ML20033F014

Forwards Results of Generic Fundamentals Exam Section of Written Operator Licensing Exam Administered on 900207, Including Answer Keys,Grading Results for Facility & Individual Answer Sheets for Each Examinee

ML20033F014
Person / Time
Site:	Yankee Rowe
Issue date:	03/05/1990
From:	Gallo R NRC OFFICE OF INSPECTION & ENFORCEMENT (IE REGION I)
To:	Clark C YANKEE ATOMIC ELECTRIC CO.
References
NUDOCS 9003150261
Download: ML20033F014 (88)

Text

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NAR 5 1990 j

. Docket No. 50-29 Yankee Atomic Electric Company 5

ATTN: Mr. C. Russell Clark Training Manager l

Star Route Rowe, Massachusetts 01367 L

Dear Mr. Clark:

On February 7, 1990, the NRC administered a Generic Fundamentals Examination l

Section (GFES) of the written operator licensing examination to employees of your facility. Enclosed with this letter are copies of both forms of the examination including answer keys, the grading results for your facility and copies of the individual answer sheets for each of the examinees taking the examination from your facility.

Please forward the results to the examinees along with the copies of their answer sheets.

A "P" in the column labeled RESULTS indicates a passing grade for this examination.

Passing Grade for the DT B is 80%.

In accordance with 10 CFR 2.790 of the Commission's Regulations, a copy of this letter and enclosures (1) and (2) will be placed in the Public Document Room.

The results for individual examinees are exempt from disclosure; therefore, enclosures (3) and (4) will not be placed in NRC's Public Document Room.

Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Mr. Peter W. Eselgroth at telephone number (215) 337-5211.

.i Sincerely, p p uisigne8 N Robert M. Gallo, Chief L

Operations Branch Division of Reactor Safety

Enclosures:

1.

Examination Form "A" with answers and references n

2.

Examination Form "B" with answers and references 3.

Examination Results Summary for Facility 4.

Copies of Candidate's individual answer sheets i

cc w/o encls.:

N. St. Laurent, Plant Superintendent A; C. Kadak, President and Chief Operating Officer G. Papanic, Jr., Senior Project Engineer - Licensing R. Hallisey, Dept. of Public Health, Commonwealth of Massachusetts 1

9003150261 900303 PDR ADOCK 0500 9

(( LLh I

(

p-Yankee Atomic Electric Company 2

cc w/o encls, cont'd.-

i Local Public Document Room (LPDR)

Nuclear Safety Information Center (NSIC)

)

NRC Resident Inspector Commonwealth of Massachusetts, SLO Designee State of Vermont, SLO Designee cc w/ enc 1s. I and 2:

Public Document Room (POR) r bec w/o encis.:

Region I Docket Room (with concurrences)

M. Perkins DRMA R. Blough, DRP H. Eichenholz, SRI - Vermont Yankee G. Grant, SRI - Vermont Yankee M. Fairtile, NRR J. Johnson, DRP OL Facility File 1.

l DRS:RI DR I

/ajk Gal}6 Curley/90 Q2/t 02/b/90 h

03 05 0FFICIAL RECORD COPY FL/50-29/2/26/90 - 0002.0.0 02/26/90 l

l a:. i :

l cf ENCIDSURE 1 i

CENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION SECTION (CFES)

FRESSURIZED WATER REACTOP, FORM A f

f b

a l

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ENC 14SURE 1 1

1

o l

FEBRUARY 1990 PWR'GFE - FORM A ANSWER KEY i

i 1.

D 26.

A 51.

D 76.

A 2.

A 27.

C 52.

C 77.

B 3.

A 28.

A 53.

D 78.

B f

4.

A 29.

D 54.

A 79.

A 5.

D 30.

D 55.

B 80.

B l'

6.

A 31.

C 56.

C 81.

C 7.

A 32.

D 57.

A 82.

D 8.

A 33.

B 58.

C 83.

A 9.

C 34.

D 59.

C 84.

C 10.

C 35.

B 60.

A 85.

C 11.

D 36.

A 61.

A 86.

A l

12.

A 37.

C 62.

A 87.

A 13.

B 38.

A 63.

B 88.

D 14.

A 39.

A 64.

C 89.

A 15.

C 40.

A 65.

A 90.

B 16.

B 41.

C 66.

A 91.

A 17.

C 42.

D 67.

D 92.

C 18.

B 43.

A 68.

B 93.

D 19.

C 44.

B 69.

A 94.

B 20.

A 45.

A 70.

A 95.

A 21.

A 46.

A 71.

B 96.

D 22.

D 47.

A 72.

C 97.

B 23.

D 48.

C 73.

B 98.

C 24.

D 49.

A 74.

C 99.

B 25.

B 50.

D 75.

A 100.

A t

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FWR FORN &

RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR THE CENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION During the administration of this examination the following. rules apply:

(1)

Print your name in the blank provided on the cover sheet of the examination.

(2)

Fill in the name of your facility.

(3)

Fill in the ID Number you were given at registration.

(4)

Fill in your start and stop times at the appropriate time.

($)

Three handouts are provided for your use during the examination, an Equations and Conversions sheet, instructions for filling out the answer sheet, and Steam Table booklets.

(6)

Use only the answer sheet provided. Credit will only be given for answers properly marked on this sheet.

Follow the instructions for filling out the answer sheet.

(7)

Scrap paper will be provided for calculations.

(8)

Any questions about an item on the examination should be directed to the examiner only.

I (9)

Cheating on the examination will result in the automatic forfeiture of this examination.

Cheating could also result in severe penalties.

(10) Restroom trips are limited. Only ONE examinee may leave the room at a time.

In order to avoid the appearance or possibility of cheating, l

avoid all contact with anyone outside of the examination room.

l l

. (11) After you have completed the examination, sign the statement on the l

cover sheet indi ating that the work is your own and you have not l

received or been given any assistance in completing the examination.

1 (12) Turn in your examination asterials, answer sheet on top, followed by the l

exam booklet, then examination aids steam table booklets, handouts and l

scrap paper used during the examination.

l (13) After turning in your examination materials, leave the examination area, as defined by the examiner.

If after leaving you are found in the examination area while the examination is in progress, your examination may be forfeited.

FWR FORM A

+

P e

EQUATION SEEET f

Cycle Efficiency Net Work (out) e 6

a e, AT Energy (in) 6 In Ah SCR S/(1 - K,gg) 4 CR2 (1

• Kett):

6 UA AT CR (1 Kett)1 j

3 CR /CRo 1/(1 K rt)

SUR - 26.06/t M

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2 6. 06 ( 1,gg t,,),

(1 K:tt)c 8" *

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Po 10smo geg P

Uga tWO Pvr Po o P

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(f*/p) + ((T p)/Aettp}

f

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f 1 x 10 s seconds l'

(K,gg - 1)/Kett p

=

A rt - 0.1 seconds 2 l

AKett/Kett p

e 2.21 lba 3.7 x 1010 dps 1 kg 1 Curie s

3.41 x lo BTU /hr 2.54 x 10 8TU/hr 1 Mw 8

1 hp l

9/5 *C + 32 778 ft lbf

'F L

1 BTU 5/9 ('F 32)

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=

a.

9

~ PWR FORN A QUESTION:

1 Operators should use BOTH hands on valve handwheels when positioning manual valves to:

A-cvercome the resistance of installed locking devices.

B.

-centrol the rate of valve action to prevent water hammer.

C.

ensure system pressure, temperature, and flow are controlled during valve motion.

D.

control lateral force to prevent bending the valve stem.

1 QUESTION:

2 The DIFFERENCE between the pressure at which a safety / relief valve begins to l

open and the pressure at which it is fully open is called:

A.

accumulation.

B.

blowdown.

a C.

setpoint tolerance.

D.

setpoint deviation.

t PWP. FORM A 1

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[ QUESTION:. 3.

i Refertothefihure.belowforthefoPswingquestion.

Following a loss'of controlling air or.irure, the spring loaded valve will 4

fail:"

t

A..-

open.-

n.

1 B,.

as is.

' C.

closed.

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D. -to:mid position, i

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. QUESTION: 4

~

The manual declutchilever of a motor operated valve the motor and the handwheel.

A.

disengages; engages

.B.

deenergizes; engages C.

engages; disengages i

ic D.

reenergizes; disengages

' QUESTION:

5.

To verify _the position of a FULLY-OPEN manual valve, the operator should:

=A.

fully close the valve, then reopen it to the fully open position.

-B.

-open the valve until it touches the backseat.:then close-it to the Ldesired. position..

. C.

' operate the valve =in the open direction until the valve is backseated-t one-half turn.

' D. :

operate the valve in the closed direction, then reopen the valve to itsL previous open position.

r Qt'ESTION :

6

. The :most probable cause.for fluctuating indication from a liquid flow rate differential pressure detector is:

A.

. gas or steam being trapped in the liquid.

?

iS B.

the valve on the equalizing lineLbeing open.

.the valve on the low pressure sensing line being closed.

C..

g D.

the valve on the high pressure sensing lino being closed.

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I PWR FORM A 3

m---,-. - - - - - - - -, - -,, - - - - - - - - _ _ - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -. _ _. - - - - - - -, - - - - - - - - - - _ - - -. - - - _ _ _ - - - - -. - - - - - - - - -

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. QUESTION:

.7~

A differential. pressure (D/P) cell is being used to measure flow rate.in a cooling water system.

Flow rate is indicating 75 percent of scale.

If the' D/P cell diaphram ruptures, INDICATED flow rate will:

5 ch A.

go to O percent.

'I f

o B.

go-to 100 percent (full scale).

C.

remain the same.

I D.

nove slowly to 50 percent (mid scale).

QUESTION

'8 A differential pressure level transmitter, with its reference leg vented to atmosphere, was calibrated for use on an open tank at 100 degrees F.

If mass in the tank remains constant and the temperature is raised to 200 degrees F, the INDICATED level will:

i 14.

remain the same.although actual level increases.

B.

increase but remain less than actual level.

C.

' decrease-but remain greater than actual level.

4 D.

. increase in direct proportion to the temperature rise.

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QUESTION:

9 Which one of the following failures of. a wet reference leg. differential 1

i pressure (D/P) level transmitter will cause its level indicator to indicate the-LOWEST level?-

r

?y A.

The D/P cell diaphragm ruptures.

l'(1 B.

The reference-leg ruptures.

C.

The variable leg ruptures.

D.

The equalizing line ruptures.

PWR FORM a 4

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PWR FORN A 1 QUESTION:

10 A simple bellows pressure detector is located in the' reactor-containment with j

its low pressure side vented to the containment.- If a main steam break raises containment pressure by 40 psig, the associated pressure indication (disregarding any temperature effect on the bellows) will:

A.

increase by the square root of 40 psig.

i B..

increase by 40 psir

'C.

decrease by 40 psis i

D.

stay constant.

