Text

Initial Exam 2010-301 Draft SRO Written Exam
	ML102520120
Person / Time
Site:	Browns Ferry
Issue date:	08/16/2010
From:	; NRC/RGN-II
To:	; Tennessee Valley Authority
References
	50-259/10-301, 50-260/10-301, 50-296/10-301, ES-401-5 50-259/10-301, 50-260/10-301, 50-296/10-301
	Download: ML102520120 (167)
	v • d • e

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 295004 Partial or Total Loss of DC Pwr / 6 ------ 1 Tier #

AA2.01 (10CFR 55.43.2 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 1 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to PARTIAL OR COMPLETE LOSS OF LOSS OF D.C. POWER: K/A # 295004AA2.01

Cause of partial or complete loss of D.C. power Importance Rating ------ 3.6 Proposed Question: # 76 With Unit 2 operating at 100% Reactor Power, a Normal Supply Breaker has tripped open AND suffered damage due to arcing. In addition to RHR AND Core Spray logic alarms, the following significant alarms result:

HPCI LOGIC POWER FAILURE, (2-9-8A, Window 7)

HPCI 120 VAC POWER FAILURE, (2-9-8A, Window 7)

ADS BLOWDOWN POWER FAILURE, (2-9-3C, Window 32)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements?

The 250 VDC RMOV Board __(1)__ has been lost.

After manually transferring the 250 VDC RMOV Bd, the Board is considered __(2)__ in accordance with Tech Spec 3.8.7, Distribution Systems - Operating.

A. (1) 2A (2) inoperable B. (1) 2B (2) inoperable C. (1) 2A (2) operable D. (1) 2B (2) operable Proposed Answer: A Explanation A CORRECT: (See attached excerpts) All of the alarms mentioned above, (Optional): with the exception of one, occur for either board power loss. The reason that the RHR and Core Spray alarms were written generically is because one will be Loop I and the other would be Loop II. The HPCI 120 VAC failure is the only unique alarm, as they are listed here. HPCI is a DIV II System, but has an ALPHA Board Power Supply - this is counterintuitive and often confused. The ARP will have the operators manually transfer the board to its alternate power supply. The Tech Spec Bases for 3.8.7 discusses the fact that the board is considered inoperable, even with power restored; because of single failure considerations.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet B INCORRECT: First part incorrect - The presence of the HPCI 120 VAC POWER FAILURE alarm is the designator that this is the Alpha versus the Bravo board. Second part is correct (for either board).

C INCORRECT: First part correct - as detailed in A above. Second part is incorrect - per the Tech Spec Bases for 3.8.7 (as discussed above) the board is considered inoperable due to single failure considerations.

D INCORRECT: First and second parts incorrect - as detailed in A through C above.

SRO Level Justification: The first part of the question tests the candidates knowledge of the cause of the partial D.C. Power loss by having them determine which board loss causes the power loss in question. The second part of the question makes it SRO-only by requiring knowledge of the Tech Spec Bases that is required to analyze Tech Spec required actions and terminology. This question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): 2-ARP-9-8C, Rev. 13 (Attach if not previously provided) 2-ARP-9-3C, Rev. 18 2-ARP-9-3F, Rev. 27 U2 Tech Spec 3.8.7, Amendment 253 U2 TS Bases 3.8.7, Rev. 56 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: OPL171.037, V.B.11/12 (As available)

Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 295016 Control Room Abandonment / 7 ------ 1 Tier #

AA2.05 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 1 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to CONTROL ROOM ABANDONMENT: K/A # 295016AA2.05

Drywell pressure Importance Rating ------ 3.9 Proposed Question: # 77 Unit 2 was operating at 100% Reactor Power when the following series of events occurred:

At 0200 an AIR LINE rupture in the Drywell results in a High Drywell Pressure Scram

At 0205 Unit 2 Control Room evacuation is initiated due to a fire in the Control Bay

At 0230 the Backup Control Panel, 2-25-32, is manned Which ONE of the following completes the statements?

In accordance with EPIP-1, Emergency Plan Implementing Procedure, the HIGHEST emergency action level classification that is required for these conditions is a (an) __(1)__ .

In implementing 2-AOI-100-2, Control Room Abandonment, HPCI will cycle, upon demand, between the initiation AND high level trip setpoint until __(2)__.

[REFERENCE PROVIDED]

A. (1) Alert.

(2) it is secured in accordance with the Subsequent Actions.

B. (1) Alert.

(2) HPCI flow control is established at the Backup Control Panel.

C. (1) Site Area Emergency.

(2) it is secured in accordance with the Subsequent Actions.

D. (1) Site Area Emergency.

(2) HPCI flow control is established at the Backup Control Panel.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation A INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - Plausible in that per EPIP-1 2.1-A, Drywell (Optional): pressure at or above 2.45 psig AND Indication of Primary System leakage into Primary Containment requires declaration of an Alert. However, this is not the highest level of EAL Classification required. Part 2 correct as detailed in C below.

B INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect as detailed in A above. Part 1 is incorrect -

Plausible in that RCIC flow control is available at the Backup Control Panel, but HPCI is not. The similarity between these systems often causes confusion.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet C CORRECT: Part 1 correct - (see attached excerpts) Per EPIP-1 6.2-S, Control Room Abandonment from entry into AOI-100-2 or SSI-16 for ANY Unit Control Room AND Control of reactor water level, reactor pressure, and reactor power (for Modes 1, or 2, or 3) or decay heat removal (for Modes 4, or 5) per AOI-100-2 or SSI-16 as applicable, can NOT be established within 20 minutes after evacuation is initiated requires declaration of a Site Area Emergency. Part 2 correct - (see attached excerpts) In the subsequent actions of AOI-100-2, local breaker operation results in the shutdown and inoperability of HPCI.

D INCORRECT: Part 1 correct as detailed in C above. Part 2 incorrect as detailed in B above.

Justification: To successfully answer the question, candidate must recognize that HPCI is required to be secured after initiating on a High Drywell Pressure signal. Additionally, candidate must correctly classify the event (relative to the Drywell Pressure and Control Room Abandonment) which is a function unique to the SRO position. This question is rated as COMP due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): EPIP-1 Matrix Rev. 45 (Attach if not previously provided) 2-AOI-100-2, Rev. 52 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: EPIP-1 Matrix Rev. 45 Section 2 Section 6 Learning Objective: OPL171.208 V.B.4___ (As available)

Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 295018 Partial or Total Loss of CCW / 8 ------ 1 Tier #

G2.1.27 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 1 Knowledge of system purpose and/or function.

K/A # 295018G2.1.27 Importance Rating ------ 4.0 Proposed Question: # 78 Unit 1 is operating at 100% Reactor Power. The following conditions were noted following a trip of RHRSW Pump C3:

RHRSW Pump A3 is Red Tagged

RHRSW Pump B3 is Running

RHRSW Pump C3 is Tripped

RHRSW Pump D3 is Running

RHRSW Pump A1 is NOT yet Aligned for EECW

RHRSW Pump B1 is aligned for RHRSW

RHRSW Pump C1 is aligned for RHRSW

RHRSW Pump D1 is aligned for RHRSW Which ONE of the following components has lost ALL EECW cooling water AND what, if any, actions are required in accordance with Unit 1 Tech Spec 3.7.2, EECW System and UHS?

[REFERENCE PROVIDED]

A. Control Air Compressor B backup supply; There are NO required Tech Spec actions B. Control Air Compressor B backup supply; Restore ONE EECW Pump within 7 days C. Spare RBCCW Heat Exchanger; There are NO required Tech Spec actions D. Spare RBCCW Heat Exchanger; Restore ONE EECW Pump within 7 days Proposed Answer: B Explanation A INCORRECT: Part 1 correct - See Explanation B. Part 2 incorrect -

(Optional): Plausible in that ONLY the #1 Pumps are required to be started and aligned to EECW to be operable. So, if the question was reversed with A-1 running and aligned and subsequently tripped with A-3 in standby, this answer would be correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet B CORRECT: Part 1 correct - EECW supply to Control Air Compressor B comes off the North EECW header ONLY. With A-3 Tagged and C-3 Tripped, there are no pumps supplying the north header. Part 2 correct -

Tech Spec 3.7.2, requires, The EECW System with three pumps and the UHS shall be operable in Modes 1, 2, and 3. The required feature here is three EECW pumps which can be any of the three # 3 pumps or the #1 pumps (if aligned and started). Although ALL #1 Pumps are functional, they are not aligned to EECW and started and are therefore inoperable.

C INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - Plausible in that it is a backup supply from EECW as is the EECW Supply to Control Air Compressors. Part 2 incorrect

- See Explanation A.

D INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - See Explanation C. Part 2 correct - See Explanation B.

SRO Level Justification: Question requires knowledge of EECW system purpose / function and its relationship to a partial loss to answer the first part. The second part of the question involves application of required Tech Spec Actions. This question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): U1 TS 3.7.2 Amm 234 / 0-OI-67 Rev. 89 (Attach if not previously provided)

OPDP-8 Rev. 2 / OPL171.051 Rev. 16 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: Tech Spec 3.7.2 ( No Bases)

Learning Objective: OPL171.051_V.B.1 / 2 / 10 (As available)

Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # OPL171.051 #14 (Note changes or attach parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet OPL.171.051 Revision 16 Page 3 of 11 V. LESSON BODY A. General Description

1. The purpose of the EECW system is to supply cooling Obj. V.B.1 water to safety related components. EECW can also Obj. V.E.1 supply cooling water to Reactor Building Closed TP-1 Cooling Water (RBCCW) heat exchangers and Control Air compressors.

2. Four of the 12 RHRSW pumps are dedicated to Obj. V.B.2/3 supplying cooling water to EECW (A3, B3, C3 and Obj. V.C.1 D3). Four additional pumps are capable of being Obj. V.D.1 & 2 valved into the system if needed (A1, B1, C1 and D1). Obj. V.E.2 ,3,4

3. One pump on each header (North and South) is normally running to supply the EECW system.

A and C pumps supply the North header and B and D pumps supply the South header.

4. EECW loads are supplied from both headers, except the Control Air compressors (North only), and the H2-02 analyzer cabinets on Units 2 and 3 (one from the North, one from the South). H2-O2 Cabinets at Unit 1 do not require cooling water. The Unit 1 and 2 RBCCW heat exchangers are normally supplied from the South, and the Unit 3 RBCCW heat exchangers are normally supplied from the North.

