ML18058B198
| ML18058B198 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Monticello, Davis Besse, Palisades, Perry, Fermi, Kewaunee, Byron, Braidwood, Prairie Island, Callaway, Zion  |
| Issue date: | 11/04/1992 |
| From: | Wright G NRC OFFICE OF INSPECTION & ENFORCEMENT (IE REGION III) |
| To: | AFFILIATION NOT ASSIGNED |
| References | |
| NUDOCS 9211100132 | |
| Download: ML18058B198 (64) | |
Text
NOV 0 4 1992 LETTER DISTRIBUTED TO THE TRAINING MANAGERS AT THE FOLLOWING FACILITIES:
Braidwood, Docket Nos. 50-456; 50-457 Byron, Docket Nos. 50-454; 50-455 Callaway, Docket No. 50-483 Davis-Besse, Docket No. 50-346 Fermi, Docket No. 50-341 Kewaunee, Docket No. 50-305 Monticello, Docket No. 50-263 Palisades, Docket No. 50-255 Perry, Docket No. 50-440 Prairie Island, Docket Nos. 50-282; 50-306 Zion, Docket Nos. 50-295; 50-304 On October 7, 1992, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission administered a Generic Fundamentals Examination Section (GFES) of the written operator licensing examination.
Your facility did not participate in this examination.
However, a copy of the master BWR/PWR GFES examination with the answer key is enclosed for your information.
If you have any questions concerning this master examination copy, please contact Mr. George Usova at (301) 504-1064.
Enclosure:
As stated cc w/o enclosure:
DCD/DCB (RIDS)
G. Usova, LOLB RIII f:tt/
/,,;~,y/mab 11/7 /92 9211100132 921104 PDR ADOCK 05000255 V
PDR Sincerely,
UNITED STATES NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION BOILING WATER REACTOR GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION OCTOBER 1992 -
FORM A Please Print:
Name:
Facility:
ID Number:
Start Time:
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE Use the answer sheet provided.
Each question has equal point value.
A score of at least 80% is required to pass this portion of the written licensing examination. All examination papers will be collected 2.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> after the examination starts.
SECTION QUESTIONS
% OF TOTAL SCORE COMPONENTS 1 -
44 REACTOR THEORY 45 -
72 THERMODYNAMICS 73 -
100 TOTALS 100 All work done on this examination is my own.
I have neither given nor received aid.
Candidate's Signature 1 -
RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR THE GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:
- 1.
Print your name in the blank provided on the cover sheet of the examination.
- 2.
Fill in the name of your facility.
- 3.
Fill in the ID Number you were given at registration.
- 4.
Fill in your start and stop times at the appropriate time.
- s.
Two aids are provided for your use during the examination:
(1)
An equations and conversions sheet contained within the examination copy, and (2)
Steam tables provided by your proctor.
- 6.
Use only the answer sheet provided.
Credit will only be given for answers properly marked on this sheet.
Follow the instructions for filling out the answer sheet.
- 7.
Scrap paper will be provided for calculations.
- 8.
- 9.
- 10.
- 11.
- 12.
Cheating on the examination will result in the automatic forfeiture of this examination. Cheating could also result in severe penalties.
Restroom trips are limited.
Only ONE examinee may leave the room at a time.
In order to avoid the appearance or possibility of cheating, avoid all contact with anyone outside of the examination room.
After you have completed the examination, *sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have not received or been given any assistance in completing the examination.
Turn in your examination materials, answer sheet on top, followed by the examination booklet, then examination aids -
steam table booklets, handouts and scrap paper used during the examination.
After turning in your examination materials, leave the examination area, as defined by the proctor. If after leaving you are found in the examination area while the examination is in progress, your examination may be forfeited.
2 -
e Q =
- Q =
- Q =
SUR SUR p =
p =
'[ =
p =
p =
GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATIONS SECTION EQUATIONS AND CONVERSIONS HANDOUT SHEET mcpl!.T
- ml!.h UMT
= 26.06/'f
= 2 6. 0 6 CAeuP)
(fJ -
p) p lOSUR(t) 0 p
(t/'T) oe
[ c:B C 1 IP> +
(Keff -
- P > I >.e11 Pl EQUATIONS Cycle Efficiency =
SCR = Sf ( 1 -
Keff)
Net Work (out)
Energy (in)
CR1 ( 1 -
Keff) 1 = CRz ( 1-Keffh M = ( 1 -
Keff) o
( 1 -
Keff) 1
'f=l/(p-p) 1* = 1 x 10"5 seconds
-1
>.~ 1 = 0.1 seconds
-2
-2 v(Pe -
Pi) + ("e
~) + g(ze -
zi) = 0 2
CONVERSIONS 1 curie 10 kg
=
3.7 x 10 dps 1
=
2.21 lbm 1 hp 3
106 BTU/hr
=
- 2. 54 x 10 BTU/hr 1 Mw =
3.41 x 1 BTU
=
778 ft-lbf OF
= 9/5 oc + 32 oc
=
5/9(°F -
- 32) 3 -
QUESTION:
1 USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A Which of the following correctly describes the operation of a safety valve installed on a high pressure steam system?
A.
A safety valve will remain open until system pressure has been reduced to the pilot valve actuation setpoint.
B.
A safety valve is initially lifted off its seat by system pressure, then is forced fully open by an air-operated piston.
- c.