QUESTION:

11.

A bourdon tube pressure detector that is indicating 50 percent of scale is' t

suddenly exposed to a pressure transient that extends the detector 75 percent beyond its upper range value. Actual pressure returns to its original value.

Assuming'the detector remains intact, the affected. pressure indication will initially go off scale'high, and then:

A.

become unpredictable until the instrument is calibrated.

B.

return to a pressure less than original pressure.

C.

return to original pressure.

D.

return to-a pressure greater than original pressure.

7 l

I QUESTION:

12 A resistance temperature detector (RTD) operates on the principle.that a

change in metal resistance is proportional to the change in 4

Ai directly; metal temperature ti B.

directly; metal temperature squared 4- -

C.

inversely; metal temperature D.

-inversely; metal temperature squared PWR FORM A 5

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4 QUESTION:.

13

- An open circuit in a thermocouple causes the affected temperature indication to fail:

A.'

'high.

' B.

low.

1 C.

to reference junction ' temperature.

D.

as is, f

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QUESTION: 14 Most of the electrons collected in a fission chamber are released as a result of' ionizations caused DIRECTLY by:

A.

fission ~ fragments.

B.

fission gammas t

C.-

fission betas.

. D.

fissionable materials.

QUESTION: '15 Which of the following describes the reason for'the HIGH SENSITIVITY.of a Goiger-Mueller tube radiation detector?

- A..

, Changes in applied detector voltage have little effect on detector output.-

- B.:

Geiger-Mueller tubes are longer than other radiation detector types.

^

C.

Any incident radiation event causing primary ionization results in ionization of the entire detector.

' D.

Geiger-Mueller tubes are capable of operating at relatively high i

detector voltages, allowing detection of. low energy radiation.

P PWR FORM A 6

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1 PWR FORM A QUESTION:

16 Which of the following statements describes the use of a self-reading pocket dosimeter (SRPD)?-

A.

SRPDs hold their charge indefinitely when removed from a radiation field.

B.

SRPD readings must be considered inaccurate when they are dropped.

C.

SRPDs can be used to record beta and gamma radiation.

D.

The output of an SRPD is a dose rate in ar/hr.

o QUESTION: 17 The range of values around the setpoint of a measured varitale where NO ACTION occurs in an automatic flow controller is called:

A.

deviation.

B.

error.

C.

deadband.

D.

~ bias.

QUESTION: 18 The governor of an emergency diesel generator (D/G) DIRECTLY senses D/G and adjusts D/G flow to maintain a relatively constant D/G frequency.

A.

load, air B.

speed, fuel C.

load, fuel D.

speed, air PWR FORM A 7

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QUESTION: l19;

-The output pressure of a pneumatic controller is typically-insufficient to' I

drive a valve: actuator accurately. To overcome this problem, a control loop would NORMALLY employ a:

{

s v

\\

A.

valve actuating lead / lag unit.

. B '.

. pressure regulator.

.C/

valve positioner.

,r D,

filter drive unit.-

.I QUESTION:

20 t

'When shifting from automatic to manual valve control, the manual and automatic-l controller. output ~ signals should be MATCHED to:

A.

prevent a sudden valve repositioning upon the transfer.

B.

satisfy the control transfer interlocks.

C..

move the valve to the new position. prior to the. transfer.

D.

. prevent the controller from locking up due to a large deviation.

. QUESTION:

21 Which of the-following changes in pump operating parameters-will DIRECTLY lead' l.

to pump; cavitation in a centrifugal pump that is operating in a closed loop system?,

10 A,

Steadily increasing pump inlet temperature.

B.

Steadily decreasing pump flow rate (by reducing pump speed).

~

C..

. Steadily increasing pump suction pressure.

w.

D.

Steadily increasing pump discharge pressure.

PWR FORM A 8

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'PWR FORM A QUESTION: '22 4

The presence of air-in a pump casing.may result in when~the pump is-i

. started.-

A.

vortexing

,j' B '.

pump' runout C.-

head loss

- D.

gas binding

^t QUESTION:

23 L;-

Failure to provide adequate minimum flow for a centrifugal pump can DIRECTLY result in:

A..

discharge piping overpressurization.

B.

suction piping'overpressurization.

C.

excessive pump leakoff.

D.

pump overheating, t

QUESTION:

24 A' constant-speed centrifugal pump motor' draws the-LE&EI current when the pump is:

-~A.

at runout conditions.

B.

.at operating conditions.

' C.

accelerating to normal speed during start.

D.

at' shutoff head.

\\;

PWR FORM A 9

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s-PWR FORM Ai

-QUESTION:.

25:

-Many-larger; centrifugal pumps are started with their discharge valves CLOSED in. order to prevent:.

'A.

loss'of recirculation (miniflow).

a B.

. overloading the. pump motor.

l C.

cavitation in the pump.

D.

lifting the discharge relief valve.

J QUESTION:

26-C An-increase-in positive displacement pump speed will cause the available net positive. suction head for the pump to:

i g-

. A.'

decrease-due'to the increase in fluid flow.

B' decrease due toLthe-increase in fluid discharge pressure.

i C.

increase due to the increase in fluid discharge pressure, i

l D.-

increase due to-the increase in fluid flow.

l:

~

-QUESTION:- 27 i

The following are-indications of a locked reactor (primary) coolant pump rotor

(.

EXCEPT:

m A.

reactor (primary) coolant system pressure transient.

.B.

peak reactor (primary)- coolant pump amps with possible

[-

breaker trip.

l

.C.

decreased ~ flow rate in unaffected loop (s).

D.

low reactor (primary) coolant system flow trip.

s 1'

PWR FORM A 10 x,

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- QUESTION: -A. centrifugal pump has a flow rate of 3,000 gpm and a current requirement of-200 amps.;-If the speed is-reduced such that the flow rute is 2,000 gpm,;what is.the final CURRENT requirement at the new lower speed?

(Assume a constant motor voltage.)

A..

59 amps

' B.'

89 amps

- C.

133 amps g

. D.

150 amps-

-QUESTION:

29.

l,.

Excessive AC-motor current can be caused DIRECTLY by operating the motor:

A.

completely unloaded.

't B.

at full load.

C,

. with open circuited windings.

. with shcirt circuited windings.

D.

U

~

QUESTION:

30 Which of the following describes the motor current indications that would be observed during'the start-of a large AC motor at ZULL_ load?-

A.

Amps slowly-increase to the full-load value.

4 B.

Amps. increase--immediately to the full-load'value.

C.'

Amps-increase immediately to approximately.twice the full-load value and-then decrease to the normal full-load value.

D.

_ Amps increase immediately to more than three times the full load value and then decrease-to the normal full-load value.

, a; PWR FORM A 11 h

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I PWR FORN A' 31'=

QUESTION

:

Wich;cf the.following is the reason for LIMITING the number of motor starts Jin:cfgiven time period?

A, Minimizes pitting of starter contacts i

5

[B;.:

Prevents excessivet torsional stresses on motor' shaft F

C;;

~ Prevents overheating of motor windings

'D.

-Minimizes axial stresses on motor bearings

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_ UESTION: -32 Q

R'efer to the figure'below for the following question. All valves are

. identical and are. initially 50 percent.open.

{

ToLOWERthetemperatureatpoint7,t:heoperatorshouldadjustvalve 7-im

'in the Offdi direction.

i A;

A

~'

B.

B-C.

C D.-

D l

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i PWR FORM A 13 l

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PWR' FORM A 2

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. QUESTION:

33 "tr

- The MAJOR thermodynamic concern resulting from RAPIDLY cooling a pressure I!-

1rc

' vessel is:

A.

loss of subcooling margin.

B.-

' thermal shock.

C.

loss of' shutdown margin.

D.

condensation.

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PWR FORM A 14 j

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' QUESTION:

34

- Refer to the figure below for the following question.-

Which-of the following effects would occur as a result of a tube FAILURE in' the heat exchanger?

A.

~High pressure fluid inventory increases.

B.

Flow in the' low pressure' system reverses.

E C.

Temperature in the low p;tessure system increases.

D.

Level in the tank increases.

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suae wa I-1' 4

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PWR FORM A 15

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PW1t' F0308 A =

. QUESTION: 135~-

[Wh:n c mixed bed demineralizer resin is exhausted..the resin should be

~

repicced orl regenerated-because:

~

s

<the' resin will; physically bond together, thereby causing a flow

,A.

blockage.:

c ions previously. removed by the resin will be released to solution.

.B.-

' L C,,

the resin will fracture and possibly escape' through the retention screens.

D;;

' particles previously filtered out of solution will'be released.

I

. QUESTION:

36 A d'imineralizer that.has'been exposed:to should be bypassed t

.b:ccuse? the resin beads may decompose.

- A.-

high temperature

B.

low flow C.'

11ow temperature S D. -

h'igh flow

)

L 3-? QUESTION: :37 A=dimineralizer is BORpN SATURATED.when;

-the domineralizer discharges large amounts of boron into the reactor iL

.A..

}

coolant.

the domineralizer absorbs greater than 200 ppm boron per hour.

B.

the'demineralizer boron removal rate decreases rapidly.

C.

outlet. temperature of the domineralizer begins to increase rapidly.

'D.

+

l-i

~

17 PWR FORM A 1

i e

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4 q

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PWR FORM A QUESTION:

38 l

{

' During maintenance activities, breakers in the open position are TAGGED anc:

RACKED OUT to:

A.

deenergize components and associated control and indication circuits.

B.

provide administrative control where safety is not of prime importanc' C.

maintain remote indication of breaker position (where available) to - t ensure personnel safety, D.

permit'immediate availability of the breaker if' required for emergenci use.

QUESTION:

39 4

While locally investigating the condition of a large circuit breaker,;the-operator observes the following indications:

OPEN/ CLOSED mechanical flag indication indicates open.

OPEN/ CLOSED indicating lights indicate open.

Overcurrent trip flags are actuated on all phases.

Load-side voltmeter indicates zero volts.

Load side ammeter indicates zero amperes.

Based on these indications, the operator should report that the circuit breaker is open, racked'

, with condition indicated.

A.

in,' overload I

B.

in, no overload g

C.

out, overload D.

out, no overload PWR FORN A a

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.PWR FORM A a

- QUESTION: - 40 t

f[

Which of.the'following would cause a loss of ability.to remotely trip a circuit creaker AND a loss of position indication?

A.

Loss of breaker control power-i B.

Failure of breaker control switch

($

C.

Mechanical binding of breaker D.

