ML23065A079
| ML23065A079 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Millstone  |
| Issue date: | 02/22/2023 |
| From: | Dominion Energy Nuclear Connecticut |
| To: | Thomas Setzer NRC/RGN-I/DORS/OB |
| References | |
| EPID L-2023-OLL-0036 | |
| Download: ML23065A079 (1) | |
Text
ORIGINAL QUESTIONS FOR MODIFIED QUESTIONS
Q6 ID: 451586 Points: 1.00 While operating at 100% power, with the "B" auxiliary feed pump out of service for maintenance, the plant experiences an excess steam demand (ESD) event on the #1 Steam Generator (SG) immediately followed by a loss of VA-10. An automatic reactor trip is actuated followed by SIAS and MSI. During the performance of EOP 2525, Standard Post Trip Actions, the SPO is directed to isolate #1 SG and feed only the #2 SG using Aux Feed Water (AFW). The SPO has secured the "A" auxiliary feedwater pump and is attempting to start the turbine driven auxiliary feedwater pump.
Which one of the following additional actions will prevent feeding #1 SG while maintaining feedwater flow to #2 SG during the combined loss of VA-10/ESD event?
A.
Dispatch a PEO to locally close 2-FW-43A, "A" auxiliary feed regulating valve.
B.
Swap the turbine driven auxiliary feed pump control power supply to Facility 2.
C.
Place #1 OVERRIDE/MAN/START/RESET switch in 'Pull-To-Lock'.
D.
Place 2-FW-43A, "A" auxiliary feed regulating valve controller, in MANUAL and closed.
Answer:
A Answer Explanation The loss of VA-10 will cause the #1 aux feed regulating valve to fail open. In order to maintain feedwater flow to #2 SG and prevent feeding #1 SG, the turbine driven auxiliary feedwater pump must be in service with the cross-tie valve, 2-FW-44 closed. With 2-FW-44 supplied by Facility 2, the valve may be closed from C-05.
"C" is incorrect. Placing #1 OVERRIDE/MAN/START/RESET switch in 'Pull-To-Lock' will NOT prevent feeding #1 SG because the #1 aux feed regulating valve fails open on loss of VA-10.
"B" is incorrect because the control power supply to the turbine driven auxiliary feedwater pump is NOT affected; i.e.,
swapping power supplies will have NO impact on the turbine driven auxiliary feedwater pump or which S/G has feedwater flow.
"D" is incorrect because 2-FW-43A fails open on loss of power (VA-10) and CANNOT be closed from C-05.
Question 1 Info Question Type:
Multiple Choice Status:
Active Always select on test?
No Authorized for practice?
No Points:
1.00 Time to Complete:
3 Difficulty:
3.00 Allow multiple selections?
No Randomize choice order?
No System ID:
451586 Version ID:
557388 User-Defined ID:
1000113-MB Cross Reference Number:
061/K2.01 Topic:
LOIT, AFW-00-C, AFW, 2534, 2322, MB-05737, NRC-2002 Num Field 1:
Num Field 2:
Text Field:
NRC-2002, Q-53, R-0, RO Comments:
2002 NRC RO/SRO, LOIT, AFW-00-C, AFW, 2534, 2322, MB-05737, NRC-2002 - Ques. #53, Designated: RO - Comprehensive Associated objective(s):
ILT Predict the impact of the following Auxiliary Feedwater malfunctions on the Steam Generator heat removal: (MB 02178)
A) Loss of DC control power B) Loss of an Auxiliary Feedwater Pumps C) Failure of AFW flow control valves D) Loss of Vital 120 VAC CT MPS OPS UNIT 2 Page: 1 of 1 01 November 2022 Current View
Q10 ID: 419248 Points: 1.00 The plant is operating normally at 55 % power.
What is the expected position of the MSR Second Stage Reheating Steam Low Load and High Load Valves?
What is the condition of the Second Stage Reheater Drain Tank normal level control valves(NLCVs) and high level dump valves(HLDVs)?
A.
Low Load Valves are modulating (throttled) open in AUTO; High Load Valves are closed.
NLCVs modulate to control drain tank level, in AUTO; HLDVs shut, in AUTO.
B.
Low Load Valves are fully open; High Load Valves are fully closed NLCVs throttled to control drain tank level, in AUTO; HLDVs full open, in AUTO.
C.
Low Load Valves are throttled to 65%; High Load Valves are fully closed NLCVs throttled to control drain tank level, in Manual; HLDVs shut, in AUTO.
D.
Low Load Valves are fully closed; High Load Valves are fully open.
NLCVs modulate to control tank level, in AUTO; HLDVs shut, in AUTO.
Answer:
A Answer Explanation Below 65% HLV shut (raising power), goes shut at 60% lowering.
Question 1 Info Question Type:
Multiple Choice Status:
Review Always select on test?
