ML20198C812

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Forwards Results of Generic Fundamentals Exam Section of Written Operator Licensing Exam Administered on 910605 to Be Forwarded to Appropriate Individuals
ML20198C812
Person / Time
Site: Waterford 
Issue date: 06/26/1991
From: Collins S
NRC OFFICE OF INSPECTION & ENFORCEMENT (IE REGION IV)
To: Barkhurst R
ENTERGY OPERATIONS, INC.
References
NUDOCS 9107030164
Download: ML20198C812 (60)


Text

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JUN 2 61991 Docket:

50-382 Lictnse: NPF-38 Entergy Operations, Inc.

ATTN:

R. F. Barkhurst, VP -

Operations, Waterford P.O. Box B Killona, LA 70066 Gentlemen:

This letter forwards the results of the Generic Fundamentals Examination Section (GFES) of the written operator licensing examination that was administered on June 5, 1991, to nominated employees of your facility. he are forwarding the following items:

o the examination, including answer key, o

the results for your nominated employees, and o-copies of the individual answer sheets completed by your nominated employees We request that your training departnent forward the individual answer sheets and results to the appropriate individuals.

It should be noted that the I

examination was administered in two forms, which were identical except for the sequence of questions.

In accordance with the Cortrission's Regulations, 10 CFR Part 2.790, a copy of this 1ctter and the examinaticn and answer key will be placed in the NRC's Public Document Roem (PDR). The individual results end answer sheets are exempt frcm public disclosure and therefore will not be placed in the FDP.

Cuestions ccreerning this examinaticn should be directed to Mr. Paul Doyle at (301) 492-1058.

Sincerely, Crsnd C T's N Thom;c P. -in3 f

h Samuel J. Ccilins, Director y

Divisicn of Reactor Frojects

Enclosures:

As stated cc:

next page p/

9107030164 910626

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DRP SC RIV file L. Miller, TTC DRS (J. Pellet rds file)

Entergy Operations, Inc. jgt <, 9 3g9)

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Entergy Operations. Inc.

ATTN: Charles Toth, Training Manager, hterford P.O. Box B Killona, LA 70066 ERS:0LS:L4 LRS:CLS:SC CPS tvCir IRP:DivDir EMEimes[

JLPellet,p LJCc.ll ar.

'(' SJCollirt 6/24/91 6 /.! / 91 '

6 6 /91 E/3. / 91

ANSWER KEY FOR JUNE 1941 PWR GFE (Rev. 5/24)

FORM FORM FORM A

B A

B A

B 1.

57.

A 35.

91.

B 69.

25.

B 2.

58.

D 36.

92.

D 70, 26.

A 3.

59.

B 37.

93.

D 71.

27.

C 4.

60.

B 38.

94.

D 72.

28.

C 5.

61.

B 39.

95.

A 73.

29.

B 6.

62.

C 40, 96.

B 74.

30.

C 7.

63.

A 41.

97.

A 75.

31.

C 8.

64.

B 42, 98.

C 76.

32.

D 9.

65.

'A 43.

99.

A 77.

33.

C 10.

66.

D 44.

100.

D 78.

34.

B 11.

67.

D 45.

1.

C

'9 35.

C 12.

68.

C 46.

2.

B 80.

36.

C 13.

69.

B 47.

3.

B 81.

37.

A 14.

70.

C 48.

4.

C 82.

38.

C 15.

71.

D 49.

5.

A 83.

39.

D 10.

72.

A 50.

6.

B 84.

40.

D 17.

73.

A 51.

7.

C 85.

41.

B 18.

74.

D 52.

8.

D 86, 42.

D 19.

75.

A 53.

9.

D 87.

43.

D 20.

76.

A 54, 1G.

D 88.

44.

A 21.

77.

C 55.

11.

B 89.

45.

C 22.

78.

A 56.

12.

C 90.

46.

C 23, 79.

D 57.

13.

A 91.

47.

C 24.

80.

B 58.

14.

B 92.

48 A

25.

81.

D 59.

15.

B 93.

49.

A 26.

82.

C 60.

16.

C 94 50.

C 27.

83.

B 61.

17.

A 15, 51.

D 28.

84.

D 62.

18.

D 6.

52.

B 29.

85.

D 63.

19.

A 97.

53.

B 30, 86.

C 64.

20.

B 98.

54.

D 31.

87.

C 65, 21.

D 99.

55.

D 32.

88.

A 66.

22.

B 100.

56.

A 33.

89.

C 67.

23.

B 34 90.

C 68.

24.

D l

1

UNITED STATES NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION PRESSURIZED WATER REACTOR GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION JUNE 1991 - FORM A Please Prinw:

Name:

Facilit e:

ID Num%r: _

StL 7t Time:

Stop Time:

IN?:TRdO'"ICNS TO CANDIDATE Use the '.nswer sheet provided.

Each question has equal point valha.

A score of at least 80% is required to pass this portion of the %ricten licensing examination.

All examination papers will be collscred 2.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> after the examination starts.

SECTION QUESTIONS

% OF TOTAL SCORE COMPONENTS 1 - 44 REACTOR THEORY 45 - 72 THERMODYNAMICS 73 - 100 TOTALS 100 All work done on this examination is my own.

I have neither given nor received aid.

Candidate's Signature

RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR THE j

GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

(2)

Print your name in the blank provided on the cover sheet of the examination.

(2)

Fill in the name of your facility.

(3)

Fill in the ID-Number you were given at registration.

(4)

Fill in your start and stop times at the appropriate time.