' Breaker in " test" position 4

1

' QUESTION:

41-K 1

Closing the output breaker of=the main generator with the frequency of the-Lgenerator. HIGHER than grid frequency will. result in the generator:

p A.

- behaving asia real. load to the grid.

B.-

behaving as a reactive load to the grid.

l C.

picking up a portion of the grid real load (MWe),

p D.

picking up a portion of the grid reactive load (NVAR).

i QUESTION: 42

- Which of the following generator' conditions is MOST LIKELY to cause generator i damage because of high current?

~

. A '.

Tripping the output breaker under: f'ill-load conditions

. B..

Tripping the generator prime mover under full-load-conditions C.

Closing the output breaker on a bus that has an open-circuit fault l

W D.

Closing-the output breaker on a bus that has a short-circuit fault-4 PWR FORM A 19 l

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FWR.FORN A 10Na - 43 a

i sncticn~of high voltage electrical oi.cnne. cts is-to:

• islsicto equipment electrically during:no lomo conditions.

Sis leta equipment-electrically during overload conditions.

a-r protect circuits;during overcurrent conditions.

s pr;tect circuits-during undervoltage conditions ~

-:ON: ;44x I

,p11 wing'indicationsare-observedforabreakerinthecontrolroom.

I. Qcn2rgized): (closed) indicating light off" lien(daenergized)-(open)'indicatinglight"off" c

3 amps indicate normal'1oad current ing'cn1 of'the indicating lights is burnt out, what is the condition of rc kar?'

L.

Opin'cnd racked.in-

~ '

' Shut'end racked in' i

Op:n cnd' racked to " test" position in: Shut cnd racked to:" test" position ll I

(ION: J 4 5 '-

\\i fdstrmining'shutdownmargin.foranoperatingreactor,howmanycontrol

~

M-(CEAs).are assumed to remain E ELI withdrawn?

p..lA' single control rod (CEA) of the-highest reactivity worth

,.$Acymmetrical~pairofcontrolrods(CEAs)ofthehighestreactivity l: Swarth-

, ---

• n ;

A' single control rod (CEA).-of average reactivity worth pL..ALsymmetrical_-pair?of-control rods (CEAs) of average reactivity worth

~

PWR FORM A 20 1

.. ~

N

^7'

n 8.

.

-t

.PWR' FORM A QUESTION:1 46 l

, A reactor at end of life has been shutdown from 100 percent power and cooled down to; 140 degrees' F over. three days. - ' During-the cooldown, Boron concentration was increased by'100 ppa. Given the following absolute values i

of-reactivities added during the cooldown. assign a (+) or (-) as. appropriate j

'and choose-the current value of-SHUTDOWN MARGIN.

..: Xenon.-

() 2.6754_ delta K/K.

(

i

. Temperature - ( ) 0.5006 delta K/K Power Defect - ( ) 1.575% delta K/K

-Rods---

( ) 6.918% delta K/K

~

L Boron -

( ).1.0404 delta K/K LA. -

3.2084 delta K/K.

i

'B.'

-8,5584-delta K/K.

e C.-

1.128% delta K/K

.t D.

6.3584' delta K/K

. QUESTION:' 47-

.Which one of 'the, following plant parameter-changes will result in an INCREASE in shutdown marginLfor a shutdown reactor at end of core life?

RCS boron concentration istincreased by'100 ppm.

A.

-B.

'One control rod (CEA) is fully withdrawn for a test.-

~C.

' Xenon has decayed for 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> following shutdown.

D-RCS is cooled down by 300 degrees F.

1 PWR FORM A 21

.9 s

c.

PWR FORM A QUESTION: 48 The ma5nitude of the stable startup rate achieved for a given positive reactivity addition to a critical reactor is dependent on the and A.

prompt neutron lifetime; axial flux distribution B.

prompt neutron lifetime; control rod (CEA) position C.

average effective decay constant; average delayed neutron fraction D.

average effective decay constant;' axial flux distribution QUESTION: 49 Delayed neutrons contribute more to reactor stability than prompt neutrons because they the average neutron generation time and are born at a kinetic energy.

A.

increase; lower B.

decrease; higher C.

increase; higher D.

decrease; lower l

QUESTION:

50 During core physics testing, reactor coolant temperature should be held as L

stable as'possible. This will MINIMIZE the effects of on l:

reactivity measurements.

A.

xenon concentration B.

control rod (CEA) worth C.

reactor coolant inventory

'D.

moderator temperature coefficient

~

PWR FORM A 22

../

h PWR FORM A QUESTION:' 51 Under which'of the following conditions is a reactor core most likely to have a' POSITIVE moderator temperature coefficient?

A.

High coolant temperature at end of-life s

B.

High coolant temperature at beginning-of-life C.

Low coolant temperature at end of life D.

Low coolant temperature at beginning-of life QUESTION:

52 During a plant heatup (with an initial negative moderator temperature coefficient),, the moderator temperature coefficient-becomes increasingly more NECATIVE.

This is because:

A, as moderator density decreases, more thermal neutrons are absorbed by the moderator than by the fuel.

B.

the change in the thermal utilization factor dominates the change in the resonance escape probability.

L C.

a greater density change per degree F occurs at higher reactor coolant temperatures.

D.

the core transitions from an under moderated condition to an over-moderated condition, y

1l' QUESTION:

53 Which one of the following groups contain parameters that, if varied, will each have a DIRECT effect on the power coefficient?

i A.

Control rod (CEA) position, reactor power, moderator voids B.

Moderator temperature, RCS pressure, Xenon level P

'C.

Fuel temperature, xenon level, control rod (CEA) position D.

Moderator voi,is, fuel temperature, moderator temperature FWR FORM A 23

r pi

.t. g

. e L

PWR FORM A-

~

Y,

< /: critical below the point of adding heat.. Control rods 7:l est blish a'O.5 dpm startuptrate. Reactor power will L: c;vnlue above the point of adding heat.

i, in'st bilize at the original value.

.n I

Lt.olvaluebelowthepoint.ofadding. heat.

til csntrol' rods.(CEAs) are reinserted, g

'l i

cct' flux in the hottest coolant channel to the average d: scribes:.

Een=colibration' factor.

Lat: king. factor.-

fablizing; factor.-

o

+Fflux. deviation' factor.

o' L

I Sg'ct squilibrium 100 percent power level at BOL with all If control rods-(CEAs) are partially 1?u11y withdrawn.

a:utran flux.will ahift'toward of the r

(l t

o b.

End thr bottom' b

e L

[

PWR: Fonu a.

24

~

l t

l,..

.t 4

1

s o

06 ;

+

i s

=i

.PWR'FORN A QUESTION: -57:

+

'Which of the.following is NOT-a consideration in establishing control rod

'(CEA) insertion limits?L A'. -

Maximize control rod (CEA) maneuvering capability.

~B.

. Ensure minimum shutdown margin'available.

[

3 C.

Minimize the worth of an ejected control rod.

D.

Maintain allowable power distribution.

f

QUESTION

'

58 TheLTWO characteristics of'Xe 135 that result in it being a M&lQE reactor poison:iw its relatively half-life.and relatively absorption cross section.

AL short; large l

B'.

- short; small j

t LC.

.long; large, D;

long;.small

- QUESTION:

59 A reactor has been operating at 50 percent power for a week when power is

.+

quickly ramped (over 4. hours) to 100 percent. 'How will the xenon-concentration in the core respond?

.f JA.

Decreases initially, then builds to a new equilibrium concentration in 8 to 10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br />.

B.

le Increases steadily _to a new equilibrium concentration in 20 to 30 hours3.472222e-4 days <br />0.00833 hours <br />4.960317e-5 weeks <br />1.1415e-5 months <br />, f

C.

' Decreases initially, then builds to a new equilibrium concentration in

- 40 to 50 hours5.787037e-4 days <br />0.0139 hours <br />8.267196e-5 weeks <br />1.9025e-5 months <br />.

.D.

Increases steadily to a new equilibrium concentration in 60 to 70 hours8.101852e-4 days <br />0.0194 hours <br />1.157407e-4 weeks <br />2.6635e-5 months <br />.

PWR FORN A 25

+

m

~

1

-1 a-

-,7 PWR~ FORM A QUESTION:

60 4

Two identical reactors are operating at power. Reactor "A" is at 50 percent

-I power and reactor "B" is at 100 percent power. Both reactors trip / scram at the-same time. Which statement describes post trip / scram Xenon behavior?

A.

Xenon will peak first in reactor "A".

L B.

Xenon will peak first in reactor "B".

C.

Xenon will peak in both reactors at the ssme time.

D.

Xenon will not peak in either reactor; it will simply decay away.

QUESTION:

61 Xenon oscillations that tend to DAMPEN themselves toward equilibrium over time are oscillations.

1 A.

converging B.

diverging.

C.

diffusing D.

transitioning L

QUESTION:

62

,Four hours after a reactor trip from equilibrium full-power operation, the reactor is taken critical and power is Lamediately stabilized for critical data.

In order to maintain a CONSTANT reactor power, the operator must add reactivity because xenon concentration is A.

positive; increasing B.

positive; decreasing C.

negative; increasing D.

negative; decreasing-PWR FORM A 26

PWR FORM A QUESTION:

63 A reactor,that has been operating at rated power for about two weeks is

. reduced in power to 50 percent. What happens to the Xe 135 concentration in the core?

A.

There will be no change because iodine concentration is constant.

B.

Xenon will initially build up, then decrease to a new equilibrium value.

C.

Xenon will initially decrease, then build up to a new equilibrium value.

D.

Xenon will steadily decrease to a new equilibrium value.

l Q'.*ESTION :

64 The plant is operating at EQL with a full power boron concentration of 15 ppm.

L_

After the refueling, the full power boron concentration is approximately 1,200 ppm. Which of the following is the reason for the necessary INCREASE in boron concentration?

t.

L A.

Xenon concentration in the core at EOL is much greater than at BOL, B.

Differential boron worth at EOL is'much greater than at BOL.

[IBW at EOL is significantly smaller than at BOL.)

C.

The excess reactivity in the core at BOL is much greater than at-EOL.

D.

The integral control rod (CEA) worth at EOL is much greater than at BOL.

QUESTION:

65 The reactor is suberitical with a reactor startup in progress. Assuming the reactor remains suberitical, a short control rod WITHDRAWAL will cause the reactor startup rate indication to increase rapidly in the positive direction, and then:

A.

gradually decrease and stabilize at zero.

B.

rapidly decrease and stabilize at a negative 1/3 dpm.

C.

stabilize until the POAH-is reached; then decrease to zero.

D.

continue a rapid increase until the PDAH is reached; then decrease to zero.

