goes Down Goes Up C. Goes Down..
Goes Down. Goes Down Goes Down D. Goes Down..
Goes Up.. Goes Up.
Goes Up Answer D is correct. Neutron error becomes a large negative value while Tave goes up because of the large heat generation that initially is not removed fast enough to prevent the increase in Tave. Since Tave goes up, PZR level will rise (insurge) and this squeezes the bubble, causing NR Pressure to rise as well (making Goes Down, Goes Up, Goes Up, Goes Up the correct answer).
References STM 1-3, rev 9, RCS.
OP1203.018 turbine trip below 43% power.
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Comprehension or Analysis LOD = unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
045.A1.05 045.A1.05 Importance Rating 3.8 4.1 Tier #
2 Group #
3 CFR references 41.5 / 45.5 73
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 73 Unit 1 at ANO-1 is at 50% power when an ES actuation occurs. Two Service water isolation valves, CV-3646 and CV-3640, failed to reposition due to power failure on the associated MCC load center. / of the. train.
A...B62 / Green B..B52 /..Green C..B62 / Red D..B52 / Red Answer D, B52 on Red train is correct. Others are incorrect combinations and choices.
References STM 1-42, Service and Auxiliary Cooling Water, rev 7, page 18.
Question Source:
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Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
076.K2.08 076.K2.08 Importance Rating 3.1 3.3 Tier #
2 Group #
3 CFR references 41.7 74
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 74 Instrument Air pressure has dropped to 75 psig.
Which of the following is the appropriate response for the given plant conditions to restore or conserve Instrument Air pressure?
A. Verify Service Air to Instrument Air cross-connect automatically opens.
B. Open Unit 1 to Unit 2 Instrument Air cross-connect.
C. Trip Reactor, actuate EFW and MSLI on both SGs.
D. If ICW available, isolate Seal Injection by closing CV-1206.
Answer B is correct, Open Unit 1 to Unit 2 Instrument Air cross-connect. Per 1203.024, the U1 to U2 cross connect should be opened first.
A is incorrect, this does not occur until pressure is at 50 psig.
C is incorrect, this would not be done until pressure was less than 35 psig.
D is incorrect, this would not be done until pressure was less than 60 psig.
References 1203.024 [Rev 9]
Developed for 1998 RO/SRO Exam QID 0102.
Modified for A. Morris 98 RO Re-exam Training Objectives: ANO-1-LP-RO-AOP 3
Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
078.G2.1.28 078.G2.1.28 Importance Rating 3.2 3.3 Tier #
2 Group #
3 CFR references 41.7 75
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 75 Following an ESAS actuation the CBOT is directed to perform RT-10 to verify proper actuation. The RT instructs you to verify each component properly actuated on C16, C18, and C26.
How is this accomplished for containment isolation valves?
A. Verify all containment isolation valve ""closed"" indication lights are illuminated.
B. Compare containment isolation valve positions to positions listed on chart in RT-
- 10.
C. All containment isolation valves have the same color coding for ease of verification.
D. Verify containment isolation valves are in position marked with black tape background.
Answer D Verify containment isolation valves are in position marked with black tape background, is the correct response. A black tape background identifies the proper actuation position of ES components.
A is incorrect because not all containment penetration valves will be closed. B is incorrect because there is no chart of valve positions in RT-10. D is incorrect because color-coding of panel does not identify proper actuation position.
References 1015.018 Plant Labeling, change 006-03-0, page 20. Step 7.5.1 1202.012 Repetitive Tasks, change 004-02-0, page 17 step F Developed for 1998 RO Exam. Selected for use in 2002 RO/SRO exam.
Training Objectives: ANO-1-LP-RO-EOP10 15.5 QID: 0104, Rev date: 7/14/98 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
103.A3.01 103.A3.01 Importance Rating 3.9 4.2 Tier #
2 Group #
3 CFR references 41.7 / 45.5 76
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 101 A LOCA has occurred and the following conditions exist:
- Core Exit Thermocouples = 800 degrees F (average) and rising.
- RCS pressure = 1400 psig and steady.
- ICC subcooling margin is INOPERABLE.
- RCPs are NOT running.
Which EOP should be performed to mitigate this event?
A. 1202.001, Reactor Trip B. 1202.005, Inadequate Core Cooling C. 1202.010, ESAS D. 1202.004, Overheating Answer B is correct, 1202.005, Inadequate Core Cooling. Region 3 is applicable for the conditions given.