As system pressure increases to the safety set point, the pressure overcomes spring force on the valve operator, causing the valve to open.
D.
When the open safety valve has returned system pressure to the lifting set point, a combination of air and steam pressure above the valve disk closes the valve.
4 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
2 Refer to the drawing of a spring-loaded air-operated valve shown in a throttled position (see figure below).
What will be the valve position following a reduction in air pressure to the valve actuator caused by a leaking air connection at the valve?
A.
As is B.
More closed
- c.
More open o.
Varies with system flow SPRING-LOADED AIR-OPERATED VALVE 5 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
3 An adjustment has just been completed on the packing gland of an automatic valve to stop a minor stem leak.
Which one of the following will occur if the operator overtightened the packing gland?
A.
Decreased cooling flow to the valve internals B.
Separation of the valve disk from the valve stem
- c.
Misalignment of valve position limit switches D.
Increased stroke time from fully open to fully closed QUESTION:
4 Which statement best describes the function and use of valve backseats?
A.
Valve backseats are provided as a backup in case the primary seat leaks and are normally used during plant operations.
B.
- c.
D.
Valve backseats are provided as a backup in case the primary seat leaks and are only used when needed to prevent valves from leaking excessively.
Valve backseats are provided to remove pressure from the packing and stuffing box and are only used when needed to prevent packing leakage.
Valve backseats are provided to remove pressure from the packing and stuffing box and are the normal method used to isolate the stuffing box for valve repacking
- 6 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
s Gate valves are most often used:
A.
as isolation valves.
B.
for throttling fluid flow.
- c.
to protect systems by relieving excess pressure.
D.
to limit flow in a piping system to one direction.
QUESTION:
6 Which one of the following will cause indicated liquid flow rate to be higher than actual flow rate using a differential pressure
{D/P) flow detector with a calibrated orifice?
A.
System pressure decreases.
B.
The detector diaphragm ruptures.
- c.
Debris becomes lodged in the orifice.
D.
The pressure surrounding the D/P detector housing decreases.
7 -
QUESTION:
7 USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A Ref er to the drawing of a pipe elbow used for flow measurement (see figure below).
At which one of the following locations is the highest pressure sensed?
(Assume a constant pipe diameter and zero head loss in this section of pipe.)
A.
Point A B.
Point B
- c.
Point c D.
Point D t t t FLOW
~ ----
D PIPE ELBOW 8 -
QUESTION:
8 USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A Ref er to the drawing of a reactor vessel differential pressure level detector (see figure below).
What is the reason for the reference leg* being connected to the reactor pressure vessel (RPV) instead of being filled by a water source independent of the RPV?
A.
To provide compensation for the RPV pressure exerted on the variable leg.
B.
To make the indicated level proportional to the square root of the differential pressure between the reference and variable legs for all reactor pressures.
- c.
To provide a vent path for the prevention of a reference leg rupture during a rapid RPV depressurization.
D.
To alleviate the need for density compensation by keeping the reference leg at the same temperature as the variable leg.
REACTOR VESSEL EQUALIZING VALVE REACTOR VESSEL DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE LEVEL DETECTOR 9 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
9 Ref er to the drawing of a tank differential pressure (D/P) level detector (see figure below).
A differential pressure level transmitter with its reference leg vented to atmosphere is being used in a control loop to maintain liquid level in a vented tank at so percent.
The transmitter was calibrated at a tank temperature of 200°F.
If the tank temperature gradually falls to 100°F, loop will cause actual level to:
A.
B.
- c.
D.
be maintained at so percent.
decrease and remain below so percent.
.increase and remain above so percent.
first increase, then decrease to so percent.
TANK OPEN TO ATMOSPHERE DIP DETECTOR TANK DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE LEVEL DETECTOR 10 -
the control
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 10 Ref er to the drawing of a reactor vessel differential pressure (D/P) level detector (see figure below).
The D/P detector was calibrated at the current conditions.
Which one of the following will cause the level instrument to indicate lower than actual level?
(Assume actual level remains the same.)
A.
The variable leg ruptures.
B.
The equalizing valve is opened.
- c.
The reference leg temperature increases.
D.
The differential pressure cell diaphragm ruptures.
REACTOR VESSEL CONDENSING CHAMBER EQUALIZING VALVE REACTOR VESSEL DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE LEVEL DETECTOR 11 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 11 A bourdon tube works on the principle that when the pressure sensed by the tube decreases the tube tends to:
(Assume detected pressure remains above atmospheric pressure.)
A.
coil due to the spring action of the metal overcoming the pressure-induced force on the inside of the tube.
B.
straighten due to the spring action of the metal overcoming the pressure-induced force on the inside of the tube.
- c.
coil due to the greater pressure-induced force on the outside of the tube.
D.
straighten due to the greater pressure-induced force on the outside of the tube.
12 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
12 Refer to the drawing of a simple thermocouple circuit (see figure below).
How will the indicated temperature be affected if the temperature of the measuring junction decreases by 10°F while the temperature of the reference junction increases by 10°F?
A.
There will be no change.
B.
Increase by 10°F
- c.
Increase by 20°F D.
Decrease by 20°F REFERENCE [COLD]
JUNCTION POTENTIOMETER (TEMPERATURE INDICATION)
SIMPLE THERMOCOUPLE CIRCUIT 13 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 13 Most of the electrons collected in a fission chamber are released as a result of ionizations caused directly by:
A.
fission betas.
