ML20011F679

Forwards Exam Results,Including Answer Keys,Grading Results for Facility & Individual Answer Sheets for Each Examinee as Result of Written Operating Licensing Exams Administered on 900207.Results Should Be Forwarded to Examinees

ML20011F679
Person / Time
Site:	Wolf Creek, Arkansas Nuclear, Waterford, Fort Calhoun, 05000000
Issue date:	02/26/1990
From:	Callan L NRC OFFICE OF INSPECTION & ENFORCEMENT (IE REGION IV)
To:	Force E, Gasper J, Toth C, Zell J ARKANSAS POWER & LIGHT CO., LOUISIANA POWER & LIGHT CO., OMAHA PUBLIC POWER DISTRICT, WOLF CREEK NUCLEAR OPERATING CORP.
References
NUDOCS 9003070139
Download: ML20011F679 (90)

Text

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1 February 26, 1990 j

Docket No. 50-313/368 Arkansas Power and Light Arkansas Nuclear Facility i

ATTN:

E. A. Force Training' Manager t

Route 3. Box 137G Russellville, AR 72801 i;

Gentlemen:

On February 7,1990, the NRC. administered the Generic Fundamentals Examination o

Section (GFES)'of1the written operator licensing examination to employees of 1

your facility.

Enclosed with this letter are copies of both forms of the examination including answer keys, the grading results for your facility, and j

copies of the individual answer sheets for each of the examinees taking the i

examination from your facility. Please forward the results to the examinees along with the copies of their answer sheets. A "P" in the column labeled "RESULTS" indicates a passing grade for this examination; the passing grade for the GFES is 80%.

^

In accordance with 10 CFR 2.790 of the Comission's Regulations, a copy of '

this letter'and enclosures I and 2 will be placed in the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR). The results for sndividual examinees are exempt from disclosure; therefore, enclosures 3 and 4 will not be placed in the PDR.

Should you have any questions-concerning this examination, please contact John Pellet, Chief, Operator Licensing Section, at (817) 860-8159.

I Sincerely, ORIGINAL SIGNED BY:

U. CALLAN L. J. Callan, Director Division of Reactor Safety

Enclosures:

1.

Examination Form 'A" w/ answers and references 2.

Examination Form "B" w/ answers and references 3.

Examination Results Sumary

~

for AN0' 4.

Copies of candidates' individual answer sheets Distribution:

DRS:0LS:

DRS:0LS:SC)

DRS: ivDir Central Files EMHime JLPellet e LJCallan NRC,RDR;w/encis 1&2m c

2/26/9 2/11 /90 2M/90 PVDoyle, NRR DJLange, NRR 9003070139 900226

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PDR ADOCK 05000285 V-PDC.

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l February 26, 1990

' Docket No. 50-285:

l l

Omaha Public Power District t

Fort Calhoun Station ATTN:

J. K. Gasper, Manager. -

l Training:

P; O. Box 399' Fort Calhoun, NE 68023

.{

Gentlemen:

l

On' February 7, 1990, the NRC administered the Generic Fundamentals Examination Section (GFES) of the written operator licensing examination to employees of j

your facility. Enclosed with this letter are copies of both forms of the examination-including answer keys, the grading results for your. facility, and-copies of the individual answer sheets for each of the examinees taking the examination from your f acility. Please forward the results to the examinees along with the copies of their answer sheets. A "P" in the column labeled "RESULTS" indicates a passing grade for this examination; the passing grade for-i the GFES is 80%.

In accordance with 10 CFR 2.790 of the Commission's Regulations, a copy of

.~

this letter and enclosures 1 and 2 will be placed in the NRC's Public Document-l Room.(PDR).. - The results for individual examinees are exempt from disclosure-therefore, enclosures 3 and 4 will not be placed in the PDR.

Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact

}

John Pellet, Chief, Operator Licensing Section, at (817) 860-8159.

Sincerely, ORIGINAL SIGNED BY:

U. CALLAN L. J. Callan, Director Division of Reactor Safety

Enclosures:

l'.

Examination Form "A" w/ answers and references 2.

Examination Form "B" w/ answers and references 3.

Examination Results Summary for FC 4.

Copies of candidates' individual answer sheets Distribution:-

ORS:0LS:L DRS:0LS:SC DRS:

r Central Files 2/26/90 JLPelletg LJCallan rNRCsPDR2w/encisi182#

EMHimes 2/11/90 2h.1/90 PVDoyle, NRR DJLange, NRR GFES file

g February 26, 1990 Docket No. 50/82 1

Louisiana Power and Light I

Waterford-3 Generating Station ATTH:

C. J. Toth, Training 1

-Manager-

')

P. O. Box B l

Killona, LA 70066 Gentlemen:

1990, the NRC administered the Generic Fundamentals Examination l

On February 7} of the written operator licensing examination to employees of Section (GFES your facility. Enclosed with this letter are copies of both forms of the examination including answer keys, the grading results for your facility, and copies of the individual answer sheets for each of the examinees taking the examination from your facility. Please forward the results to the examinees along with the copies of their answer sheets. A "P" in the column labeled "RESULTS" indicates a passing grade for this examination; the passing grade for.

l

- the GFES is 80%.

In accordance with 10 CFR 2.790 of the Commission's Regulations, a copy of this letter and enclosures 1 and 2 will be placed in the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR). The results for individual examinees are exempt from disclosure; a

therefore, enclosures 3 and 4 will not be placed in the PDR.

Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact John Pellet,' Chief,. 0perator Licensing Section, at (817) 860-8159.

Sincerely, ORIGINAL SIGNED BY:

LJ. CALLAN l

t L. J. Callan, Director Division of Reactor Safety

Enclosures:

1.

Examination Form "A" w/ answers and references

2. : Examination Form "B" w/ answers and references 3.

Exemination-Results Summary for WF-3 4.

Copies of candidates' individual answer sheets Distribution DRS:0LS:L DRS:0LS:SC ;

DRS:

ir Central Files EMHimes JLPellet#T LJCallan NRC PDR'w/encis>1&2w 2/26/90, 2/11/90 2f?/)/90 PVDoyle, NRR DJLange, NRR GFES file 3

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j February 26, 1990 i

Decket No. 50-482 Wolf Creek Nuclear 0perating f

Corporation i

Wolf Creek Generating Station

' ATTN:

J. A. Zell, Manager Nuclear' Training P. O. Box 411 1

Burlington,.KS 66839

'[

' Gentlemen:

i On February 7,1990, the NRC administered the Generic Fundamentals Examination Section (GFES) of the written operator licensing examination to employees of your facility. Enclosed with this letter are copies of both forms of the j

examination-including answer keys, the grading results for your facility, and i

copies of the individual answer sheets for each of the examinees taking the examination from your facility. Please forward the results to the examinees along'with the copies of their answer sheets. A "P" in the column labeled "RESULTS" indicates a passing grade for this examination; the passing grade for the GFES is~80%.