Answer "A" is incorrect, although 1202.001 will be entered initially, it will not be used to mitigate this event. Answer "C" is incorrect, although ESAS systems will have actuated, ICC conditions exist. Answer "D" is incorrect, Overheating entry conditions are met but the ICC procedure is the governing document.
References 1202.005, Inadequate Core Cooling, change 004-00-0, page 1 120.013, EOP Figures, Fig. 4, Rev. 3 Training Objectives: A1LP-RO-EOP05 11 Direct from regular exambank QID 3008.
Selected for use in 2002 RO/SRO exam.
Question Source:
Bank #
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Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
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LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
074.EK1.01 Importance Rating 4.7 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 41.8 / 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.3 77
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 102 ESAS has actuated.
A4 bus is locked out and cannot be re-energized.
LPI/HPI flow rates for the past twenty-five minutes have been as follows:
- "A" LPI flow--3300 gpm
- "A" HPI pump flow throttled to 100 gpm through CV-1220 Which of the following actions are required per the ESAS EOP for these conditions?
A. Restore full HPI flow on "A" HPI pump.
B. Swap to RB sump recirculation.
C. Energize bus B-6 from bus B-5.
D. Secure the "A" HPI pump.
Answer:
D is correct since LPI flow has been greater than 3200 gpm for greater than 20 minutes.
Answer "A" is incorrect, this action would only be taken if LPI flow was inadequate.
Answer "C" is incorrect, this would help to restore electrical alignment but is incorrect for the given conditions. Answer "B" is correct for BWST less than 6 ft. but is not a specific required action for the given conditions.
References 1202.010, Rev. 005-01-0, steps 15 & 16 New for use on 2004 SRO exam.
Question Source:
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Modified Bank #
New
___X___
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
011.EA2.11 Importance Rating 4.3 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 43.5 / 45.13 78
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 103 What action is required upon receipt of Liquid Radwaste Process Monitor (RI-4642) high alarm?
A. Start another circ water pump to raise dilution flow.
B. Verify no release in progress at Discharge Flow to Flume.
C. The WCO must be contacted to manually stop the release.
D. Have chemistry sample discharge flume for radionuclides.
Answer B Verify no release in progress at Discharge Flow to Flume, is the correct answer (verification that the release was automatically terminated when the rad monitor alarmed.)
"A" may raise dilution flow but is an incorrect response, normally all CW pumps are running anyway. "C" is incorrect, the release is automatically terminated upon closure of CV-4642 by RI-4642. D is incorrect, this will be a waste of time.
References 1203.007, Rev. 8 "Used in 1999 exam.
Direct from ExamBank, QID#1725" Training Objectives: ANO-1-LP-RO-AOP: 3 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000059.AK3.04 Importance Rating 4.3 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 41.5, 41.10 / 43.4 / 43.5 45.6 / 45.13 79
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 104 A fire in the Cable Spreading Room has occurred. Alternate Shutdown, 1203.002, is in progress.
Which monitoring system has indications that will NOT be affected by this fire?
A. Plant Monitoring System B. Plant Data Server C. Safety Parameter Display System D. Dasey Panel Answer C Safety Parameter Display System Only answer "C" has instrumentation that will not be affected by a fire in the cable spreading room, all of the other choices contain cables that are routed through this area.
References 1203.002, Rev. 015-06-0, Att. 9 step 2.5 New, developed for the 2004 SRO exam, QID: 0478 Training Objectives: A1LP-RO-ALTSD Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2.5 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000067.AA2.17 Importance Rating 4.3 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 43.5 / 45.13 80
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 105 Unit 1 is in the EOP for Inadequate Core Cooling, 1202.005. Region 4 of Figure 4 has been entered but a HIGH ALARM on Failed Fuel Gross (RI-1237) monitor (C25) has not occurred.
Which of the following will result in HIGHER radiation exposures to personnel in the Aux Building?
A. Throttling RB spray before initiating sump recirculation B. Initiating long-term cooling with DHR pumps C. Aligning Pressurizer AUX spray to LPI system prior to initiating sump recirculation D. Isolating Letdown by closing letdown orifice block (CV-1222)
Answer B is correct. A, C, and D reduce exposure following failed fuel as indicated by RI-1237.