PWR FORM A 27

V-p1 x

PWR FORM A QUESTION:

66

During a reactor startup, the operator adds 1,000 pcm (1,04 delta K/K) of

~

i

. positive reactivity by withdrawing control rods;(CEAs),;thereby increasing equilibrium source range neutron level from 220 cps to 440 eps.

In order to raise equilibrium source range neutron level to 880 cps, an additional of positive reactivity must be added.

.A.

500 pcm (0.St delta K/K)

B.-

1000 pcm (1.04 delta K/K) ll C.

.2000 pcm (2.06 delta K\\K)

D.

4000 pcm (4.04 delta K/K) l:

i l:

-QUESTION:

67 As criticality is approached during a reactor startup, equal insertions of i

positive reactivity result in a absolute change in equilibrium L

count rate and a time to reach each new equilibrium.

A.

~ smaller; shorter l

l' B..

smaller; longer l'

L C.

. greater; shorter i.

.D.

greater; longer.

1 3

{

QUESTION:

68 In order to predict criticality, the operator must predict the amount of l-positive, reactivity that must be added.to OVERCOME the effecta of:

A.

Boron, moderator voids, and burnable poisons.

B.

control rods (CEAs), Xenon, and moderator temperature.

I C.

power defect, burnable poisons, and control rods (CEAs).

l; D.

. moderator temperature, moderator voids, and Xenon.

l lt J

E PWR FORK A 28 1

=

~6 t

- i PWR FORM A l

n.

l. QUESTION:. 69; tWhich two parameters.have the MOST SIGNIFICANT effect on reactivity upon r cching criticality-during a reactor startup and prior to. reaching thespoint-of cdding heat?;

' A;-

Coolant temperature and rod (CEA). position 8. --

. Coolant temperature and coolant pressure 1

[C.' -

Rod (CEA)~ position and reactor power j

L

- D.

Coolant pressure and reactor power:

QUESTION: '70 L

Control rods Tha plant <is operating at-equilibrium 50 percent power level.

-(CEAs)'are manually withdrawn for 5 seconds. When plant parameters have st:bilized:

I i

A.

coolant temperature-will'be higher.

l-

[

B.

reactor (primary) coolant system pressure will be lower.

C.-

. reactor power will be higher.

L D'. :

pressurizer level.will be lower.

s QUESTION:. 71 Tha_ reactor is operating at equilibrium 20 percent power. The operator-

i.. withdraws rods (CEAs)'as necessary to immediately establish and maintain a 0.10 DPM startup rate. How long will.it take'for the reactor to reach 70 lp:rcent-power?

'l y

E

'A.

2.5 minutes IL 5.5 minutes 10.

'7.5' minutes o

i D.'

10.5 minutes S

PWR FORM A 29 c

.i i

PWR FOM &

l-QUESTION: '72 The reactor has been operating at 75 percent power for several weeks. A partial steam line break occurs and 3 percent total steam flow is escaping.

Assuming no operator or automatic actions, stable reactor power will and stable reactor coolant temperature will A.

increase; increase B.

not change; increase C.

increase; decrease D.

not change; decrease QUESTION:

73 A pressure gauge on a' condenser reads 27 inches of Mercury (Hg) vacuum. What is the absolute. pressure corresponding to this vacuum? (Assume an atmosph0ric

-pressure of 15 psia.)

A.

1.0 psia B.

1.5 psia C.-

3.0 psia D.

15.0 psia QUESTION:

74 Excessive heat removal from the LP turbine exhaust steam in the main condenser will result in:

A.

thermal shock.

'E B.

loss of condenser vacuum.

C.

condensate tas.:ession.

D.

fluid compre uion.

~

PWR 70M A 30

+

.Q

{.-

PWR FORN &

y

-QUESTION:

75 The saturation pressure for water at 328 degrees F it:

A.

85 psig.

B.

100 psig.

C.

115 psig.

4 D..

130 psig.

QUESTION:

76 The reactor coolant system is being maintained at 1000 psia. A pressurizer safety / relief valve is slowly discharging to a collection tank, which is maintained at 5 psig. What is the ENTHALPY of the fluid entering the tank?

A.

1,156 BTU /lba B.

1,178 BTU /lba C.

1,193 BTU /lbe D.

1,210 BTU /lbm QUESTION: 77 Which of the following will cause overall plant efficiency to IEEE&$17 A.

Increasing total steam generator blowdown from 30 gpm to 40 gpm.

B.

Changing steam quality from 99.7 percent to 99.9 percent.

~

C, Bypassing a feedwater heater during normal plant operations.

1 D.

Increasing condenser pressure from 1 psia to 2 psia.

t b

t PWR FORK &

31 1

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - ~ - - - - - ^ - " - - - - - - - - - - - - - ' " - " ^ ^ - - - - - - - ' - - - ~ ~ ~ ~

^

i o

7 FWR FORM &

QUESTION:

78

[

Which of the following methods would INCREARE the possibility and/or severity of water hammer?

A.

Venting fluid systems prior to starting a pump.

l B.

Starting a pump with the discharge valve fully open.

C.

Starting a pump with the discharge valve fully closed.

D.

Opening and closing system valves slowly.

[

i QUESTION:

79 A centrifugal pump is being returned to service after maintenance.

The operator FAILS to vent the pump properly. When the pump is started the operator should see capacity and discharge head.

A.

Iower; lower B.

Iower; higher C.

higher; lower

^

D.

higher; higher l

t QUESTION:

80 The )L7.QE effect of operating centrifugal pumps in PARALLEL is:

A.

increased system pressure.

B.

increased system flow rate.

C.

decreased system pressure.

D.

decreased system flow rate.

i FWR FORM A 32

i PWR FORK A I

i QUESTION:

81

?

Flow instruments used to measure the mass flow rate of saturated steam are density compensated because, for a steam pressure increase at a constant i

volumetric flow rate, steam density will and the actual mass flow rate will t

t A.

decrease; increase B.

increase; decrease C.

increase; increase D.

decrease; decrease QUESTION:

82 During operation of a positive displacement pump, the MOST DESIRABLE method of decreasing system flow rate is to:

+

A.

throttle the pump discharge valve.

B..

throctle the pump suction valve.

C.

decrease the pump NPSH.

D.-

decrease the pump speed.

QUESTION:

83 The transfer of heat from the reactor fuel to the fuel cladding during normal operations is an example of heat transfer.

t.

(

A.

conduction 1

B.

convection C.

radiant

.D.-

two phase PWR FORM A 33 n

h l

PWR FORN A i

s.

'STION:

84

)

. ' fluid flow rate INCREASES through the tubes of a shell-and tube heat

' hang:r,Lthe laminar film thickness

, which causes heat transfer

[

-e.t3 increases; increase j

l'

increases; decrease i.

decreases; increase I-d: creases; decrease i

i

STION:' 85

- a ra:cter coolant enters the core at 545 degrees F'and leaves at 595 degrees 7

If th) reactor coolant flow rate is 6.6 x 10 lba/hr and the specific heat j

>: city cf the coolant is 1.3 BTU /lbe degree F, what is the core thermal wer7 (1 watt - 3.4127 BTU /hr) 967 MWt

[

1,160 MWt 1,257 MWt 1,508 MWe.

i IESTION:

86 ich characteristic will ElDi&RGE steam bubble formation as heat is cnsferrsd ~to a liquid adjacent Eto a heating surface.

= Surface scratches or cavities in the heating surface

-M:terial dissolved in the bulk of the liquid The absence of dissolved gases in the liquid A ti htly adherent and smooth oxide layer on the heating surfaca 5

~

PWR FORM A 34 e

t s-

~

PerR FO RN &

ON: ~87 l

of th) following describes departure from nucleate boiling?

St:aa bubbles.begin to blanket the fuel rod, causing a rapid increase in the delta T between the fuel rod and the coolant, i

LSt:aa bubbles completely blanket the fuel rod, causing an increase in the hest flux from the fuel rod.

Steam bubbles begin to blanket the fuel rod, causing a rapid decrease in the delta T between the fuel rod and the coolant.

-Steam bubbles begin to form on the surface of the fuel rod, causing an j

incr0ise in the heat flux from the fuel rod.

I l

DN : ' 88-

.perameter change will reduce the departure from nucleate boiling ratio

.1:

\\

i Desr::se reactor power.

l 1

Incr::se pressurizer pressure.

1 Incr :se reactor coolant flow.

Incr0cse reactor coolant temperature.

I I

.1 ON:

89 1

definition of the departure from nucleate boiling ratio 1

, th3 term ACTUAL HEAT FLUK refers to the:

h ct transfer rate per unit area at any point along the fuel rod.

'h: t. transfer rate along the entire fuel rod.

cverego heat transfer rate per unit area across the core.

t:tal heat transferred along the fuel rod.

PITR FORM A 35

l a

twa romu A l

QUESTION:

90

The difference between the actual temperature and the saturation temperature cf o liquid is the:

A'.-

critical heat flux.

B.

subcooling margin.

C..

departure from nucleate boiling.

D.

saturstion margin.

.i QUESTION:

91 Assuming that reactor power remains constant at 30 percent, if reactor coolant i

fitw decreases by 10 percent, FUEL temperature will:

A.

increase, then stabilize at a higher value.

B.

decrease, then stabilize at a lower value.

C.

increase, then return to the original steady-state value.

,D.

' decrease, then return to the original steady state value, t

QUESTION:

92

.Which'of the following must exist for natural circulation flow to occur?

(-

L A.

The heat source must be located higher than the heat sink.

B.

The heat source must be larger than the heat sink.

l C.

The heat sink must be located higher than the heat source.

D..

The heat sink must be larger than the heat source.

t f

PWR FORM A 36

4 PWR PORN R QUESTION:

93 Natural circulation flow rate will be CREATER when:

A.

all reactor coolant pumps run for an hour after a reactor trip, and then stop.

B.

two reactor coolant pumps run for an hour after a reactor trip, and then stop.

C.

one reactor coolant pump runs for an hour after a reactor trip, and then stops.

D.

reactor coolant pumps stop at the same time the reactor trips.

QUESTION:

94 If the reactor is operated within core thermal limits, then:

A.

plant thermal efficiency is optimized.

B.

fuel cladding integrity is ensured.

C.

pressurized thermal shock will be prevented.

D.

reactor vessel thermal stresses will be minimized.

QUESTION:

95 During full power operation, critical heat flux (CHF) is MOST LIKELY to occur in a:

A.

centrally located fuel assembly with flow restrictions.

B.

centrally located fuel assembly without flow restrictions.

C.

peripherally located fuel assembly with flow restrictions.

D.

peripherally located fuel assembly without flow restrictions.

PWR PORN A 37 9

l FWR FOM A QUESTION:

96 i

Brittle fracture is the fregnentation of metal resulting from the application of stress at relatively temperatures.