No Authorized for practice?
No Points:
1.00 Time to Complete:
3 Difficulty:
1.00 Allow multiple selections?
No Randomize choice order?
Yes System ID:
419248 Version ID:
507381 User-Defined ID:
0062461-MB Cross Reference Number:
Topic:
MP2*NLIT [043 MSR-00-T 4364] (6/10/98) 2317/8, MSR Num Field 1:
Num Field 2:
Text Field:
Comments:
Question 1 History Exams Administered:
0 Student Encounters:
0 Answered Right:
0 Answered Wrong:
0 Partially Correct:
0 Answer Invalid:
0 Unanswered:
0 Ignore Response:
0 Avg Points Awarded:
0.00
... As % of Point Value:
0 Standard Deviation:
0.00 Associated objective(s):
NLIT Given a one-line diagram of the Moisture Separator Reheaters, label major components and trace primary flow paths. (MB-00174)
CT MPS OPS UNIT 2 Page: 1 of 1 02 November 2022 Current View
Q17 ID: 415748 Points: 1.00 A reactor startup is in progress.
Reactor power is 1 x 10-6 % and rising.
Channel B Wide Range Power circuit fails HIGH.
What is the effect on the Control Element Drive Ssystem (CEDS)?
A.
A CEA Withdrawal Prohibit (CWP) is inserted due to the Thermal Margin Low Pressure (TM/LP) setpoint being exceeded.
B.
A CEA Motion Inhibit (CMI) is inserted due to the Power Dependent Insertion Limit (PDIL) being exceeded.
C.
There is no effect until the first Power Range Nuclear Instrument Safety channel rises above 1 x 10-4 %.
D.
There is no effect if the CEAs are being operated in Manual Sequential Mode.
Answer:
B Answer Explanation 1 - WRONG; The CWP requires 2/4 Hi Pwr or TM/LP pre-Trips to be in order to arm.
2 - CORRECT; The PDIL is normally overridden below 10-4% (Level 1 bistable). However, with the failure of the Ch. "B" WR NI, its level 1 bistable will reset. This will rearm the PDIL and, based on present CEA height, cause a CMI.
3 - WRONG; The Level 1 bistable that affects the PDIL in CEAPDS is controlled by the Wide Range NIs, not the Linear Range NIs.
4 - WRONG; Although Sequencial Permissive will not be lost, the CMI generated by CEAPDS will still stop all CEA motion.
Question 1 Info Question Type:
Multiple Choice Status:
Active Always select on test?
No Authorized for practice?
No Points:
1.00 Time to Complete:
0 Difficulty:
3.00 Allow multiple selections?
No Randomize choice order?
No System ID:
415748 Version ID:
673752 User-Defined ID:
0078147-MB Cross Reference Number:
Topic:
CEDS, NIs, 2302A Num Field 1:
Num Field 2:
Text Field:
Comments:
Question 1 History Exams Administered:
0 Student Encounters:
0 Answered Right:
0 Answered Wrong:
0 Partially Correct:
0 Answer Invalid:
0 Unanswered:
0 Ignore Response:
0 Avg Points Awarded:
0.00
... As % of Point Value:
0 Standard Deviation:
0.00 CT MPS OPS UNIT 2 Page: 1 of 2 10 November 2022 Current View
Associated objective(s):
LOIT Given any of the following CEA motion interlocks, identify the purpose of the interlock, the CEA motion which is inhibited, the conditions which result in the interlock, the CEAs or CEA group(s) affected, the CEA control mode affected, and the control room indication of the interlock: [MB-02254]
B) Motion Inhibit from Shutdown Groups (MISH)
C) Motion Inhibit from Regulating Groups (MIRG)
D) Inhibit from Shutdown Groups (ISH)
E) Inhibit from Regulating Groups (IRG)
F) Out-Of-Sequence/Overlap (OOS/OVLP)
G) Power Dependent Insertion Limit (PDIL)
H) Group Deviation (DEV)
I) CEA Withdrawal Prohibit (CWP)
J) Upper Electrical Limit (UEL)
K) Lower Electrical Limit (LEL)
CT MPS OPS UNIT 2 Page: 2 of 2 10 November 2022 Current View
Q18 ID: 412342 Points: 1.00 Millstone Unit 2 is at 100% power with the following conditions:
-Unit on-line for 150 days. All systems are aligned in normal and are OPERABLE.
-Facility 1 Control Room Air Condtioning System is in operation when the following alarm annunciators alarm in the Control Room:
"Fire System Trouble" on panel C-06/07 "Control Room Duct Z1" Zone 2, alarms on panel C-26.
The operating crew performs the applicable actions of the associated Alarm Response Procedures (ARP) and determines that the Facility 1 Control Room Air Conditioning System inlet duct smoke detector has actuated "ON".