References 1202.005 Inadequate Core Cooling, change 004-00-0, 1203.019 High Activity in Reactor Coolant, change 011-01-0.
Question Source:
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New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
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LOD = unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000076.AK3.06 Importance Rating 3.8 Tier #
1 Group #
1 CFR references 41.8 / 41.10 / 43.4 / 43.5 / 45.3 81
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 106 Given:
- Reactor tripped due to loss of both Main Feedwater Pumps.
- Annunciator K02-B6, A3 L.O. RELAY TRIP, is in alarm.
- Steam Driven EFW Pump, P-7A, is tagged out and disassembled for corrective maintenance.
- OTSG levels are at 15 inches and slowly dropping.
Which of the following actions should be performed for the above conditions?
A. Take manual control of the Electric EFW Pump, P-7B, flow control valves and control OTSG levels at 20 to 40 inches.
B. Start Auxiliary Feedwater Pump, P-75, and control OTSG levels at 20 to 40 inches using the Startup Control Valves.
C. Close the MFW Isolation Valves to prevent feeding with a Condensate Pump and allow the OTSGs to boil dry.
D. Lower OTSG pressure to feed the OTSGs using a Condensate Pump to establish primary to secondary Answer B Start Auxiliary Feedwater Pump, P-75, and control OTSG levels at 20 to 40 inches using the Startup.
The initial conditions of the question establish a loss of MFW and EFW following a reactor trip which should be recognized as an entry condition to the Overheating EOP.
Answer (b) is the correct response in accordance with 1202.004, Overheating. Since EFW failed to actuate due to the Steam Driven Pump being OOS and no electrical power available to the Electric EFW Pump, contingency actions allow for starting of the Auxiliary Feedwater Pump, P-75, if OTSG level is >20 inches OR is still dropping. A is incorrect since no power is available to P-7B with the A3 bus lockout relay tripped. C and D are incorrect since P-75 is available and OTSG level is still dropping.
References 1202.004, Rev. 004-01-0, step 3, cont. A Training Objectives: A1LP-RO-EOP04: 3 QID: 0009, Rev date: 10/7/03 Question Source:
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Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 4 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM K/A #
E04.EA2.2 Importance Rating 4.4 Tier #
1 Group #
2 CFR references 43.5 / 45.13 Question 107 During an offload of Unit 1s core during a refueling outage a Spent Fuel Handling Machine (SFHM) operator is trolleying a spent fuel assembly when she makes contact with the Spent Fuel Pool (SFP) level transmitter LI-2004 on the East wall of the SFP.
The fuel assembly makes contact with the wall. No emerging bubbles are seen from the fuel assembly and RE-8009 has no alarm conditions. LI-2004 fails high.
What action(s) should be taken?
A. Enter LCO 3.7.13 for SFP level indication B. Enter LCO 3.7.13 for SFP level indication and LCO 3.9.6 for Refueling Canal Water Level C. Enter AOP 1203.042 Refueling Abnormal Operation D. Enter LCO 3.7.13 for SFP level indication and AOP 1203.042 Refueling Abnormal Operation Answer D is correct. Both the LCO 3.7.13 for SFP level indication and AOP 1203.042 Refueling Abnormal Operation apply since level is lost and fuel has been potentially damaged. A, B, and C are various incorrect combinations. Refueling Canal instrument was not damaged so it does not apply.
References 1203.042 Refueling Abnormal Operation, STM 1-51-2 (Rev 4), and TS LCO 3.7.13.
Question Source:
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New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
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LOD = unknown Examination Outline Cross-reference:
000036.AA2.02 Importance Rating 4.1 Tier #
1 Group #
3 CFR references 43.5 / 43.7 / 45.13 83
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 108 A large break LOCA is in progress.
- RCS pressure is ~ 25 psig.
- RB pressure is 45 psia and trending down.
- Shift to RB Sump Suction has just been completed.
Subsequently, annunciator K11-C7, ""RB SPRAY P35B ES FAILURE"" alarms.
Which of the following actions should be taken?
A. Close Decay Heat Supply to Makeup Pump Suction CV-1276.
B. Establish maximum flow through ""A"" RB Spray Pump.
C. Maintain ""A"" RB Spray flow at 1050 to 1200 gpm.
D. Throttle ""B"" LPI Pump flow to 2800 gpm.
Answer C is correct, Maintain ""A"" RB Spray flow at 1050 to 1200 gpm. The indications given are that of ""A"" RB Spray pump suction vortexing on the RB sump.