In accordance with 10 CFR 2.790 of the Comission's Regulations, a copy of this letter and enclosures 1 and 2 will be placed in the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR). The' results for individual examinees are exempt from disclosure; therefore, enclosures 3 and 4 will not be placed in the PDR.

Should.you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact John Pellet, Chief, Operator Licensing Section, at (817) 860-8159.

+

Sincerely, ORIGINAL SIGNED BY:

i L

LL cal. TAN L. J. Callan, Director Division of Reactor Safety

Enclosures:

i L

1.

Examination Form "A" w/ answers

.and references l-

. Examination Form "B" w/ answers 2.

L and references 3.

Examination Results Sumary for WC 4

Copies of candidates' individual answer sheets C

Distribution DRS:0LS:L DRS:0LS:SC DRS:&

r Central Files EMHimes JLPellet LJCa]'n

+NRC PDRrw/encis 1&2" 2/26/90 2/t.1/90 2/k//90 PVDoyle, NRR DJLange, NRR GFES file

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FEBRUARY 1990 PWR GFE - FORM A ANSWER KEY L

1.

D 26.

A 51.

D.

76.

A i

2.

A 27.

C 52.

C 77.

B 3.

~A 28.

A 53.

D 78.

B 4.

A 29.

D 54.

A 79.

A 5.

D 30.

D 55.

B 80.

B 6.

A 31.

C 56.

C 81.

C 7.

A 32.

D 57.

A 82.

D j

8.

A 33.

B 58.

C 83.

A l

9.

C 34.

D 59.

C 84.

C 10.

C 35.

B 60.

A 85.

C j

11.

D 36.

A 61.

A 86.

A 12.

A 37.

C 62.

A 87.

A

{

13.

B 38.

A 63.

B 88.

D 14.

'A 39.

A 64.

C 89.

A l

15.

C 40.

A 65.

A 90.

B 16.

B 41.

C 66.

A 91.

A 17. - C 42.

D 67.

D 92.

C 18.

B 43.

A 68.

B 93.

D i

19.

.C 44.

B 69.

A 94.

B 20.

A-45.

A 70.

A 95.

A 21.

A 46.

A 71.

B 96.

D 22.

D 47.

A 72.

C 97.

B 23.

D 40.

C 73.

B 98.

C 24.

D 49.

A 74.

C 99.

B 1

25.

B 50.

D 75.

A 100.

A e

i-UNITED STATES NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION PRESSURIZED WATER REACTOR GENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION FEBRUARY 1990 - FORM A i

i Please Print:

Name:

Facility:

ID Number:

Start Time:

Stop Time:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE Use the answer sheet provided.

Each question has equal point value. A score of at least 80% is required to pass this portion of the written licensing examination. All examination papers will be collected 2.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> after the examination starts.

SECTION QUESTIONS.

t OF TOTAL SCORE COMPONENTS 1 - 44 REACTOR TilEORY 45 - 72 TilERM0 DYNAMICS 73 100 TOTALS 100 l

All work done on this examination is my own.

I have neither given nor.

received aid.

f Candidate's Signature

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PWR FORM A RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR THE CENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION During the' administration of,this examination the following rules apply:

(1)

Print your name in the blank provided on the cover sheet of the examination.

(2)

Fill in the name of your facility.

(3)

Fill in the ID Number you were given at registration.

(a)

Fill in your start and stop times at the appropriate time.

(5)

Three handouts are provided for your use during the examination, an Equations and Conversions sheet, instructions for filling out the answer sheet, and Steam Table booklets.

(6)

Use only the answer sheet provided.

Credit will only be given for answers properly marked on this sheet.

Follow the instructions for filling out the answer sheet.

(7)

Scrap paper will be provided for calculations.

(8)

Any questions about an item on the examination should be directed to the examiner only.

(9)

Cheating on the examination will result in the automatic forfeiture of this examination.

Cheating could also result in severe penalties.

(10) Restroom trips are limited. Only ONE examinee may leave the room at a time.

In order-to avoid the appearance or possibility of cheating, avoid all, contact with anyone outside of the examination room.

(11) After you have completed the examination, sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have not l

received or been given any assistance in completing the examination.

1 (12) Turn in your examination materials, answer sheet on top, followed by the exam booklet, then examination aids - steam table booklets, handouts and scrap paper used during the examination.

l (13) After turning in your. examination materials, leave the examination area, L

as defined by the examiner.

If after leaving you are found in the examination area while the examination is in progress, your examination l

may be forfeited.

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PWR FORM &

QUESTION:

1 Operators should use BOTH hands on valve handwheels when positioning manual valves to:

A, overcome the resistance of installed locking devices.

B.

control the rate of valve motion to prevent water hammer.

C.

ensure system pressure, temperature, and flow are controlled during valve motion.

D.

control lateral force to prevent bending the valve stem.

QUESTION:

2 The DIFFERENCE between the pressure at which a safety / relief valve begins to open and the pressure at which it is fully open is called:

A.

accumulation.

B.

blowdown.

C.

setpoint tolerance.

D.

setpoint deviation.

+

PWR FORM &

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PWR FORM A QUESTION:

3 r

Refer to the figure below for the following question.

Following a loss of controlling air pressure, the spring loaded valve will l

fail:

6 i

A.

open.

B.

as is.

C.

closed, i

D.

to mid position.

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F FWR FORN'A QUESTION: 4 The manual declutch lever of a motor operated valve the motor and the handwheel.

A.

disengagest engages.

B.

deenergizes; engages C.

engages; disengages D.

reenergizes; disengages QUESTION:

5 To verify the position of a FULLY-OPEN manual valve, the operator should:

A.

fully close the valve, then reopen it to the fully open position.

B.

open the valve until it touches the backseat, then close it to the desired position.

C.

operate the valve in the open direction until the valve is backseated one-half turn.

D, operate the valve in the closed direction, then reopen the valve to its previous open position.

QUESTION:

6 The most probable cause for fluctuating indication from a liquid flow rate differential pressure detector is:

A.

gas or steam being trapped in the liquid.

B.

the valve on the equalizing line being open.

C.

the valve on the low pressure sensing line being closed.

ll D.