B. Flow Path Obj. V.E.2/V.B.1

1. Each of the 4 supply headers (A, B, C, and D) from the intake structure has a self-cleaning strainer. A TP-1 strainer automatically starts a cleaning cycle whenever an associated EECW assigned pump flow is sensed. A motor operated flush valve automatically opens when a strainer starts. Pump operation is sensed by flow switches. The flow switches are located just upstream of each strainer.

2. RHRSW pump cross-connect valves allow cross- Obj. V.B.3 connecting the RHRSW pumps normally assigned to Obj. V.C.2 RHRSW use and those assigned to EECW use.

Manual valves are provided for the A1 and B1 pumps HCV-67-88 and89 and motor operated valves (controlled from Panel 9- FCV-67-48 and 49 20 on each unit) are provided for the C1 and D1 pumps.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet EECW NORTH EECW NORTH HDR EECW NORTH HDR HEADER DG SECTION DG SECTION PRESS LOW EECW NORTH PRESS LOW PRESS LOW 1-PA-67-15 HEADER 1-PA-67-54 2-PA-67-54 PRESS LOW 0-67-53 14 21 21 2-PA-67-19 14 To Control Air From RCW Compressors PAL PT PT 67-54 PAL PT 67-19 MO 67-15 MO 0-67-13 0-67-17 0-1-FCV 67-50 From RCW A

Engine A Cooler To U CS To Unit 2 RHR A Ro

& C Pump Seal Co Engine From RCW Emergency FP Fill Coolers and To Unit 1 & 2 To RBCCW B Cooler Room Coolers EMERGENCY HT EXC-1A CONDENSING UNIT To Unit 1 To Unit 1 Engine CS 1A To RBCCW CS 1B To Unit 1 RHR B C Cooler Room HT EXC-1B Room & D Pump Seal Cooler Cooler Coolers and To Unit 2 Room Coolers CS A & C To RBCCW HT EXC-1C Room To Unit 1 RHR A Cooler

& C Pump Seal Engine Coolers and D Cooler Room Coolers From RCW PAL 1-FCV PAL 67-51 From RSW/

FP PT PT PT 67-55 67-16 67-20 MO MO 0-67-14 To Unit 2 H2O2 0-0-67-18 Analyzer Cabinet EECW SOUTH HDR EECW SOUTH EECW SOU DG SECTION HEADER HEADER PRESS LOW PRESS LOW PRESS LO 1-PA-67-55 1-PA-67-16 2-PA-67-2 35 28 A

FAL FAL FAL FAL EECW N N S S EECW SOUTH HDR DG SECTION ANY 1 FLOW PANEL LOW PRESS LOW OF 4 1-FA-67-3B 25-32 To RHRSW 2-PA-67-55 7 35 FT FT FT FT 67-3B 67-3A 67-6B 67-6A EECW EECW FLOW FLOW DP PDIS DP PDIS LOW LOW HI 67-1 HI 67-5 2-FA-67-3B 3-FA-67-3B 7 7 FS FS 67-1 67-5 A-3 A-1 A-2 B-3 B-1 3EA A A C 3EC RHR CCW PIT CCW PIT CCW 1 BB 1 CA 2

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

1. OPL171.051 14 The following conditions were noted following a trip of C3 EECW pump:

1. A-3 Tagged

2. B-3 Running

3. C-3 Tripped

4. D-3 Running

5. A-1 Not yet Aligned for EECW

6. B-1 Aligned for RHRSW

7. C-1 Aligned for RHRSW

8. D-1 Aligned for RHRSW Based on the above conditions which ONE of the following components has lost ALL EECW cooling water?

A. Unit 3 Core Spray Room Coolers.

B. B Control Air Compressor.

C. Spare RBCCW Heat Exchanger.

D. BOTH Unit 2 H2/O2 Analyzers.

A. INCORRECT, B3 Pump is running in the south header, supplying all.

B. CORRECT, Taps off the north header, no operating pumps.

C. INCORRECT, Normally cooled by RCW (not lost). EECW is the Backup supply. 67-50 / 51 would open on RCW @ 15#. B3 Pump is running in the south header and would be capable of supplying.

D. INCORRECT, B3 Pump is running in the south header, supplying ONE h2/o2 analyzer cabinet.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet OPL171.051 R16 Headers are equipped with sectionalizing valves which provide isolation control of the headers within 3 units. All are motor operated valves with their power supply breakers open for Appendix R. This prevents inadvertent closure due to a fire. There are no auto isolation functions for the valves.

1. EECW loads have preset flow rates established.

Throttle valves are locked to ensure the flow balance is not disrupted. Loads are as follows:

a. Core Spray room coolers

b. Residual Heat Removal room coolers

c. Drywell H2 and O2 Analyzers (Unit 2 & 3 only)

d. Residual Heat Removal pump seal coolers

e. Diesel Generator engine coolers

f. Unit 3 Control Bay chillers

g. Unit 3 electric board room ACU condensers

h. Unit 3 Shutdown Board room chillers

i. RBCCW system heat exchangers (backup supply)

j. Control air compressors (backup supply).

k. Unit 1 and 2 emergency chiller.(valves are locked shut)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet (1) RBCCW System Flow Control Valves (FCV-67-50 & 51)

(a) When RCW header pressure drops to 15 psi at the RBCCW heat exchangers, a switch contact is made up to enable routing EECW to the heat exchangers.

OPL171.054 R14 Old TEGRS Number (DeletedBank) 13416 Taskno: U-067-NO-01 Skills 264000K6.08

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet KnowledgeRO3.8 SRO3.9 Comment:

400000 Component Cooling Water System (CCWS)

Knowledge of the physical connections and / or cause-effect relationships between CCWS and the following:

(CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8)

K1.02 Loads cooled by CCWS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3.2 3.4 Answer: B

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 295021 Loss of Shutdown Cooling / 4 ------ 1 Tier #

G2.4.47 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 1 Ability to diagnose and recognize trends in an accurate and timely manner utilizing the appropriate control room reference material. K/A # 295021G2.4.47 Importance Rating ------ 4.2 Proposed Question: # 79 Unit 1 is shutting down for a refuel outage. Shutdown Cooling has been in service for 1hour.

At T=12:00, Reactor Temperature is 153 °F Then, a complete loss of Shutdown Cooling occurs.

After 20 minutes, the operators determine that Reactor Coolant Temperature is rising at 16 °F every 10 minutes.

At T= 12:20 Reactor Coolant Temperature is 186 °F Which ONE of the following describes how the heatup, if it continues at the rate indicated above, will affect the plant Operational Condition AND Technical Specification (TS) limits?

A. After T=12:30, a mode change will occur. At T=13:00, the TS heatup rate limit will NOT be exceeded.

B. Before T=12:30, a mode change would occur. At T=13:00, the TS heatup rate limit will be exceeded.

C. After T=12:30, a mode change will occur. At T=13:00, the TS heatup rate limit will be exceeded.

D. Before T=12:30, a mode change would occur. At T=13:00, the TS heatup rate limit will NOT be exceeded.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation A CORRECT: Part 1 correct - At the current rate of change, Reactor Coolant (Optional): Temperature will be 204 °F which is less than Reactor Coolant Mode change temperature of 212°F. Mode change will occur after T=12:30. Part 2 correct - At T=13:00, reactor will have heated up to 98 °F, NOT exceeding Tech Spec limit of 100 °F per hour.

B INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - Mode change occurs at 212 degrees.

Plausible in that could be confused with recognizable value associated with loss of Shutdown Cooling of 200°F. With a loss of shutdown cooling a Feedwater Sparger temperature of 200°F or greater is indicative of possible reactor coolant stratification. Part 2 incorrect - Plausible in that it exceed administrative cooldown limit of 90°F per hours C INCORRECT: Part 1 correct - See explanation A. Part 2 incorrect - See Explanation B

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet D INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - See Explanation B. Part 2 correct - See Explanation C.

Justification: Candidate must recognize Reactor Coolant Temperature trend in an accurate and timely manner to determine if affect on Plant Operational Condition and Tech Spec limit.

Requires knowledge of facility operating limitation in Tech Spec and is therefore an SRO-Only Question. This question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): U1 TS 1.1 Amm 234 (Attach if not previously provided)

U1 TS 3.4.9 Amm 256 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: OPL171.087 V.B.8___ (As available)

Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # VY 09 #76 (Note changes or attach parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam VY 2009 (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 295023 Refueling Acc Cooling Mode / 8 ------ 1 Tier #

G2.1.7 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 1 Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and K/A # 295023G2.1.7 instrument interpretation.

Importance Rating ------ 4.7 Proposed Question: # 80 Which ONE of the following identifies the 2-EOI-3, Secondary Containment Control, MAXIMUM NORMAL operating radiation setpoint for the refuel floor area rad monitors AND the required approval prior to resuming any fuel transfer operations following fuel damage during refueling in accordance with 2-AOI-79-1, Fuel Damage During Refueling?

A. 500 mr/hr; Plant Manager.

B. 500 mr/hr; Reactor Engineer.

C. FUEL POOL FLOOR AREA RADIATION HIGH, (2-9-3A, Window 1), alarm setpoint; Plant Manager.

D. FUEL POOL FLOOR AREA RADIATION HIGH, (2-9-3A, Window 1), alarm setpoint; Reactor Engineer.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation A INCORRECT: Part 1 is incorrect; This is above the MAX Normal Value.

(Optional): Part 2 is correct; per 2-AOI-79-1, Fuel Damage During Refueling, B INCORRECT: Part 1 and 2 incorrect as explained above/below.

C CORRECT: Part 1 is correct; FUEL POOL AREA RADIATION HIGH, (2 3A, Window 1) alarm setpoint is the MAX Normal operating radiation set point for the refuel floor area rad monitors. Part 2 is correct; per 2-AOI 1, Fuel Damage During Refueling, Plant Manager approval is required prior to resuming fuel transfer operations following fuel damage during refueling.

D INCORRECT: Part 1 is correct and Part 2 incorrect as detailed above.