Answer "A is incorrect, Spray flow will still be too high to alleviate vortexing.
Answer "B" is incorrect, although damage could occur if conditions are maintained, throttling will correct problem and it is desirable to maintain RB Spray flow.
Answer "D" is incorrect, throttling LPI flow to the minimum value could lessen vortexing, no procedural guidance of this kind exists. At one time it was discussed to throttle both RB Spray and LPI flow after swap to RB Suction but only Spray flow is throttled.
References 1202.010, ESAS, change 005-01-0, page 11, step 3 Created for 2002 SRO exam, QID 0454 Training Objectives:A1LP-RO-EOP10 Question Source:
Bank #
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Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
026.A2.04 Importance Rating 4.2 Tier #
2 Group #
1 CFR references 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13 84
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 109 On New Year's Eve night shift, the on-duty CRS has a heart attack and must be transported to St. Mary's at 0210.
What is the latest time at which a replacement CRS must be in the Control Room BEFORE the requirement of 1015.001, Conduct of Operations, is violated?
A. 0400 B. 0500 C. 0600 D. 0300 Answer A 0400, is the correct answer since the maximum time the shift can be below the minimum complement is two hours.
Answers B, C, D are one hour increments from the correct answer.
References 1015.001, Rev. 054-02-0, Conduct of Operations, page 33, step 10.3 New created for 2001 SRO Exam.
Selected for use in 2002 SRO exam. 2.1.4 Training Objectives: ANO-S-LP-SRO-ADMIN:3 QID: 0407, Rev Date: 12/1/00 Question Source:
Bank #
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Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
G2.1.4 Importance Rating 3.4 Tier #
3 Group #
1 CFR references 41.10 / 43.2 85
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 110 It is 0300 on Saturday morning. A Unit 1 transient started about 3 minutes ago.
The Unit 1 Shift Manager has been injured and rendered unconscious. Conditions are in progress that meet the criteria for declaration of Site Area Emergency.
The person responsible for declaring the SAE and for Emergency Direction and Control is:
A. The Unit 1 Control Room Supervisor.
B. The Unit 2 Shift Manager.
C. The Unit 1 Shift Engineer.
D. The EOF Director (by phone).
Answer:
A is correct, The Unit 1 Control Room Supervisor.
The person responsible for declaration of an Emergency Class is the Shift Manager or the TSC/EOF director if they have responsibility for Emergency Direction and control, and this task can not be delegated. The CRS must assume the Shift managers duties in his absence. This makes "B" the correct answer.
References 1015.001 REV. 054-08-0, step 6.2 1903.010 REV. 037-02-0, step 5.2 New QID#2805 for 2004 SRO exam Training Objectives: ASLP-RO-EPLAN: 1 Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2.5 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
G2.1.6 Importance Rating 4.3 Tier #
3 Group #
CFR references 43.5 / 45.12 86
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 111 Plant conditions:
-RCS temperature: 615 degrees slowly rising
-RCS pressure: 2400 psig slowly dropping
-ERV: opened in AUTO
-OTSG shell temperature: 552 degrees
-OTSG levels: 20 inches, steady Which of the following actions are required?
A. Initiate HPI Cooling per RT 4 B. Close ERV isolation valve (CV-1000)
C. Select the reflux boiling setpoint D. Initiate Full HPI per RT 3 Answer:
A Initiate HPI Cooling per RT 4.
Reference:
1202.004, Rev. 004-01-0 New QID #3314 for SRO 2004 Exam.
Question Source:
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Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
G2.1.7 Importance Rating 4.4 Tier #
3 Group #
1 CFR references 43.5 87
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 112 Why are the Axial Power Imbalance Operating limits NOT applicable below 40% power?
A. Lower power levels cause a rod ejection accident to be of no concern.
B. Lower power levels always result in a more even flux distribution.
C. Lower power levels cause the Incore Detectors to be inaccurate.
D. Lower power levels will not cause sufficiently large linear heat rates.
Answer:
D is correct, Lower power levels will not cause sufficiently large linear heat rates.
Per T.S. the combination of AXIAL POWER IMBALANCE with the maximum allowable THERMAL POWER level will not result in Linear Heat Rates sufficiently large to violate the fuel design limits, therefore answer "D" is correct.