B.
fission gammas.
- c.
fission fragments.
D.
fissionable materials.
QUESTION:
l~
In an ion chamber radiation detector, if.the electric field strength is increased within the ion chamber region, the total number of ions detected
, and the ions collected in the ion chamber are incident gamma radiation level.
A.
stays the same; independent of B.
increase; independent of
- c.
stays the same; proportional to o.
increases; proportional to 14 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
15 Which one of the following describes the response of a direct-acting purely derivative controller, operating in automatic, to an increase in the controlled parameter above the controller setpoint?
A.
The controller will develop an output signal that continues to increase until the controlled parameter equals the controller setpoint, at which time the output signal becomes constant.
B.
The controller will develop an output signal that will remain directly proportional to the difference between the controlled parameter and the controller setpoint.
- c.
The controller will develop an output signal that continues to increase until the controlled parameter equals the controller setpoint, at which time the output signal becomes zero.
D.
The controller will develop an output signal that will remain directly proportional to the rate of change of the controlled parameter.
QUESTION:
16 If the turbine shaft speed signal received by a typical turbine governor control system fails high during turbine startup, the turbine governor will cause turbine speed to:
A.
B.
- c.
D.
increase, until an upper limit is reached or the turbine trips on overspeed.
decrease, until the mismatch with demanded turbine speed is nulled.
increase, until the mismatch with demanded turbine speed is nulled.
decrease, until a lower limit is reached or turbine steam flow is isolated.
15 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
17 The range of values around the setpoint in an automatic flow controller where no action is expected is called:
A.
deadband.
B.
deviation.
- c.
error.
D.
bias.
QUESTIO:t-l:
13 starting a centrifugal pump with the discharge valve fully open (versus throttled) the possibility of pump runout and the possibility of pump cavitation.
A.
increases; decreases B.
increases; increases
- c.
decreases; decreases D.
decreases; increases 16 -
OSNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
19 A centrifugal pump is operating at rated speed with an output head of 240 psid.
The speed of the pump is then decreased until the power consumption is 1/64 of its original value.
What is the approximate new output head?
A.
60 psid B.
30 psid
- c.
15 psid D.
3.75 psid 17 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
20 Ref er to the drawing of a cooling water system and the associated centrifugal pump operating curve (see figure below) in which pumps A and B are identical single-speed centrifugal pumps and only pump A is operating.
If pump B is started, after the system stabilizes system flow rate will be:
A.
less than B.
twice the
- c.
more than D.
the same; twice the original flow.
original flow.
twice only the original flow.
the discharge head HEAT EXCHANGER FROll HEAT-~-
LOADS
.... ~,,
COOLING WATER SYSTEM PUllP HEAD SINGLE CENTRIFUGAL PUMP OPERATING CURVE 18 -
change.
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
21 A centrifugal pump is operating in parallel with a positive displacement pump in an open system.
Each pump has the same design pressure.
If pump discharge pressure increases to the maximum design pressure of each pump, the centrifugal pump will be operating at flow and the positive displacement pump will be operating at flow.
A.
minimum; minimum B.
minimum; rated
- c.
maximum rated; minimum D.
maximum rated; rated QUESTION:
22 What will increase reactor recirculation pump available net positive suction head?
(Assume all other parameters remain constant.)
A.
B.
- c.
D.
Loss of f eedwater heating while at 80 percent power Decrease in reactor pressure during a normal reactor shutdown Increase in reactor coolant temperature from 100°F to 200°F during a reactor startup Decrease in reactor water from the normal level to just below the low-level alarm level 19 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
23 A pump is circulating water at 200°F in a closed system equipped with a surge tank.
Several hours later, after system heatup and no lineup changes, the same pump is now circulating 450°F water.
Observation of pump motor amps would show that, during the system heatup, motor amps have:
A.
increased slightly.
B.
decreased.
- c.
remained the same.
D.
increased by a factor of two.
20 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 24 Ref er to the drawing of a centrifugal pump characteristic curve (see figure below).
At which operating point will pump runout occur?
A.
Point A B.
Point B
- c.
Point c D.
Point D PUMP HEAD POINT A
/
FLOW CENTRIFUGAL PUMP OPERATING CURVE 21 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
25 A centrifugal pump is operating at rated conditions in a closed system with all valves fully open.
If the pump suction valve is throttled to 50 percent, pump discharge pressure will and flow will A.
increase; decrease B.
increase; increase
- c.
decrease; decrease D.
decrease; increase QUESTl:CN:
26 A motor-driven centrifugal pump exhibited indications of pump failure while being started.
Which one of the following pairs of indications will occur if the pump failure is a sheared impeller shaft?
A.
Excessive duration of high starting current and motor breaker trips.
B.
Excessive duration of high starting current and no change in system flow rate.
- c.
Lower than normal running current and m~tor breaker trips.
D.
Lower than normal running current and no change in system flow rate.
22 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 27 A centrifugal pump is operating with the following parameters:
Speed
= 1,800 rpm Current
= 40 amperes Pump Head
= 20 psi Pump Flow Rate = 400 gpm What will be the new value of pump head and current if the speed is increased to 2,000 rpm?
A.
25 psi, 55 amps B.
25 psi, 44 amps
- c.
22 psi, 55 amps D.
22 psi, 44 a:mps QUESTION:
28 For large electric motors, why must the number of starts over a period of time be limited?
A.