-the valve on the high pressure sensing line being closed.

l l

L PWR FORM A 3

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FWR 4t$4 A QUESTION:

7 A differential pressure (D/P) cell is being used to neasure flow rate in a cooling water system.

Flow rate is indicating 75 percent of scale.

If the D/P cell diaphram ruptures, INDICATED flow rate will:

A.

go'to O percent.

B.

go to 100 percent (full scale).

C.

remain the same.

D.-

move slowly to 50 percent (mid scale).

QUESTION:

8 A differential pressure level transmitter, with its reference leg vented to atmosphere, was calibrated for use on an open tank at 100 degrees F.

If mass in the tank remains constant and the temperature is raised to 200 degrees F.

the INDICATED level will:

L L

A.

remain the same although actual level increases.

B.

increase but remain less than actual level.

l L

C.

decrease but remain greater than actual level.

1 D.

increase'in direct proportion to the temperature rise, I

QUESTION:

9 1

Which on6 of the following failures of a wet reference leg differential pressure (D/P) level transmitter will cause its level indicator to indicate t

the LOWEST level?

A.

The D/P cell diaphragm ruptures.

B.

The reference leg ruptures.

C.

The variable leg ruptures.

'D.

The equalizing line ruptures.

PWR FORM A 4

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L-p QUESTION:

10 A simple bellows pressure detector ~.s-located in the reactor containment with its low pressure side vented to the containment.

If a main steam break raises containment pressure by 40 psig, the associated pressure indication j<

(disregarding any temperature effe:t on the bellows) will:

A.

increase by the square root of 40 psig.

B.

increase by 40 psig.

C, decrease by 40 psig.

'D.

stay constant.'-

QUESTION:' 11 A bourdon-tube pressure detector that is indicating. 50 percent of scale is suddenly exposed to a pressure transient that extends the detector 75 percent beyond its upper range value. Actual pressure returns to its original value.

Assuming the detector remains intact, the affected pressure indication will initially go off senle high, and then:

A.-

become unpredictable until the instrument-is calibrated, i

B.

return to a pressure less than original pressure.

j C.

return to-original pressure, D.

return to a pressure greater than original pressure, i

_ QUESTION:

12 A resistance temperature detector (RTD) operates on the principle that a change in metal resistance is proportional to the change in A.

directly; metal temperature B.

directly; metal temperature squared C.

inversely; metal temperature e

D.

inversely; metal temperature squared PWR FORM A 5

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e PWR FORM A QUESTION:

13 An open circuit in a thermocouple causes the affected temperature indication to fail:

A.

high.

B.

low.

i C.

to reference junction temperature.

D.

as is.

E QUESTION:

14 Most of the electrons collected in a fission chamber are released as a result of ionizations caused DIRECTLY by:

A.

fission fragments.

B.

fission gammas.

C.

fission betas.

D.

fissionable materials.

l QUESTION:

15 Which o' the following describes the reason for the HIGH SENSITIVITY of a Ceiger-Mueller tube radiation detector?

A.

Changes in applied detector voltage have little effect on detector output.

~

B.

Geiger-Mueller tubes are longer than other radiation detector types.

C.

Any incident radiation event causing primary ionization results in 7

ionization of the entire detector.

D.

Geiger-Mueller tubes are capable of operating at relatively high detector voltages, allowing detection of low energy radiation.

s PWR FORM A 6

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QUESTION:

16 j

Which of the following statements describes the use of a'self reading pocket dosimeter (SRPD)?

t A.

SRPDs hold their charge indefinitely when removed from a radiation field.

B.

SRPD readings must be considered inaccurate when they are dropped.

C.

SRPDs can be used'to record beta and gamma radiation.

D.

The output of an SRPD is a dose rate in ar/hr.

?

QUESTION:

17

-The range of values around the setpoint of a measured variable where NO ACTION-occurs-in an automatic flow controller is called:

A.

deviation.

B.

error, e

C.

deadband.

D.

bias.

QUESTION:

18 The governor of an emergency diesel generator (D/G) DIRECTLY senses D/G and adjusts D/G flow to maintain a relatively constant j.

D/G frequency.

l-A.

load, air J

L B.

speed, fuel l

C.

load, fuel D.

speed, air l'

PWR FORM A 7

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PWR FORM'&-

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. QUESTION:

19 p

-The output pressure of a pneumatic controller is typically. insufficient to

~

' drive a valve actuator accurately.

To. overcome this problem.a control loop would NORMALLY employ a:

A.

valve. actuating lead / lag unit, u

B.

pressure regulator.

C.-

valve. positioner.

D..

filter drive unit.

QUESTION: '20

, When shiftingffrom automatic sto manual valve control, the manual and automatic controller output signals should be' MATCHED to:

A.

prevent a' sudden valve repositioning upen the' transfer.

B..

satisfy,the control transfer interlocks..

q C.

move the valve to the new position prior to the transfer.

D.

prevent-the controller from locking up due to a large deviation,

)

1

-QUESTION:-'21

-j

=Which of the following changes in pump operating parameters will DIRECTLY lead to pump cavitation in a centrifugal pump that is operating in a closed-loop-system?:

l Steadily increasing pump inlet temperature.

l A.

L' B.

Steadily decreasing pump flow rate (by reducing pump speed).

j C.

Steadily increasing pump suction pressure.

[

D.

Steadily increasing pump discharge pressure.

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QUESTION:

22-The presence of air in-a pump casing may result in when the pump is.

l-started.

p-A.

.vortexing B.

pump' runout C.

head loss g

D.

gas binding

-I

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7 QUESTION:

23 Failure to provide adequate minimum flow for a centrifugal pump can DIRECTLY result'in:

A.

discharge piping overpressurization.

</

B.

suction piping overpressurization.

C, excessive pump leakoff.

D.

pump overheating.

s l

QUESTION: '24 A constant-speed centrifugal pump motor draws the LEAST current when the pump is:

'l A.

at runout conditions.

B '.

at operating conditions.

C.

accelerating to normal speed during start.

D.

at shutoff head, j

l.

3 PWR FORM A 9

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[ QUESTION:- 25 c

Many;1arger centrifuga1' pumps are started with their discharge' valves-CLOSED klJ

inLorder to prevent:

e i

A.~

-loss of recirculation-(miniflow)..

p (U

~ B.

overloading the ynny> motor.

i o

C.

. cavitation in the pump.

.D..

lifting-the discharge relief valve.

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b QUESTION:- 26; An increase in positive displacement pump speed will cause the available net positive suction head for the pump to:

A.

. decrease due to the increase in fluid flow.

B.

decrease due to the increase in fluid discharge pressure.

C.

-increase due to the increase.in fluid discharge pressure.