Answer "A" is incorrect since a rod ejection accident is a concern at lower power levels.
Answer "B" is incorrect since flux is primarily shifted toward the lower part of the core at lower powers. Answer "C" is incorrect, incore detectors are not inaccurate at lower levels, nor are they used to measure axial imbalance.
References T.S. Bases 3.2.3 New, developed for 2004 SRO exam.
Training Objectives: A1LP-RO-TS: 4 Question Source:
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New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
G2.1.10 Importance Rating 3.9 Tier #
3 Group #
CFR references 43.1 / 45.13 88
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 113 The ONLY action statement in Tech Specs regarding hydrogen recombiner operability (3.14.2) states:
"With one hydrogen recombiner system inoperable, restore the inoperable system to OPERABLE status within 30 days or the reactor shall be placed in the HOT SHUTDOWN condition within the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />."
Which of the following actions would be applicable if BOTH hydrogen recombiner were inoperable?
A. Place the plant in Hot Shutdown within one hour.
B. Within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> commence a plant shutdown to place the plant in Hot Standby within the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.
C. Restore at least one recombiner to operable status in 15 days or be in Hot Standby within 6 hrs.
D. Submit a report outlining the plan for restoring the system to OPERABLE status to the NRC within 7 days.
Answer Answer B is correct. Within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> commence a plant shutdown to place the plant in Hot Standby within the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />. Without an action statement covering two inoperable analyzers, this condition falls under the jurisdiction of T.S. 3.0.3.
Answer A is incorrect, although a shutdown must commence in one hour, the plant does not have to be in Hot SDN in one hour. Answer C is incorrect, this is similar to LCO statements where only one train of two redundant trains is inoperable. Answer D is incorrect, the H2 analyzers may not be considered to be essential to plant operations and this statement is similar to action statements for non-ESF equipment.
References Technical Specifications, 3.03 and 3.14 Modified for use in 2001 SRO exam. 2.1.12 Training Objectives: ANO-S-LP-SRO-ADMIN: 4 QID: 0110, Rev date: 12/1/00 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 4 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM K/A #
G2.1.12 Importance Rating 4.0 Tier #
3 Group #
1 CFR references 43.2 / 43.5 / 45.3 90
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 114 Following a refueling outage, a plant "Heatup to 800 psig" is in progress.
- RCS temperature is 290°F.
- HPI pump P-36B is out of service for maintenance.
- HPI pump P-36A is in ES standby and P-36C is operable.
After reviewing the surveillance data for P-36C, it is determined that P-36C is inoperable.
Which of the following is allowable in accordance with Unit One Tech Specs?
A. Heatup may continue up to normal operating temperature and pressure.
B. Heatup should be stopped and RCS cooled down to < 200°F.
C. Heatup should be stopped and RCS temp should not exceed 300°F.
D. Heatup may continue up to, but not to exceed, an RCS temp of 350°F.
Answer D is correct, Heatup may continue up to, but not to exceed, an RCS temp of 350°F.Two HPI pumps are required to be operable with RCS temp > 350°F.
Answer A is incorrect, two HPI pumps must be operable from independent buses.
Answer B is incorrect. The RCS does not have to be cooled down, although most ECCS equipment must be operable prior to exceeding 200°F, HPI is not required for CNTMT integrity. Answer C: is incorrect, RCS temperature may exceed 300°F but not 350°F.
References Unit One Technical Specifications 3.3.2 Created for 2001 SRO Exam.2.1.33 Training Objectives: ANO-1-LP-RO-TS: 4 QID: 0380, Rev date : 1/10/01 Question Source:
Bank #
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Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
G2.1.33 Importance Rating 4.0 Tier #
3 Group #
1 CFR references 43.2 / 43.3 / 45.3 91
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 115 The system engineer for the Makeup and Purification System approaches you, the Shift Manager, with a test procedure he wants interim approval of.
The test involves entering the Restricted Operating Region of Exhibit A of 1104.002.
The system engineer believes the curve is too conservative.
Which of the following options should you take?
A. Follow the guidance in 1000.006 and approve the procedure using the Interim Approval process.
B. Approve the procedure in accordance with 1000.006 as a Temporary Instruction.
C. Use the procedure as written using the Procedure Deviation process in 1000.006.
D. Approve the procedure using Standard approval process and a 50.59 Evaluation.
Answer:
D is correct, Approve the procedure using Standard approval process and a 50.59 Evaluation.