(5)

Three handouts are provided for your use during the examina-tion, an Equations and Conversions sheet, instructions for filling out the answer sheet, and Steam Table booklets.

l (6)

Use only the answer sheet provided.

Credit will only be given for answers properly marked on this sheet.

Follow the i

instructions for filling out the answer sheet.

(

(7)

Scrap paper will be provided for calculations.

{

l (8)

Any questions about an item on the examination should be i

directed to the examiner only.

1 (9)

Cheating on the examination will result in the automatic forfeiture of this examination.

Cheating could also result i

in severe penalties.

l (10) Restroom trips are limited. Only ONE examinee may leave the i

room at a time.

In order to avoid the appearance or possibility of cheating, avoid all contact with anyone outside of the examination room.

(11) After you have completed the examination, sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have not received or been given any assistance in completing the examination.

(12) Turn in your examination materials, answer sheet on top, followed by the exam booklet, then examination aids - steam i

table booklets, handouts and scrap paper used during the examination.

(13) After turning in your examination materials, leave the examination area, as defined by the examiner.

If after leaving you are found in the examination area while the examination is in progress, your examination may be j

forfeited.

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GENERIC RINDAMETAIE EXAMINATION SEC"rION EQUATIONS AND CONVERSIONS IIANDOUT SitEET EOUATIONS Cycle Efficiency Net ork ( out )

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Energy (in) 6

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CR Il ' Keff)2 2

SUR - 26.06/r M

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CR /CR 0

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CONVERSIONS 10 1 Curie 3.7 x 10 dps 1 kg 2.21 lbm i

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I hp 2.54 x 10 BTU /hr 1 Mw 3.41 x 10 BTU /hr 1 BTU 778 ft-lbf

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USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

1 The difference between the setpoint pressure at which a safety valve opens and the pressure at which it closes is called:

A.

blowdown.

B.

accumulation.

C.

setpoint tolerance.

{

D.

setpoint deviation.

i QUESTION:

2 In comparison to a globe valve, a gate valve has a pressure drop when fully open and is the choice for throttling.

A.

higher; better B.

lower; better C.

higher; poorer D.

lower; poorer QUESTION:

3 When manually pouitioning a motor-operated valve, why must care be taken to avoid using excessive valve seating /backseating force?

A.

Limit switch settings may change.

B.

The valve may not operate on demand.

C.

The motor may not re-engage.

D.

Torque. switch settings may change.

1

4 USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

4 A stop check valve is a modified check valve that:

A.

cannot be shut remotely.

B.

can be used to prevent flow in ~oth directions.

C.

can be opened manually to allow flow in both directions.

D.

contains both a gate valve disk and a check valve disk.

QUESTION:

S Density compensation is used in flow instruments to change to A.

mass flow rate; volumetric flow rate B.

Volumetric flow rate; mass flow rate C.

mass flow rate; differential pressure D.

differential pressure; volumetric flow rate QUESTION:

6 Which one of the following will cause indicated volumetric flow rate to be LOWER than actual volumetric flow rate using a differential pressure flow detector and a calibrated orifice?

A.

Debris becomes lodged in the orifice.

B.

A leak develops in the low pressure sensing line.

C.

The orifice erodes over time.

D.

System pressure decreases.

l t-l 2

t

l l

l USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION i

FWR - FORM A QUESTION:

7 The flow rate of a fluid passing through a venturi can be determined by measuring the:

A.

differential pressure of the fluid as it passes through the venturi.

B.

linear displacement of a metering plug installed in the throat of the venturi.

C.

change in the velocity of the fluid as it passes through the venturi.

D.

rotation of a paddle wheel type device installed in the throat of the venturi.

QUESTION:

8 Refer to the drawing of two tank differential pressure level indicators (see figure 1).

Two differential pressure (D/ P) level indicators are jnstalled on a large water storage tank.

Indicator 1 was calibrated at 100 degrees F water temperature and indicator 2 was calibrated at 200 degrees F water temperature.

Assuming both are on scale, which indicatcc will indicate the higher level?

A.

Indicator 1 at all water temperatures B.

Indicator 2 at all water temperatures C.

Indicator 1 below 150 degrees F, indicator 2 above 150 degrees F D.

Indicator 2 below 150 degrees F, indicator 1 above 150 degrees F 3

1

.. _ _ -.. ~.

USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

9 Refer to the drawing of four tank differential pressure level detectors (see figure 2).

The tanks are identical with equal water levels and both are pressurized to 20 psig.

All detectors were calibrated at the current' water temperature and 70 degrees F external (ambient) temperature.

Which detectors will provide the MOST INACCURATE level indication following an increase in external (ambient) temperature from 70 degrees F to 100 degrees F?

(Assume water temperature and external pressure do not change.)

A.

1 and 3 B.

2 and 4 C.

1 and 4-l D.

2 and 3 QUESTION:

10 If the pressure sensed by a bourdon tube increases, the curvature of the detector will because of the greatest force being applied to the curve of the detector.

A.

increase; inner.

B.

decrease; inner C.

increase; outer D.

decrease; outer 4

- ~

USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

11 A bellows pressure transmitter with its low-pressure side vented to containment atmosphere is being used to measure Reactor Coolant System (RCS) pressure.

A decrease in the associated pressure indication could be caused by either a containment pressure or a RCS pressure A.

decrease; decrease B.

increase; increase C.

decrease; increase D.

increase; decrease QUESTION:

12 A resistance temperature detector (RTD) operates on the principle that the change in metal resistance is proportional to the change in A.

inversely; metal temperature B.

inversely; metal temperature squared C.

directly; metal temperature D.

directly; metal temperature squared I

l l

l 1

5

1 l

USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXId'IN ATI ON PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

13 The plant has experienced a loss of coolant accident with degraded safety injection flow.

The reactor coolant pumps have been manually tripped and the resulting phase separation has caused partial core uncovery (approximately 20 percent).