SRO Level Justification: SRO only because of link to 10CFR55.43 (5): Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedure. Tests candidates ability to recall and apply given conditions to procedural requirements associated with Refueling Accidents.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical Reference(s): 2-AOI-79-1 Rev 17, 2-EOI-3, Rev 12 (Attach if not previously provided) 2-9-3A Window 1 Rev 38 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: __________________ (As available)

Question Source: Bank # X 0801 #79 Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam HLT 0801 (07 / 2009)

(Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 295024 High Drywell Pressure / 5 ------ 1 Tier #

G2.1.31 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 1 Ability to locate control room switches, controls, and indications, and to determine that they correctly reflect the desired plant lineup. K/A # 295024G2.1.31 Importance Rating ------ 4.3 Proposed Question: # 81 Unit 2 HPCI has failed to start with a High Drywell Pressure Initiation Signal present. HPCI is needed for injection.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements?

The controller __(1)__ setup correctly for start of HPCI. HPCI must be operated in accordance with __(2)__.

A. (1) is (2) 2-OI-73, High Pressure Coolant Injection System.

B. (1) is NOT (2) 2-OI-73, High Pressure Coolant Injection System.

C. (1) is (2) 2-EOI Appendix 5D, Injection System Lineup HPCI.

D. (1) is NOT (2) 2-EOI Appendix 5D, Injection System Lineup HPCI.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Proposed Answer: D Explanation A INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - Plausible since 4100 as indicated for set (Optional): point on the controller is a recognizable value for HPCI - 100% rated speed.

Part 2 incorrect - Plausible because 2-OI-73 does contain steps to manually start HPCI. However, with DW Press > HPCI Initiation set point, EOI entry condition for Drywell Pressure has been reached; Appendix 5D is the appropriate procedural guidance.

B INCORRECT: Part 1 correct - See Explanation D. Part 2 incorrect - See Explanation A.

C INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - See Explanation A. Part 2 correct - See Explanation D.

D CORRECT: Part 1 correct EOI Appendix 5D, Injection System Lineup HPCI, requires verifying 1-FIC-73-33, HPCI SYSTEM FLOW/CONTROL, controller in AUTO and set for 5,000 gpm. Current set point is 41000 gpm.

Part 2 correct - With DW Press > EOI entry, Appendix 5D is appropriate procedural guidance.

Justification: Candidate must locate control room indication for HPCI Controller Set Point to determine if it correctly reflects desired plant lineup. Then, candidate must assess facility conditions to select appropriate procedure to mitigate the abnormal condition making this a SRO-Only Question. This question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): 2-EOI Appendix 5D Rev. 6 (Attach if not previously provided)

OPL171.042 Rev. 20 / 2-EOI-1 Rev. 12 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: OPL171.042 V.B.10__ (As available)

Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # Hatch 09 #67 (Note changes or attach parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam Hatch 2009 (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 295028 High Drywell Temperature / 5 ------ 1 Tier #

EA2.06 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 1 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to HIGH DRYWELL TEMPERATURE: K/A # 295028EA2.06

Torus/suppression chamber air space temperature: Plant-Specific Importance Rating ------ 3.6 Proposed Question: # 82 A loss of drywell cooling has occurred on Unit 2. The Unit Supervisor reaches the following step in the 2-EOI-2, Primary Containment Control, flowchart drywell temperature leg:

Which ONE of the following completes the statement?

The above step in 2-EOI-2 refers to the temperature of the __(1)__ air space.

The Tech Spec bases for the Drywell Air Temperature LCO, TS 3.6.1.4, is to ensure that during a Design Basis Accident, the resultant peak drywell temperature is maintained BELOW __(2)__.

A. (1) Drywell ONLY (2) 336º F B. (1) Drywell ONLY (2) 390º F C. (1) Drywell AND Torus (2) 336º F D. (1) Drywell AND Torus (2) 390º F Proposed Answer: A Explanation A CORRECT: Part 1 correct - Drywell temperature control in 1-EOI-2 does not (Optional): include torus air temperature. Part 2 correct - The Tech Spec bases for the Drywell Air Temperature LCO, TS 3.6.1.4, is to ensure that during a Design Basis Accident, the resultant peak drywell temperature is maintained below 336°F.

B INCORRECT: Part 1 correct. Part 2 incorrect - Temperature is incorrect because the TS basis is 336 degrees, but is plausible in that it is a recognizable value. The upper limit of the PSTG curve has been limited to 390°F for Drywell Spray Initiation Limit Curve 5.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet C INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect -bulk drywell temperature does not include torus air temperature, but plausible if applicant believes step is referring to containment temperature. Part 2 correct as explained above.

D INCORRECT: Parts 1 and 2 incorrect as explained above.

Justification: Requires candidate to have required knowledge to demonstrate ability to interpret Drywell and Turos air space temperature as they apply to High Drywell Temp. The question involves knowledge of Tech Spec Bases that is required to analyze tech spec required actions and terminology.

Technical Reference(s): U2 TS 3.6.1.4 Bases Am 254 (Attach if not previously provided)

OPL171.203 Rev. 7 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: __________________ (As available)

Question Source: Bank # X Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam Hatch 07 #89 (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet OPL171.203 Revision 7 Page 3 of 6

a. Entering EOI-1, RPV Control, also ensures Obj.V.B.13/V.C.12 that, if possible, the reactor is scrammed and Procedure Use shutdown by control rod insertion should RPV depressurization be necessary.

b. Conditions requiring entry into EOI-2, Primary Containment Control, do not necessarily require entry into EOI-1, RPV Control. Therefore, a scram may not have yet been initiated.

c. In addition, entry into EOI-1, RPV Control, must be made because it is through the override statement in the RC/P Section that a transfer is made to C2, Emergency RPV Depressurization, if necessary.

2. Step DW/T-6 Obj.V.B.4c, V.C.4c

a. This before decision step has the operator evaluate current and future efforts to reduce drywell temperature in relation to the current value and trend of drywell temperature, to determine if drywell sprays are required to affect drywell temperature reduction.

b. The before decision step requires that this Obj.V.B13/V.C.12 determination and subsequent actions be performed before drywell temperature reaches 280°F, drywell design temperature.

c. If drywell temperature cannot be maintained below drywell design temperature, the operator continues at Step DW/T-7 where actions must be taken before drywell temperature reaches drywell design temperature to maintain primary containment integrity.

3. Step DW/T-7

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet HATCH 2007

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 295010 High Drywell Pressure / 5 ------ 1 Tier #

G2.2.4 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 2 (multi-unit license) Ability to explain the variations in control board/control room layouts, systems, instrumentation, and K/A # 295010G2.2.4 procedural actions between units at a facility.

Importance Rating ------ 3.6 Proposed Question: # 83 Following a Drywell Leak on Unit 3, Emergency Depressurization is required due to inability to maintain Suppression Chamber Pressure in the safe area of the Pressure Suppression Pressure Curve.

ONLY 3 SRVs are capable of being opened.

Which ONE of the following completes the statement?

Alternate Pressure Control Systems must be initiated per __(1)__ to reduce Reactor Pressure less than the Minimum RPV Flooding Pressure (MRFP) of __(2)__ above Suppression Chamber Pressure.

A. (1) 3-EOI-3-C-2 (2) 70 psig B. (1) 3-EOI-3-C-2 (2) 90 psig C. (1) 3-EOI-1 RC/P Leg (2) 70 psig D. (1) 3-EOI-1 RC/P Leg (2) 90 psig Proposed Answer: A Explanation A CORRECT: Part 1 and 2 are correct - If less than 4 SRVs are open and (Optional): RPV pressure is greater than 70 psig above suppression chamber pressure, step C2-12 of 3-C-2 directs the use of other pressure control systems. 70 psid dp (unit specific) represents the MRFP.

B INCORRECT: Part 1 correct - See Explanation A. Part 2 incorrect -

Plausible in that the Minimum RPV Flooding Pressure (MRFP) for Unit 1 is 90 psig.

C INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - Plausible in that 3-EOI-1 RC/P Leg provides alternate pressure control strategies if normal pressure control strategies are ineffective. Part 2 correct - See Explanation A.

D INCORRECT: Part 1 correct - See Explanation A. Part 2 incorrect - See Explanation B

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet SRO Level Justification: Candidate must have knowledge of unit differences for MRFP to demonstrate ability to correctly implement actions of 3-EOI-3-C-2. Question requires recalling what strategy or action is written into a plant procedure and prescribing the section of the EOIs to mitigate. Also, requires knowledge of decision points in EOIs that involve transition to event specific sub-procedures.

Technical Reference(s): OPL171.205 Rev. 8 (Attach if not previously provided) 3-EOI-3-C-2 Rev. 8 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: __________________ (As available)

Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet OPL171.205 Revision 8 Page 5 of 6

b. If less than 4 SRVs are open and RPV pressure is Obj.V.B.4b greater than 80 psig above suppression chamber Appendices pressure, step C2-12 directs the use of other prescribe which pressure control systems. The need to depressurize interlocks can be the RPV and prevent repressurization warrants defeated.

defeating isolation interlocks and use of the alternate depressurization paths irrespective of the UNIT offsite radioactivity release rate. DIFFERENCE U1 = 90 U2 = 80 U3 = 70 80 psi dp (unit specific) represents the MRFP.

c. A list of alternate systems that can be used for depressurizing the RPV is included in Step C2-12.

However, since event independence must be maintained and specific plant conditions cannot be presumed, no priority regarding system use is indicated.

d. Step C2-12 rapidly depressurizes the RPV until the RPV-to-suppression chamber differential pressure is less than 80 psi. The systems used to effect the depressurization are then used to maintain the depressurized state until the conditions specified in Step C2-14 are satisfied.

9. Step C2-13 (Override)

a. Part One After the conditions specified in Step C2-14 are UNIT satisfied, the RPV is cooled down to cold DIFFERENCE shutdown conditions. If the SRVs close during U1 = 90 this time, and the differential pressure between the RPV and the suppression chamber rises above 80 U2 = 80 psi, you are directed back to Step C2-6 where U3 = 70 SRVs and other pressure control systems are then used as before to prevent repressurization.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 295014 Inadvertent Reactivity Addition / 1 ------ 1 Tier #

AA2.01 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 2 Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to INADVERTENT REACTIVITY ADDITION: K/A # 295014AA2.01

Reactor power Importance Rating ------ 4.2 Proposed Question: # 84 Unit 2 is starting up AND Reactor Power is 16%. The Unit Operator is pulling control rods to achieve adequate bypass valve position to roll the turbine.