-D.

increase due to the increase in fluid flow.

i./

QUESTION:

27 L

The following are indications.of a locked reactor (primary) coolant pump rotor l

EXCEPT:-

a A.

reactor (primary) coolant system pressure transient, B.

peak reactor (primary) coolant pump amps with possible l

breaker trip.

C.

decreased flow rate in unaffected loop (s).

D.

Iow reactor.(primary) coolant system flow trip.

4 PWR FORM A 10

-4

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3.:

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-QUESTION:

28 A1 centrifugal pump has_a flow' rate of 3,000 gpm and;a current requirement of

.200 amps.

If the_ speed is' reduced such that the flow rate is 2,000 gpm,-what isithe. final SHRREHI requirement at the new lower speed?. (Assume a constant motor voltage.)

' A;,

59 Lamps B.

-89 amps C.

133 amps D.-

150 amps

~QUESTI?N: 29 Excessive AC motor current can be caused DIRECTLY by operating the motor:

A.

comoletely unloaded.

'B.-

at full load..

C.-

with open circuited windings.

D.

with-short circuited windings.

QUESTION: _30 Which of the followingLdescribes the motor current indications that would be observed during the start of a large AC motor at FULL load?

-A-Amps slowly increase to the full-load value.

B.

Amps increase immediately to the full-load value.

C.

Amps increase immediately to approximately twice the full-load value and then decrease to the normal full-load value.

D.

Amps increase immediately to more than three times the full-load value and then decrease to the normal full-load value.

PWR FORM A 11 t.

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- QUESTION:

,31-'

+

Which;of tho'following is the reason for' LIMITING the number of motor starts in a given time period?

lt

- A.

Minimizes pitting of. starter contacts t

i e

B.

Prevents excessive torsiona11 stresses on motor shaft

. C.

Prevents overheating of motor windings D.

Minimizes'. axial. stresses on motor bearings s-

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.UESTION: -32 Q

. Refer to the' figure'below for the following question. All valves are identical-and are initially 50 percent open.-

To MBER-the temperature at point 7, the operator should adjust valve in;the 92EE direction.

A.

!A-B.

B

C.

C D.'

D C

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PWR-FORM'A i

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l QUESTION:

33 i

The IEZQR thermodynamic concern resulting from RAPIDLY cooling a pressure'

'r vessel is:

- A.

. loss'of subcooling margin.

B.

thermal shock.

- C.

loss of shutdown margin.

D.

condensation, t

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QUESTION:

34-I Refer-to the figure'below for the following question.

Which of the-following effects would occur as a^ result'of a tube FAILURE in the heat exchanger?.

l A.

High pressure fluid-inventory increases.

7 a

B ~.

Flow.in the21ow pressure system reverses.

,r C.

Temperature in the low pressure system. increases.

D.-

. Level-in the tank increases.

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PWR FORM A 15

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. PWRiFOR38 A-

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i T

f I

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9 i.

1 '

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1 r

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{

PWR FORM A

-QUESTION:

35 When a mixed-bed demineralizer resin is exhausted, the resin should be replaced or regenerated because:

A.

the resin will physically bond together, thereby causing a flow-blockage.

B.-

ions previously removed by the resin will be released to solution.

I C.

the resin will fracture and possibly escape through the retention j

screens.

l D.

particles previously filtered out of solution will be released.

QUESTION:

36 A domineralizer that has been exposed to should be bypassed because the resin beads may decompose.

A.

high' temperature B.

low flow C.

low temperature D.

high flow i

I QUESTION:' 37 A demineralizer is BORON SATURATED when:

1 L

A.

the demineralizer discharges large amounts of boron into the reactor coolant.

B.

the demineralizer absorbs greater than 200 ppm boron per hour.

l C.

the demineralizer boron removal rate decreases rapidly.

D, outlet temperature of the demineralizer begins to increase rapidly.

I:

PWR FORM A 17

A-m /* -

PWR FORM A QUESTION:

38' Durittg' maintenance activities', breakers in the open position are TAGGED and RACKED OUT to:

-i A.

deenergize components and associated control and indication circuits.

B.

provide administrative control where safety is not of prime importance.

'l C.

maintain remote indication of breaker position (where available) to.

ensure personnel safety, t

D.

permit immediate availability of the breaker if required for emergency e

use.

l QUESTION:

39 l

While locally investigating the condition of a large circuit breaker, the operator ~ observes the following indications:

OPEN/ CLOSED inechanical flag indication indicates open.

OPEN/ CLOSED indicating lights indicate open.

Overcurrent trip flags are actuated oti all phases.

Load-side voltmeter indicates zero volts.

Load-side. ammeter indicates zero amperes.

I Based on these indications, the operator should report that the circuit

.l breaker is open, racked

, with condition indicated.

A.

in, overload B.

in, no overload j

C.

out, overload I

D.

out, no overload 3

PWR FORM A 18

~

PWR: FORM-:'A.

! QUESTION:L'40 t

Which of the following would cause a loss of ability to remotely trip a circuit breaker AND a-loss of position indication?

A.

Loss of breaker control: power

, y.

5.

Failure of breaker control switch C.

Mechanical binding of breaker D.;

Breaker in " test"' position-i ll

- QUESTION: 41

-' Closing the output breaker of the main generator with the frequency of the generator HIGHER than grid _ frequency will result in the generator:

A.

' behaving'as a1real load to the grid.

+

B.

behaving as a reactive. load to the grid.

C.

picking up a portion of the grid real load (MWe).

D.-

. picking up a portion of the grid reactive load (MVAR).

7

.I QUESTION:

42-d Which of.the following generator-conditions is MOST LIKELY to cause generator damage because of high current?

A.

Tripping the output breaker under full-load conditions B.

Tripping the generator prime mover under full-load conditions C.

Closing the output. breaker on a bus that has an~open circuit fault i

~D.

Closing the output breaker on a bus that has a short-circuit fault J

)

.)

4 PWR FORM A 19 D-

c,..,,

~

?

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PWR FORM A QUESTION:

43 The function of high voltage electrical disconnects is to:

A, isolate equipment electrically during no-load conditions.

B.

isolate equipment electrically during overload conditions.-

C.

protect circuits during overcurrent conditions.

D.

protect circuits during undervoltage conditions.

QUESTION: 44 The following indications are observed for a breaker in the control room.

- Red (energized) (closed) indicating light "off"

- Green (de energized) (open) indicating light "off"

- Load amps indicate normal load current.

' Assuming one of the indicating lights is burnt out, what is the condition of the breaker?

1

.t A.

Open and racked in B.

Shut and racked in C.

Open and racked to " test" position

=

l D.