Which one of the following describes excore source /startup range neutron level indication as core uncovery increases from 20 percent to 100 percent of the core?

(Assume neutron detectors are located adjacent to the bottom portion of the core.)

A.

Increases continuously B.

Increases, then decreases C.

Decreases continuousl'y D.

Decreases, then increases QUESTION:

14 Refer to the drawing of a gas-filled detector characteristic curve (see figure 3).

Which of the following statements deceribes how a gas-filled radiation detector, operating in the " proportional" region, functions?

A.

Essentially all of the ions caused by incident radiation are collected.

Iens collected from secondary ionizations are independent of applied voltage.

B.

Essentially none of the ions caused by incident raolation are collected.

Ions collected from secondary ionizations vary directly with applied voltage.

C.

Essentially all of the ions caused by incident radiation are collected.

Ions collected from secondary ionizations vary directly with applied voltage.

D.

Essentially none of the ions caused by incident are collected.

Ions collected from secondary ionizations are independent of applied voltage.

6

-- =

4 USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

15 The difference between the setpoint and the measured parameter in an automatic flow controller is called:

A.

gain.

B.

bias.

C.

feedback.

D.

error.

QUESTION:

16 Refer to the drawing of a pneumatic control system (see figure 4).

Given that an increasing control signal from the Steam Generator Level Control System causes the I/P converter to modulate open, if the control signal is manually increased, how will the pneumatic control system affect steam generator level?

A.

Level will increase because the valve positioner will open j

more.

B.

Level will decrease because the valve positioner will open more.

C.

Level will increase because the valve positioner will close more.

D.

Level will decrease because the valve positioner will close more.

7

m____.

USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

17 Refer to the drawing of a lube oil temperature control syrtem (see figure 5).

If the temperature transmitter fails HIGH (high temperature output signal), the temperature controller will the temperature control valve, causing the actual heat exchanger

-he oil outlet temperature to A.

open; decrease B.

open; increase C.

close; decrease D.

Close; increase QUESTION:

18 What may be damaged if an operator attempts to manually disengage the motor on a motor-operated valve while the motor is operating?

A.

Limit switches B.

Valve seat C.

Torque switches D.

Clutch i

l l

(

8

USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

19 Which one of the following describes the response of a direct acting proportional-integral controller, operating in automatic, to an increase in the controlled parameter above the controller setpoint?

A.

The controller will develop an output signal that continues to increase until the controlled parameter equals the controller setpoint, at which time the output signal becomes onstant.

B.

The controller will develop an output signal that will remain directly proportional to the difference between the controlled parameter and the controller setpoint.

C.

The controller will develop an output signal that continues to increase until the controlled parameter equals the controller setpoint, at which time the output signal becomes Zero.

D.

The controller will develop an output signal that will remain directly proportional to the rate of change of the controlled parameter.

QUESTION:

20 Which of the following-changes in pump operating parameters will DIRECTLY lead to pump cavitation in a centrifugal pump that is operating at rated conditions in an open system?

A.

Steadily increasing pump inlet temperature B.

Steadily decreasing pump speed C.

Steadily increasing pump suction pressure D.

Steadily decreasing pump recirculation flow 9

USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

21 When a centrifugal pump is operating at shutoff head, it is pumping at

__ capacity and discharge head.

A.

maximum; minimum B.

maximum; maximum C.

minimum; maximum D.

minimum; minimum QUESTION:

22 A centrifugal pump is circulating water at 100 degrees F in a cooling' water system.

After several hours the water temperature has increased to 150 degrees F.

Assuming system flow rate (gpm) is constant, pump motor amps will have because A.

decreased; water density has decreased l

B.

increased; water density has decreased C.

decreased; pump shaft speed has increased l

D.

increased; pump shaft speed has increased l.

l l

l I

l l

10 l

l

l I

j USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EX/sMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

23 Refer to the drawing of a lube oil temperature control system and the associated centrifugal pump operating curve (see figure 6).

If the pump is operating at point B on the operating curve, how will the operating point change if the temperature control valve modulates further open?

A.

Operating point B will be located on curve 1 closer to point D.

B.

Operating point B will be located on curve 2 closer to point A.

C.

Operating point B will be located on curve 1 closer to point E.

D.

Operating point B will be located on curve 2 closer to point C.

QUESTION:

24 Which one of the following specifies the proper pump discharge valve position and the basis for that position when starting a large centrifugal purp?

A.

Discharge valve fully open to ensure proper axial alignment of pump impeller.

B.

Discharge valve throttled to reduce motor power requirements C.

Discharge valve fully open to ensure adequate pump recirculation flow D.

Discharge valve throttled to lessen the possibility of air binding the pump 11

i e

USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION j-PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

25 l

If the speed of a positive displacement pump is increased, the available net positive suction head (NPSH) will and the probability of cavitation will A.

increase; increase l

l B.

decrease; decrease C.

increase; decrease t

D.

decrease; increase i

QUESTION:

26 Why are positive displacement and centrifugal pumps typically NOT operated in parallel?

l l

A.

At high system flow rates the positive displacement pump may l

not receive adequate net positive suction head.

B.

At low discharge pressures the positive displacement pump l

may overheat from a lack of recirculation flow.

C.