Due to a previous rod being difficult to move, the CRD drive water pressure had been temporarily raised to 300 psid AND NOT re-adjusted back down to a normal pressure.

When the operator placed the rod movement control switch to the single notch out position for the next control rod, the rod quickly moved from position 16 to 24 (intended position AND withdraw limit is 18).

Which ONE of the following completes the statements?

Entry into 2-AOI-85-7, Mispositioned Control Rod, __(1)__ required. Tech Spec 3.1.6, Rod Pattern Control, __(2)__ a Required Action Statement applicable to these plant conditions.

A. (1) is (2) contains B. (1) is (2) does NOT contain C. (1) is NOT (2) contains D. (1) is NOT (2) does NOT contain Proposed Answer: B Explanation A INCORRECT: Part 1 correct - See Explanation B. Part 2 incorrect -

(Optional): Plausible because RWM should be enforcing up to the low power set point of 24% feedwater flow or if applicant does not recall TS LCO applicability power limit.

B CORRECT: Part 1 correct - In accordance with 2-AOI-85-7, Mispositioned Control Rod, Unexpected conditions which cause rod to stop more than one notches from intended position would be a mispositioned rod. Part 2 correct - Tech Spec 3.1.6 Condition A - One or more OPERABLE control rods not in compliance with BPWS is only applicable in Modes 1 & 2 when thermal power is < 10%.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet C INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - The rod is considered mispositioned in accordance with 2-AOI-85-7, Mispositioned Control Rod. Plausible because a rod can be one notch from intended position and not be considered mispositioned. Part 2 incorrect - See explanations A.

D INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - See explanations C. Part 2 correct - See explanations B.

Justification: Candidate must interpret affect of current reactor power on event to determine impact of inadvertent reactivity addition. Requires assessing plant conditions then prescribing appropriate procedure. This question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): U2 TS 3.1.6 Amm 253 (Attach if not previously provided) 2-AOI-85-7 Rev. 20 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: OPL171.024V.B.12__ (As available)

Question Source: Bank # Hatch 07 #85 Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam HATCH 2007 (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 295033 High Secondary Containment Area Radiation Levels / 9 ------ 1 Tier #

G2.3.13 (10CFR 55.43.4 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 2 Knowledge of radiological safety procedures pertaining to licensed operator duties, such as response to radiation monitor alarms, K/A # 295033G2.3.13 containment entry requirements, fuel handling responsibilities, access to locked high-radiation areas, aligning filters, etc. Importance Rating ------ 3.8 Proposed Question: # 85 Unit 2 is in a refueling outage with the following plant conditions:

A Refuel Floor overhead crane failure has led to dropping a loaded Multi Purpose Canister (MPC) into the Unit 2 fuel pool during a core off-load

RA-90-1A, Fuel Pool Floor Radiation Monitor, is in alarm AND reading 1000 mr/hr

NO TVA Emergency Response Facilities are activated Which ONE of the following describes the HIGHEST required Emergency Action Level AND the action required to continue assessing plant conditions?

[REFERENCE PROVIDED]

A. Alert. Direct CECC EPIP-8, Dose Assessment, be performed.

B. Alert. Direct EPIP-13, Dose Assessment, be performed.

C. Site Area Emergency. Direct CECC EPIP-8, Dose Assessment, be performed.

D. Site Area Emergency. Direct EPIP-13, Dose Assessment, be performed.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation A INCORRECT: Part 1 correct - See Explanation B. Part 2 incorrect - See (Optional): Explanation C.

B CORRECT: Part 1 correct - the correct classification is an ALERT based on EAL 3.2-A. Part 2 correct - NO TVA EROs are activated, therefore Radcon must do the dose assessment in accordance with EPIP-13.

C INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - Plausible in that dose level have reached SAE level in accordance with EAL 3.2-S. However, dose levels must be coupled with an unisolable Primary System leak discharging into Secondary Containment to warrant an SAE. Also, not an applicable operating mode.

Part 2 incorrect - Plausible in that if ALL required TVA EROs are activated this would be the correct answer.

D INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - See Explanation C. Part 2 correct - See Explanation B.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Justification: Question requires knowledge of radiological safety procedures pertaining to licensed operator duties and associated with high Secondary Containment Radiation Levels.

SRO Only - requires analysis of radiation hazards and prescribing a procedure with which to proceed. This question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): EPIP-1 Rev. 45 (Attach if not previously provided)

EPIP-3 Rev. 32 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: EPIP-1 Section 3 Learning Objective: OPL171.075 V.B.2__ (As available)

Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # 0707 SRO #23 (Note changes or attach parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam BFN 2008 (HLT 0707)

(Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet BFN 0707 (NRC 2008)

Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO G2.3.13 Tier # 3 Knowledge of radiological safety procedures pertaining to licensed Group #

operator duties.

K/A # G2.3.13 Importance Rating 3.4 3.8 Proposed Question: SRO # 23 Unit 2 is in a refueling outage with the following plant conditions:

A Refuel Floor overhead crane failure has led to dropping a loaded Multi Purpose Canister (MPC) into the Unit 2 fuel pool during a core off-load.

RA-90-1A, Fuel Pool Floor Alarm is in alarm.

RA-90-140A, Refueling Zone Exhaust is reading 230 mr/hr and rising.

Radcon reports dose rates at the site boundary are 8 mr/hr and rising.

No TVA Emergency Response Facilities are staffed or activated.

Which ONE of the following describes the current Emergency Action Level and the action required to continue assessing plant conditions?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. NOUE in accordance with 4.1-U. Direct CECC EPIP-8, Dose Assessment be performed.

B. ALERT in accordance with 3.2-A. Direct CECC EPIP-8, Dose Assessment be performed.

C. NOUE in accordance with 4.1-U. Direct EPIP-13, Dose Assessment be performed.

D. ALERT in accordance with 3.2-A. Direct EPIP-13, Dose Assessment be performed.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 203000 RHR/LPCI: Injection Mode ------ 2 Tier #

A2.09 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 1 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the RHR/LPCI:

INJECTION MODE (PLANT SPECIFIC); and (b) based on those K/A # 203000A2.09 predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations:

3.4

Inadequate system flow Importance Rating ------

Proposed Question: # 86 Unit 3 is operating at 100% Reactor Power. Core Spray Pump 3A was tagged out for planned maintenance at 0600 on 1/13/10.

The In Service Testing (IST) Engineer contacts the Unit Supervisor at 1300 on 1/13/10 to report a calculation error on the RHR Pump 3C Flow Test completed 0300 on 1/13/10. Based on the corrected calculation, RHR Pump 3C will NOT develop the required LPCI flow rate to meet SR 3.5.1.6.

Which ONE of the following identifies the EARLIEST time that Unit 3 must be in Mode 3 in accordance with Tech Spec 3.5.1, ECCS-Operating?

[REFERENCE PROVIDED]

A. 1800 on 1/13/10 B. 1900 on 1/13/10 C. 0100 on 1/14/10 D. 0200 on 1/14/10 Proposed Answer: D Explanation A INCORRECT: Plausible in that if the candidate may believe entry time for (Optional): TS 3.5.1 H be 0600 on 1/13/10 since the failed surveillance was performed prior to this time and that TS 3.0.3 requires Mode 3 in 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months .

B INCORRECT: Plausible in that if the candidate may believe entry time for TS 3.5.1 H be 0600 on 1/13/10 since the failed surveillance was performed prior to this time.

C INCORRECT: Plausible in that this would be the correct answer if TS 3.0.3 required Mode 3 in 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months .

D CORRECT: TS 3.5.1 Condition H must be entered at time of discovery of failure to meet the LCO which would be 1300 on 1/13/10. Condition H requires immediate entry into TS 3.0.3 which requires plant be brought to Mode 3 within 13 hours1.50463e-4 days 0.00361 hours 2.149471e-5 weeks 4.9465e-6 months .

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Justification: Candidate must be able to predict the impact of inadequate system flow on RHR C will have on LPCI and with LPCS System out of service, utilize Tech Specs and OPDP-8, Limiting Conditions for Operation Tracking, to control the consequences of this abnormal condition. Question involves application of required Tech Spec Actions and Surveillance requirements and requires knowledge of Tech Spec Bases to analyze required actions. This question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): U3 TS 3.5.1 Amm 229 (Attach if not previously provided)

U3 TS 3.5.1 Bases Rev. 0 U3 TS 3.0.3 Amm 226 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: TS 3.5.1 No Bases Learning Objective: OPL171.044 V.B.19__ (As available)

Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 211000 SLC ------ 2 Tier #

G2.1.7 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 1 Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and K/A # 211000G2.1.7 instrument interpretation.

Importance Rating ------ 4.7 Proposed Question: # 87 Following a manual Scram on Unit 3 due to a Loss-of-Coolant-Accident inside the Drywell, the following plant conditions are noted:

Eighteen (18) Control Rods remain at position 02

ALL other Control Rods are Full-IN

DRYWELL / SUPPR CHAMBER RADIATION HIGH 3-RA-90-272, (3-9-7C, Window 15) is lit due to radiation levels above the setpoint(s)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements in accordance with listed procedures?

For these conditions, Standby Liquid Control (SLC) must be injected __(1)__.

The RC/P AND __(2)__ legs of 3-EOI-1, RPV Control, will require EXECUTION until such time as EOI-1 itself can be exited.

A. (1) within the next 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months in accordance with the referenced Alarm Response Procedure.

(2) RC/L B. (1) within the next 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months in accordance with the referenced Alarm Response Procedure.

(2) RC/Q C. (1) before Suppression Pool Temperature rises to 110 ºF in accordance with the 3-EOI-1.

(2) RC/L D. (1) before Suppression Pool Temperature rises to 110 ºF in accordance with the 3-EOI-1.

(2) RC/Q Proposed Answer: A Explanation A CORRECT: (See attached excerpts) Although eighteen Control Rods (Optional): remain at position 02, the reactor has met conditions for shutdown under all conditions. Thus, the RC/Q leg of EOI-1 will be exited by direction. With a valid High Drywell Rad condition, concurrent with a LOCA and a shutdown reactor, the ARP-specified requirement is to inject SLC within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days 5.555556e-4 hours 3.306878e-6 weeks 7.61e-7 months .

B INCORRECT: First part correct - as detailed in A above. Second part incorrect in that there is no ATWS even with 18 Control Rods at position 02.