Facility 1 Control Room Air Conditioning System has properly re-aligned in response to the inlet duct smoke detector signal.
5 minutes later the "CNTL RM VENT RAD R 9799A," annunciator comes in due to a valid radiation signal?
How will Facility 1 Control Room Air Conditioning System respond to this signal?
A.
Facility 1 Control Room Air Conditioning System will immediately re-align to the "Recirculation" Mode in response to the radiation monitor signal.
B.
Facility 1 Control Room Air Conditioning System will remain aligned in reponse to the smoke detector condition.
C.
Facility 1 Control Room Air Conditioning System will re-align to the "Outside Air" Mode to purge the smoke condition from the Control Room.
D.
Facility 1 Control Room Air Conditioning System will re-align to the "Recirculation" Mode in response to the radiation monitor signal AFTER the smoke detector signal resets.
Answer:
A Answer Explanation CT MPS OPS COMMON Page: 1 of 3 20 December 2022 Current View
Control Room Ventilation Operability Test, Facility 1 (18 Months)
SP 2609G Rev. 000-00 4.2 Recirc Mode Test 4.2.2 APPLY smoke test gas at applicable point for Zone 2 upstream sensing tube.
4.2.3 WHEN detector actuates, PERFORM the following:
- a. STOP test gas flow.
- b. CHECK the following conditions (C-25A):
_ CRACS SPLY FAN, F-21A," trips
_ F-21A EXH DMPR, HV-203A," closed
_ CABLE VAULT EXH DMPR, HV-207," closed
_ EXH AIR DMPR, HV-208," open 4.2.4 TURN and HOLD CNTL RM VENT RAD R 9799A," function switch to CHECK," (C-101).
4.2.5 WHEN CNTL RM VENT RAD R 9799A," TRIP 2," alarm is lit, RELEASE function switch and allow it to return to OPERATE,"
(C-101).
4.2.6 CHECK the following conditions (C-25A):
F-21A EXH DMPR, HV-203A," open CRACS SPLY FAN, F-21A," on F-31A, EXH DMPR, HV-206A," open CRACS EXH FAN, F-31A" on F-32A, EXH DMPR, HV-212A," open CRACS FLTR FAN, F-32A," on MIN FRESH AIR DMPR, HV-202," closed CABLE VAULT EXH DMPR, HV-207," closed EXH AIR DMPR, HV-208," closed Question 1 Info Question Type:
Multiple Choice Status:
Review Always select on test?
No Authorized for practice?
No Points:
1.00 Time to Complete:
5 Difficulty:
1.00 Allow multiple selections?
No Randomize choice order?
Yes System ID:
412342 Version ID:
494918 User-Defined ID:
0086095-MB Cross Reference Number:
Topic:
MB-00372 CRA-01-C LOIT Control Room Air Conditioning System Enabling Objective MB-02301 Num Field 1:
Num Field 2:
Text Field:
Comments:
CT MPS OPS COMMON Page: 2 of 3 20 December 2022 Current View
Associated objective(s):
ILT As given in CRA-00-C, describe the effects on the Control Room Air Conditioning System of a loss or malfunction of the following: (MB 02301)
A) 480 VAC Electrical Distribution System B) Vital 120 VAC Electrical Distribution System C) Instrument Air System D) Radiation Elements RE 9799A and/or 9799B E) Smoke Detectors AE 8358 and/or 8362 CT MPS OPS COMMON Page: 3 of 3 20 December 2022 Current View
Q25 ELO 3.2 Core Voiding and Loading Effects Knowledge Check - Answer A reactor is shut down at 100 cps in the source range when a loss of coolant accident occurs.
Assuming the source neutron production rate remains constant, how and why will excore source range detector outputs change as homogeneous core voiding increases from 20 percent to 40 percent?
A.
Increases, because more neutron leakage is occurring.
B.
Decreases, because less neutron leakage is occurring.
C.
Increases, because Keff is increasing.
D.
Decreases, because Keff is decreasing.
Analysis:
A. CORRECT. Initially, excore source/startup range neutron indications will increase. This is because steam in the downcomer region (which is less dense than subcooled water) significantly lowers the fast-non-leakage probability (Lf).
Therefore, due to less neutron moderation occurring in the downcomer, more neutrons reach the excore source range neutron level, causing an increase in detector signal. As the core voiding increases (no magical point, but for GFES purposes around 50 - 60% voiding), the core cannot maintain criticality due to the loss of neutron moderator. Thus, the loss of the neutron source begins to compensate for the decrease in the downcomer region; fewer neutrons become available for subcritical multiplication and count rate decreases. Since the stem of this question specifically stated from 20% to 40%, the dominant effect is the increase in neutron indication due to increased leakage.
B. WRONG. Counts will be increasing during this phase of core voiding because more leakage is occurring.
C. WRONG. Counts are increasing because less moderation in the downcomer; however, Keff is actually decreasing due to the negative void coefficient of reactivity.