Protect the motor windings from overheating B.
Prevent rotor seizure due to thermal expansion of the windings
- c.
Prevent motor thrust-bearing damage due to lack of lubrication D.
Protect the power supply cables from insulation breakdown due to high starting current 23 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 29 A flow of electrons is measured in what units?
A.
Ohms B.
Volts
- c.
Amperes D.
Volt-amps reactive QUESTION:
30 The main generator is paralleled to the grid with VARs currently at zero.
If generator field excitation increases, the generator will supply
.VARs and generator power factor will A.
leading; increase B
- lagging; increase
- c.
leading; decrease D
- lagging; decrease 24 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 31 Refer to the drawing of a water cleanup system (see figure below).
Valves A, B, and C are fully open.
Valve D is 20 percent open.
All temperatures are as shown.
Valve D is then quickly opened to 100 percent.
The A.
B.
- c.
D.
temperature at point:
3 will 4 will 5 will 7 will increase.
decrease.
decrease.
increase.
RETURN TO SYSTEM 1
450°F A
FROM SYSTEM*
HEAT EXCHANGER 5
90°F 6
110°F 122"F 7
ION EXCHANGER WATER CLEANUP SYSTEM 25 -
COOLING WATER
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
32 Decreasing the temperature of a cooled system using a shell-and-tube heat exchanger is normally accomplished A.
decreasing the cooled system flow.
B.
increasing the cooled system flow.
- c.
decreasing the cooling system flow.
D
- increasing the cooling system flow.
26 -
by:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
33 Refer to the drawing of a lube oil heat exchanger (see figure below).
Given the following existing conditions, what is the cooling water inlet temperature (Twater in> for this heat exchanger?
Cp-oi L
=
cp-water
=
Toil in
=
Toi L out
=
Twater out
=
moil
=
inwater
=
50°F Ji..
B.
60°F
- c.
75°F D.
80°F 1.1 BTU/lbm-°F
- 1. 0 BTU/lbm-°F 115°F goop 110°F 1.8 x 1.65 x COOLING WATER 104 lbm/hr 104 lbm/hr WBE OIL HEAT EXCHANGER 27 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
34 During normal reactor operation, a main condenser develops an air leak which decreases vacuum at a rate of 1 in Hg/min.
Which one of the following plant parameters would first show an increase because of this condition?
A.
Generator megawatt output B.
Extraction steam flow
- c.
Condensate hotwell temperature D.
Circulating water outlet temperature QUESTION:
35 A condenser absolute pressure of 4 11 Hg is equivalent to:
A.
11 11 Hg vacuum.
B.
13 11 Hg vacuum *
- c.
26 11 Hg vacuum.
D.
28 11 Hg vacuum.
28 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 36 Proper venting of a shell-and-tube heat exchanger is important because an air bubble:
A.
causes flow restriction within the heat exchanger.
B.
reduces the heat transfer ability of the heat exchanger.
- c.
causes thermal shock as it moves through the heat exchanger.
D.
causes pressure transients within the tubes as heat load changes.
QUESTION:
37 The efficiency of a condensate demineralizer can be determined by:
A.
monitoring the change in differential pressure across the demineralizer
- B.
sampling the inlet and outlet of the demineralizer to detect a difference in radioactivity.
- c.
performing a chemical analysis on the outlet of the rlemineralizer to detect silicate.
D.
sampling the inlet and outlet of the demineralizer to determine the change in conductivity
- 29 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
38 Which one of the following refers to the condition in which large portions of a demineralizer resin bed are bypassed, thereby allowing waterborne impurities to reach the outlet?
A.
Channeling B.
Leaching
- c.
Exhaustion D.
Mineralization QUESTION:
39 The anion resin in a mixed-bed demineralizer releases ions into solution while removing charged ions from solution.
A.
hydroxide; negatively B.
hydroxide; positively
- c.
hydrogen; negatively D.
hydrogen;. positively 30 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
40 Which of the following local circuit breaker indications must be reset after operation to ensure reliable indication is provided?
A.
Overcurrent trip flags B.
OPEN/CLOSED mechanical flag
- c.
Spring CHARGE/DISCHARGE flag D.
OPEN/CLOSED indicating lights QUESTION:
41 Thermal overload devices are designed to provide motor protection in the event of:
A.
high bearing temperatures.
B.
electrical short circuits *
- c.
excessive duration of starting current.
D.
motor winding insulation breakdown.
31 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 42 Refer to the drawing of a typical valve control circuit (see figure below).
The initiating condition occurs and closes the #1 and #2 contacts to energize the K-3 relay and open the valve.
Which one of the following will close the valve?
A.
Loss of 125 VDC B.
Both #1 and #2 contacts open
- c.
Either #1 or #2 contact opens D.
Depressing the S1 pushbutton with the initiating condition present
+125 voe---------.-------
TO VALVE S1
- 1 CONTACT} CLOSED BY INmATING I #2 CONTACT CONDITION r---
- 3 CONTACT MOTOR ----L.------------
K3RELAY CIRCUIT (ENERGIZE TO OPEN VALVE.
DEENERGIZE TO CLOSE VALVE.)
-125VDC--------_._ _____ __
TYPICAL VALVE CONTROL CIRCUIT 32 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 43 While paralleling a three-phase AC generator to the grid, closing the generator output breaker with the frequency of the generator higher than grid frequency will result in generator load:
A.
increasing.