A.

compressive; high 1

B.

compressive; low C.

tensile; high D.

tensile; low t

QUESTION:

97 i

Reactor cooldown rate limitations are procedurally established to prevent:

A.

excessive reactivity additions.

- B.

brittle fracture of the reactor vessel.

C.-

impurities from precipitating out of solution in the reactor vessel.

I D.-

excessive reactor coolant system subcooling.

L QUESTION:

98-Prolonged exposure of the reactor vessel to a fast neutron flux will cause the reference temperature for nil ductility transition (RTNDT) to:

l A.

increase due to the creation of flaws.

B.

decrease due to the creation of flaws.

l

[

C.'

' increase due to changes in the material properties of the vessel wall.

D.

decrease due to changes in the material properties of the vessel wall, j

FWR FOM A 38 x---

-- --------a'-

W t'

v 1" "

+

~

^

~

[T

(.

PWR FORN &

r t

QUESTION:

99 Pressurized thermal shock is a condition that can occur following a of the reactor coolant system (RCS) if RCS pressure'is rapidly A.

cooldown; decreased B.

cooldown; increased C.

~heatup; decreased t

D.

heatup; increased i

i I

QUESTION:- 100 A heatup stress applied to the reactor vessel is:

A.

compressive at the inner wall, tensile at the outer wall.

~!

B.-

tensile at the inner wall, compressive at the outer wall.

C.

tensile across the entire wall.

D.

compressive across the entire wall, t

e

?

h

[

r a

4 PWR FORN A 39 n

r.

t-ENCLOSURE 2 1

(

i f

[

l' l

CENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION SECTION (CFES) t PRESSURIZED WATER REACTOR FORM B i

ENCLOSURE 2

m t

{

I FEBRUARY 1990 PWR GFE - FORM B ANSWER KEY i

e 1.

A 26.

A 51.

A 76.

A 2.

A 27.

B 52.

D 77.

A 3.

A 28.

C 53.

B 78.

D 4.

C 29.

B 54.

C 79.

D l

S.

A 30.

C 55.

B 80.

D 6.

D 31.

A 56.

A 81.

B 7.

D 32.

A 57.

D 82.

A 8.

C 33.

B 58.

A 83.

C 9.

D 34.

B 59.

A 84.

A 10.

A 35.

A 60.

A 85.

D 11.

B 36.

B 61.

D 86.

D 12.

C 37.

C 62.

A 87.

C

- 13.

A 38.

D 63.

A 88.

D 14.

C 39.

A 64.

A 89.

B 15.

C 40.

C 65.

C 90.

D 16.

A 41.

C 66.

C 91.

B L

17.

A 42.

A 67.

D 92.

A

\\

l 18.

A 43.

A 68.

A 93.

C

{

19.

B 44.

D 69.

B 94.

A 20.

C 45.

A 70.

A 95.

A 21.

A 46.

B 71.

C 96.

A 22.

A 47.

A 72.

B 97.

C 23.

D 48.

C 73.

C 98.

D 24.

B

- 49.

D 74.

B 99.

A il A

50.

B 75.

C 100.

B 4

- 4

=e v

ar

.p m

m

_y

.m m

m

i i

PWR FORM B RULES AND CUIDELINES FOR THE CENERIC IUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

(1)

Print your name in the blank provided on the cover sheet of the examination.

t (2)

Fill in the name of your facility.

(3)

Fill in the ID Number you were given at registration.

-(4)

Fill in your start and stop times at the appropriate time.

(5)

Three handouts are provided for your use during the examination, an Equations and Conversions sheet, instructions for filling out the answer sheet, and Steam Table booklets.

(6)

Use only the answer sheet provided.

Credit will only be given for answers properly marked on this sheet.

Follow the instructions for filling out the answer sheet.

(7)

Scrap paper will be provided for calculations.

(8).

Any questions about an item on the examination should be directed to the examiner only.

(9)

Cheating.on the examination will result in the automatic forfeiture of this examination.

Cheating could also result in severe penalties.

(10) Restroom trips are' limited. Only ONE examinee say leave the room at a time.

In order to avoid the appearance or possibility of cheating, avoid all contact with anyone outside of the examination room.

(11) After you have completed the examination, sign the statement on the i

cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have not received or been given any assistance in completing the examination.

.(12) Turn in your examination Laterials, answer sheet en top, followed by the exam booklet, then examination aids - steam table booklets, handouts and scrap paper used during the examination.

(13) After turning in your examination materials, leave the examination area, as defined by the examiner.

If after leaving you are found in the examination area while the examination is in progress, your examination may be forfeited.

PWR FORM B Q

-e

~

-. ~. - -

'A i

\\

EQUATION SMEET I

1 1

6 Ec AT Cycle Efficiency -

p 6

E Ah SCR S/(1 K rr) j e

l 6

CR2 (1 - K rt)2 UA'AT CR2 (1 Kett)1 e

I CR /CRo j

1/(1 Kett)

SUR - 26.06/r M

2

.I 26.06 (A,gg_f.1 (1

K:ttle (4

p)

(1 Kett)1 8" "

L'.

5Nt)

(1 - K rs)/Kett Po 10 SDM l

P

=

e Po e (O Pwr Wga P

?

I'/(p-k)

(f*/p) + ((i p)/Aeffp) f r

1 x 10 s seconds (K,gg 1)/K rt 1

p e

AK.fr/K rr A rr = 0.1 seconds *1 p

e e

L i

2.21 lba 1 Curie

' 3.7 x 1010 dps 1 kg 3.41 x 108 BTU /hr 3

2.54 x 10 BTU /hr 1 Mw I hp 9/5 'C + 32 778 ft lbf

'T 1 BTU 5/9 ('F 32)

'C e

P L. -

---..---------- -.----------- e

-m

~e,

~

F

]

l l

t-i PWR FORN 3 QUEST 70N:

1 l

When determining shutdown margin for an operating reactor, how many control rods (CEAs) are assumed to remain ZELLY withdrawn?

A.

A single control rod (CEA) of the highest reactivity worth B.

A symmetrical pair of control rods (CEAs) of the highest reactivity worth C.

A single control rod (CEA) of average reactivity worth D.

A symmetrical pair of control rods (CEAs) of average reactivity worth QUESTION:

2 A reactor at end of life has been shutdown from 100 percent power and cooled down to 140 degrees F over three days. During the cooldown, Boron concentration was increased by 100 ppa. Given the following absolute values i

of reactivities added during the cooldown, assign a (+) or (+) as appropriate and choose the current value of EHUTDOWN MARGIN.

Xenon -

() 2.675% delta K/K Temperature _- ( ) 0.5006 delta K/K Power Defect - ( ) 1.575% delta K/K Rods -

( ) 6.918% delta K/K Boron -

( ) 1.040% delta K/K A.

3.208% delta K/K B.

8,5586 delta K/K C.

1.128% delta K/K D.

6.3584 delta K/K PWR FORM B 1

~

PWR FORM 3 QUESTION:

3 L'hich one of the following plant parameter changes will result in an INCREASE in shutdown margin for a shutdown reactor at end of core life?

A.

RCS boron concentration is increased by 100 ppa.

B.

One control rod (CEA) is fully withdrawn for a test.

C.

Xenon has decayed for 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> following shutdown.

D.

RCS is cooled down by 300 degrees F.

QUESTION: 4 The magnitude of the stable startup rate achieved for a given positive reactivity addition to a critical reactor is dependent o.1 the and A.

prompt neutron lifetime; axial flux distribution B.

prompt neutron lifetime; control rod (CEA) position C.

average effective decay constant; average delayed neutron fraction D.

average effective decay constant; axial flux distribution QUESTION:

5 i

l Delayed neutrons contribute more to reactor stability than prompt neutrons because they the average neutron generation time and are born at a kinetic energy.

A.

increase; lower 1

(

B.

decrease; higher C.

increase; higher D.

decrease; lower i

PWR FORM B 2

PWR FORM 3 QUESTION:

6 i

During core physics testing, reactor coolant temperature should be held as stable as possible.

This will MINIMIE the effects of on reactivity I

measurements.

i A.

xenon concentration

\\

B.

control rod (CEA) worth C.

reactor coolant inventory D.

moderator temperature coefficient QUESTION:

7 Under which of the following conditions is a reactor core most likely to have a POSITIVE moderator temperature coefficient?

P A.

.High coolant temperature at end of-life B.

High coolant temperature at beginning of life C.

Low coolant temperature at end of life D.

Low coolant temperature at beginning of-life i

QUESTION:

B During a plant heatup (with an initial negative moderator temperature coefficient), the moderator temperature coefficient becomes increasingly more NEGATIVE. This is because:

~A.

as moderator density decreases, more thermal neutrons are absorbed by_

the moderator than by the fuel, h

B.

the change in the thermal utilization factor dominates the chen6* in th*

L resonance escape probability.

l, C.

a greater density change per degree F occurs at higher reactor coolant temperatures.

D.

the core transitions from an under moderated condition to an over moderated condition.

PWR FORM B 3

i

-O PWR FORM 3 i

QUESTION:

9 k'hich one of the following groups contain parameters that, if varied, will each have a DIRECT effect on the power coefficient?

A.

Control rod (CEA) position, reactor power, moderator voids 3

B.

Moderator temperature, RCS pressure, Xenon level C.

Fuel temperature, xenon level, control rod (CEA) position D.

Moderator voids. fuel temperature, moderator temperature i

QUESTION:

10 The reactor is exactly critical below the point of adding heat.

Control rods I

(CEAs) are withdrawn to establish a 0.5 dpa startup rate. Reactor power will increase:

A.

and stabilire at a value above the point of adding heat.

B.

temporarily, then stabilize at the original value.

C.

and stabilize at a value below the point of adding heat.

D.

continuously until control rods (CEAs) are reinserted, l

QUESTION:

11 A comparison of the heat flux in the hottest coolant channel to the average heat flux in the core describes:

A.

a core correction calibration factor.

B.

a hot channel / peaking factor.

L C.

a heat flux normalizing factor.

D.

an axial / radial flux deviation factor, l'

1 l'

l l

PWR FORM B 4

l l

PWR FORM 3-I QUESTION: 12 1

g The plant is operating at equilibrium 100 percent power level at BOL with all control rods (CEAs) fully withdrawn.

If control rods (CEAs) are partially INSERTED, the axial neutron flux will shift toward of the reactor.

A.

the top l

B.

the middle C.

the bottom I

D.

both the top and the bottom i

i QUESTION:

13 i

Which of the following is RAI a consideration in establishing control rod (CEA) insertion'11mits?

j i

A.

Maximize control rod (CEA) maneuvering capability.

B.

Ensure minimum shutdown margin available.

i C.