If there were an ATWS, RC/Q would require execution and RC/L would be exited. (See attached excerpts)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet C INCORRECT: First part incorrect - If there were an ATWS, RC/Q would require execution; resulting in the requirement to inject SLC prior to 110 ºF in the Suppression Pool. Second part is correct - as detailed in A above.

D INCORRECT: First part incorrect - as detailed in C above. Second part incorrect - as detailed in B above.

SRO Level Justification: Tests the candidates ability to make operational judgments as it relates to SLC and current plant conditions. The question itself is SRO-only due to the fact that the candidate must assess facility conditions and prescribe a procedure or section of a procedure to mitigate, recover, or with which to proceed. As no references are provided, this question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): Unit 1, EOI-1, Rev. 0 (Attach if not previously provided)

Unit 2, EOI-1, Rev. 12 Unit 3, EOI-1, Rev. 8 3-ARP-9-7C, Rev. 30 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: _OPL171.039, V.B.2__ (As available)

Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet UNIT 1 SHUTDOWN CRITERIA UNITS 2 AND 3 SHUTDOWN CRITERIA

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 261000 SGTS ------ 2 Tier #

G2.2.4 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 1 (multi-unit license) Ability to explain the variations in control board/control room layouts, systems, instrumentation, and K/A # 261000G2.2.4 procedural actions between units at a facility.

Importance Rating ------ 3.6 Proposed Question: # 88 The following conditions exist on Unit 3:

Reactor Zone Exhaust Ventilation Fan 3A is Red Tagged

Reactor Zone Exhaust Ventilation Fan 3B is tripped

REACTOR ZONE DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE LOW, (3-9-3D, Window 32), is in alarm

REAC BLDG VENTILATION ABNORMAL, (3-9-3D, Window 3), is in alarm

REACTOR ZONE PRESS DIFFERENTIAL, 3-PDIC-064-0002, indicates 0 inches H2O Which ONE of the following completes the statements?

The Unit Supervisor must direct entry into __(1)__ .

In accordance with 0-OI-65, Standby Gas Treatments System, the PREFERRED location to start SGTS is the __(2)__ Control Room.

A. (1) 3-EOI-3, Secondary Containment Control, ONLY.

(2) Unit 1 OR Unit 2 B. (1) 3-AOI-30B-1, Reactor Building Ventilation Failure, AND 3-EOI-3, Secondary Containment Control.

(2) Unit 1 OR Unit 2 C. (1) 3-EOI-3, Secondary Containment Control, ONLY.

(2) Unit 3 D. (1) 3-AOI-30B-1, Reactor Building Ventilation Failure, AND 3-EOI-3, Secondary Containment Control.

(2) Unit 3 Proposed Answer: B Explanation A INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - See Explanation C. Part 2 correct - See (Optional): Explanation B.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet B CORRECT: Part 1 correct EOI-3, Secondary Containment Control Entry Condition of Secondary CTMT DP > (-) .17 inches of water is met.

Entry into 3-AOI-30B-1, Reactor Building Ventilation Failure, required due to both reactor zone exhaust fans shutdown, annunciator REAC BLDG VENTILATION ABNORMAL, (3-XA-55-3D, Window 3) is in alarm, and REACTOR ZONE PRESS DIFFERENTIAL, 3-PDIC-064-0002, on Panel 25-213 indicates Reactor Building pressure is not within -0.25 to -0.40 inch H2O. Part 2 correct - Per 0-OI-65, Standby Gas Treatments System, Precaution and Limitation - Although all three trains of the SGT System can be started from the Unit 3 Control Room, it is recommended that the trains be started from the Units 1 and 2 Control Rooms due to the availability of instrumentation and shutdown capability.

C INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - Plausible in that 3-EOI-3, Secondary Containment Control Entry Condition of Secondary CTMT DP > (-) .17 inches of water is met. However, conditions also require entry into 3-AOI-30B-1, Reactor Building Ventilation Failure. Part 2 incorrect - Plausible in that Reactor Zone Ventilation failure has occurred on Unit 3 and controls are available to start SGTS in the Unit 3 Control Room.

D INCORRECT: Part 1 correct - See Explanation B. Part 2 incorrect - See Explanation C.

Justification: Candidate demonstrates ability to explain the variations in control board/control room layouts, and procedural actions between units at a facility for the SGTS by correctly answering Part 1. In the normal hierarchy of procedure use, the EOI takes precedence of the AOI. However, the candidate must further recognize that guidance to start SGTS is not included in EOI-3. Therefore, 3-AOI-30B-1 must be used to supplement the actions of EOI-3. This requires knowledge of specific procedural guidance beyond 3-AOI-30B-1 entry requirements to select the appropriate procedure to mitigate the abnormal condition. This question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. The candidate must This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): 0-OI-65 Rev. 52 / 3-EOI-3 Rev. 10 (Attach if not previously provided) 3-AOI-30B-1 Rev. 8 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: __________________ (As available)

Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 263000 DC Electrical Distribution ------ 2 Tier #

G2.1.28 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 1 Knowledge of the purpose and function of major system components and controls. K/A # 263000G2.1.28 Importance Rating ------ 4.1 Proposed Question: # 89 Unit 2 is operating at 100% Reactor Power when a loss of 250VDC RMOV Board 2C occurs.

Which ONE of the following identifies the effect this will have on the RCIC system AND what action is required to be taken per Tech Spec 3.5.3, RCIC System?

RCIC is __(1)__ for injection from the Control Room.

Examine logs OR other information, to determine if the HPCI system is out of service, 2-SR-3.5.1.7, HPCI Pump Developed Head and Flow Rate Test at Rated Reactor Pressure, __(2)__

required to be performed.

A. (1) available (2) is B. (1) available (2) is NOT C. (1) unavailable (2) is D. (1) unavailable (2) is NOT Proposed Answer: D Explanation A INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - Plausible in that there are several (Optional): conditions which could result in the RCIC System being inoperable but available for injection from the Control Room. Examples - Flow Controller in Manual, Loss of 250VDC RMOV Board A with the Miniumum Flow Valve open. Part 2 incorrect - Plausible in that this would be a definitive means to establish operability of HPCI. However it is not required as detailed in Explanation D.

B INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - See Explanation A. Part 2 correct - See Explanation D.

C INCORRECT: Part 1 correct - See Explanation D. Part 2 incorrect - See Explanation A.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet D CORRECT: Part 1 correct - The primary power source for RCIC system MOVs is 250VDC RMOV Board C. A loss of this board causes a loss of power to the majority of the RCIC system valves including several needed to establish injection with RCIC from the control room. Part 2 correct - IF it were declared inoperable, Tech Spec 3.5.3, Condition Charlie states Verify by administrative means HPCI System is operable. The candidate must have knowledge of the Bases for 3.5.3; which states This may be performed as an administrative check by examining logs or other information to determine if HPCI is out of service for maintenance or other reasons. It does NOT mean to perform the Surveillances needed to demonstrate OPERABILITY of the RCIC System.

SRO Level Justification: The 250VDC RMOV Board C is a major component of the DC Distribution System. To answer this question, candidate must have knowledge of the function of this component. Requires knowledge of Tech Spec bases that is required to analyze Tech Spec Required Actions and Terminology. Therefore, this is an SRO ONLY Question. This question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): OPL171.040 Rev. 23 (Attach if not previously provided)

U2 TS 3.5.3 Bases Pg B 3.5-32a Amm 286 Pg B 3.5-33 Rev. 0 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: OPL171.040 V.B.7___ (As available)

Question Source: Bank # Bruns 08 #81 Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam Brunswick 2008 (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 400000 Component Cooling Water ------ 2 Tier #

A2.02 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 1 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the CCWS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, K/A # 400000A2.02 or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations:

3.0

High/low surge tank level Importance Rating ------

Proposed Question: # 90 With Unit 2 at 100% Reactor Power, the following alarms AND indications are received:

RBCCW SURGE TANK LEVEL HIGH, (2-9-4C, Window 6), is in alarm

RX BLDG, TURB BLDG, RF ZONE EXH RADIATION HIGH, (2-9-3A, Window 4), is in alarm

2-RM-90-9, RB elevation 621 is reading 1000 mr/hr

RBCCW EFFLUENT RADIATION HIGH, (2-9-3A, Window 17), is in alarm In response to these indications, RBCCW has been isolated to Containment which stabilizes RBCCW Surge Tank Level.

Which ONE of the following describes the required actions to take in this situation?

The Unit Supervisor must direct the crew to Scram the Reactor in accordance with __(1)__ AND

__(2)__ .

A. (1) 2-EOI-3, Secondary Containment Control, (2) INITIATE a 90º F/HR cooldown rate.

B. (1) 2-AOI-70-1, Loss of Reactor Building Closed Cooling Water, (2) INITIATE a 90º F/HR cooldown rate.

C. (1) 2-EOI-3, Secondary Containment Control, (2) rapidly depressurize the Reactor irrespective of cooldown rate.

D. (1) 2-AOI-70-1, Loss of Reactor Building Closed Cooling Water, (2) rapidly depressurize the Reactor irrespective of cooldown rate.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation A INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - Plausible in that 2-EOI-3, Secondary (Optional): Containment Control, has been entered and requires scramming the reactor if a primary system is discharging into Secondary CTMT and one area is above its max safe limit. Conditions to scram per 2-EOI-3 have not yet been met. Part 2 correct - See explanation B.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet B CORRECT: Part 1 correct - In accordance with 2-AOI-70-1, Loss of Reactor Building Closed Cooling Water, IF Reactor is at power AND Drywell Cooling cannot be immediately restored, THEN REDUCE core flow to between 50-60% AND MANUALLY SCRAM the Reactor. Part 2 correct -

2-AOI-70-1 directs initiation of a 90°F/HR cooldown rate for the current conditions.

C INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - See explanation A. Part 2 incorrect -

Plausible in that if ED is anticipated, EOI-1 directs rapidly depressurizing the Reactor irrespective of cooldown rate.

D INCORRECT: Part 1 correct - See explanation B. Part 2 incorrect - See explanation C.