Any test or experiment that may or may not be described in the FSAR is required under the Standard Approval process in 1000.006 to undergo a 50.59 review.
Thus Answer "D" is the only correct choice, all other processes listed cannot be used with the test References 1000.006, Rev. 050-03-0 New developed for 2004 SRO exam.
Training Objectives: ASLP-SRO-OPSPR: 6 Question Source:
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Modified Bank #
New
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Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
G2.2.7 Importance Rating 3.2 Tier #
3 Group #
CFR references 43.3 / 45.13 92
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 116 During a major outage, who is responsible for tracking a delayed PMT identified as an operability restraint?
A. Outage Desk B. PMT Coordinator C. Shift Manager D. Responsible shop (e.g., Electrical)
Answer:
B PMT Coordinator, is the correct answer.
The shift manager is only responsible for ensuring PMTs are completed and performed in a timely manner.
References 1025.033, Rev. 008-00-0, note 6.2.8.F New, developed for 2004 SRO exam Training Objectives: ASLP-SRO-OPSPR: 6 Question Source:
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Modified Bank #
New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
G2.2.21 Importance Rating 3.5 Tier #
3 Group #
CFR references 43.2 93
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 117 A number of tools are available to track the status of equipment. Some of these tools are:
- 1. Inoperable Equipment Checklist
- 2. System Configuration Controls Tracking Log
- 3. Maintenance Configuration Tracking Log Sheet
- 4. Component Out of Position Log
- 5. Condition Report
- 6. Safety System Status Board
- 7. Control Room Log
- 8. Station Log The Surveillance Coordinator calls you, the Control Room Supervisor, and states that Hydrogen Recombiner, M-55B, surveillance frequency was exceeded.
Which of the above items will you use to document entry of the LCO?
A. 2, 3, 5, 7, & 8 B. 1, 2, 4, 6, & 8 C. 1, 5, 6, 7, & 8 D. 2, 4, 5, 6, & 8 Answer C 1, 5, 6, 7, & 8, is the correct answer. The only answer with all of the items required is answer "C".
References 1015.017, Rev 008-05-0, Step 9.3 1015.001, Rev 054-08-0, Steps 8.4.1.C, 10.7, and 12.7.
Training Objectives: ASLP-SRO-OPSPR: 6 Question Source:
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New
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Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
G2.2.23 Importance Rating 3.8 Tier #
3 Group #
CFR references 43.2 / 45.13 94
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 118 Movement of a fuel assembly that does NOT follow the sequence in the approved fuel shuffle procedure requires prior approval of:
A. SRO in Charge of Fuel Handling and Shift Operations Superintendent B. Shift Operations Superintendent and Reactor Engineer C. Reactor Engineer and SRO in Charge of Fuel Handling D. SRO in Charge of Fuel Handling and Reactor Building Coordinator Answer C Reactor Engineer and SRO in Charge of Fuel Handling. Procedure 1502.004, Control of Unit 1 Refueling, requires any deviations from the fuel shuffle sequence to be approved by the SRO in Charge of Fuel Handling and the Reactor Engineer (NRC commitment). Therefore, "c" is the only correct response.
Answers "A", "B" and "D" are incorrect due to providing the wrong combination supervisory personnel."
References 1502.004, Rev. 031-02-0 "Used in 1999 exam. Direct from ExamBank, QID# 4301" Training Objectives: ANO-1-LP-RO-FH: 14 QID: 0250, Rev date: 9-1-99 Question Source:
Bank #
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Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 1.5 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
G2.2.27 Importance Rating 3.5 Tier #
3 Group #
2 CFR references 43.6/45.13 95
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 119 A fuel handling accident involving a spent fuel assembly has caused elevated dose rates in the Spent Fuel Pool area.
What Administrative Dose Control Limit (ADCL) would be of the greatest concern to the RP staff during planning for recovery actions from this accident?
A. 5 Rem/year to the skin B. 12 Rem/year to the lens of the eye C. 40 Rem/year to the skin D. 50 Rem/year to the lens of the eye Answer C 40 Rem/year to the skin, is the correct answer. This accident produces isotopes that cause the dose to the skin of the whole body to be the limit that could be exceeded.