Shut and racked to " test" position j

l

'l l

QUESTION: 45 When determining shutdovn margin for an operating reactor, how many control rods (CEAs) are assumed to remain FULLY withdrawn?

I A.

A single control rod (CEA) of the highest reactivity worth-B.

A symmetrical pair of control rods (CEAs) of the highest reactivir.y worth

~

C.

A single control rod (CEA) of average reactivity worth D.

A symmetrical pair of control rods (CEAs) of average reactivity worth PWR FORM A 20

m-i g-M _{- 1 -f ';

E i

1 c,

pyg yogg 3; 1

LQUESTION: 1 46l

+

A' reactor at end of life has'been shutdown from 100 percent power and cooled-

down to 140= degrees.F over three' days. During

the cooldown, Boron

.i

~

concentration was: increased by,100 ppa.

Civen the,following absolute values =

lof~ reactivities added during the cooldown, assign a (+) or (-) as; appropriate

'and choose the current value of' SHUTDOWN MARGIN.

o 5'

Xenon --

(')' 2.6754 delta K/K Temperature -- ( );0,500% delta K/K L'

Power Defect - ( ) 1.575% delta K/K

Rods -

( ) 6.9184 delta-K/K t.

Boron '

(-1) 1.040tl delta K/K A.

-3.208t' delta-K/K

-B.

-8,558% delta-K/K LC.

-1.128%' delta K/K 1

-D.

-6.358% delta-K/K.

[

(

QUESTION: 14 7 E

[

Which one of the following plant parameter changes will result in an INCREAEE in shutdown-margin for a shutdown reactor at end of core life?.

4 A. -

RCS boron concentration is. increased by 100 ppm.

-B.

One control rod (CEA) is fully withdrawn for a test.

C.

. Xenon has decayed for 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> following shutdown.

l D.

RCS is cooled down by.300 degrees F.

PWR FORM A 21

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i,

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yg yo u.a.

QUESTION: 48 The magnitude of the stable startup rate achieved for a given positive-reactivity addition to a critical reactor is dependent on the and A.

prompt neutron lifetime; axial flux distribution B.

. prompt neutron lifetime; control rod (CEA) position C.

average effective decay constant; average delayed neutron fraction D.

average effective decay constant; axial flux distribution QUESTION: 49 Delayed neutrons contribute more to reactor stability than prompt neutrons because they the. average neutron generation time and are born at a kinetic energy.

A, increase; lower B.

decrease; higher C.

' increase; higher D.

decrease; lower QUESTION: -50 During core physics testing, reactor coolant temperature should be held as stable as possible.

This will NINIMIZE the effects of on reactivity measurements.

A.

xenon concentration

-B, control rod (CEA) worth C.

reactor coolant inventory

.D.

moderator temperatur'e coefficient PWR FORM A 22

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PWR FORM A'

.- ~

QUESTION:

51

'Under whic'h of the following con'ditions is a reactor core most likely to have a POSITIVE moderator temperature coefficient?

t Ai High coolant-temperature at end-of-life B..

'Highlcoolant temperature at beginning of-life i

~

Low coolant temperature-at end-of-life C-

?

D.

Low coolant temperature.at beginning-of-life i

QUESTION:

52-j 97

.During.a plant heatup (with an initial negative moderator temperature coefficient),'the moderator temperature coefficient becomes increasingly more

~

NECATIVE.

This is because:

j

.A.

as moderator density decreases, more thermal neutrons are absorbed by 3

the moderator than by the fuel.

F B.

the change.in the thermal utilization factor dominates the change in the resonance escape probability.

C.'

a-greater density change per degree F occurs at higher reactor coolant

+

temperatures.

'D.

the core transitions from an under-moderated-condition to an over-1 moderated condition.

QUESTION:

53'

-Which one of the following groups contain parameters that, if varied, will each have a DIRECT effect on the power coefficient?

~

A.

Control rod (CEA) position, reactor power, moderator voids 4

B.

Moderator temperature, RCS pressure, Xenon level i

C.

Fuel temperature, xenon level, control rod (CEA) position j

D.

Moderator voids, fuel temperature, moderator temperature PWR FORM A 23 9

6 5

-s

l.

~

PWR-FORM A QUESTION:

54 The reactor.is exactly critical below the point of adding heat. Control rods (CEAs) are withdrawn to establish a 0.5 dpm startup rate. Reactor power will increase:

A.

and stabilize at a value above-the point of adding heat.

B.-

temporarily, then stabilize at the original value.

C.

and stabilize at a value below the point of adding heat.

D, continuously until control rods (CEAs) are reinserted.

QUESTION:

55 i

A comparison of the heat flux in the hottest coolant channel to the average heat-flux in the core describes:

j

-A.

a. core correction calibration factor.

l B.

a hot channel / peaking factor.

.l i

.C.

a heat flux normalizing factor.

l D.

an axial / radial flux deviation factor.

h QUESTION:

56

-i The plant is operating at equilibrium 100 percent power level at BOL with all y

control rods (CEAs) fully withdrawn.

If control rods (CEAs).are partially j'

INSERTED, the axial neutron flux will shift toward of the l:

reactor.

l A.

the top.

l B.

the middle C.

the bottom D.

both the top-and the bottom PWR FORM A 24 J'

27 iC -( ; 1 "

y f 5

H

~

PWR'. FORM A1 l

QUESTION: 57 C

1 i

Which of the following is NOT a consideration in establishing control rod

.(CEA)l insertion: limits?:

l 1

A.-

Maximize control rod-(CEA) maneuvering capability.,

[,

B '. -

Ensure' minimum shutdown margin available.

~

3 1

C.

Minimize the worth of an ejected control rod.

D.'

Maintain allowable power distribution, b

QUESTION: 58 The TWO' characteristics of Xe-135 that result in it being a MAJOR reactor

poison is its relatively half life and relatively absorption cross'section.

JA.

short; large r

'B, short; small C.-

long; large D.

long; small i

lI I

l' QUESTIONi 59-L A: reactor has been operating at 50 percent power for a week when power is quickly ramped (over 4' hours)'to 100 percent.

How will the xenon concentration in the core respond?

L A.

Decreases initially, then builds to a new equilibrium concentration in 8 L

to 10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br />.

r B.

Increases steadily to a new equilibrium concentration in 20 to 30 hours3.472222e-4 days <br />0.00833 hours <br />4.960317e-5 weeks <br />1.1415e-5 months <br />.

C.

Decreases initially, then builds to a new equilibrium concentration in l

,40 to 50 aurs.

D.