Justification: Candidate must determine the impact of the RBCCW Surge Tank HIGH level which requires isolation of RBCCW to Primary Containment and results in inability to immediately restore Drywell Cooling. The candidate must then select the appropriate procedures to mitigate the abnormal condition. Question involves assessing plant conditions and prescribing procedure to mitigate. Also, requires knowledge of diagnostic steps and decision points in EOIs that involve transition to event specific contingency procedures. Therefore, it is a SRO ONLY Question. This question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): 2-AOI-70-1 Rev. 29 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: OPL171.074 V.B.1___ (As available)

Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 215001 Traversing In-core Probe ------ 2 Tier #

G2.4.21 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 2 Knowledge of the parameters and logic used to assess the status of safety functions, such as reactivity control, core cooling and heat K/A # 215001G2.4.21 removal, reactor coolant system integrity, containment conditions, radioactivity release control, etc.

4.6 Importance Rating ------

Proposed Question: # 91 Unit 1 is at 100% Reactor Power with the following conditions:

Traversing Incore Probe (TIP) testing is in progress

TIP Channel E is currently located at the Top of Core position

A Group 8 isolation signal occurs

TIP E fails to retract

A guide tube leak is suspected Which ONE of the following completes the statement?

TIP E must be MANUALLY retracted per __(1)__ to the __(2)__ position.

A. (1) 1-OI-94, Traversing Incore Probe System, (2) IN-SHIELD B. (1) 1-OI-94, Traversing Incore Probe System, (2) PARKED C. (1) 1-AOI-64-2e, Traversing Incore Probe Isolation, (2) IN-SHIELD D. (1) 1-AOI-64-2e, Traversing Incore Probe Isolation, (2) PARKED Proposed Answer: C Explanation A INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - See Explanation B. Part 2 correct - See (Optional): Explanation C.

B INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - Plausible in that 1-OI-94 contains direction for retracting TIP E however not for the conditions specified. Part 2 incorrect - Per 1-AOI-64-2E, on a Group 8 signal, an AUTO withdraw signal is actuated. The TIP is withdrawn to the in-shield position, not parked. For the ball valve to close, it must be in the in-shield position.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet C CORRECT: Part 1 and 2 correct - In accordance with1-AOI-64-2E, IF a guide tube leak is suspected and any TIP probe not at its IN SHIELD position, direction is provided to manually withdraw the TIP probe. Per 1-AOI-64-2E, on a Group 8 signal, an AUTO withdraw signal is actuated. The TIP is withdrawn to the in-shield position, not parked. For the ball valve to close, it must be in the in-shield position. Section 4.2[3] directs withdrawing TIP to IN SHIELD position if manual withdrawal is required.

D INCORRECT: Part 1 correct - See Explanation C. Part 2 incorrect - See Explanation D.

Justification: Requires knowledge of TIP logic to assess status of Containment safety function and required actions to mitigate failure. SRO-Only - Requires assessing plant conditions and then prescribing a procedure to mitigate. This question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): 1-AOI-64-2e Rev. 1 (Attach if not previously provided)

OPL171.023 Rev. 6 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: OPL171.023 V.B.5___ (As available)

Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 216000 Nuclear Boiler Inst. ------ 2 Tier #

A2.06 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 2 Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following on the NUCLEAR BOILER INSTRUMENTATION; and (b) based on those predictions, K/A # 216000A2.06 use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those abnormal conditions or operations:

3.1

Loss of power supply Importance Rating ------

Proposed Question: # 92 With Unit 1 at 100% Reactor Power, a fault has locked out Recirc Board 1A resulting in the following indications:

ALL A loop jet pumps reading ~3 psid

ALL B loop jet pumps reading ~17 psid

Loop A Total Jet Pump Flow indicates 18 Mlbm/hr

Loop B Total Jet Pump Flow indicates 62 Mlbm/hr Which ONE of the following completes the statement?

Total Core Flow (1- FR-68-50) indication on Panel 1-9-5 is __(1)__ AND the Unit Supervisor must direct entry into 1-AOI-68-1A, Recirc Pump Trip / Core Flow Decrease OPRMs Operable,

__(2)__.

A. (1) accurate (2) ONLY.

B. (1) NOT accurate (2) ONLY.

C. (1) accurate (2) AND 1-AOI-68-2, Jet Pump Failure.

D. (1) NOT accurate (2) AND 1-AOI-68-2, Jet Pump Failure.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation A CORRECT: Part 1 correct - Loss of Recirc Board 1A result in a trip of (Optional): Recirc Pump 1A. If one recirc pump is running and the other is tripped, the circuit will automatically subtract any flow sensed in the non-operating loop jet pumps. This is due to the reverse flow characteristic in the non-operating loop jet pumps. Part 2 correct AOI-68-1A, Recirc Pump Trip / Core Flow Decrease OPRMs Operable must be entered due to the trip of Recirc Pump 1A. Although jet pump indications are distinctly different between loops, they are at the expected values. There is no indication of a jet pump failure provided.

B INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - See Explanation D. Part 2 correct - See Explanation A.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet C INCORRECT: Part 1 correct - See Explanation A. Part 2 incorrect - See Explanation D.

D INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - Plausible in that if the total core flow circuitry did not automatically subtract any flow sensed in the non- operating loop jet pumps, Total Core Flow indication would be inaccurate. Also, if Loop A Total Jet Pump Flow was less than 41 Mlbm/hr, total flow indication could be inaccurate due to positive jet pump flow in the out of service loop.

Part 2 incorrect - Plausible in that current plant indications reflect several symptoms identified in 1-AOI-68-2, Jet Pump Failure. However, the indications are expected for current plant conditions.

Justification: With loss of power supply to the A Recirc Pump, candidate must predict the impacts on Jet Pump Flow Instrumentation; and based on those predictions select the correct procedures to mitigate the consequences of this abnormal condition. This question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): OPL171.007 Rev. 24 (Attach if not previously provided) 1-AOI-68-1A Rev. 3 / 1-AOI-68-2 Rev. 0 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: OPL171.007 V.B.23__ (As available)

Question Source: Bank # Fitz SRO #5 Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam Fitzpatrick 2008 (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Proposed Question: #5 The A Recirculation Pump MG Set has tripped from full power resulting in:

All A loop jet pumps reading ~7% psid at the 09-38.

All B loop jet pumps reading ~43% psid at the 09-38.

Which of the below describe the 09-5 Total Core Flow (02-3FR-95) indication and the appropriate procedure?

a. The indication is accurate; Enter AOP-29, Jet Pump Malfunction

b. The indication is inaccurate; Enter AOP-29, Jet Pump Malfunction

c. The indication is accurate, Enter AOP-8, Loss or Reduction of Reactor Coolant Flow

d. The indication is inaccurate, Enter AOP-8, Loss or Reduction of Reactor Coolant Flow Proposed Answer: c.

Explanation c. CORRECT: The MG set trip will result in field breaker opening which will (Optional): place the reverse flow summer into service. The reverse flow summer is intended for Total Core Flow indication accuracy specifically for this condition. Although jet pump indications are distinctly different between loops, they are at the expected values. There is no indication of a jet pump failure provided.

a. Incorrect: See Above.

b. Incorrect: See Above.

d. Incorrect: See Above.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO 219000 RHR/LPCI: Torus/Pool Cooling Mode ------ 2 Tier #

G2.4.41 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only)

Group # ------ 2 Knowledge of the emergency action level thresholds and classifications. K/A # 219000G2.4.41 Importance Rating ------ 4.6 Proposed Question: # 93 An ATWS has occurred on Unit 2 AND the following plant conditions exist:

RHR Loop I is tagged

RHR Loop II can NOT be placed in Suppression Pool Cooling due to a valve failure

Suppression Pool Temperature is 180º F

HPCI is required to be secured in accordance with 2-EOI-2, Primary Containment Control, due to low Suppression Pool Level

Reactor Power is 6%

Reactor Level is (-) 170 inches

Reactor Pressure is 1000 psig Which ONE of the following identifies the HIGHEST emergency classification required AND the MAXIMUM amount of time allowed to make the initial notification to the State of Alabama once a formal declaration of the event is made?

[REFERENCE PROVIDED]

A. Site Area Emergency; 15 minutes B. Site Area Emergency; 30 minutes C. General Emergency; 15 minutes D. General Emergency; 30 minutes Proposed Answer: C Explanation A INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect. Plausible in that this would be the correct (Optional): classification if Suppression Pool Temp was not in the unsafe zone of HCTL. If the candidate plots based on normal suppression pool level and interpolate between Reactor Pressure lines they would determine safe zone. Interpolation is not permitted. When RPV pressure exceeds a pressure line, the limit becomes the next higher pressure line.Part 2 correct

- The State of Alabama shall be contacted within 15 minutes of the emergency classification.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet B INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect as explained above. Part 2 is incorrect -

Assessment of an EVENT commences when recognition is made that one or more of the conditions associated with the event exists. Implicit in this definition is the need for timely assessment, i.e. within 15 minutes. This combined with requirement to contact the State of Alabama within 15 minutes could be added to incorrectly conclude 30 minutes is allowed make notifications.

C CORRECT: Part 1 correct - Per EPIP1, with failure of Automatic and Manual Scram and ARI to bring reactor power < 3% and Suppression Pool Temp exceeds HCTL, General Emergency declaration is required. Part 2 correct - The State of Alabama shall be contacted within 15 minutes of the emergency classification.

D INCORRECT: Part 1 is correct and Part 2 is incorrect as explained above.

Justification: To correctly answer this question, candidate must recognize that loss of ability to cool the Suppression Pool during an ATWS has resulted in challenging HCTL and make the correct EAL Classification with operation in the unsafe region of HCTL. Classify the event is a function unique to the SRO position. This question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): OPL171.201 Rev. 7 / EPIP-1 Rev. 45 (Attach if not previously provided)

OPL171.075 Rev. 23 / EPIP-5 Rev. 38 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: EPIP-1 Matrix ALL Section 1 Learning Objective: OPL171.075 V.B.2_____ (As available)

Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet OPL171.201 Revision 7 Page 6 of 8 (1) The upper limit of 19 feet is based on the highest containment water level at which the pressure suppression capability of the containment can be maintained, and is utilized to preserve the operability of the pressure suppression system so that the energy released into the containment from either an RPV blowdown or an RPV breach by core debris will not cause containment failure.

b. The inability to maintain suppression pool EOI-1 directs temperature and level within the safe region lowering RPV for varying reactor pressures requires RPV pressure emergency depressurization. Interpolation is irrespective of not permitted. When RPV pressure exceeds cooldown rate to a pressure line, the limit becomes the next remain in the safe higher pressure line. region.

c. SOME ASSUMPTIONS USED:

(1) The reactor has been shutdown from This is a limiting rated conditions for two minutes when factor for station RPV depressurization is initiated. blackout considerations (2) No Suppression Pool Cooling is available.