Minimize the worth of an ejected control rod.

D.

Maintain allowable power distribution, i

' QUESTIONt' 14 L

The 2HQ characteristics of Xe-135 that result in it being a M&298 reactor poison is its relatively half life and relatively _

absorption cross section.

L j

A.

short; large 5

l B.

short; small C.

long; large D.

long; small l

PWR FORM B 5

e i

4-FWR FORM B QUESTION:

15 r

A reactor has been operating at 50 percent power for a week when power is quickly ramped (over 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />) to 100 percent. How will the xenon concentration in the core respond?

A.

Decreases initially, then builds to a new equilibrium concentration in 8 to 10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br />.

B.

Increases steadily to a new equilibrium concentration in 20 to 30 hours3.472222e-4 days <br />0.00833 hours <br />4.960317e-5 weeks <br />1.1415e-5 months <br />.

C.

Decreases initially, then builds to a new equilibrium concentration in 40 to 50 hours5.787037e-4 days <br />0.0139 hours <br />8.267196e-5 weeks <br />1.9025e-5 months <br />.

i D.

Increases steadily to a new equilibrium concentration in 60 to 70 hours8.101852e-4 days <br />0.0194 hours <br />1.157407e-4 weeks <br />2.6635e-5 months <br />.

QUESTION:

16 Two identical reactors are operating at power. Reactor "A" is at 50 percent power and reactor '"B" is at 100 percent power. Both reactors trip / scram at the same time. Which statement describes post trip / scram Xenon behavior?

A.

Xenon will peak first in reactor "A".

B.

Xenon will peak first in reactor "B".

i C.

Xenon will peak in both reactors at the same time.

i l.

D.

Xenon will not peak in either reactor; it will simply decay away.

QUESTION:

17 L

l Xenon oscillations that tend to DAMPEN themselves toward equilibrium over time l

are oscillations.

A.

converging l-"

8.

diverging C.

diffusing D.

transitioning PWR FORM B 6

D

--w-

- m

O' PWR FORN 3 QUESTION: 18 I

Tour hours after a reactor trip from equilibrium full power operation, the reactor is taken critical and power is immediately stabilized for critical l

data.

In order to maintain a CONSTANT reactor power, the operator must add reactivity because xenon concentration is A.

positive; increasing J

B.

positive; decreasing C.

negative; increasing D.

negative; decreasing P

QUESTION:

19 A reactor that has been operating at rated power for about two weeks is reduced in power to 50 percent. What happens to the Xe 135 concentration in the core?

I A.

There vill be no change because iodine concentration is constant.

B.

Xenon will initially build up, then decrease to a new equilibrium value.

C.

Xenon will initially decrease, then build up to a new equilibrium value.

z.

D.-

Xenon will steadily decrease to a new equilibrium value.

QUESTION:

20 The plant is operating at EOL with a full power boron concentration of 15 ppm.

After the refueling, the full. power boron concentration is approximately 1,200 L

ppm. Which of the following is the reason for the necessary INCREASE in boron L

. concentration?

+

t A.

Xenon concentration in the core at EOL is much greater than at BOL.

B.

Differential boron worth at EOL is much greater than at BOL.. [IBW at EOL is significantly smaller than at BOL.)

C.

The ex:ess reactivity in the core at BOL is such greater than at EOL.

D.

The integral control rod (CEA) worth at EOL is much greater than at BOL.

PWR FORM 3 7

u a

1 o

nR r a B i

l QUESTION:

21 1

The reactor is suberitical with a reactor startup in progress. Assuming the reactor remains suberitical, a short control rod VITEDRAVAL will cause the reactor startup rate indication to increase rapidly in the positive direction, j

and then:

A.

gradually decrease and stabilize at zero.

B.

rapidly decrease and stabilize at a negative 1/3 dpm.

C.

stabilize until the POAH is reached; then decrease to zero.

D.

continue a rapid increase until the POAH is reached; then decrease to zero.

QUESTION:

22 During a reactor startup, the operatot adds 1,000 pem (1.04 delta.K/K) of positive reactivity by withdrawing control rods (CEAs), thereby increasing equilibrium source. range neutron level from 220 eps to 440 cps.

In order to raise equilibrium source range neutron level to 880 cps, an additional of positive reactivity must be added.

A.

500 pcm (0.5% delta K/K)

B.

1000 pcm (1,04 delta.K/K)

C.

2000 pcm (2.06 delta K\\K)

D.

4000 pem (4.0L delta.K/K)

QUESTION:

23 As criticality is approached during a reactor startup, equal insertions of positive reactivity result in a absolute change in equilibrium count rate and a time to reach each new equilibrium.

A.

smaller; shorter B.

smal.ler; longer C.

greater; shorter D.

greater; longer NR roRM B 8

1 PWR PORN 3

-QUESTION:

24 In order to predict criticality, the operator must predict the amount of positive reactivity that must be added to OVERCOME the effects of:

l A.

Boron, moderator voids, and burnable poisons.

B.

control rods (CEAs), Xenon, and moderator temperature.

I C.

power defect, burnable poisons, and control rods (CEAs).

r D.

moderator temperature, moderator voids, and Xenon.

QUESTION:

25 Which two parameters have the MOST SIGNIFICANT effect on reactivity upon reaching criticality during a reactor startup, and prior to reaching the point of adding heat?

A.

Coolant temperature and rod (CEA) position B.'

Coolant temperature and coolant pressure C.

Rod (CEA) position and reactor power D.

Coolant pressure and reactor power 1

QUESTION:

26 The plant is operating at equilibrium 50 percent power level.

Control rods L

(CEAs) are manually withdrawn for 5 seconds. When plant parameters have stabilized:

A.

coolant temperature will be higher.

B.

reactor (primary) coolant system pressure will be lower.

C.

reactor power will be higher.

D.

pressurizer level vill be lower.

1 PWR FORM B 9

t PWR 70M 3

(

i QUESTION:

27 f

The reactor is operating at equilibrium 20 percent power.

The operator withdraws rods'(CEAs) as necessarv to immediately establish and maintain a O.10 DPM startup rate. Hod long will it take for the reactor to reach 70 i

percent power?

l A.

2.5 minutes B.

5.5 minutes C.

7.5 minutes D.

10.5 minutes l

QUESTION:

28 i

t i

The reactor has been operating at 75 percent power for several weeks. A partial steam line break occurs and 3 percent total steam flow is escaping, r

Assuming no operator or avtomatic actions, stable reactor power will and stable reactor coolant temperature will A.

increase; iacrease B.

not change; increase t

.C.

increase; decrease D.

not change; decrease t

QUESTION:

29 A pressure gauge on a condenser. reads 27 inches of Mercury (Hg) vacuum. What is the absolute pressure corresponding to this vacuua?

(Assume an atmospheric pressure of 15 psia.)

A.

1.0 psia B.

1.5 psia C.

3.0 psia D.

15.0 psia PWR FOM B 10

-.nr

F 1

o-FWR FOM 3 I

l QUESTION:

30 Excessive heet removal iron the LP turbine exhaust steam in the main condenser vill result in:

A.

thermal shock.

B.

loss of condenser vacuum.

C.

condensate depression.

I r

.D.

fluid compression.

b L

i L

. QUESTION:

31 i

The saturation pressure for water at 328 degrees T is*

I A.

85 psig.

4 B.

100 psig.

C.

115 psig.

D.

130 psig.

QUESTION:

32 The reactor coolant system is being maintained at 1000 psia. A pressurizer safety / relief valve is slowly discharging to a collection tank, which is e

maintained at 5 psig. What is.the ENTHALPY of the fluid entering the tank?

A.

1,156 BTU /lba i

B.

1,178 BTU /lba l

C.

1.193 BTU /lba 1

D.

1,210 BTU /lba FWR FO M !s 11 4

a.

P PWR FORM B QUESTION:

33 Which of the following will cause overall plant efficiency to INCRfASE7 A.

Increasing total steam generator blowdown from 30 gpm to 40 gpm.

B.

Changing steam quality from 99.7 percent to 99.9 percent.

C.

Bypassing a feedwater heater during normal plant operations.

D.

Increasing condenser pressure from 1 psia to 2 psia.

QUESTION:

34 Which of the following methods would INCREASE the possibility and/or severity of water hammer?

A.

Venting fluid systems prior to starting a pump.

B.

Starting a pump with the discharge valve fully open, i

C.

Starting a pump with the discharge valve fully closed.

D.

Opening and closing system valves slowly.

QUESTION:

35 A centrifugal pump is being returned to service after maintenance.

The operator FAILS to vent the pump properly. When the pump is started the operator should see capacity and discharge head.

A.

lower; lower B.

lower; higher C.

higher; lower D.

higher; higher PWR FORM B 12

I i

o 4

i i

)

3 4

a i

PWR FORM 3 QUESTION:

36 The MM91 effect of operating centrifugal pumps in PARALLEL is:

A.

increased system pressure.

B.

increased system f)-

• rate.

C.

decreased system pressure.

D.

decreased system flow rate.

L 1

QUESTION:

37 Flow instruments used to measure the mass flow rate of saturated steam are density compensated because, for a steam pressure increase at a constant volumetric flow rate, steam density will and the actual mass flow rate will

.-t A.

decrease; increase i

B.

increase; decrease C.

increase; increase l

D.

decrease; decrease f

QUESTION:

38 During operation of a positive displacement phap, the MOST DESIRABLE method of i

decreasing system flow rate is to:

A.

throttle the pump discharge valve.

B.

throttle the pump suction valve.

[

C..

decrease the pump NPSH.

D.

decrease the pump speed.

PWR FORM 3 13 M

---

e

l, 'y '

D-a s

4 i

PWR FORM 3 t

QUESTION;.39 l

The transfer of heat from the reactor fuel to the fuel cladding during normal operations is an example of heat transfer.

i A.

conduction r

B.

convection C.

radiant D.

two phase QUESTION: 40 As fluid flow rate INCREASES through the tubes of a shell.and tube heat exchanger, the laminar film thickness

, which causes hect transfer rate to A,

increases; increase B.

increases; decrease s

C.

decreases; increase D.

decreases; decrease l

QUESTION: 41 L

The reactor coolant enters the core at 545 degrees F and leaves at 595 degrees F.

If the reactor coolant flow rate is 6.6 x 107 lba/hr and the specific heat capacity of the coolant is 1.3 BTU /lba. degree F, what is the core thermal power?

(1 watt - 3.4127 BTU /hr)

A.

967 MWt L

B.

1,160 MWt l-c.

1,257 MWt y

D.

1,508 MWt PRR FORM 3 14 2

h

..v,.

gx 4

PWR PORN B o

QUESTION: 42 Which characteristic will ENHANCE steam bubble formation as heat is transferred to a liquid adjacent to a-heating ' surface.