D. WRONG. Even though Keff is decreasing, counts will be increasing during this phase of core voiding.
Question Review by Program Approved View Lesson: Li-E30-01-C LOIT Station Blackout EOP 2530 Q30 MC The plant is shut down with EOP 2528, LOOP/LOFC, in progress due to a state wide blackout (loss of the grid).
Unit 3 is making preparations to start the Station Blackout Emergency Diesel Generator (EOG).
Which ONE of the following condition sets, taken by themselves, will necessitate declaration of an ELAP event?
A.
If the LOOP was the result of a hurricane, requiring a Service Water pump be protected from the storm surge.
B.
If the "A" EOG tripped on a ground fault while the Facility 2 Vital AC is energized through the cross-tie with Unit 3.
C.
If while attempting to restore a second Vital AC bus from Unit 3, the Station Blackout EOG is found unavailable.
D.
If the only available MP2 EOG is lost and a ground fault on 24E is not expected to be repaired for~ 90 minutes.
Answer:
D Answer Explanation:
D is CORRECT; EOP 2530, Note states that "An ELAP is declared when it is predicted that AC power will NOT be restored with ONE hour of the event initiation". When the only running MP2 EOG was lost, the plant is now in a Station Blackout event, requiring transition to EOP 2530. Power cannot be restored from Unit 3 Station Blackout EOG until 24E is available, which is predicted to be 90 minutes away.
A is WRONG; AOP 2560, Storms, High Winds and High Tides, give guidance to ensure one EOG would still be available by aligning it to be cooled by fire water before all Service Water is lost on a storm surge.
B is WRONG; Although this would raise the classification level of the event, it does not put the event into an ELAP condition because all AC has not been lost.
C is WRONG; Restoring a second Vital AC bus means one is already powered. Therefore a total loss of all AC has not occurred and the guidance of EOP 2530 is not relevant.
Question 11 Info Status:
Active Alwavs select on test?
No Authorized for practice?
No Points:
1.00 Time to Complete:
3 Difficulty:
1.00 Allow multiple selections?
No Randomize choice order?
No Svstem ID:
458961 Version ID:
660991 User-Defined ID:
Cross Reference Number:
Topic:
MP2 LOIT 2528 Entrv Condition Num Field 1:
Num Field 2:
Text Field:
Comments:
CT MPS OPS UNIT 2 Page: 27 of 49 31 October 2022
Q32 ID: 451589 Points: 1.00 The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following conditions present:
- Letdown is being diverted to Clean Liquid Radwaste (CLRW).
- The OFF-LINE CLRW Receiver Tank (CWRT) is FULL.
- The IN-SERVICE CWRT level has just reached 95% and the tank HI LEVEL alarm has actuated.
To prevent an overfill condition and potential spill situation, how will the CLRW System respond to this condition?
A.
Letdown will automatically realign to the VCT.
B.
The in-service CWRT will realign to the EDST.
C.
Influent to the in-service CWRT will automatically be realigned to the in-service CWMT.
D.
Influent to the in-service CWRT will automatically be realigned to the in-service AWDT.
Answer:
C Answer Explanation C: correct, CWRT to CWMT swap occurs at 95% level going up. Purpose of the Receiver Tank Auto-Bypass; A: this will prevent overfill, but won't address the need for L/D; B & D: plausible as they are receptacles for other sources of radwaste Question 1 Info Question Type:
Multiple Choice Status:
Active Always select on test?
No Authorized for practice?
No Points:
1.00 Time to Complete:
3 Difficulty:
3.00 Allow multiple selections?
No Randomize choice order?
No System ID:
451589 Version ID:
557176 User-Defined ID:
0155565-MB Cross Reference Number:
068/K4.01 Topic:
MP2*LOIT*2916 [068 CLR-04-C 3002] (8/22/96) 2335A, CLRW, MB-00581, NRC-2002 Num Field 1:
Num Field 2:
Text Field:
NRC-2002, Q-55, R-0, RO Comments:
2002 NRC RO/SRO, MP2*LOIT*2916 [068 CLR-04-C 3002]
(8/22/96) 2335A, CLRW, MB-00581, NRC-2002 - Ques. #55, Designated: RO - Memory CT MPS OPS COMMON Page: 1 of 2 20 December 2022 Current View
Associated objective(s):
NLIT Describe the functions of the following Clean Liquid Radwaste System local controls, including how the controlled component(s) is/are affected by each mode or position of the control:
(MB-00582)
A) EDST Pumps B) Primary Demin High Temperature Auto-Bypass C) Demin Inlet Control Valves D) Receiver Tank Auto-Bypass E) Monitor and Receiver Tank Inlet and Outlet Valves F) Ricirc Key Switch (HS-9053)
G) Coolant Liquid Radwaste System Discharge Valves 2-LRR-32.1/32.2 CT MPS OPS COMMON Page: 2 of 2 20 December 2022 Current View
Page 167 of 250 11/29/2022 12:49:37 PM
>QUESTION 35 The BOP is performing a task preview for the A Service Water pump surveillance. The pump delta-pressure (DP) acceptance criteria is identified as incorrect by Engineering and a change is required.