(3) Depressurization is effected using at least the Minimum Number of SRVs (4). If less than 4 SRVs are used, the total mass flowrate decreased and the time required to lower pressure to below the Minimum RPV Flooding Pressure increased. As the time required for emergency RPV depressurization increases, the total amount of energy produced by decay heat increases.

(4) All steam from the RPV is rejected to the suppression pool.

(5) All noncondensibles are in the suppression chamber when RPV pressure reaches the Minimum RPV Flooding Pressure.

2. Curve 4: SRV Tail Pipe Level Limit TP-20

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO G2.1.41 (10CFR 55.43.6 - SRO Only) Tier # ------ 3 Knowledge of the refueling processes. ------ ------

Group #

K/A # G2.1.41 Importance Rating ------ 3.7 Proposed Question: # 94 With Unit 2 in Mode 5, a non-spiral, routine fuel shuffle is in progress and the following plant conditions exist:

SRM B is inoperable

The next fuel bundle to be moved is designated for reactor cavity position 09-42

The fuel bundle to be moved is currently located in the Spent Fuel Pool

As the fuel bundle in question is grappled, SRM D fails downscale and is declared inoperable

ALL other SRMs are OPERABLE As the Refuel Floor Senior Reactor Operator (SRO), which ONE of the following actions regarding the next fuel bundle move is required, including the bases for this action?

[REFERENCE PROVIDED - CORE MAP]

A. Continue the fuel bundle move; it can be completed since the SRM in the AFFECTED core quadrant is OPERABLE.

B. Continue the fuel bundle move; it can be completed since the SRM in the ADJACENT core quadrant is OPERABLE.

C. Suspend the fuel bundle move; it CANNOT be completed since the SRM in the AFFECTED core quadrant is INOPERABLE.

D. Suspend the fuel bundle move; it CANNOT be completed since the SRM in the ADJACENT core quadrant is INOPERABLE.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation A INCORRECT: As explained in D below. Plausible in that the individual (Optional): candidate can misread the core map (enhanced through erroneous bundle location relative to 09-42 going both directions) in conjunction with the fact that the candidate could misapply the Tech Spec LCO requirements concerning adjacent and affected. Level of difficulty also magnified by the fact that quadrants are not provided and true north does not correspond to core north. Candidate may also confuse spiral vs. non-spiral.

B INCORRECT: As explained in A above.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet C INCORRECT: As explained in A above.

D CORRECT: Per TS Table 3.3.1.2 (and Bases), in non-spiral routine operations, two SRMs are required to be operable; one in the quadrant where the CORE ALTERATION is taking place and one in an adjacent quadrant containing fuel. SRM B and D are the adjacent quadrants to the stem-designated cavity position. Once SRM D fails, CORE ALTERATIONS must be suspended immediately.

Justification: Question requires knowledge of the refueling processes to correctly answer. SRO-ONLY - Requires ability to utilize core map properly to determine quadrant locations and application of Tech Specs for the refueling mode from memory in conjunction. This question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): U2 TS 3.3.1.2 Amm 253 (Attach if not previously provided)

U2 TS 3.3.1.2 Bases Rev. 0 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: Core Map - Marked Up Learning Objective: OPL171.019 V.B.13__ (As available)

OPL171.060 V.B.3___

Question Source: Bank # Fitz SRO # 78-05 Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO G2.2.39 (10CFR 55.43.2 - SRO Only) Tier # ------ 3 Knowledge of less than or equal to one hour technical ------ ------

Group #

specification action statements for systems.

K/A # G2.2.39 Importance Rating ------ 4.5 Proposed Question: # 95 Unit 1 is operating at 100% Reactor Power.

At 1200 ADS Initiation Timer A is declared inoperable

At 1400 Engineering reports BOTH ADS Initiation Timers are inoperable due to common cause Which ONE of the following completes the statement?

In accordance with TS 3.3.5.1, Emergency Core Cooling System (ECCS) Instrumentation, ALL ADS Valves must be declared inoperable no later than __(1)__ AND a __(2)__ report to the NRC is required in accordance with SPP-3.5, Regulatory Reporting Requirements.

A. (1) 1300 (2) 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months B. (1) 1300 (2) 4 hour4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months C. (1) 1500 (2) 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months D. (1) 1500 (2) 4 hour4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months Proposed Answer: D Explanation A INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - With ADS Timer A inoperable, initiation (Optional): function in the A trip system has been lost and entry into TS 3.3.5.1 Condition G is required. However, ALL ADS Valves must be declared inoperable within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months from discovery of loss of ADS initiation capability in both trip systems. Part 2 incorrect - A shutdown required by Technical Specification is no longer a 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months report. Reporting requirements have been revised such that a 4 hour4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months report is required for this condition.

B INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - See Explanation A. Part correct - See Explanation D.

C INCORRECT: Part 1 correct - See Explanation D. Part incorrect - See Explanation A.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet D CORRECT: Part 1 correct - Loss of ALL Automatic Depressurization System (ADS) Initiation Timers results in loss of ADS initiation capability in both trip systems. TS 3.3.5.1 G.1 requires ADS valves be declared inoperable if ADS initiation capability is lost with completion time of 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months .

Part 2 correct - With all ADS Valves Inoperable a shutdown statement per TS 3.5.1 Condition G. The initiation of any nuclear plant shutdown required by the plants Technical Specifications requires a 4 hour4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months NRC notification.

Justification: Question requires knowledge of less than or equal to one hour technical specification action statement TS 3.3.5.1 G.1 for ECCS Instrumentation. Question requires candidate to determine NRC reporting requirements and is therefore unique function of the SRO position. This question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): SPP-3.5 Rev. 22 / U1 TS 3.5.1 Amm 240 (Attach if not previously provided)

U1 TS 3.3.5.1 Amm 234 / U1 TS Table 3.3.5.1-1 Amm 258 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: OPL171.092 V.B.4___ (As available)

OPL171.087 V.B.8___

Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # 0707 SRO #21 (Note changes or attach parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam BFN 2008 (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet BFN NRC 2008 (Class 0707)

Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO G2.2.39 Tier # 3 Knowledge of less than one hour technical specification action Group #

statements for systems.

K/A # G2.2.39 Importance Rating 3.9 4.5 Proposed Question: SRO # 21 Given the following plant conditions:

Unit 2 is at 100% rated power.

RHR Loop II is INOP 2 days into a 7 day action statement per TSR 3.5.1.A.

Which ONE of the following equipment failures would result in the most limiting Technical Specification LCO action and the reporting requirements that would result from that failure?

If (1) was declared INOPERABLE, a (2) report to the NRC would be required.

(1) (2)

A. Core Spray Loop I 4 hour4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months B. Core Spray Loop I 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months C. Diesel Generator A 4 hour4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months D. Diesel Generator A 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months Proposed Answer: A Explanation: a. Correct answer. Two low pressure ECCS subsystems INOP requires entry into Applicability Statement 3.0.3 immediately in accordance with 3.5.1.H.

b. Part (1) is correct. Part (2) is incorrect. A shutdown required by Technical Specification is no longer a 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months report. Reporting requirements have been revised such that a 4 hour4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months report is required for this condition.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

c. Part (1) is incorrect. An INOP D/G will result in implementation of Applicability Statement 3.0.3, but there is a 4 hour4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months grace period before redundant subsystems, trains and components are declared inoperable in accordance with 3.8.1.B.2. Part (2) is correct.

d. Part (1) is incorrect as stated in (c) above. Part (2) is incorrect as stated in (b) above.

Technical Reference(s): U1 TSR 3.5.1, U1 TSR 3.8.1 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New 7/23/2008 RMS Question History: Last NRC Exam Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO G2.2.43 (10CFR 55.43.3 - SRO Only) Tier # ------ 3 Knowledge of the process used to track inoperable alarms. ------ ------

Group #

K/A # G2.2.43 Importance Rating ------ 3.3 Proposed Question: # 96 Which ONE of the following completes the statements in accordance with OPDP-4, Annunciator Disablement?

A Nuisance Annunciator that has its leads lifted will be identified with a border which is labeled

__(1)__.

If an Annunciator input is specifically allowed or directed to be disabled AND restored by step text in an approved plant procedure, THEN, a separate 10CFR50.59 review and/or Technical Evaluation __(2)__ required to be completed.

A. (1) Out-of-Service.

(2) is still B. (1) Disabled Alarm Input.

(2) is still C. (1) Out-of-Service.

(2) is NOT D. (1) Disabled Alarm Input.

(2) is NOT Proposed Answer: D Explanation A INCORRECT: First part incorrect - Per OPDP-4 requirements, a label with (Optional): Disabled Alarm Input is used for alarms with leads lifted. Out-of Service is a category of annunciators. Second part incorrect as detailed in D below -

the 50.59 and the Tech Eval are not required.

B INCORRECT: First part correct - as detailed in D below. Second part incorrect - as detailed in D below.

C INCORRECT: First part incorrect - as detailed in A above. Second part correct - as detailed in D below.

D CORRECT: (See attached excerpts) Per OPDP-4 requirements, a label with Disabled Alarm Input is used for alarms with leads lifted. For the second part - When an annunciator window/input is disabled as directed/allowed in an approved plant procedure (excluding maintenance or surveillance activities), a separate 50.59 review and Technical Evaluation are not required since the procedure has already been reviewed and approved.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet SRO Level Justification: Tests the candidates knowledge of Annunciator Disablement. By definition, per the guidance of the NRCs Guidance for SRO-Only Questions, the administrative processes for disabling annunciators and the implications of the 10CFR50.59 screening and evaluation processes are exam items that are unique to the SRO position.

Technical Reference(s): OPDP-4, Rev. 4 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: __________________ (As available)

Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO G2.3.11 (10CFR 55.43.4 - SRO Only) Tier # ---- 3 Ability to control radiation releases.