. Increases steadily to a new equilibrium concentration in 60 to 70 hours8.101852e-4 days <br />0.0194 hours <br />1.157407e-4 weeks <br />2.6635e-5 months <br />.

PWR FORM A 25

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A

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.-t JQUESTION: - 60

[

3~

Two' identical reactorsLare operating at power. Reactor "A"

is at 50 percent

~

-power _and reactor "B" is at 100 percent power.

Both reactors trip / scram at.

the same' time.. Which statement describes post trip / scram Xenon behavior?'

! A.

Xenon will' peak first in reactor'"A".

B.

-Xenon will peak'first in reactor "B".

l0.

Xenon will peak in both reactors at the same time.

~D.

Xenon will not peak in either reactor; it will simply decay away.

,e

QUESTION

61

. Xenon. oscillations that tend to DAMPEN themselves toward equilibrium over time are-oscillations.

A.

ucnverging ~

'I B.

diverging C.

diffusing

-i D.

transitioning-QUESTION:

62 Four hours after a reactor trip from equilibrium full power operation,'the reactor is taken critical and power is immediately stabilized for critical data..In order to maintain a CONSTANT reactor power, the operator must add-i

reactivity because xenon concentration is A.

positive; increasing B.

positive; decreasing C.

negative;-increasing D.'

. negative; decreasing PWR FORM A 26

aJ i

l PWR FORM A

' QUESTION:

63

'A reactor that has been operating at-rated power for about two weeks is reduced in power to 50 percent. What happens to the Xe-135 concentration in-the core?

A.

There will be no change because iodine concentration is constant.

B.-

Xenon will initially build up, then decrease to a new equilibrium value.

C.

Xenon will initially decrease, then build up to a new equilibrium value.

D.

Xenon will steadily decrease to a new equilibrium value.

QUESTION:

64 The plant is operating at EQL with a fall-power boron concentration of 15 ppm.

After the refueling, the full-power boron concentration is approximately 1,200 ppm. Which of the following is the reason for the necessary INCREASE in boron concentration?-

A.

Xenon concentration in the core at EOL is much greater than at BOL.

B.

Differential boron worth at EOL is much greater than at BOL.

[IBW at EOL is significantly smaller than at BOL.)

C.

The excess reactivity-in the core _at BOL is much greater than at EOL.

D.

The integral control rod (CEA) worth at EOL is much greater than at BOL.

QUESTION:

65 The reactor is suberitical with a reactor startup in progress. Assuming the reactor remains suberitical, a short control rod WITHDRAWAL will cause the reactor startup. rate indication to increase rapidly in the positive direction, and then:

A.

gradually decrease and stabilize at zero.

B.

rapidly decrease and stabilize at a negative 1/3 dpm.

C.

stabilize until the POAH is reached; then decrease to zero.

D.

continue a rapid increase until the POAH is reached; then decrease to zero.

PWR FORM A 27

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M FORN.A~

i M'

QUESTION

66

.During a reactor startup, the operator adds 1,000 pcm (1.04 delta-K/K) of v

g

positive reactivity by withdrawing control rods (CEAs),' thereby increasing-oT

. equilibrium source range neutron level-from 220 cps to.440 cps.

In order.to.

raise equilibrium source range neutron leve1~.to 880 cps, an additional 4

i; of positive reactivityLaust be added.

7 -in

.500 pcm (0.5% delta-K/K)

'A.

4

.y B.

1000 pcm (1.0% delta-K/K)'

C,. '

2000 pcm (2.04 delta K\\K)

D.

.4000 pcm (4.0% delta-K/K)

L QUESTION:

67 As criticality is' approached-during a reactor startup, equal insertions of positive reactivity' result in a absolute change in equilibrium.

count rate and a time to reach each new equilibrium.

A.

smaller;. shorter -

B.

smaller; longer C.

greater; shorter D.

greater; longer 4

-QUESTION: 68 In_ order to predict criticality, the operator must predict the amount of positive reactivity that must be added to OVERCOME the effects of:

A.

Boron, moderator voids, and burnable poisons.

B.

control rods (CEAs), Xenon, and moderator temperature.

C.

power defect, burnable poisons, and control rods (CEAs),

rt D.

moderator temperature, moderator voids, and Xenon.

'y 91' PWR FORM A 28

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F-K PWR~ FORM A-I u

?

. QUESTION:. 69-1 Which two parameters have.the MOST SIGNIFICANT effect on reactivity upon 4

reaching criticality during a reactor.startup, and prior to reaching the point:

[>

-of: adding' heat?:

A.

Coolant-temperature and rod (CEA) position

}

~ B.

- Coolant; temperature and coolant pressure a

, Rod.(CEA) position and reactor-power.

= C.

1

'(:

D.

- Coolant' pressure and reactor power 6

1

. QUESTION:- 7'O r

1The plant is operating at equilibrium 50 percent power level.. Control rods

-(CEAs) are manually. withdrawn for 5 seconds.

When plant parameters have stabilized:

L.

coolant temperature will be higher, 1

A 1

.B.

reactor (primary) coolant system pressure will be lower.

~C.

reactor power.will be higher.

D.

pressurizer-level will be lower, y

o i

o QUESTION:

71 H

j The reactor is operating at equilibrium 20 percent power. 'The operator withdraws rods (CEAs) as necessary to immediately' establish.and maintain a L

0.10 DPM startup rate.

How long will it take for the reactor to reach 70 L

[L

. percent' power?

r

[A.

2.5 minutes B.

-_5.5 minutes C.

17.5 minutes y:

i D.

10.5 minutes j

Mf f

l PWR FORM A 29 j;

_b. y -

+

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u b

PWR FORM A1 QUESTION:

72.

The reactor has been operating-at 75 percent power for. several wecks. ' A partial-steam line break occurs and 3 percent total steam flow. is escapiro.

Assur.ing no. operator or automatic actions, stable reactor power will and stable. reactor coolant temperature will A.

it. crease; increase-c

' U.

.not' change;: increase-C..

increase; decrease V

D.

not change; decrease QUESTION: '73 -

A pressure. gauge on a condenser reads 27 inches of Mercury (Hg), vacuum. What is the absolute pressure. corresponding to this vacuum?

(Assume an atmospheric pressure of 15 psia.)

A.

1.0 psia B.

1.5 psia C.

3.0. psia D.

15.0 psia QUESTION:

74 Excessive heat removal from the LP turbine exhaust steam in the main condenser

-will result in:

A.

thermal shock.

-B.

loss of condenser vacuum.

C.

condensate depression.

D.

fluid compression.

PWR FORM A 30 l

l

Nix, v.

(;

N4 PWR FORM--A'

-QUESTION: -75 l?