At high discharge pressures the positive displacement pump may prevent flow through the centrifugal pump.

D.

Cyclic stresses may be placed on each pump due to uneven or oscillating pump flow rates.

1 l

i l

j 12

(

USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

27 An operator can differentiate a locked reactor coolant pump.(RCP) rotor from a sheared RCP rotor 30 seconds after the event by observing:

(Assume no operator action.)

A.

loop flow indications.

B.

RCP ammeter indications.

C.

loop differential temperature indications.

D.

reactor trip status.

QUESTION:

28 If the generator bearings on a motor-generator begin to fail from overheating, then:

A.

generator current will increase.

3.

generator windings will overheat.

C.

motor current will decrease.

D.

motor windings will-overheat.

13

i l*

USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

29 A main generator'is operating on the grid with the following indications:

- 100 MWe

- 0 MVAR

- 2,900 amps

- 20,000' volts i

l If main generator excitation is reduced, amps will and i

MWe will l

A.

decrease; decrease l

B.

increase; decrease l

C.

decrease; remain the same D.

increase; remain the same l

l l

QUESTION:

20 A motor-driven centrifugal pump is operating at a low flow condition in an open system.

The throttled discharge valve is then fully opened to increase system flow rate.

Which one of the following will increase?

A.

Pump discharge pressure B.

Available. net positive suction head C.

Motor amps D.

Pump speed l

l 14 I

a

  • ?StiRC GE!JERIC FUllDAME!1TALS EXAMIllATIO!J l

PWR - FORM A QUESTIOll:

31 The starting current in an AC induction motor is significantly higher than the full-load running current because:

1 A.

starting torque is lower than running torque.

B.

starting torque is higher than running torque.

C.

rotor current during start is too low to generate sufficient counter electromotive force (CEMF) in the stator.

D.

rotor current during start is too high to generate sufficient counter electromotive force (CEMF) in the stator.

QUESTIOll:

32 Refer to the drawing of a lube oil heat exchanger (see figure 7).

Decreasing the oil flow rate through the heat exchanger will cause the oil outlet temperature to and the cooling water outlet temperature to (Assume cooling water flow rate remains the same.)

~

A.

. decrease; decrease B.

increase; decrease C.

decrease; increase D.

increase; increase

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..r-----....--m-.,,,-m

..,,-4-~,-.

, _ _.-.., +,

...,rwm,.-

US!JRC GE!1ERIC TUl4 DAME!1TALS EXAMIllATIOli PWR - FOR14 A QUESTION:

33 Tube fouling in a heat exchanger causes heat transfer rate to decreano by:

A.

reducing fluid velocity on the shell side of the exchanger and reducing heat transfer area.

D.-

increasing flow rate through the tube side of the exchanger and increasing heat transfer area.

)

l C.

reducing the overall heat transfer coefficient and reducir.g tube side flow.

D.

. increasing the overall heat transfer coefficient and i

increasing shell side flow.

QUESTION:

34 During normal plant operation at power, a crack in the shell of the main condenser, that results in a decreased condenser vacuum, will cause cooling water outlet temperature to and hotwell temperature to _

A.

increase; decrease B.

decrease; decrease C.

increase; increase D.

decrease; increase 16

.. ~.

m ________. _. - _ _. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ m. _

US!Jhc GENERIC FUNDAME!JTALS EXAMINATION PWR - PORM A QUESTION:

35 llow does domineralizer dif ferential pressure indicate the condition of the demineralizer resin bed?

A.

Low differential pressure indicates flow blockage in the i

domineralizer.

B.

High differential pressure indicates flow blockage in the domineralizer.

C.

Low differential pressure indicates that the domineralizer resin bed is exhausted.

D.

liigh differential pressure indicates that the domineralizer resin bed is exhausted.

QUESTION:

36 Prior to a scheduled plant shutdown, the Reactor Coolant System was chemically shocked to induce a crud burst.

What effect will this have on the letdown purification dominera11zers?

A.

Decreased operating time before the resin is exhausted B.

Increased flow rate through the domineralizers C.

Decreased demineralizer outlet conductivity D.

Increased-pressure drop across the demineralizers i.

17

--.:-...-~;-._...-_---. _ _-- _ -

_._______m___..

USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - I'ORM A QUESTION:

37 The temperature of the water passing through a demineralizer must be controlled because EXCESSIVELY llOT water will:

A.

increase the ion exchange rate for hydronium ions, thereby changing offluent p!!.

B.

degrade the corrosion inhibitor applied to the inner wall of the domineralizer.

C.

result in excessive domineralizer retention element thermal expansion, thereby releasing resin.

D.

reduce the affinity of the demineralizer resin for ion exchange.

QUESTION:

38 Which of the fc11owing results frcm a loss of circuit breaker control power to a circuit breaker supplying a motor?

A.

Motor ammeter indication would be zero regardless of actual breaker position.

B.

Breaker position would remotely indicate closed regardless of actual position.

C.

Breaker would trip open due to the actuation of its protective trip device.

D.

Close spring charging motor would not charge the spring following local tripping of the breaker.

18

USNRC GE!1ERIC FUl1DAMENTALS EXAMINATIO!1 PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

39 How is circuit breaker operation affected when the circuit breaker control power transfer switch is placed in the LOCAL position?

A.

Control power will be available to provide protective trips and the circuit breaker can be closed by pushing the close pushbutton on or inside the circuit breaker enclosure.

B.

Control-power will be removed from the close circuits but control power will still be available for automatic circuit breaker trips.

C.

Control power will be removed-from both the open and close circuits and breaker operation is restricted to local manual operation only.