B.
decreasing.
- c.
remaining constant.
D.
fluctuating.
QUESTION:
44 Which one of the following describes a benefit of using charged springs (in lieu of a solenoid operator) to close some 4160 volt breakers?
A.
Springs produce faster breaker closing.
B.
Springs can be repaired or replaced without removing the breaker from service.
- c.
Springs provide stored energy to allow local cycling of the breaker upon loss of control power.
D.
Springs will keep the breaker contacts firmly seated *after closing to minimize arcing.
33 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
45 The term "neutron generation time" is defined as the average time between:
A.
neutron absorption and resulting fission.
B.
neutron thermalization and subsequent neutron absorption.
- c.
the production of a delayed neutron and subsequent neutron thermalization.
- o.
neutron absorption producing a fission and absorption of resultant neutrons.
QUESTION:
46 The ideal moderator has a cross section and a macroscopic absorption average logarithmic energy decrement.
A.
small; small B.
small; large
- c.
large; small D.
large; large 34 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
47 The shutdown margin (SOM) immediately following a reactor trip from full power is the SOM immediately prior to the trip.
A.
less than B.
greater than
- c.
equal to
- o.
independent of QUESTION:
48 One hour ago, the reactor scrammed from 100% steady state power due to an instrument malfunction.
All systems operated normally.
Given the following absolute values of reactivities added since the scram, assign a (+) or (-) as appropriate and choose the current value of shutdown margin
= { ) 1.0% AK/K Fuel Temperature = { ) 2.0% AK/K Control Rods
= { ) 14.0% AK/K Voids
= { ) 3.0% AK/K A.
-8.0% 11K/K B.
-10.0% 11K/K
- c.
-14.0% 11K/K o.
-20.0% AK/K 35 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
49 Of the following conditions, which group is necessary for subcritical multiplication to occur and be detected?
A.
Keff less than one, moderator, and control rods B.
Neutron source, moderator, and fissionable material
- c.
Moderator, neutron source, and Keff greater than one D.
Fissionable material, moderator, and Keff less than one QUESTION:
SO Compared,to the effective delayed neutron fraction C/3eff), the delaye~ neutron fraction ({3):
(Consider U-235 fuel only.)
A.
is based on a finite-sized reactor whereas Q is based on an
"'eff infinite-sized reactor
- B.
changes due to fuel depletion whereas f3eff will remain constant over core life.
- c.
D.
is a ratio of the largest delayed neutron precursor decay constants whereas f3eff is a weighted average of all the decay constants.
describes the fraction of neutrons born delayed whereas Q "'eff describes the fraction of fissions caused by delayed neutrons
- 36 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
51 As the core ages, the amount of positive reactivity required to make the reactor prompt critical will because the effective delayed neutron fraction A.
increase; decreases B.
increase; increases
- c.
decrease; decreases D.
decrease; increases QUESTION:
52 As fuel temperature increases, the effective resonant absorption peaks exhibited by U-238 will in height and will in width.
A.
decrease; increase B.
decrease; decrease
- c.
increase; increase D.
increase; decrease 37 -
OSNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
53 During a hot reactor startup with the reactor coolant at 520°F, excessive rod withdrawal results in a 10 second reactor period.
Without any further operator action, the coefficient will respond first to reduce the rate of the power increase.
A.
void B.
Doppler
- c.
pressure D.
moderator QUESTION:
54 Withdrawing a deep control rod is used to control which of the following?
A.
Flux shaping B.
Rod shadowing
- c.
Reverse power effect D.
Radial power distribution 38 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 55 Rod density is a measure of the:
A.
percentage of control rods inserted into the core.
B.
percentage of control rods withdrawn from the core.
- c.
number of control rods fully inserted compared to the number of control rods fully withdrawn.
D.
number of control rods fully withdrawn compared to the number of control rods fully inserted.
QUESTION:
56 In regard to core parameters that affect control rod worth, which of the following statements is correct?
A.
Control rod worth increases with an increase in voids.
B.
Control rod worth increases with an increase in fast neutron flux.
- c.
Control rod worth decreases when approaching end of core life (EOL)
- D.
Control rod worth decreases when the temperature of the fuel decreases
- 39 -
QUESTION:
~--------
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 57 A control rod is positioned in the reactor with the following neutron flux parameters:
Core average thermal neutron flux control rod tip thermal neutron flux
= 1012 n/cm2-sec
= 5 x 1012 n/cm2-sec If the control rod is slightly withdrawn such that the tip of the control rod is located in a thermal neutron flux of 1013 n/cm -sec, then the differential control rod worth will increase by a factor of (Assume the average flux is constant.)
A.
2 B.
4
- c.
10 D.
100 QUESTION:
58 Which one of the following is a characteristic of xenon-135?
A.
Thermal neutron flux level affects both the production and removal of xenon-135.
B.
Thermal neutrons interact with xenon-135 primarily through scattering reactions.
- c.
Xenon-135 is primarily a resonant absorber of epithermal neutrons.
D.
Xenon-135 is produced from the radioactive decay of barium-135
- 40 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 59 The primary method of xenon-135 production during reactor operation at steady state full power is by and the primary method of samarium-149 production is by A.
fission of U-235; fission of U-235 B.
fission of U-235; decay of Pm-149
- c.
decay of I-135; fission of U-235 D.
decay of I-135; decay of Pm-149 QUESTION:
60 If equilibrium reactor power level is increased from 50 percent to 100 percent, equilibrium xenon concentration will increase to a level that is:
A.
equal to twice the 50 percent power concentration.