. The saturation pressure for' water at-328 degrees.F is:

"A.

-85 psig.

B.

100 psig.

C.

115 psig.

.D.

130 psig..

~

-QUESTI0N:

76 The reactor coolant. system.is being maintained at 1000 psia. A pressurizer-safety / relief valve =is slowly discharging to a collection tank, which is.

maintained at 5 psig, What is the ENTHALPY of the fluid entering the tank?

- A.

~1,156 BTU /lbm i

B '.

1,178 BTU /lbm

'C~'

1~,193 BTU /lbm i

i D.

1,210 BTU /lba d

')

i

.i

. QUESTION:

77.

i 4

Which'of the~following will cause overall plant' efficiency.to INCREASE?

A.

Increasing total steam generator blowdown from 30 gpm to 40 gpm.

1 1

B; Changing steam quality from 99.7 percent.to 99.9 percent.

C-Bypassing a feedwater heater during normal ~ plant operations.

h, D.

Increasing condenser pressure from 1 psia to 2 psia.

l l.o i

to l

l-PWR FOldt A 31 l,$.

l t

L

~

l N

r t

'n PWR FORM A.

QUESTION:

78 l

Which of-the following methods would INCLEASE the possibility'and/or severity-of water hammer?

l-A.

1 Venting fluid systems prior to starting a pump.

L l

B.

Starting a pump with the discharge valve fully open.

l C.

Starting a pump with the discharge valve fully closed.

D.

Opening and closing system valves slowly.

h QUESTION:

79 A centrifugal pump is being returned to service after maintenance.

The operator FAILS to vent the pump properly.

When the pump is started the

~

operator should see capacity and discharge head.

A.

lower; lower B.

lower; higher C.

higher; lower D.

higher; higher l

l QUESTION:

80 The MAJOR effect of operating centrifugal pumps in PARALLFL is:

A.

increased system pressure.

E B.

increased system flow rate.

C.

decreased system pressure.

D.

decreased system flow rate.

PWR FORM A 32

d

~

-PWR FORM ~A w:

QUESTION:- 81 Flow instruments used to measure the mass flow rate of saturated steam are' l,1

' density compensated because, for a steam pressure increase at a constant 7

-volumetric flow rate,' steam density will and'the. actual mass flow y

rate will' A.-

decrease; increase 1

-I xB.

increase; decrease 1

f C.

increase; increase D.-

' decrease; decrease QUESTION:

82~

1 During operation ~of.a-positive displacement pump, the MOST DESIRABLE method of.

l decreasing system flow rate is to:

A '.

throttle the pump discharge valve.

,B..

throttle lthe pump suction valve.

C.

l decrease the-pump NPSH.

-4 D.

decrease'the pump speed, f

~

q QUESTION: - 83

.The transfer of' heat from the reactor fuel to the fuel-cladding during normal-operations is an example of heat transfer'.

i A'.

conduction

.B.

convection C.

radiant D.

two-phase j

~

PWR FORM A 33 r

FWR FORM A QUESTION:

84 As fluid flow rate IEEE&EEE through the tubes of a shell-and tube heat i.

exchanger, the laminar film thickness

, which causes heat transfer rate to i

A.

increases; increase B.

increases; decrease C.

decreases; increase D.

decreases; decrease QUESTION:

85

- The reactor coolant enters the core at 545 degrees F and leaves at 595 degrees 7

F.

If the reactor coolant flow rate is 6.6 x 10 lbm/hr and the specific heat i

capacity of the coolant is 1.3 BTU /lbm degree F, what is the core thermal power?

(1 watt - 3.4127 BTU /hr)

A.

967 MWt i

B.

1,160 MWt C.

1,257 MVt D.

1,508 MWC QUESTION:

86 Which characteristic will ENHANCE steam bubble formation as heat is transferred to a liquid adjacent to a heating surface.

A.

Surface scratches or cavities in the heating surface l

1 B.

Material dissolved in the bulk of the liquid C.

The absence of dissolved gases in the liquid D.

A tightly adherent and smooth oxide layer on the heating surfec o PWR FORK A 34 9

6 r...

1 l

?

i i

FWR FORM A QUESTION:

87 Which of the following describes departure from nucleate boiling?

A.

Steam bubbles begin to blankst the fuel rod, causing a rapid increase in I

the delta T between the fuel rod and the coolant.

B.

Steam bubbles completely blanket the fuel rod, causing an increase in the heat flux from the fuel rod.

C.

Steam bubbles begin to blanket the fuel rod, causing a rapid decrease in the delta T between the fuel rod and the coolant.

j D.

Steam bubbles begin to form on the surface of the fuel rod, causing an increase in the heat flux from the fuel rod.

QUESTION:

88 Which parameter change will reduce the departure from nucleate boiling ratio (DNBR)?

A.

Decrease reactor power.

B.

Increase pressurizer pressure.

C.

Increase reactor coolant flow.

D.

Increase reactor coolant tempereture.

QUES 71.ON:

89 In the definition of the departure from nucleate boiling ratio (DNBR), the term ACTUAL llEAT FLUX refers to the:

A.

heat transfer rate per unit area at any point along the fuel rod.

1 l

B.

heat transfer rate along the entire fuel rod.

l C.

average heat transfer rate pet unit area across the core.

1 D.

totai heat transferred along the fuel rod.

PWR FORM A 35

=-

~y.

i s

PWR FORM &

QUESTION:

90 i

The difference between the actual temperature and the saturation temperature of a liquid is the:

A.

critical heat flux.

e B.

subcooling margin.

)

C.

departure from nucleate boiling.

f.

D.

saturation margin, r

QUESTION:

91 Assuming that reactor power remains constant at 30 percent, if reactor coolant flow decreases by 10 percent, FUEL temperature will:

l.

A.

increase, then stabilize at a higher value.

B.

decrease, then stabilize at a lower value.

C.

increase, then return to the original steady state value.

D.

' decrease, then return to the original steady state value.

s QUESTION:

92 Which of the following must exist for natural circulation flow to occur?

A.

The heat source must be located higher than the heat sink.

B.

The heat source must be larger than the heat sink.

C.

The heat sink must be located higher than the heat source.

D.

The heat sink must be larger than the heat source.

E l

i PWR FORM A 36 l

l I'

l

I 4

FWR FORM &

QUESTION:

93 Natural circulation flow rate will be CREATER when:

A.

all reactor coolant pumps run'for an hour after a reactor trip, and then stop.

B.

two reactor coolant pumps run for an hour after a reactor trip, and then stop.

L C.

one reactor coolant pump runs for an hour after a reactor trip, and then stops.