D.

Control power will be removed from both the open and close circuits and the circuit breaker can be closed by pushing the close pushbutton on or inside the circuit breaker enclosure.

QUESTION:

40 Refer to the drawing of a typical valve control circuit (see figure 8).

The purpose of the K3 relay-is to:

A. - hold the valve open after one or both of the initiating conditions have cleared, even if the reset pushbutton (SI) is depressed.

B.

hold the valve open even if one or both of the initiating conditions have cleared.

C.

close the valve as soon as either initiating condition has cleared.

D.

close the valve as soon as both initiating conditions have

-cleared.

l 19

USNRC CENERIC FUNDAME!!TALS EXAMINATIO!J P1lR - FORM is QUESTION:

41 During paralleling operations of the main generator to the grid, closing the generator output breaker with the frequency of the generator at 60.1 hertz and the grid frequency at 60.0 hertz will:

A.

cause the generator to immediately increase load.

B.

trip open the generator breaker on reverse power.

C.

cause the generator voltage to increase.

D.

cause the generator current to decrease.

QUESTION:

42 When a typical 4160 volt breaker is racked to the TEST position control power is

_ the breaker and the breaker is the load.

A.

removed from; isolated from B.

removed from; connected to C.

available to; isolated from D.

available to; connected to QUESTION:

43 The function of high voltage electrical disconnects is to provide electrical isolation of equipment during conditions.

A.

manual; no-load B.

manual; overload C.

automatic; no-load D.

automatic; overload 20 I

USliRC GENERIC FUNDAME!JT/sLS EXAMINATIO!1 Ph'R - FORM A QUESTION:

44 The following remote indications are observed for a 480 VAC load supply breaker.

(The breaker is normally open.)

Red indicating light is on.

Green indicating light is off.

Load voltage indicates 0 volts.

Line voltage indicates 480 volts.

What is the condition of tha breaker?

A.

Open and racked in B.

Closed and racked in C.

Open and racked to " test" pacition D.

Closed and racked to " test" position 21

. _.. ~. _.. _. _. _ _ _.. _ _._. _ _ _ _ _. _ _. _. _ _ _ _. _. _. _ _ _ _ _. _.. _ _.. - - _..

US!1RC GE!JERIC FUl1 DAME!1TALS EXAM 111ATIO!J PWR - FORM A QUESTIO!1:

45 As compared to a prompt neutron, a ds~ayed neutron is more likely to:

A.

cause-fast fission in the reactor fuel.

B.

be resonantly absorbed in the reactor fuel.

C.

cause thermal fission in the reactor fuel.

D.

be detected by excore nuclear instrumentation.

QUESTIOll:

46 Select the equation that defines K-excess (excess reactivity).

A '.

E,,, ' + 1 B.

K,,, - 1 C.

K,,, ( 1-S DM )

D.

3 / ( 1-K,,,)

l l

l l

22

.. ~. -

USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXIsMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

47 At the time of a reactor trip from 100 percent power, shutdown margin was determined to be -5.883% delta-K/K.

Over the next 72 l

hours the Reactor Coolant-System was cooled down and boron concentration was increased.

The reactivities affected by the change in plant conditions are as follows:

Reactivity Change

(+

or -)

Xenon 2.675% delta-K/K

!!oderator temperature

0. 5% delta-K/K l

Boron 1.04% delta-K/K l

What is the shutdown margin 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> after the trip?

(Assume end of core life.)

A.

-1.668% delta-K/K B.

-3.748% delta-K/K C.

-7.018% delta-K/K.

D.

-9.098% delta-K/K QUESTION:

48

-8 Reactor power increases from 10 amps to 5 x 10'# amps in 2 minutes.

What is the average startup rate?

A.

0.95 dpm B.

0.90 dpm C.

0.85 dpm D.

0.82 dpm 23

\\-

USNRC GENERIC FUN DAMENT/sLS EXAMI!!ATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

49 Over core life, plutonium isotopes are produced with delayed neutron fractions that are than uranium delayed neutron fractions, thereby causing reactor power transients to be near the end of core life.

A.

smaller; faster B.

smaller; slower C.

larger; faster D.

larger; slower QUESTION:

50 Which one of the following isotopes is the MOST significant contributor to resonance capture of fission neutrons in the reactor core?

A.

U-233 B.

U-238 C.

Pu-239 D.

Pu-240 QUESTION:

51 Which one of the following will cause the Doppler power coefficient to become MORE negative?

A.

Increased clad creep B.

Increased pellet swell C.

Lower power level D.

Lower coolant boron concentration 24

USNRC GE11ERIC FU!1 DAME!1TALS EX1tMINATION PWR - FORM A 1

QUESTION:

52 j

Which one of the following reactivity coefficients is the LARGEST contributor to the total power coefficient at the beginning of core life?

A.

Moderator temperature coefficient B.

Void coefficient C.

Pressure coefficient D.

Doppler coefficient QUESTION:

53 The amount of boric acid required to increase the reactor coolant boron concentration by 10 ppm at beginning of core life conditions (1200 ppm) is approximately the amount of boric acid required to increase boron concentratien by 10 ppm at end of core life conditions (100 ppm).

A.

twelve times B.

eight times C.

four times D,

the same as QUESTION:

54 Integral control rod (CEA) worth is the change in per change in rod (CEA) position.

A.

reactor power; total B.

reactivity; unit C.

reactor power; unit i

D.

reactivity; total 25

USNRC GENERIC TUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

!5 Which one of the following parameters typically has the GREATEST effect on the shape of a differential rod worth curve?