In accordance with AD-AA-100, Technical Procedure Process Control, 1.
What process will be used to make the change? AND 2.
What is required to implement the change?
A. 1. Administrative Correction Process.
- 2. Handwrite change in procedure and have supervisor initial and date.
B. 1. Administrative Correction Process.
- 2. Complete Administrative Correction Process form and obtain approvals.
C. 1. Feedback Incorporation Process (FIP).
- 2. Handwrite change in procedure and have supervisor initial and date.
D. 1. Feedback Incorporation Process (FIP).
- 2. Complete FIP form and obtain approvals.
Page 168 of 250 11/29/2022 12:49:37 PM
>QUESTION 35 K&A Rating:
G2.2.6 (3.0)
K&A Statement:
Equipment Control. Knowledge of the process for making changes to procedures.
Key Answer:
D Justification:
A.
Incorrect: The Administrative Correction Process cant be used for quantative acceptance criteria. This is detailed in AD-AA-100 under section 5.3.5, Administrative Correction.
Plausible: The Administrative Correction Process can be used for various types of changes and the normal method for making an administrative correction is to handwritte the change in the procedure and have it initialed and dated by a supervisor.
B.
Incorrect: The Administrative Correction Process cant be used for quantative acceptance criteria. This is detailed in AD-AA-100 under section 5.3.5, Administrative Correction.
Plausible: The Administrative Correction Process can be used for various types of changes and there is an Administrtaive Correction Authorization form.
C.
Incorrect: Use of the FIP process requires completion of the FIP form including obtaining approvals.
Plausible: Some procedure changes only required the change to be handwritten in the procedure and initialed and dated by a supervisor.
D.
CORRECT: The Feedback Incorporation Process (FIP) and complete FIP form and obtain approvals is correct. AD-AA-100 section 3.1 has a note that states that the Feedback Incorporation Process (FIP) is preferred method to initiate new or revised single-site procedures.
References:
AD-AA-100 Rev 12 Student Ref: NONE Learning Objective:
251837 Describe how a procedure change may be made when needed immediately.
Question Source:
New Question History:
New Cognitive Level:
Memory/Fundamental Knowledge: X Comprehensive/Analysis:
10CFR55:
CFR 41.10 / 43.3 / 45.13 Comments (Question 70): 6/21/20 jwr - John W comment to say identified incorrect by Engineering.
Change to stem made. 6/9/20 jwr. This was a high missed question. Revised question to specify what is normally used by Operators. 5/21/20 jwr. This question was replaced. The initial OPS validation commented that this question is not something the examinees are expected to know without the procedure, i.e. what is an intent vs non-intent change and what approval level is required.
6/10/20 added by Engineering in stem.
Filename:
NRC Written Exam 2020 John's copy for final Directory:
C:\\Users\\User\\Desktop\\Cassie retake\\Q35 Template:
C:\\Users\\User\\AppData\\Roaming\\Microsoft\\Templates\\Normal.dotm
Title:
Subject:
Author:
robe607 Keywords:
Comments:
Creation Date:
10/1/2020 5:00:00 AM Change Number:
5 Last Saved On:
10/1/2020 9:07:00 AM Last Saved By:
Bob Cimmino Total Editing Time:
275 Minutes Last Printed On:
11/29/2022 12:49:00 PM As of Last Complete Printing Number of Pages: 250 (approx.)
Number of Words: 44,525 (approx.)
Number of Characters:
253,798 (approx.)
Q40 ID: 413193 Points: 1.00 The selected Pressurizer Pressure Controller output fails to a value of 50% (a sudden rise of about 30%), which causes the spray valves to open about 5%.
Which one of the following describes the effect of the above failure?
A.
Pressurizer pressure will lower until the Backup heaters energize with the Proportional heaters remaining at minimum.
B.
Pressurizer pressure will lower until the Backup heaters energize and the Proportional heaters go to maximum.
C.
Pressurizer pressure lowers past the low pressure deviation alarm and the Backup heaters remain deenergized and the Proportional heaters remain at minimum.
D.
Pressurizer pressure will lower until the Backup heaters energize, then rise and stabilize at about 2250 psia with the Proportional heaters at minimum.