A.

Surface scratches or cavities in the heating surface B.

Material dissolved in the bulk of the liquid C.

The absence of dissolved gases in the liquid D.

A tightly adherent and smooth oxide layer on the heating surface QUESTION: 43 Which of the following describes departure from nucleate boiling?

A.

Steam bubbles begin to blanket the fuel rod, causing a rapid increase in the delta T between the' fuel rod and the coolant.

B.

Steam bubbles completely blanket the fuel rod, causing an increase in the heat flux from the fuel rod.

C.

Steam bubbles begin to blanket the fuel rod, causing a rapid decrease in the delta-T between the fuel rod and the coolant.

D.

Steam bubbles begin to form on the surface of the fuel rod, causing an increase in the heat flux-from the fuel rod.

QUESTION: 44 Which parameter change will reduce the departure from nucleate boili.ns ratio (DNBR)?

A.

Decrease reactor power.

B.

Increase pressurizer pressure.

-C.

Increase reactor coolant flow.

D.

Increase reactor coolant temperature.

PWR FORM B 15 i

d PWR FORM B QUESTION:

s. 5

.In the defit.ition of the departure from nucleate boiling ratio (DNBR), the term ACTUAL HEAT FLUX refers to the:

A.

heat transfer rate per unit area at any point along the fuel rod.

B.

heat transfer rate along the entire fuel rod.

C.

-average heat transfer rate per unit area across the core.

D.

total heat transferred along the fuel rod.

QUESTION: 46 The difference between the actual temperature and the saturation temperature of a liquid-is the:

A.

critical heat flux.

B.

subcooling margin.

C.

departure from nucleate boiling.

D.

saturation margin.

QUESTION: 47 Assuming that reactor power remains constant at 30 percent, if reactor coolant-flow decreases by 10 percent, FUEL temperature will:

A.

increase, then. stabilize at a higher value.

B.

decrease, then stabilize at a lower value.

C.

increase, then return to the original steady state value.

.D.

decrease, then return to the original steady state value.

PWR FORM B 16

+-

~ ^

v PWR FORM B QUESTION: 48 Which of the following must exist for' natural circulation flow to occur?

A.

The heat source must be located hi her than the heat sink.

6 B.

The heat source must be larger than the heat sink.

1 C.

The heat sink must be located higher than the heat source.

D.

The heat sink must be larger than the heat source.

1 QUESTION: 49 Natural circulation flow rate will be GREATER when:

A.

all reactor coolant pumps run for an hour after a reactor trip, and then; stop.

B.

two reactor coolant pumps run for an hour after a reactor trip, and then stop.

i C.

one reactor coolant pump runs for an hour after a reactor trip, and then stops.

D.

reactor coolant pumps stop at the same time the reactor trips.

QUESTION:

50

=l

-1 If the reactor is operated within core thermal limits, then:

)

A.

plant' thermal efficiency is optimized.

B.

fuel cladding integrity is ensured.

-i 0.

pressurized thermal shock will be prevented.

1 D.

reactor vessel thermal stresses will be minimized.

-l i

PWR FORM B 17 1

+

^

4.

4

,, 4 FWR FORM B l

QUESTION:

51

. During full power operation, critical heat flux (CHF) is MOST LIKELY to occur in a:

A.

centrally located fuel assembly with flow restrictions.

B.

centrally located fuel assembly without flow restrictions.

C.

peripherally located fuel assembly with flow restrictions.

D.

peripherally located fuel assembly without flow restrictions.

QUESTION:

52 Brittle fracture is the fragmentation of metal resulting from the application of stress at relatively temperatures.

A.

compressive; high B.

compressive; low C.

tensile; high D.

tensile; low QUESTION:

53 Reactor cocidown rate limitations are procedurally established to prevent:

A.

excessive reactivity additions.

B.

brittle fracture of the reactor vessel.

C.

- impurities from precipitating out of solution in the reactor vessel.

D.

excessive reactor coolant system subcooling.

PWR FORM B 18 6

. m.

.a-

bi.

I)

.4<

.PWR FORM B QUESTION: :54 Prolonged exposure of the reactor vessel to a fast neutron flux will cause the reference temperature for nil ductility transition (RTNDT) to:

A.

increase due to the creation of flaws.

B.

decrease due to the creation of flaws.

C.

increase due to changes in the material properties of the vessel wall.

D.

decrease due to changes in the material properties of the vessel wall.

QUESTION:

55 Presc9:ized thermal shock is a condition that can occur following a of the reactor coolant system (RCS) if RCS pressure is rapidly A.

cooldown; decreased B.

cooldown; increased C.

heatup; decreased D.

heatup; increased QUESTION:

56

-A heatup stress applied to the reactor vessel is:

A.

compressive at the inner wall, tensile at the outer wall.

B.

tensile at the inner wall, compressive at the outer wall.

C.

tensile across the entire wall.

D.

compressive across the entire wall.

PWR FORM B 19 F

G t

Y' PWR FORM B

~

QUESTION: 57

. operators should use BOTH hands on valve handwheels when positioning manual valves _to:

A.

over.ome the resistance of installed locking devices.

B.

control the rate of valve motion to prevent water hammer.

C.

ensure system pressure, temperature, and flow are controlled during valve motion.

D.

control lateral force to prevent bending the valve stem, i

l QUESTION:

58 The DIFFERENCE between the pressure at which a safety / relief valve begins to open and the pressure at which it is fully open is called:

l A.

accumulation.

B.

blowdown.

C.

setpoint tolerance.

D.

setpoint' deviation.

PWR FORM B 70 i

m

H I ~

+ ~'

i f

PWA-FORM B

-QUESTION:

59' Refer to the figure _below for the following' question.

Following a loss of controlling air pressure, the spring-loaded valve will fail:

I I

A.

open'.

B.

as is, i

C.

closed, i

D.'

to mid position.

R in r

13p Qc

-I S

i i

l U

l r

bd

.%I

-l J

t:

.=-.

s PWR FORM B 21

-) ;

5 1

e, PWR FORN B-V,

. QUESTION: '60 w:

The ranual declutch lever of a motor operated valve the motor and the handwheel.

A.

disengages; engages B.

deenergizes; engages

~ C.

engates; disengages D.

reenergizes; disengages QUESTION: '61 To verify the position of a FULLY-0 PEN manual valve, the operator should:

i A.

fully close the valve, then reopen it to the fully open position.

B.

open the~ valve until it touches the backseat,.then close it to the desired position.

C.

operate the valve in the open direction until the valve is backseated one half turn.

D.

1 operate the valve in the' closed direction, then reopen the valve to its previous open position.

QUESTION-I62 The most. probable cause for. fluctuating indication from a-liquid flow rete differential pressure detector'is:

L.

A.

gas or steam being trapped in the liquid.

B.

the valve on the equalizing line being open.

C.

the valve on the low pressure sensing line being closed.

the valve >on the high pressure sensing line being_ closed.

D.

F f

+

^

PWR FORM B 22 4

..b.

4 r

k

7 r

c PWR PORN B

. QUESTION: a63 '

i e

A differential pressure (D/P) cell 'is= being used to measure flow rate in a cooling water system.

Flow rate'is indicating-75 percent of scale.

If the D/P cell diaphram' ruptures, INDICATED flow rate will:

A..

go_to O percent.

B.-

Lgo to 100 percent (full scale).

C.

remain the same, i

D.

nove slowly'to 50 percent (mid scale).

l s

. QUESTION:. 64 A differential pressure _ level transmitter, with its reference leg vented to atmosphere, was calibrated for_use on an open tank'at 100 degrees F.

If' mass in the tank remains constant and the temperature is raised to 200 degrees F,

.the INDICATED level will:

A.

remain the same although actual level increases.

B,--

increase but remain less than actual level.

-C.

decrease but remain greater than actual level.

D.

increase in direct proportion to the temperature rise.

QUESTION:

65 s

Which one of the following failures of a wet reference leg differential pressure (D/P)-level transmitter will cause its level indicator to indicate the-LOVEST level?

^

A.

,The D/P cell diaphragm ruptures.

B.

The reference leg ruptures.

C.

The variable leg ruptures.

D.

The equalizing line ruptures, PWR FORM B 23

+

\\

g g

/;

}

t

-t a

s c

PWR PORN B l

QUESTION:

66z

- A simple bellows pressure detector is located in the reactor containment with

- its low pressure side vented"to the containment.

If a main steam break raises'

- containment pressure by 40 psig, the associated pressure indication

- (disregarding any. temperature effect on the bellows) will:

D A..-

increase by the square root of 40 psig.

B.-

increase by 40 psig.

C.

-decrease by 40'psig.

D.

stay constant.

l QUESTION:- 67 i

. A bourdon tube pressure detector.that is indicating 50 percent of scale'is g

, suddenly _ exposed to a pressure transient that-extends the detector 75 percent i

l beyond its upper range value. Actual pressure returns to its original value.

Assuming the dstector remains intact, the affected pressure indication will i

initially go off-scale high, and then:

- A.

become unpredictable until the instrument is calibrated.

r 1

B.

return to a pressure less than original pressure, o

C.

return to original pressure.

l i:

D.

return-to a pressure greater than original pressure.

QUESTION:

68 A resistance temperature detector (RTD)' operates on the principle that a change in metal resistance is

_ proportional to the change in L

A.

'directly; metal temperature B.'

directly; metal temperature squared e-C.

. inversely; metal temperature

' D.

inversely; metal temperature squared PWR PORM B 24

'. / i A

i E.

!D R

p 1o J a

1

[i.;

PWR F03C1 3 -

-QUESTION:,

.An open' circuit in a thermocouple causes the affected temperature' indication to! fail:-

i A '.

high..

t B.

low, r

LC.

to reference junction temperature.

4 D.

as is, f

QUESTION:

.70.

Most of'the electrons collected in a fission chamber are released as a result of ionizations. caused DIRECTLY by:

A..

fission fragments.

B.

fission gammas.

C.

fission betas.

e.

t.

D.

fissionable materials.

I QUESTION:- 71 Which ofthe following describes the reason for the HIGH SENSITIVITY of a Ceiger Mueller tube radiation detector 7 i

A.

. Changes in applied detector voltage have little effect on detector l?

output.

l-t B.

Geiger Mueller tubes are longer than other radiation detector types.

' C.

Any incident radiation event causing priom;y ionization results' in ionization of the entire detector.

,a

'D.

Ceiger Mueller tubes are capable of operating at relatively high p

detector. voltages,' allowing detection of low ~ energy radiation.

PWR FORM B 25 v

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~

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^ ^ - ^

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FWR FORM B I[

- QUESTION:

72 Which of_the fo~11owing statements describes the use of a self-reading pocket dosimeter (SRPD)?

A.