A.

Core radial flux distribution B.

Core axial flux distribution C.

Core xenon distribution D.

Burnable poison distribution QUESTION:

56 The purposes of using control rod (CEA) bank overlap are to:

A.

ensure the rod (CEA) insertion limits are not exceeded and to maintain individual and group rod (CEA) position within allowable tolerances.

B.

provide a more uniform differential rod (CEA) worth and to ensure the rod (CEA) insertion limits are not exceeded.

C.

provide a more uniform axial flux distribution and to provide a more uniform differential rod (CEA) worth.

D.

maintain individual and group rod (CEA) position indicators within allowable tolerances and to provide a more uniform axial flux distribution.

l l

1 b

26

. -- _ _ _ _.. _... _. _ _. _... _.. ~ - _.. _ _. - _ _ _.... _.. _ _ _ - _ _ _ _ _ _ _. _ _

UStJRC GE!1ERIC FUllDAMEf1TALS EXAMlliATIO!J PWR - FORM A QUESTIO11:

57 The reactor is operating at 80 percent power during a load decrease to 60 percent when a control rod (CEA) becomes stuck during insertion of the rest of its group.

If group control rod insertion continues, which of the following will be adversely affected?

A.

Power distribution and shutdown margin B.

3hutdown margin and power defect C.

Power defect and critical heat flux D.

Critical heat flux and power distribution QUESTIOff:

58 Xenon-135 is considered a major fission product poison because it has a large:

A.

fission cross section.

B.

absorption cross section.

C.

elastic scatter cross section.

D.

inelastic scatter cross section.

27

_ ~ - -.

e m

USNRC GENERIC TUNDid4ENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

59 A reactor has been operating et a steady-state power level for 15 hours1.736111e-4 days <br />0.00417 hours <br />2.480159e-5 weeks <br />5.7075e-6 months <br /> following a rapid power reduction from 100 to 50 percent using boration for reactivity control.

Which one of the following describes the current core xenon concentration?

A.

Increasing B.

Decreasing C.

At equilibrium D.

Oscillating QUESTION:

60 A reactor has been operating at 100 percent power for one week when power is ramped in 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> to 50 percent.

Which statement describes the new equilibrium xenon concentration?

A.

One-half the 100 percent value B.

Less than one-half the 100 percent value C.

More than one-half the 100 percent value D.

Equal to the 100 percent value QUESTION:

61 Xenon oscillations that tend to DAMPEN themselves toward equilibrium over time are oscillations.

A.

converging B.

diverging C.

diffusing D.

transitioning I

l l

l 28 l

l l-

--,,--n-r.--

- - - -, - - - - - - - - - * - ~ - - ' - ~ ' ^ ' '

4 i

l USNRC GENERIC PUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - PORM A QUESTION:

62 Following a 7 day shutdown, a reactor startup is performed and the plant is taken to 40 percent power over a 6 hour6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> period.

After stabilizing at 40 percent power, what type of reactivity will the operator need to add to compensate for xenon changes over the next 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />?

A.

Negative only B.

Negative, then positive i

C.

-Positive, then negative D.

Positive only QUESTION:

63 Following a reactor trip, negative reactivity from xenon initially increases due to:

A.

xenon production from the decay of iodine-135.

B.

xenon. production from the spontaneous fission of uranium.

C.

the reduction of xenon removal by decay.

D.

the rcduction of xenon removal by recombination.

QUESTION:

64 During a six-month period of continuous full power reactor operation, the reactor coolant boron concentration must be decreased steadily to compensate for:

A.

buildup of fission product poisons and decreasing control rod (CEA) worth.

B.

fuel depletion and buildup of fission product poisons.

C.

decreasing control rod (CEA) worth and burnable poison burnout.

D.

burnable poison burnout and fuel depletion.

29

USNRC GENERIC ' TUNDAME!JTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

65 While withdrawing control rods (CEAs) during an approach to criticality, the stable count rate doubles.

If the same amount of reactivity that caused the first doubling is added again, stable count rate will and the reactor will be A.

double; subcritical t

B.

more than double; suberitical C.

double; critical D.

more than double; critical QUESTION:

66 During a reactor startup,-control rods (CEAs) are withdrawn such that K,,, ir. creases from 0.98 to 0.99.

If the count rate before the rod withdrawal was 500 cps, which.one of the following will be tho' final count rate?

A.

750 cps B.

1000 cps C.

1500 cps D.

2000 cps 1

1 30

-.-.- -..----.~.-.,-.---- --...... - -. - - - - _ - - -. -

USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

67 An estimated critical rod position (ECP) has been calculated for a reactor startup that is to be performed 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> af ter a trip from a 60 day full power run.

Which one of the following events or conditions will result in the actual critical rod position being LOWER than the ECP?

A.

The startup is delayed for approximately 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.

B.

The steam generator pressures are decreased by 100 psi just prior to criticality.

C.

A new boron sample shows a current boren concentration 20 ppm higher than that used in the ECP calculation.

D.

Steam generator feedwater addition rate is reduced by 5 percent just prior to criticality.

QUESTION:

68 The reactor is critical at 10,000 cps when a steam generator atmospheric relief valve fails open.

Assume end of core life conditions, no reactor trip, and no operator actions are taken.

l Wnen the reactor stabilizes, Tave will be than the i

initial Tave and reactor power will be the point of l

adding heat.

A.

greater; at B.

greater; above C.

less; at D.

less; above l

31

__.m__._

USNRC GENERIC TUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION i

PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

69 During a xenon-free reactor startup, critical data were inadvertently taken one decade above the required intermediate l

range (IR) level.