Answer:
A Answer Explanation When the controller output rises to 50%, the proportional heaters go to minimum and spray valves open slightly. The pressure will drop and cause backup heaters to eventually energize at 2200 psia. Because the B/U heaters were NOT turned on manually, they will automatically turn off if pressure rises to 2225 psia. Therefore, pressure cannot stabilize at 2250 psia with the B/U heaters energized and the Spray Valves partially open.
This is the approximate output value when the controller setpoint is adjusted to "Force PZR Sprays".
Question 1 Info Question Type:
Multiple Choice Status:
Active Always select on test?
No Authorized for practice?
No Points:
1.00 Time to Complete:
3 Difficulty:
2.00 Allow multiple selections?
No Randomize choice order?
No System ID:
413193 Version ID:
676632 User-Defined ID:
0085558-MB Cross Reference Number:
Topic:
MP2*LORT PLC-01-C, 2304A, PLPCS, NRC, APP Num Field 1:
Num Field 2:
Text Field:
Comments:
Question 1 History Exams Administered:
0 Student Encounters:
0 Answered Right:
0 Answered Wrong:
0 Partially Correct:
0 Answer Invalid:
0 Unanswered:
0 Ignore Response:
0 Avg Points Awarded:
0.00
... As % of Point Value:
0 Standard Deviation:
0.00 Associated objective(s):
ILT Given the plant with a steam bubble in the pressurizer, and given a pressurizer pressure deviation from setpoint, describe the response of the Pressurizer Pressure Control System including setpoints.
CT MPS OPS UNIT 2 Page: 1 of 1 30 November 2022 Current View
Q45 ID: 453289 Points: 1.00 The plant is operating in MODE 1 at 100% power with the following conditions:
- Injection temperature is 68°F
- "A" and "C" Service Water Pumps are supplying Facility 1 and 2, respectively.
- "B" Service Water Pump is out of service for planned maintenance.
The "C" Service Water (SW) Pump trips on overload. Within a few minutes, the "B" RBCCW Header high temperature alarm annunciates and the SPO informs the US that the "C" RBCCW heat exchanger outlet temperature is reading 122°F and rising.
Which of the following describes an action required due to the above conditions?
A.
Reduce heat loads to allow time for repairs.
B.
Cross-tie the "A" Service Water Pump to supply both SW headers.
C.
Commence a rapid downpower to Mode 3.
D.
Trip the plant and carry out EOP-2525.
Answer:
D Answer Explanation Per AOP-2564, if SW flow to RBCCW HXs is lost and RBCCW heat exchanger outlet temperature approaches 120°F (or higher), the associated RBCCW pump must be tripped. With a 68°F injection temp. this will occur rather rapidly.
- 1 - RBCCW heat loads cannot be appreciably reduced at power.
- 3 - There is not enough time to perform a downpower of any significance.
Question 1 Info Question Type:
Multiple Choice Status:
Always select on test?
No Authorized for practice?
No Points:
1.00 Time to Complete:
3 Difficulty:
3.00 Allow multiple selections?
No Randomize choice order?
No System ID:
453289 Version ID:
559782 User-Defined ID:
0071544-MB-1 Cross Reference Number:
062/AA2.04 Topic:
MP2 LOIT MB-3253 2565, SW, AOP, NRC-2000 Num Field 1:
Num Field 2:
Text Field:
NRC-2000, Q-20, R-0, RO Comments:
2000 NRC RO/SRO, MP2 LOIT MB-3253 2565, SW, AOP, NRC-2000 - Ques. #20, Designated: RO - Memory Associated objective(s):
NRC Questions CT MPS OPS UNIT 2 Page: 1 of 1 10 November 2022 Current View
Question Review by Program Approved View Lesson:
RMS-00-C Radiation Monitoring System Q53 MC Which of the following contains ONLY those valves which will receive a close signal due to the Steam Generator Blowdown, (SGBD) Radiation Monitor, RM-4262 exceeding its alarm level setpoint?
A.
SGBD Quench Tank pump discharge valve 2-MS-135, SGBD Blowdown Tank Discharge valve 2-MS-15, and the SG sample isolation valves 2-MS-191A & B.
B.
SGBD Quench Tank pump discharge valve 2-MS-135, SGBD Blowdown Tank Discharge valve 2-MS-15, and the SGBD isolation valves 2-MS-220A & B.
C.
SGBD isolation valves 2-MS-220A & B, blowdown sample discharge to secondary sample sink HV-4287/8 SG, and the DIS TO QUENCH TK MS-117A/B.
D.
SG blowdown sample discharge to secondary sample sink HV-4287/8, Discharge to blowdown tank MS-145A/B, and the SGBD Quench Tank pump discharge valve 2-MS-135.
Answer:
B Answer Explanation:
"A" WRONG; MS-191A&B do not receive an isolation signal on a Radiation monitor alarm.
Plausible; Examinee may confuse the signal that closes the SG sample isolation valves 2-MS-191A & B which is a CIAS.