Therefore, "B" and "D" are incorrect. "B" is the ADCL for lens of the eye. "D" is the federal limit for a single organ or skin but applied to the lens of the eye. "A" is the whole body federal limit but stated here as the skin limit. "C" is the actual limit as listed in 6.2.2.A.5 of 1012.021.
References 1012.021 Rev 4 "Used in 1999 exam. Modified from ExamBank, QID# 1881" Training Objectives: ANO-S-LP-RO-RADPRO: 15 QID:0249, Rev Date: 9-1-99 Question Source:
Bank #
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Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
G2.3.1 Importance Rating 3.0 Tier #
3 Group #
3 CFR references 41.12/43.4 / 45.9/45.10 96
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 120 It is desired to release the contents of Treated Waste Monitoring Tank T-16A.
FI-4642, Discharge Flow to Flume, is OOS.
To comply with Technical Specifications, what must be done in order to complete the release?
A. Repairs must be made and FI-4642 must be operable to conduct releases via that pathway.
B. Take independent samples and conduct independent analyses and valve lineups prior to the release.
C. Estimate release flow rate using pump curves at least every 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> during the release.
D. Verify RI-4642, liquid radwaste process monitor, is operable and proceed with the release.
Answer C is correct. Estimate release flow rate using pump curves at least every 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> during the release. Technical Specifications require that FI-4642 is operable during releases via that pathway. If inoperable, allowance is provided to conduct a release if flow rate is estimated at least once per 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> during the actual release. Pump curves may be used to estimate flow. Therefore, C is the only correct response.
A is incorrect since it does not take into consideration the allowed exception. B is incorrect because it is describing exceptions if RI-4642 is inoperable. D is incorrect since both FI-4642 and RI-4642 are required during releases (or exceptions satisfied).
References Technical Specifications, Specification 3.5.6, Rad.
Developed for the 1998 SRO Exam.
Training Objectives: AA61002-009 9.6 QID: 0066, Rev Date: 7/13/98 Question Source:
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New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
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Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
G2.3.3 Importance Rating 2.9 Tier #
3 Group #
3 CFR references 43.4 / 45.10 97
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 121 Given:
- Plant at 100% power.
- RPS Channel ""C"" inoperable and in the tripped state.
- I&C are performing RPS Channel ""B"" monthly calibration.
- Inverter Y-11 has a fault and the static switch fails to operate.
Which of the following procedures should be in use?
A. Reactor Trip, 1202.001 B. Loss of NNI Power, 1203.047 C. Loss of 125 VDC, 1203.036 D. ESAS, 1202.010 Answer A is correct, Reactor Trip, 1202.001. Answer A is correct since a loss of Y11 will cause a loss of RS-1 which will trip ""A"" RPS channel. This will cause a reactor trip since ""C"" is in the tripped state.
Answer B is incorrect, NNI is powered from RS-1 but will transfer to alternate power.
Answer C is incorrect, although Y11 is normally powered from a DC source, the Rx Trip EOP has the highest priority. Answer D is incorrect, although ESAS is partially powered from RS-1, no actuations will result.
References 1105.001, Rev.019-00-0, NI & RPS Operating Procedure, pages 7,8.
New created for 2001 SRO Exam.
Training Objectives: ANO-1-LP-RO-RPS 6
QID: 0412 Rev Date:
12/5/00 Question Source:
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New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
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LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
G2.4.1 Importance Rating 4.6 Tier #
3 Group #
4 CFR references 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 98
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 122 The plant is operating at 100% power, when annunciator K07-C1, REACTOR FEEDWATER LIMITED, alarms. The following conditions exist:
- RCS pressure and temperature are increasing.
- OTSG levels = 60% and decreasing.
- Main feedwater flow is decreasing.
What procedure contains the required mitigating operator actions?
A. 1203.027, "Loss of Steam Generator Feed" B. 1203.001, "ICS Abnormal Operating" C. 1203.018, "Turbine Trip Below 43% Power" D. 1202.001, "Emergency Operations Procedure" Answer A is correct, 1203.027, "Loss of Steam Generator Feed. Only A contains all of the entry conditions, which match the given conditions.
B sounds like a logical procedure since and ICS malfunction may be causing the transient, however there should also be an indication of a loss of ICS power to enter this AOP. C might be chosen if the candidate associates the symptoms of rising RCS pressure and temperature with a Turbine Trip but the key to this procedure is to be below 43% power where a coincident Rx trip will not occur. D the conditions here are similar to some of the conditions of a Rx trip but the annunciator alarm is not.