'the critical data were taken again at the proper IR level with the same reactor coolant temperatures and boron concentration.

The critical rod (CEA) position taken at the proper IR level is the critical rod position taken one decado above the proper IR level.

A.

less than B.

the same as C.

greater than D.

unrelated to 4

QUESTION:

70 After taking critical data during a reactor startup, the operator establishes a stable 1 dpm startup rate to increase power to the point of adding heat (POAH).

How much negative reactivity feedback must be added at the POAH to stop the power increase?

l Assume:

3,

= 0.00579 4

1

= 1.0 x 10 sec 3

A,,,

= 0.1 sec A.

0.16% delta-k/k-B.

0.19% delta-k/k l

C.

0.23% delta-k/k D.

O.29% delta-k/k l

1 32

US!!RC GE!JERIC FUllDA!4E!1TALS EXA!41!1 ATIO!1 PWR - FOR!4 A QUESTIOll:

71 The use of boron as a burnable poison in a reactor core:

A.

increases the -amount of fuel required to produce the same amount of heat.

B.

allows the plant to operate longer on a smaller amount of fuel.

C.

allows more fuel to be loaded and prolongs core life.

D.

absorbr. neutrons that would otherwise be lost from the core.

QUESTION:

72 The reactor is exactly critical below the point of adding heat when a single control rod (CEA) is fully inserted into the core.

Assuming no operator or automatic action, reactor power will slowly decrease to:

A.

Zero.

i B.

the value associated with the source neutron strength.

C.

a value above the source neutron strength.

D.

a slightly lower value, then slowly increas2 to the initial value.

j i

33

i USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

73 A pressure gauge on a condenser roads 27 inches of mercury (Hg) vacuum.

What is the absolute pressure corresponding to this i

vacuum?

(Assume an atmospheric pressure of 15 psia.)

A.

1.0 psia D.

1.5 psia C.

13.6 psia D.

14.0 psia QUESTION:

74 A liquid is saturated with 0 percent quality.

Assuming pressure remains constant, the addition of a small amount of heat will:

A.

raise the liquid temperature above the boiling point.

l B.

result in a subcooled lj quid.

C.

result in vaporization of the liquid.

i

(

D.

result in a superheated liquid.

QUESTION:

75 Which one of the following steam generator (S/G) pressures will come closest to producing a 50 degree F reactor coolant system (RCS) subcooling margin with RCS pressure at 1000 psia?

(Assume a negligible-delta-T across the S/G tubes.)

A.

550 psia l

B.

600 psia C.

650 psia D.

700 psia l

l l

1 j

34 l

i USNRC GE!1ERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

76 Which one of the following explains why condensate subcooling is necessary jn the steam turbine / condenser phase of a plant cycle?

j A.

To maximize ovarall secondary efficiency B.

To provide a better condenser vacuum C.

To minimize turbine blade and condenser tube erosion by entrained moisture D.

To provide net positive suction head for the condensate pumps QUESTION:

77 You are involved in a routine plant shutdown with a steam bubble in the pressurizer.-

Pressurizer pressure is 415 psig and pressurizer pressure and level are slowly decreasing.

You suspect a pressurizer power operated relief valve (PORV) is partially open but the position indicating lights are not working.

Which one of the following is the expected PORV tailpipe temperature if the PORV is open?

(Assume downstream pressure is atmospheric.)

A.

652 degrees F B.

450 degrees F C.

330 degrees F D.

212 degrees F 35

f USilRC GEllERIC FUl1 DAME!JTALS EXAMIllATI O!J PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

78 l

To achieve maximum plant efficiency, feedwater should enter the steam generator (S/G) and the temperature j

difference between the S/G and the condenser should be as as possible.

A.

close to saturation; small I

B.

close to saturation; great t

C.

as subcooled as practical; small D.

as subcooled as practical; great QUESTION:

79 A sudden stop of fluid flow in a piping system, due to rapid closure of an isolation valve, will most likely result in:

A.

check valve slamming.

t B.

pump runout.

C.

water hammer.

D.

pressurized thermal shock.

l l

QUESTION:

80 l-l A 55 gpm leak has developed in a cooling water system that is operating at 100 psig.

Which one of the following is the l

expected leak rate when system pressure has decreased to 50 psig?

I

{

A.

27.5 gpm B.

31.8 gpm C.

38.9 gpm i

D.

43.4 gpm l

l o

l

\\

l l

36 l

~ -

... -... -.. - ~..

USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENT /JS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

81 Cavitation of a centrifugal pump in an open system is indicated by discharge pressure and flow rate.

A.

low; low B.

high; high C.

Iow; high D.

high; low QUESTION:

82 In an operating cooling water system with a constant water velocity, if water temperature decreases, indicated volumetric flow rate (gpm) will:

A.

remain the same, because the density of the water has not changed.

B.

increase, because the density of the water has increased.

C.

remain the same, because the water velocity has not changed.

D.

increase, because the viscosity of the water has increased.

QUESTION:

83' To decrease the flow rate through an operating positive displacement pump, an operator should:

A.

throttle the pump discharge valve partially closed.

B.

throttle the pump suction valve partially closed.

C.

decrease the pump NPSH.

D.

decrease the pump speed.

37

l USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

84 Refer to the drawing of a fuel rod and coolant flow channel at beginning of core life (see figure 9).

Given the following initial core parameters:

-Reactor power 100 percent

=

T,,g,n, 500 degrees F

=

e Tfuet centertine

= 3000 degrees F What would the fuel centerline temperature be if, over core life, the total fuel-to-coolant thermal conductivity were doubled?