"B" CORRECT; SGBD RM high closes all potential discharge paths to prevent the release of activity. Not closing the sample isolations allows continued monitoring of SGBD.
"C" WRONG; DIS TO QUENCH TK MS-117A/B does not receive an isolation signal.
Plausible; Examinee may think the Quench Tank gets isolated to prevent an unmonitored release.
"D" WRONG; Discharge to blowdown tank MS-145A/B does not receive an isolation signal.
Plausible; Examinee may think the Blowdown Tank gets isolated to prevent an unmonitored release..
Question 2 Info Status:
Active Always select on test?
No Authorized for practice?
No Points:
1.00 Time to Complete:
3 Difficulty:
2.00 Allow multiple selections?
No Randomize choice order?
No System ID:
452113 Version ID:
580085 User-Defined ID:
1000010-MB-1 Cross Reference Number:
073/K4.01 Topic:
MP2*LOIT SGBD RM, AOP 2569, NRC-2016 Num Field 1:
Num Field 2:
Text Field:
NRC-2016, Q-51, R-1, RO Comments:
2016 NRC RO/SRO, MP2*LOIT SGBD RM, AOP 2569, NRC-2016 - Ques. #51, Designated: RO - Memory CT MPS OPS UNIT 2 Page: 49 of 87 07 November 2022
Q55 ID: 452093 Points: 1.00 The plant is operating at 100% power and the monthly CEA operability surveillance is in progress. The Primary Plant Operator (PPO) has just finished inserting CEA #45 (Group A) 5 steps from the fully withdrawn position, when it suddenly slips to the 167 step position.
Which one of the following combinations of CEAPDS and PPC position indications matches what would be displayed on C-04 under these conditions?
A.
CEAPDS indicates 167 steps Computer indicates 175 steps B.
CEAPDS indicates 167 steps Computer indicates 167 steps C.
CEAPDS indicates 175 steps Computer indicates 167 steps D.
CEAPDS indicates 175 steps Computer indicates 175 steps Answer:
A Answer Explanation A: correct, CEAPDS will display the slipped CEA position because it monitors the reed switches for the individual CEA.
However, the PPC will only display a change in CEA position if the CEDM was actually "pulsed" to move the CEA. The only exception is if the CEA dropped to the bottom, in which case, the computer will reset to 0 steps..
"B" is incorrect because the computer was not 'pulsed' to the 167 step position, only to the 175 step position. This is a credible answer if the student is confused about which system, the computer or CEAPDS, will display actual CEA position on a dropped/slipped CEA.
"C" is incorrect because CEAPDS will show actual position regardless of whether the CEA was inserted normally or it slipped/dropped and because the computer was not 'pulsed' to the 167 step position, only to the 175 step position. This is a credible answer if the student is confused about which system, the computer or CEAPDS, will display actual CEA position on a dropped/slipped CEA.
"D" is incorrect because CEAPDS will display actual CEA position regardless of whether the CEA slipped or was inserted normally. This is a credible answer if the student is confused about which system, the computer or CEAPDS, will display actual CEA position on a dropped/slipped CEA.
Question 1 Info Question Type:
Multiple Choice Status:
Active Always select on test?
No Authorized for practice?
No Points:
1.00 Time to Complete:
3 Difficulty:
3.00 Allow multiple selections?
No Randomize choice order?
No System ID:
452093 Version ID:
557141 User-Defined ID:
0153945-MB-1 Cross Reference Number:
005/2.1.19 (AOP/EOP K/A)
Topic:
LOIT, [001 CED-01-C 2918], 2302A, CEDS, CEAPDS, PPC, 2556, MB-00910, NRC-2002 Num Field 1:
Num Field 2:
Text Field:
NRC-2002, Q-1, R-0, RO Comments:
2002 NRC RO/SRO, LOIT, [001 CED-01-C 2918], 2302A, CEDS, CEAPDS, PPC, 2556, MB-00910, NRC-2002 - Ques. #1, Designated: RO - Memory Question 1 History Exams Administered:
0 Student Encounters:
0 Answered Right:
0 Answered Wrong:
0 Partially Correct:
0 Answer Invalid:
0 Unanswered:
0 Ignore Response:
0 Avg Points Awarded:
0.00
... As % of Point Value:
0 Standard Deviation:
0.00 CT MPS OPS UNIT 2 Page: 1 of 2 09 November 2022 Current View
Associated objective(s):
ILT Given a set of plant conditions, determine AOP 2556, CEA Malfunctions, applicability.
CT MPS OPS UNIT 2 Page: 2 of 2 09 November 2022 Current View
Q71 ID: 486607 Points: 1.00 The plant is holding power at 47% in order to start a second Steam Generator Feed Pump.
A reactor trip occurs.
How do the Atmospheric Dump Valves (ADVs) and Condenser Steam Dumps respond?