SRPDs hold their charge indefinitely when removed from a radiation field.

B.

SRPD readings must be considered inaccurate'when they are dropped.

C.

SRPDs can be'used to record beta and gamma radiation.

D.

The output of am SRPD is a dose rate in ar/hr.

- QUESTION:

73 The range of values around the setpoint of a measured variable where NO ACTION occurs in an automatic flow controller is called:

A.

_ deviation.

- B.

error.

C.

deadband.

~ D.

bias.

QUESTION:

74 "The governor of an' emergency diesel generator (D/G) DIRECTLY senses D/G' and adjusts D/G flow to maintain a relatively constant D/G frequency.

A.

load, air speed, fuel C

load, fuel-D.

speed, air

-PWR FORM B 26 t

4

3

4 T-I 1

7 s

+

PWR FORM B QUESTION:

-75.

Thel output pressureoof-a pneumatic controller is typically insufficient to drive'a--valve' actuator accurately. To overcome this problem, a control loop

.would.NORMALLY employ a:

. A.

valve actuating lead / lag unit.

l 1

B.

' pressure _ regulator.

C.

valve positioner.

D.-

' filter drive unit.

QUESTION:

76 When shifting-from automatic to manual valve control, the manual and automatic

' controller output. signals should be MATCHED to:

A.

~ prevent a sudden valve repositioning upon the transfer.

B.

satisfy the control transfer interlocks.

C.

nove the valve:to the new post:lon prior to the transfer.

D..

prevent-the' controller ~from locking'up due to a large deviation.

i-

-QUESTION: ;77-Which of=the following changes in pump operating parameters.will DIRECTLY. lead g..'

to pump cavitation in a centrifugal pump that is' operating-in a closed-loop

(~

system 7-

[

A.

- Steadily _ increasing pump' inlet temperature, i-B.'

Steadily' decreasing pump flow rate 1(by reducing pump speed).

C.:

Steadily increasing pump suction pressure, b-p D.

Steadily increasing pump discharge pressure.

PWR FORM B 27 0

a

i l

PWR FORM B QUESTION:

78-The presence of air in a pump casing may result in __

when the pump is started.

A.

.vortexing.

B.

pump runout

$3 C.

= head loss 9 :; > : i.

D.

gas binding

.lW h

QUESTION:

79 Failure to provide adequate minimum flow for a centrifugal pump can DIRICTLY result in:

A.

discharge piping overpressurization.

B.

suction piping overpressurization.

C.

. excessive _ pump leakoff.

D.

pump overheating.

QUESTION:

80-

A constant-speed centrifugal pump motor draws the LE&EI current when the pump.

is:

- A.

at runout conditions.

B.

at operating conditions.

C.

accelerating to normal speed during start.

(

D.

at shutoff head, f

PWR FORM B 28 i

o 4

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e jiy c

PWR FORN 3-i-

'/

QUESTION;. 81 Many larger centrifugal pumps are started with their discharge valves CLOSED-

in order to prevent:

r-

'A.

loss of recirculation (miniflow).

B.

overloading the pump motor.

1 C.

cavitation in the pump.

,D.

lifting _the-discharge relief valve.

t c

' QUESTION:

82 r=

An increase in positive displacement pump speed.will cause the available'not fpositive suction head for.the pump to:

A.

. decrease due to the increase in fluid flow.

B.

decrease due to the-increase in fluid discharge pressure.

C.

iincrease due to the. increase in fluid df.s,.harge pressure.

D, increase due to the increase in fluid flow, it.

, 83 I.

. QUESTION:

The'following:are indications of a locked reactor-(primary) coolant pump rotor EXCEPT:

i 1

l A.-

. reactor (primary) coolant system' pressure transient.

+

t-B.

. peak reactor (primary) coolant pump amps with possible breaker trip.

1:F decreased flow rate in unaffseted loop (s).

D.

low reactor (primary) coolant system flow trip.

f

.I 1,

PWR FORM B 29 4

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p 4

H F

a PWR-FORM B QUESTION:' 84

A centrifugal pump has a flow rate of 3,000 gpm and a current requirement.of-200 amps.' If the speed is reduced such that the flow rate is 2,000 gpa, what Tis the final CURRENT requirement at the new lower speed? (Assume a constant motor voltage.)

y A.

59 amps 3.

l89 amps o

C.

133 amps lp D..

150 amps

.a.

QUESTION:.85 Excessive AC motor current can be caused DIRECTLY by operating the motor:

A.

completely unloaded.

B.

at full load.

C.

<with open circuited windings.

D.

with short-circuited windings.

),

QUESTION:

86/

Which of the following describes the motor current indications that would be pg.

observed-during the start of.a large AC motor at EELL load?

JA.

Amps slowly increase to the full

• load value.

B.

Amps increase immediately to the full load value.

l.

C.

uAmps ine. tease'immediately to approximately twice the full-load value andi then decrease to the normal ~ full-load value.

l D.-

Amps' increase immediately to more than three times the full-load'value L

- and then decrease to the normal full-load value.

4-

.k i

PWR FORM B 30 e

n a

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-t

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=

PWR FORM B QUESTION: 87 Which of the following is the reason for LIMITING the number of motor starts in a given time period?

A.

Minimizes pitting of starter contacts B.

Prevents excessive torsional stresses on motor shaft C.

Prevents overheating of motor windings D.

Minimizes axial stresses on motor bearings

[ 0- '

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PWR PORM B 31 l

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r QUESTION:

88

. Refer to the figure below for the following question.- All asives are -

j identical and.are initially 50. percent open.

t

' To LOVER the. temperature at point 7, the operator should adjust valve

'in the 911H direction.

A.

A-4 B.

B C.

C' D..-

-- D 1

M N

> fo HW f

th Gef4 it A

k t

esev r

up O

i db 8WTiie L,

s-sov I.

-,w il l,

t i

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5 li PWR FORM M 32 9

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. QUESTION: -89 The.MLID1' thermodynamic-concern resulting from RAPIDLY cooling a pressure vessel is:

A.

' loss.of subcooling margin.

B.

thermal shock..

.C.

loss of shutdown margin.

. D.1 condensation.

t f

7 i

f-l 1

r L.--

1 r'

j t

s PWR FORM B 33 i

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1 PWR FORN D QUESTION:- 90 t

' Refer to the figure below for the following question.

Which of'the' following effects would occur as a result of a. tube FAILURE in the heat exchanger?

A.

High pressure fluid inventory increases.

B.

Flow in the low pressure system reverses.

C.

Temperature in the low pressure system increases.

D.

Level in the tank increases.

HP FWlb e

1ANK IF 4

easonas u

LP Ftulo O

FWR FORM B 34 w

e.

a PWR FORM B g

iQUESTION:

91'

.y.

When a mixed bed demineralizer resin is exhausted, the resin should be replaced or regenerated because:

~

the resin will physically b'ond together, thereby causing a flow A.

blockage.

B, ions previously removed by the resin will be released to solution.

C.

the resin will fracture and possibly escape through the retention screens.

D.

particles previously filtered out of solution will be released.

i l

l 1-PWR FORM B 35

s 1

1 4

y t, y,

MR FORM B-i i

_ QUESTION:

92~

-1 A domineralizer that has been exposed to should be bypassed 1

because-the_ resin beads may decompose.

~

'A.

high temperature B.

low flow C.

- low temperature D._

high flow

-tl QUESTION:

93

- A domineralizer is BORON. SATURATED when:

!q A.

the domineralizer discharges large amounts of boron into the reactor K

coolant.

B.

the domineralizer absorbs greater than 200 ppm boron per hour.

I C.

the domineralizer boron removal rate decreases rapidly.

l,

D.

outlet, temperature of the Gemineralizer begins to increase rapidly.

L QUESTION:

94 During maintenance activities, breakers in the open position are REGER and RACKED OUT to:

\\

- A.

deenergize components and associated control and indication circuits.

L B.-

provide administrative control where safety is not of prise importance.

1 C.

maintain remote indication of breaker position (where available) to-

- ensure personnel safety.

D.

permit immediate availability of the breaker-if required for emergency.

use, l'

E NR FORM B 36 i

2.

m b

' Q

• L PWR FORM 3 QUESTION:

95

-While locally investigating the condition of a large circuit breaker, the operator observes the following indications:

OPEN/ CLOSED mechanical flag indication indicates open.

OPEN/ CLOSED indicating lights. indicate open.

Overcurrent trip flags are actuated on all phases.

Load side volet;rft indicates zero volts.

Load side emmeter indicates zero amperes.

Based on these indications, the operator should report that the circuit breaker is open, racked

, with condition indicated.

i l

A.

in, overload l

B.

in,-no overload-C.

out, overload D.

out, no overload i

l QUESTION: ~96 L

Which of the following would cause a loss of ability to remotely trip a L

circuit breaker AND a loss of position indication?

L A.

. Loss of breaker control power B.

Failure of. breaker' control awitch C.

Mechanical binding of breaker D.

Breaker in " test" position i'

1 I

PWR FORM B 37 a

+

t l'

!T l-5

W; g-o.

PWR FORN B

. QUESTION:

97-j

. Closing the output breaker of the main generator with the frequency of the 1

generator HIGHER than grid frequency will result in the generator:

A.

behaving as a real load to the grid.

'i B.

behaving as a reactive load to the grid.

C.

picking up a portion of the grid real load (MWe).

D.

picking up a portion of the grid reactive load (MVAR).

[

QUESTION:- 98 Which of the following generator conditions is MOST LIKELY to cause generator damage because of high current?

A.

Tripping the output breaker under full-load conditions B.

Tripping the generator prime mover under full-load conditions C.

Closing the output breaker on a bus that has an opsn circuit fault D.

Closing the output breaker on a bus that has m'short-circuit fault QUESTION:

99 The function of-high voltage electrical disconnects is to:

A.

isolate equipment electrically daring no load conditions.

B.

isolate equipment electrically during overload conditions.

C.

protect circuits during overcurrent conditions.

D.

protect circuits during undervoltage conditions.

PWR FORM B 38

.g(

ot' PWR PORM B QUESTION:

100

- The following indications are observed for a breaker in the control room.

- - Red (energized) (closed)-indicating light "off" Green (de-energized)-(open) indicating light "off" Load amps _ indicate normal load current Assuming one of the indicating lights is burnt out, what is the condition of the breaker?

A.

Open and racked in B.

' Shut and racked in C.

Open and racked to " test" position D.

Shut and racked to " test" L

i=

l l

s l

^

PWR PORM B 39 9

.____,m

- - - - - " " ^ - " - - ~ ~ ~ ~ ^ - -