(Assume reactor power is constant.)

A.

1000 degrees F B.

1250 degrees F C.

1500 degrees F D.

1750 degrees F QUESTION:-

85 The reactor is operating at 80 percent power with a core delta-T of.48 degrees F when a station blackout occurs.

Natural circulation is established and core delta-T stabilizes at 40 degrees F.

If mass flow rate is 3.0 percent, what is the current decay heat level?

JL.

1.0 percent B.

2.0 percent C.

3.0 percent D.

4.0 percent i

38 l

USNRC Gr!!ERIC FU!1DitME!JT/s LS EXisM1!ilsTI O!!

PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

86 Subcooled nucleate boiling is occurring along a heated surface.

The heat flux is then increased slightly.

What will be the effect on the delta-T between the surface and the fluid?

(Assume subcooled nucleate boiling is still occurring.)

A.

Large increase in delta-T because of steam blanketing B.

Large increase in delta-T causing radiative heat transfer to become significant C.

Small increase in delta-T because of steam blanketing D.

Small increace in delta-T as vapor bubbles form and collapse QUESTION:

87 Which parameter change will reduce the departure from nucleate boiling ratio s' DN BR) ?

A.

Decrease in reactor power B.

Increase in pressurizer pressure C.

Increase in reactor coolant flow D.

Increase in reactor coolant temperature QUESTION:

88 Ilow does critical heat flux vary from the bottom to the top of the reactor core during normal full power operation?

A.

Decreases continuously B.

Decreases then increases C.

Increases continuously D.

Increases then decreases 39

9 USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMI N ATI O!1 I

PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

89 A small increase in delta-T (at the fuel claci-to-coolant interface) causes increased steam blanketing and a reduction in heat flux.

This describes which type of boiling?

A.

Subcooled boiling B.

Nucleate boiling C.

Partial film boiling D.

Total film boiling QUESTION:

90 The heat transfer coefficient of the core will be directly increased if:

(Assume bulk coolant subcooling.)

A.

the coolant temperature is decreased.

B.

the coolant flow rate is decreased.

C.

nucleate boiling occurs in the coolant.

D.

the coolant flow is laminar instead of turbulent.

QUESTION:

91 Which one of the following parameters provides the BEST indication of adequate core cooling following a small loss-of-coolant accident?

A.

Emergency cooling injection flow rate B.

Pressurizer level C.

Subcooling margin D.

Pressurizer pressure 40

l l

I USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

92 During a plant cooldown and depressurization with forced circulation, Reactor Coolant System (RCS) loop flow and reactor coolant pump (RCP) current indications become erratic.

This is most likely caused by:

t A.

RCP cavitation.

B.

RCP runout.

C.

RCS loop water hammer.

D.

RCS hot leg saturation.

QUESTION:

93 With the Reactor Coolant System subcooled and all reactor coolant pumps stopped, the stable natural circulation flow rate will NOT be affected by an increase in the:

A.

reactor coolant pressure.

B.

time after reactor trip.

C.

steam generator level.

D.

steam generator pressure.

4 41 l

l USNRC GENERIC FUNDisMENTALS EXAMINATION PWR - FORM A

]

1 QUESTION:

94 The 2200 degrees F maximum peak cladding temperature limit is imposed because:

A.

It is approximately 500 degrees F below the fuel cladding melting temperature.

B.

any clad temperature higher than this correlates to a fuel centerline temperature at the fuel melting point.

j C.

the oxidation rate of the zircalloy cladding increases sharply above 2200 degrees F.

D.

t1e thermc1 conductivity of zircalloy decreases at tauper&tures nbove 2200 degrees F causing an unacceptably sharp rise in the fuel centerline temperature.

QUESTION:

95 The pellet-to-clad gap in fuel rod construction is designed to:

A.

decrease fuel pellet slump.

B.

attenuate fission gammas.

C.

increase heat transfer.

D.

reduce internal clad strain.

QUESTION:

96 Pressure stress on the reactor vessel wall is:

A.

compressive across the entire wall.

B.

tensile across the entire wall.

t C.

tensile at the inner wall, compressive at the outer wall.

D.

compressive at the inner wall, tensile at the outer wall.

42

3 USNRC GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION P%R - FORM A QUESTION:

97 The reference temperature for nil-ductility transition (RTey) is the temperature above which:

A.

a large compressive stress can result in brittle fracture.

B.

a metal exhibits more ductile tendencies.

C.

the probability of brittle fracture increases.

D.

no appreciable deformation occurs prior to failure.

QUESTION:

98 The probability of reactor vessel brittle fracture is DECREASED by mininizi1g:

A.

oxygen content in the reactor coolant.

B.

the time taken to cool down the Reactor Coolant System.

C.

operation at high temperatures.

D.

the anount of copper in the reactor vessel.

QUESTION:

99 Which one of the following types of radiation significantly reduces the ductility of the metal of a reactor pressure vessel?

A.

Beta B.

Thermal neutrons C.

Gamma l

D.

Fast neutrons l

43 l

9 O

USNRC GENERIC FUtJDA!4E!4TAIS EXAMIll ATIOli PWR - FORM A QUESTION:

100 Pressurized thermal chock would '.nost likely be a concern during an uncontrolled:

A.

cooldown followed by a rapid repressurization.

B.

depressurization followed by a rapid repressurization.

C.

cooldown followed by a rapid depressurization.

D.

depressurization followed by a rapid cooldown.

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I l-44 I

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