ADVs Condenser Steam Dumps A.
Quick open, then operate on setpoint Quick open, then operate on setpoint B.
Quick open, then operate on setpoint Operate only on setpoint C.
Operate only on setpoint Quick open, then operate on setpoint D.
Operate only on setpoint Operate only on setpoint Answer:
D Answer Explanation A.
Incorrect:
Quick Open not armed with TAVE < 554 °F.
Plausible:
Might forget Quick Open arms > 554 °F.
B.
Incorrect:
Quick Open not armed with TAVE < 554 °F.
Plausible:
Might forget Quick Open arms > 554 °F.
C.
Incorrect:
Quick Open not armed with TAVE < 554 °F.
Plausible:
Might forget Quick Open arms > 554 °F.
D.
CORRECT: Quick Open not armed with TAVE < 554 °F. TAVE = 554 °F at approximately 60% power. Quick Open not required due to lower Rx Heat production.
References:
RRS-01-C, Reactor Regulating System Lesson Plan Student Ref: NONE Question 1 Info Question Type:
Multiple Choice Status:
Active Always select on test?
No Authorized for practice?
No Points:
1.00 Time to Complete:
5 Difficulty:
3.00 Allow multiple selections?
No Randomize choice order?
No System ID:
486607 Version ID:
619816 User-Defined ID:
Cross Reference Number:
039K1.02 Topic:
MP2 ILT RRS, 2204 Num Field 1:
Num Field 2:
Text Field:
Comments:
2020 NRC Exam - question 43 Question 1 History Exams Administered:
0 Student Encounters:
0 Answered Right:
0 Answered Wrong:
0 Partially Correct:
0 Answer Invalid:
0 Unanswered:
0 Ignore Response:
0 Avg Points Awarded:
0.00
... As % of Point Value:
0 Standard Deviation:
0.00 CT MPS OPS UNIT 2 Page: 1 of 2 29 November 2022 Current View
Associated objective(s):
ILT Given any of the following events or scenarios, describe the response of the Atmospheric and Condenser Steam Dump Valve Control System:
A) Turbine trip with TAVG anywhere in the normal operating range, B) Turbine Trip with various levels of Main Condenser vacuum, C) RCS temperature or SG pressure increase after a turbine trip, D) RCS temperature or SG pressure increase without a turbine trip signal present CT MPS OPS UNIT 2 Page: 2 of 2 29 November 2022 Current View
Q75 ID: 414242 Points: 1.00 The reactor is critical at 1% power.
'A' AFW pump is providing feed.
'B' Condensate pump is running on long-recycle.
Vital 120V AC Instrument Panel VA10 is lost.
What affect will this power loss have on the plant?
A.
- 1 Aux Feed Reg Valve fails open and #1 ADV fails closed.
B.
ESAS actuation cabinet 5 (Z1) will process a UV.
C.
Auto Aux Feedwater will not actuate for either channel.
D.
DG 12U will start and come up to speed, but will not close onto bus 24C.
Answer:
A Answer Explanation Answer 'A' is correct. AOP 2504C, Loss of 120 VAC Vital Instrument Panel VA-10 states in a caution that FW-43A, AFW-FCV, fails open on a loss of VA-10. And in the load list specifies that the #1 SG ADV controller fails which causes a loss of output to MS-190A (which fails valve closed).
Answer 'B' is not correct. ESAS actuation cabinet 5 will not process a signal because VA-10 powers cabinet 5. And power is required to process.
Answer 'C' is not correct. Auxiliary feed water requires sensor cabinet power to process. A loss of VA-10 will not trip a AFAIS channel because AFAIS is an energize to actuate design.
Answer 'D' is not correct. The 12 U DG will not start because a "UV" signal will not be processed because a loss sof VA-10 removes power from actuation cabinet 5. A loss of DV-10 will start the
'A' DG even if VA-10 is lost, but DV-10 is not lost.
Question 1 Info Question Type:
Multiple Choice Status:
Active Always select on test?
No Authorized for practice?
No Points:
1.00 Time to Complete:
3 Difficulty:
4.00 Allow multiple selections?
No Randomize choice order?
No System ID:
414242 Version ID:
676655 User-Defined ID:
0078723-MB Cross Reference Number:
Topic:
MP2*LOIT/LOUT, VA10, 2504C, VIAC Num Field 1:
Num Field 2:
Text Field:
Comments:
CT MPS OPS COMMON Page: 1 of 2 20 December 2022 Current View
Associated objective(s):
RO Evaluate equipment lost as specified in AOP 2504A/B/C/D/E/F, Loss of Non-Vital Instrument Panels VR-11 & VR-21, and Vital Instrument Panels VA-10, VA-20, VA-30, & VA-40 and determine required replacement equipment.
CT MPS OPS COMMON Page: 2 of 2 20 December 2022 Current View