Group # ----

K/A # G2.3.11 Importance Rating ---- 4.3 Proposed Question: # 97 Unit 3 was operating at 100% Reactor Power, when a coolant leak in the Drywell caused a Reactor Scram. The following conditions are noted:

ALL Control Rods fully inserted

Drywell Pressure is 23.4 psig and lowering slowly

Suppression Chamber Pressure is 22 psig and lowering slowly

Suppression Pool Level is 15 feet

MSIVs are OPEN Given these conditions, which ONE of the following completes the statement?

Venting the Primary Containment is required to be performed using __________.

A. 3-EOI APPENDIX-12, Primary Containment Venting, irrespective of radioactive release rates.

B. 3-EOI-APPENDIX-13,Emergency Venting Primary Containment, irrespective of radioactive release rates.

C. 3-EOI APPENDIX-12, Primary Containment Venting, ONLY if radioactive release rates can be maintained below ODCM limits.

D. 3-EOI-APPENDIX-13, Emergency Venting Primary Containment, ONLY if radioactive release rates can be maintained below ODCM limits.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation A INCORRECT: With given Suppression Chamber Pressure < 55#, App-12 is (Optional): appropriate, but must maintain release rate < ODCM limit.

B INCORRECT: With given Suppression Chamber Pressure < 55#, App-12 is appropriate, but must maintain release rate < ODCM limit.

C CORRECT: Release rates are required to be controlled per step 12 of APPENDIX-12.

D INCORRECT: With given Suppression Chamber Pressure < 55#, App-12 is appropriate, but must maintain release rate < ODCM limit. Plausible in that the candidate may incorrectly evaluate the given conditions

ES-401 Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet SRO Level Justification: SRO only because of link to 10CFR55.43 (5): Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedure. Tests candidates ability to process multiple pieces of data to ascertain whether Emergency Venting is required and whether or not ODCM limits are applicable based upon conditions.

Technical Reference(s): 3-EOI-2 Rev 8 (Attach if not previously provided) 3-EOI Appendix-12 Rev 3 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: ___________________ (As available)

Question Source: Bank # X 0801 #98 Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam HLT 0801 (7/09)

(Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO G2.3.13 (10CFR 55.43.4 - SRO Only) Tier # ------ 3 Knowledge of radiological safety procedures pertaining to ------ ------

Group #

licensed operator duties, such as response to radiation monitor alarms, containment entry requirements, fuel handling K/A # G2.3.13 responsibilities, access to locked high-radiation areas, aligning filters, etc. 3.8 Importance Rating ------

Proposed Question: # 98 Which ONE of the following completes the statements for drywell entry requirements in accordance with 1-GOI-200-2, Primary Containment Initial Entry and Closeout?

Initial Drywell Entry with the Reactor at Power must be approved by the __(1)__ .

The MINIMUM allowed Oxygen concentration for entry WITHOUT a SCBA is __(2)__ .

A. (1) Shift Manager ONLY.

(2) 19.5 %.

B. (1) Shift Manager AND Plant Manager.

(2) 19.5%.

C. (1) Shift Manager ONLY.

(2) 20.9%.

D. (1) Shift Manager AND Plant Manager.

(2) 20.9%.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation A INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - See explanation C. Part 2 correct - See (Optional): explanation B.

B CORRECT: Part 1 correct - Initial entries are permitted only when the Reactor Mode switch is in SHUTDOWN, REFUEL, or STARTUP/HOT STANDBY position, unless drywell entry at power has been authorized by the Plant Manager. Shift Manager approval is required for all initial entries.

Part 2 correct - No Containment entry is permitted without special breathing equipment unless a natural air atmosphere has been established (oxygen greater than or equal to 19.5%), as verified by Chemistry obtaining a grab sample IAW CI-403.

C INCORRECT: Part 1 incorrect - This is plausible in that if the entry is made with the Reactor Mode switch is in SHUTDOWN or REFUEL position, Plant Manager authorization is not required and this would be the correct answer.

Part 2 incorrect - The limit is 19.5%. This is plausible in that it is recognizable as the normal value for Oxygen Concentration in air.

D INCORRECT: Part 1 correct - See explanation B. Part 2 incorrect - See explanation C.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Justification: Requires knowledge of radiological and industrial safety procedural requirements pertaining to licensed operator duties, such as containment entry requirements. Requires knowledge of procedural requirements associated with duties unique to the SRO position and is therefore an SRO Question.

Technical Reference(s): 1-GOI-200-2 Rev. 11 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: __________________ (As available)

Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New X Question History: Last NRC Exam (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO G2.4.40 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only) Tier # ------ 3 Knowledge of SROs responsibilities in emergency plan ------ ------

Group #

implementation.

K/A # G2.4.40 Importance Rating ------ 4.5 Proposed Question: # 99 The Shift Manager / Site Emergency Director (SM/SED) has declared a General Emergency.

The Central Emergency Control Center (CECC) is NOT staffed.

Besides classification, which ONE of the following duties can NOT be delegated to another emergency team member by the SM/SED?

A. Make notifications to the state.

B. Direct the shutdown of the plant.

C. Conduct site accountability actions.

D. Determine Protective Action Recommendations.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation A INCORRECT: The Operations Duty Specialist (ODS) should be notified by (Optional): the SM/SED within five minutes of the event classification. The ODS relays the information to the Emergency Duty Officer (EDO), the State of Alabama, and the CECC Director. The EDO keeps the CECC Director informed of the situation as necessary.

B INCORRECT: If the event is determined to be one of the four emergency classifications, the Shift Manager assumes the responsibility of SED until relieved by the Plant Manager or designee.

C INCORRECT: The Shift Manager or SED shall make the decision to activate the assembly and accountability process. The actions carried out as a result of this decision can be delegated but the decision itself cannot be delegated.

D CORRECT: Per EPIP-5, General Emergency, The Site Emergency Director must make any required recommendations until the CECC is staffed. This responsibility cannot be delegated until CECC is in operation.

Recommendations are required at General Emergency.

Justification: Requires knowledge of SROs responsibilities in emergency plan implementation to correctly answer. Question requires knowledge of duties that are unique to the SRO Position and is therefore an SRO Question.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical Reference(s): EPIP-5 Rev. 38 / EPIP-8 Rev. 21 (Attach if not previously provided)

OPL171.075 Rev. 23 / EPIP-1 Rev. 45 Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination:

Learning Objective: OPL171.075 V.B.4___ (As available)

Question Source: Bank # CR 07 SRO #25 Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam Crystal River Nuclear Plant 2007-001 SRO (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge X Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO SRO G2.4.45 (10CFR 55.43.5 - SRO Only) Tier # ------ 3 Ability to prioritize and interpret the significance of each ------ ------

Group #

annunciator or alarm.

K/A # G2.4.45 Importance Rating ------ 4.3 Proposed Question: # 100 The following alarms AND indications exist on Unit 3:

DRYWELL PRESS APPROACHING SCRAM, (3-9-3B, Window 30), is in alarm

Suppression Chamber Pressure is 1.7 psig and rising

Reactor Level is (-) 116 inches and lowering slowly

DRYWELL EQPT DR SUMP PUMP EXCESSIVE OPRN, (3-9-4B, Window 11), is in alarm

Drywell Floor Drain Leakage is calculated at 100 gpm Which ONE of the following completes the statement?

These alarms AND indications establish that _____.

A. a loss of the Fuel Clad Barrier exists.

B. a loss of the Containment Barrier exists.

C. a loss of the Reactor Coolant System Barrier exists.

D. NO loss of a Fission Product Barrier currently exists.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation A INCORRECT: The threshold for fission product barrier loss - a Reactor (Optional): coolant sample that yields a result of 300 Ci/gm Iodine-131 equivalent is indicative of cladding failure.

B INCORRECT: The threshold for Primary Containment fission product barrier loss is considered to be consistent with the following: - Refer to 2.5-U.

Unexplained Loss Of Containment Pressure / Exceeding SI-4.7.A.2.a Limits (Excessive N2 Makeup) / Inability To Isolate Any Line Exiting Containment When Isolation Is Required / Venting Irrespective Of Offsite Release Rates Per EOIs / SAMGs.

C CORRECT: The threshold for Reactor Coolant System fission product barrier loss is considered to be consistent with Reactor coolant leakage of at least 50 GPM from the primary system.

D INCORRECT: With Reactor coolant leakage >50 GPM from the primary system the RCS Fission Product Barrier has been lost.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Justification: Candidate must interpret the significance of each annunciator or alarm to determine which Fission Product Barrier has been lost. Question requires knowledge used to perform duties that are unique to the SRO Position and is therefore an SRO Question. This question is rated as C/A due to the requirement to assemble, sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

Technical Reference(s): EPIP-1 Rev. 45 (Attach if not previously provided)

Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: NONE Learning Objective: __ (As available)

Question Source: Bank # PERRY 07 SRO #10 Modified Bank # (Note changes or attach parent)

New Question History: Last NRC Exam PERRY 2007 (Optional - Questions validated at the facility since 10/95 will generally undergo less rigorous review by the NRC; failure to provide the information will necessitate a detailed review of every question.)

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet PERRY 2007 NRC SRO #10 The plant scrams from 100% power. The following alarms and indications are called to your attention:

Drywell Pressure 1.7 psig and rising

Reactor Level at 50 and slowly lowering

Containment Pressure 2.5 psig and rising

DW UNIDENTIFIED RATE OF CHANGE HIGH, recorder on high peg These alarms and indications establish that _____.

A. no loss of a Fission Product Barrier currently exists B. a loss of the Fuel Clad Barrier exists C. a loss of the Reactor Coolant System Barrier exists D. a loss of the Containment Barrier exists

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Level: RO SRO Tier # 1 Examination Outline Cross-Reference Group # 1 K/A# 295024 2 4 45 Importance 36 K&A: Ability to prioritize and interpret the significance of each annunciator or alarm.

High Drywell Pressure Explanation (Why the distractors are incorrect): Answer C A - Loss of RCS exists B - not a loss of fuel barrier D - not a loss of containment barrier Technical Reference(s): Reference Attached:

EPI-A1 Fission Product Barrier Matrix EPI-A1 Fission Product Barrier Proposed references to be provided to applicants during examination: None Learning Objective (As available): EPL-0804-01 4 Question Source: Bank #

Modified Bank #

New X Question History: Previous NRC Exam Previous Quiz / Test Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge Comprehension or Analysis X 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 55.41 55.43 X b.5 Comments: Level of Difficulty = 3

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