References 1203.027 [Rev 9].
Taken from Exam Bank QID # 2800 Used in A. Morris 98 RO Re-exam" Training Objectives: ANO-1-LP-RO-FW 18 QID: 0146, Rev date: 05/20/93 Question Source:
Bank #
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New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
G2.4.4 Importance Rating 4.3 Tier #
3 Group #
4 CFR references 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.6 99
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 123 A plant shutdown is in progress due to a primary-to-secondary tube leak in accordance with 1203.023, Small Steam Generator Tube Leaks.
- Several tubes subsequently fail catastrophically
- RCS pressure drops to 1400 psig
- CET's indicate 560°F
- Reactor Building sump level is trending upward.
Which of the following procedures should be in use?
A. Reactor Trip and Loss of Subcooling Margin B. Tube Rupture and ESAS C. Loss of Subcooling Margin and ESAS D. Reactor Trip and Tube Rupture Answer D Reactor Trip and Tube Rupture, is correct. The Tube Rupture procedure is used in conjunction with Reactor Trip when abnormal conditions other than a SGTR exist, i.e.,
Answer A is incorrect, although a Loss of SCM has occurred, contingency actions for this exist within the Tube Rupture EOP. Answer B is incorrect, although an ESAS would have occurred, it is not entered with a SGTR. Answer C is incorrect, although both ESAS and loss of SCM has occurred, they are not entered with a SGTR.
References 1202.006, Rev. 007-02-0, Tube Rupture, page 1 Created for 2001 SRO Exam.2.4.8 Training Objectives: ANO-1-LP-RO-EOP06 4 QID: 0399, Rev Date: 11/21/00 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
G2.4.8 Importance Rating 3.7 Tier #
3 Group #
4 CFR references 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13 100
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM Question 124 A SGTR has occurred coincident with a loss of offsite power. Two control rods are stuck out. #2 EDG did not start. Neither channel of EFIC actuated. Pressurizer level is offscale low.
Which of the following operator actions will you establish as the highest priority?
A. Starting and loading the #2 EDG.
B. Initiation of emergency boration.
C. Regaining Pressurizer level.
D. Starting at least one train of EFW.
Answer B is correct, Initiation of emergency boration.
The safety function priorities established in the Emergency Operating Procedures establish Reactivity Control as the safety function with the highest priority. With two stuck rods, answer "B" Emergency Boration should be the highest priority to establish control of Reactivity.
References BWOG EOP TBD Vol. 3, II.C-2, Sec. 2.1 New, developed for 2004 SRO exam.
Training Objectives: A1LP-RO-EOP: 8 Question Source:
Bank #
Modified Bank #
New
___X___
Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis
__X__
LOD = 3 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
G2.4.22 Importance Rating 4.0 Tier #
3 Group #
CFR references 43.5 / 45.12 101
SRO_DRAFT_EXAM Q1-75, Q101-125 ANO-1 2004 EXAM 102 Question 125 During a declared Alert emergency, the TSC Director may NOT assume responsibility for Emergency Direction and Control until:
A. The next shift's Shift Superintendent arrives for shift relief and receives a turnover.
B. The Operations Manager arrives in the Control Room and passes on responsibility for EDC.
C. The TSC Director receives a turnover from the S/S and assumes responsibility for EDC.
D. The emergency is terminated by mutual agreement of the appropriate on and off site agencies.
Answer C is correct. The TSC Director receives a turnover from the S/S and assumes responsibility for EDC in accordance with 1903.010.
A is incorrect, this will only serve to slow the turnover to the TSCD. B is incorrect, the Ops Manager is not responsible for Emergency Direction and Control. D is incorrect, if this were true, emergency direction and control would never be turned over to the TSCD.
References 1903.064, Rev. 6 Used in 1999 exam. Direct from ExamBank, QID# 2524 Training Objectives: ANO-S-LP-EP-A0082 14 QID:0357, Rev date: 9/7/99 Question Source:
Bank #
___X___
Modified Bank #
New Question Cognitive Level:
Memory or Fundamental Knowledge
__X__
Comprehension or Analysis LOD = 2 Examination Outline Cross-reference:
G2.4.40 Importance Rating 4.1 Tier #
3 Group #
4 CFR references 45.11