B.
less than twice the 50 percent power concentration.
- c.
more than twice the 50 percent power concentration.
D.
unpredictable unless the exact duration of operation at the two power levels is known
- 41 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
61 Which one of the following statements best describes the difference in peak xenon concentration following a reactor scram after one week at 100% power and a scram after one week at 50%
power?
A.
The time to reach the peak is shorter after 100% power than after 50% power, due to the higher iodine decay rate.
B.
The peaks are equal because the decay rate of iodine remains constant.
- c.
The peak from 50% power is of a larger magnitude due to the lower initial rate of xenon burnout.
D.
The peak from 100% power is of a larger magnitude, due to the larger initial iodine concentration.
QUESTION:
62 A reactor is operating at the beginning of core life, 100% power, and equilibrium xenon concentration when a scram occurs.
When the reactor is taken critical 5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> later, xenon distribution in the core will cause thermal neutron flux to be peaked near the of the core.
A.
bottom and center B.
bottom and outer circumference
- c.
top and center D.
top and outer circumference 42 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 63 A reactor has been operating at full power for 10 weeks when a scram occurs.
Twenty-four hours later the reactor is brought critical and power level is maintained on range 5 of the intermediate range monitors.
To maintain a constant power level for the next several hours, control rods must be:
A.
withdrawn, because xenon concentration is increasing toward equilibrium.
B.
inserted, because xenon will approximately follow its normal decay curve.
- c.
inserted, because the critical reactor will cause a high rate of xenon burnout.
D.
maintained at the present height as xenon establishes its equilibrium value for this power level
- QUESTION:
64 Burnable poisons are loaded into the core to:
A.
provide for flux shaping in areas of deep rods.
B.
allow shallow rods to compensate for core burnout.
C.
allow the core to have excess reactivity to extend core life.
D.
reduce the amount of time required for xenon to peak following a scram.
43 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
65 A refueling outage has just been completed and a reactor startup is being commenced.
Which one of the following lists the method(s) used to add positive reactivity during the startup to criticality?
A.
Control rods only B.
Recirculation pump flow only
- c.
Control rods and recirculation pump flow D.
Recirculation pump flow and steaming rate QUESTION:
66 During a reactor startup, as Keff approaches unity, which one of the following statements is correct for equal positive reactivity additions?
A.
The number of fast neutrons gained per generation increases more slowly.
B.
The changes in neutron population are larger.
- c.
As the neutron population increases, the number of neutrons lost per generation decreases.
D.
A step increase in Keff increases the neutron population and therefore decreases the number of neutrons lost per generation
- 44 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
67 At one point during a reactor plant startup and approach to criticality, count rate is noted to be 780 cps, and Keff is calculated to be 0.92.
Later in the same startup, count rate is 4160 cps.
What is the new Keff?
A.
0.945 B.
0.950
- c.
0.975 D.
0.985 QUESTION:
68 During a reactor startup, as Keff approaches 1.0, it takes longer to reach an equilibrium neutron count rate due to the increased effect of:
A.
fast neutrons.
B.
slow neutrons.
- c.
prompt neutrons.
D.
delayed neutrons.
45 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
69 A reactor is critical just below the point of adding heat (POAH) at a temperature of 160°F.
Which one of the following will result in reactor power increasing and stabilizing at the POAH?
{Assume a negative moderator temperature coefficient.)
A.
Reactor recirculation flow increases 10%.
B.
Core xenon concentration decreases.
- c.
A single control rod moves in one notch.
D.
Reactor coolant temperature increases 3°F.
QUESTION:
70 A reactor is critical well below the point of adding heat when a small amount of positive reactivity is added to the core.
If the same amount of negative reactivity is added to the core approximately one minute later, reactor power will stabilize at:
A.
the initial power level.
B.
somewhat lower than the initial power level.
- c.
somewhat higher than the initial power level.
D.
the subcritical multiplication equilibrium level.
46 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
71 A reactor heat-up from 180°F to 500°F is in progress.
To maintain a constant heat-up rate, as reactor temperature increases reactor power will have to:
A.
increase due to increasing density of water.
B.
decrease due to decreasing specific heat of water.
- c.
increase due to increasing heat losses to ambient.
D.
decrease due to decreasing heat of vaporization of water.
QUESTION:
72 Shortly after a reactor trip, reactor power when a stable negative period is attained.
indication will decrease to 0.05 percent in seconds.
A.
80 B.
180
- c.
280
- o.
380 47 -
indicates 0.5 percent Reactor power approximately
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
73 Ref er to the drawing of four tank differential pressure level detectors (see figure below).
The tanks are identical and are being maintained at 17 psia and the same constant water level.
They are surrounded by standard atmospheric pressure.
The water in the tank and reference leg is at the same temperature.
If each detector experiences a ruptured diaphragm, which detector(s) will cause indicated tank level to decrease?
(Assume actual tank water level remains constant.)
A.
No. 1 and 3 B.
No. 2 and 4
- c.
No. 1 only D
- No. 2 only ll!l'EllENCE LEG
!RU. CCINNICTION D/I' DITICTOll ll0.1 Dtl' DETECTOll
-~
D/I' DITECTOll llO.Z D/I' DITICTOll NO.*
TANK DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE LEVEL DETECTORS 48 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 74 A liquid is saturated with O percent quality.
Assuming pressure remains constant, the addition of a small amount of heat will:
A.
raise the liquid temperature above the boiling point.
B.
result in a subcooled liquid.
- c.
result in vaporization of the liquid.
D.
result in a superheated vapor.
QUESTION:
75 What is the quality of wet steam leaving the reactor at 476°F with an enthalpy of 928.9 Btu/lb?
A.
75%
B.
63%
- c.
54%
D.
37%
49 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
76 The lowest pressure in a liquid jet pump exists in the:
A.
throat.
B. 'diffuser.
- c.
rams head.
D.
impeller eye.
QUESTION:
77 Condenser pressure is 1.0 psia.
During the cooling process in the condenser, the LP turbine exhaust reaches a, temperature of 101°F, at which time it is: -
A.
saturated vapor.
B.
superheated vapor.
- c.
saturated liquid.
D
- subcooled liquid.
50 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
78 A loss of the heating steam to the moisture separator/reheaters for a main turbine will result in turbine blade erosion and steam cycle efficiency.
A.
increased; unchanged B.
increased; decreased
- c.
unchanged; unchanged D.
unchanged; decreased QUESTION:
79 Which of the following operating practices minimizes the possibility of water hammer?
A.
Vent systems after initiating system flow.
B.
Change valve positions as rapidly as possible.
- c.
Start centrifugal pumps with the discharge valve closed.
D.
Start positive displacement pumps with the discharge valve closed.
51 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
80 The available net positive suction head (NPSH) of a centrifugal pump:
A.
decreases with an increase in pump flow rate.
B.
decreases as pump discharge pressure increases.
C.
decreases with increased subcooling to the pump.
D.
increases as the suction temperature increases.
QUESTION:
81 Water that is being pumped provides cooling, lubricating, and sealing functions for the pump internals.
To ensure these functions are being met during the initial post-maintenance start of a centrifugal pump, the operator must ensure that the pump:
A.
has been vented.
B.
has been rotated by hand.
- c.
discharge valve is fully closed.
D.
packing gland leak-off is adequate.
52 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
82 As fluid flow rate increases through the.tubes of a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, the laminar film thickness
, which causes heat transfer rate to
~~~~~~
A.
decreases; increase B.
decreases; decrease
- c.
increases; increase D.
increases; decrease QUESTION:
83 A counterflow lubricating oil heat exchanger is in operation when the cooling water flow rate is reduced to one-half of its former value.
Which one of the following will decrease as a result?
A.
Lube oil outlet temperature B.
Cooling water outlet temperature
- c.
Lube oil delta-T D.
Cooling water delta-T 53 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 84 The purpose of condensate depression in the turbine/condenser phase of the plant steam cycle is to:
A.
maximize condenser vacuum.
B.
maximize total plant efficiency.
- c.
minimize cavitation of the condensate pumps.
D.
minimize thermal gradients in the condenser hotwell.
QUESTION:
85 The correct order of heat-transfer mechanisms existing in the boiling water reactor (BWR) core (consider inlet-to-outlet flow) is:
A.
single-phase convection, subcooled nucleate boiling, annular flow, slug flow
- B.
single-phase convection, subcooled nucleate boiling, slug flow, annular flow.
- c.
subcooled nucleate boiling, single-phase convection, slug flow, annular flow.
D.
annular flow, single-phase convection, subcooled nucleate boiling, slug flow.
54 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
86 Which one of the following describes why the core heat transfer rate increases when nucleate boiling begins on the surface of a fuel rod.
A.
Steam bubbles have a greater thermal conductivity than water.
B.
The formation of steam bubbles increases coolant flow along the fuel rod.
- c.
Radiative heat transfer begins to supplement convective heat transfer.
D.
The motion of the steam bubbles causes rapid mixing of the coolant.
QUESTION:
87 Which one of the following is a characteristic of subcooled nucleate boiling but not saturated nucleate boiling?
A.
Tc lad equals Tsat B.
Tc lad is greater than Tsat
- c.
TBulk Coolant equals Tsat D.
TBulk Coolant is less than Tsat 55 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
88 Void fraction is the ratio of the of steam to the of steam/water mixture at a given elevation in the fuel channel.
A.
mass; mass B.
volume; volume
- c.
mass; volume D.
volume; mass QUESTION:
89 Which one of the following describes onset of transition boiling?
A.
Steam bubbles completely blanket the fuel rod, causing an increase in the heat flux from the fuel rod.
B.
Steam bubbles begin to blanket the fuel rod, causing a rapid decrease in ~T between the fuel rod and the coolant.
- c.
Steam bubbles begin to form on the surface of the fuel rod, causing an increase in the heat flux from the fuel rod.
D.
Steam bubbles begin to blanket the fuel rod, causing a rapid increase in the 8T between the fuel rod and the coolant.
56 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
90 Without core orificing, the coolant flow through a high-power bundle will be less than the flow through a low-power bundle because the:
A.
bypass flow would be greater in the high-power bundle.
B.
channel quality would be greater in the high-power bundle.
- c.
two-phase flow-friction multiplier would be greater in the low-power bundle.
D.
thermal expansion of the fuel rods would be greater in the high-power bundle.
QUESTION:
91 While shutdown, what effect will decreasing reactor water level below the steam separators have on natural circulation flow?
A.
Flow will decrease.
B.
Flow will increase.to a new stable value.
- c.
There will be no effect on flow.
D.
Flow will increase temporarily until a new thermal equilibrium is established, returning flow to the original value.
57 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 92 In a reactor operating at full power, the fuel bundle with the highest power always has the:
A.
smallest linear heat generation rate (LHGR).
B.
smallest maximum average planar linear heat generation rate (MAPLHGR).
- c.
greatest critical power ratio.
D.
greatest radial peaking factor.
QUESTION:
93 Which one of the following is responsible for the clad failure caused by operating the reactor above the limit for linear heat generation rate?
A.
Fission product gas expansion causes clad internal design pressure to be exceeded.
B.
The zirconium-water reaction causes accelerated oxidation of the clad at high temperatures.
- c.
Corrosion buildup on the fuel clad surface reduces heat transfer and promotes transition boiling.
D.
The difference between thermal expansion rates of the fuel pellets and the clad causes severe clad stress
- 58 -
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A QUESTION:
94 The fraction of the limiting power density (FLPD) is equal to:
A.
LHGR (limit}
LHGR (actual)
B.
LHGR (actual)
LHGR (design)
- c.
LHGR (design)
APF x RPF x LPF D.
95 Operating the reactor within limits defined by the maximum average planar linear heat generation rate (MAPLHGR) prevents:
A
- exceeding peak fuel temperature of 2200°F.
B.
exceeding a peak clad temperature of 2200°F.
- c.
the onset of transition boiling in the upper core.
D.
exceeding 1 percent plastic strain in the cladding.
59 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 96 Which one of the following explains the overall change in total fuel-to-coolant thermal conductivity over core life?
A.
Decreases due to fuel pellet densification.
B.
Decreases due to contamination of fill gas with fission product gases.
- c.
Increases due to reduction in gap between fuel pellets and clad.
D.
Increases due to greater temperature difference between fuel pellets and coolant.
QUESTION:
97 The threshold power for pellet clad interaction (PCI) decreases as fuel exposure increases because:
A.
zirconium hydride is reduced with fuel burnup
- B.
pellet densification occurs due to fuel burnout.
- c.
the cladding suffers chemical embrittlement due to fission products.
D.
heat-transfer capability is reduced by buildup of fission products and crud layers.
60 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A The plant is operating at 60% reactor power.
Which one of the following will result in the highest critical power ratio?
(Assume neutron flux distribution does not change.)
A.
25% power increase using only recirculation flow.
B.
25% power increase using only control rods.
- c.
25% power decrease using only recirculation flow.
D.
25% power decrease using only control rods.
QUESTION:
99 Stress on the reactor vessel inner wall is greater during cooldown than heatup because:
A.
heatup stress totally offset pressure stress on the inner wall.
B.
both pressure stress and cooldown stress are tensile on the inner wall.
- c.
cooldown stress and heatup stress are both tensile on the inner wall, but cooldown stress is greater in magnitude.
D.
the tensile cooldown stress on the inner wall is greater in magnitude than the compressive pressure stress at the same point
- 61 -
QUESTION:
USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION BWR -
FORM A 100 Two identical reactors have been in operation for the last 10 years.
Reactor A has experienced 40 heatup/cooldown cycles with an average power capacity of 50%.
Reactor B has experienced 30 heatup/cooldown cycles with an average power capacity of 60%.
Which reactor will have the lowest reactor vessel nil-ductility transition temperature?
A.
Reactor A due to the lower average power capacity.
B.
Reactor A due to the greater number of heatup/cooldown cycles.
- c.
Reactor B due to the higher average power capacity.
D.
Reactor B due to the fewer number of heatup/cooldown cycles
- 62 -
OCTOBER 1992 GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAM BOILING WATER REACTOR - ANSWER KEY FORM ANS FORM ANS FORM ANS FORM ANS A
B A
B A
B A
B 1
29 c
26 54 D
51 79 c
76 4 A
2 30 B
27 55 A
52 80 A
77 5
D 3
31 D
28 56 A
53 81 B
78 6 B
4 32 c
29 57 c
54 82 D
79 7
c 5
33 A
30 58 D
55 83 A
80 8 A
6 34 c
31 59 B
56 84 c
81 9 A/D 7
35 c
32 60 D
57 85 B
82 10 A
8 36 A
33 61 D
58 86 A
83 11 c
9 37 B
34 62 c
59 87 D
84 12 c
10 38 A
35 63 c
60 88 B
85 13 B
11 39 A
36 64 A/B 61 89 D
86 14 D
12 40 Deleted 37 65 D
62 90 D
87 15 D
13 41 c
38 66 A
63 91 B
88 16 B
14 42 c
39 67 A
64 92 c
89 17 D
15 43 D
40 68 A
65 93 A
90 18 B
16 44 D
41 69 CID 66 94 B
91 19 A
17 45 A
42 70 A
67 95 D
92 20 D
18 46 B
43 71 A
68 96 D
93 21 D
19 47 c
44 72 c
69 97 B
94 22 B
20 48 A
45 73 D
70 98 c
95 23 B
21 49 B
46 74 B
71 99 c
96 24 Deleted 22 50 A
47 75 c
72 100 B 97 25 c
23 51 B
48 76 B
73 1
B 98 26 D
24 52 c
49 77 B
74 2 c
99 27 B
25 53 c
50 78 D
75 3
B 100 28 A