D.

reactor coolant pumps stop at the same time the reactor trips.

QUESTION:

94 i

If the reactor is operated within core thermal limits, then:

A.

plant thermal efficiency is optimized.

B.

fuel cladding integrity is ensured.

C.

pressurized thermal shock will be prevented.

D.

reactor vessel thermal stresses will be minimized.

QUESTION:

95 During full power operation, critical heat flux (CHF) is MOST LIKELY to occur in a:

A.

centrally located fuel assembly with flow restrictions.

L, centrally located fuel assembly without flow restrictions.

C.

peripherally located fuel assembly with flow restrictions.

D.

peripherally located fuel assembly without flow restrictions.

PWR FORM A 37

)

's 3

yyg. g' g QUESTION:

96 Brittle fracture is the fragmentation of metal resulting from the application

.of stress at relatively temperatures.

l l

A.

compressive; high B.

compressive; low C.

tensile; high i.

D.

tensile; low P

QUESTION:

97 t

Reactor cooldown rate limitations are procedurally established to prevent:

L!

A.

excessive. reactivity additions.

6 B.

brittle fracture of the reactor vessel.

C.

impurities from precipitating out of solution in the reactor vessel.

D.

excessive reactor coolant system subcooling.

1 QUESTION:

98 Prolonged exposure of the reactor vessel to a fast neutron flux will cause the reference temperature for nil ductility transition (RTNDT) to:

A.

increase due to the creation of flaws.

B.

decrease due to the creation of flaws.

C.

increase due to changes in the material properties of the vessel wall.

D.

decrease due to changes in the material properties of the vessel wall.

I i

PWR FORM A 38 P

e

.c.

9 I

. - - ~

PWR FORM A l

' QUESTION:

99=

Pressurized thermal shock is a condition that can occur following a of the reactor coolant system (RCS) if RCS pressure is rapidly A.

cooldown; decreased B.

cooldown; increased C.-

heatup; decreased D.

heatup; increased QUESTION:

100 A heatup stress applied to the reactor vessel is:

A.

compressive at the inner wall, tensile at the outer wall.

e B,

tensile-at the inner wall, compressive at the outer wall.

I c.

tensile across the entire wall.

D.

compressive across the entire wall.

I i

i

. i:

PWR FORM A 39 i

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p

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~

i

. FEBRUARY 1990 PWR GFE - FORM B ANSWER KEY 1.

A 26.

A 51.

A 76.

- A 2.

A 27.

B 52.

D 77.

A e

3.

A 28.

C 53.

B 78.

D 4.

C 29.

B 54.

C 79.

D 5.

A 30.

C 55.

B 80.

D 6.

D 31.

A 56.

A 81.

B 7.

D 32.

A 57.

D 82.

A 8.

C 33.

B 58.

A 83.

C j

9.

D 34.

B 59.

A 84.

A l

10.

'A 35.

A 60.

A 85.

D 11.

B 36.

B 61.

D 86.

D 12.

C 37.

C 62.

A 87.

C 13.

A 38.

D 63.

A 88.

D 14.

C 39.

A 64.

A 89.

B 15.

C 40.

C 65.

C 90.

D t

16.

A 41.

C 66.

C 91.

B 17.

A 42.

A 67.

D 92.

A I

18.

A 43.

A 68.

A 93.

C 19.-

B 44.

D 69.

B 94.

A 20.

C 45.

A 70.

A 95.

A 21.

A 46.

B 71.

C 96.

A I

l.

22.

A 47.

A 72.

B 97.

C 23.

D 48.

C 73.

C 98.

D 24.

B 49.

D 74.

B 99.

A 25.

A 50.

B 75.

C 100.

B i4 i

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- UNITED STATES NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION PRESSURIZED WATER REACTOR GENERIC' FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION l'

FEBRUARY 1990 - FORM B t-lr Please Print:

Name:

l.

f Facility:

ID Number:

Start Time:

Stop Time:

y INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE Use the answer sheet provided.

Each question has equal point value.

A score of at least 804 is required to pass this portion of the written licensing examination. All examination papers will be collected 2.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> after the examination starts.

SECTION QUESTIONS 4 0F TOTAL SCORE REACTOR THEORY 1

28 THERMODYNAMICS 29 - 56 COMPONENTS 57 100 TOTALS 100 l

l~

All work done on this examinaticn is my own.

I have neither given nor received aid.

l l

Candidate's Signature

[

1 i

j rwm romu a i

RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR THE CENERIC FUNDAMENTALS EXAMINATION During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

(1)

Print your name in the blank provided on the cover sheet of the examination.

)

I (2)

Fill in the name of your facility.

(3)

Fill in the ID Number you were given at registration.

(4)

Fill in your start rnd stop times at the appropriate time.

(5)

Three handouts are provided for your use during the examination, an Equations and Conversions sheet, instructions for filling out the answer sheet, and Steam Table booklets.

(6)

Use only the answer sheet provided.

Credit will only be given for answers properly marked on this sheet.

Follow the instructions for filling out the answer sheet.

(7)

Scrap paper will be provided for calculations.

(8),

Any questions about an item on the examination should be directed to the examiner only.

(9)

Cheating on the examination will result in the automatic forfeiture of this examination.

Cheating could also result in severe penalties.

(. c. ) Restroom trips are limited. Only ONE examinee may leave the room at a time.

In order to avoid the appearance or possibility of checting, avoid all contact with anyone outside of the examination room.

(11) After you have completed the examination, sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have not received or been given any assistance in completing the examination.

(12) Turn in your examination materials, answer sheet on top, followed by the exam booklet, then examination aids - steam table booklets, handouts and scrap paper used during the examination.

(13) After turning in your examination materials, leave the examination area, as defined by the examiner.

If af ter leaving you are found in the examination area while the examination is in progress, your examination may be forfeited.

PWR FORM B

. ~. - -

I EQUATION SHEET Net Vork (outi e

ac AT Cycle Efficiency - Energy (in) e 6

p S/(1 - Kett) l 6

$Ah SCR i

CR (1

• Kett)2 UA AT CR (1 - Kett)2 6

2 2

i; CR /CRo 1/(1 - Kett).

M 3

3 SUR - 26.06/f (I

• Ertflo 4

26.06 (Aert #.1 82 *

(p p)

(1 - Kert)1 M

(1. g,,,)fg,,,

Po 10smo

$og P

=

t W E tt/O Pwr g

i Po e P

..)

t f*/(P

• 8)

(2*/p) + ((F P)/AetrF) f r

-1 1 x 10*5 seconds l

J 1)/Kett (Kett p

-)

0.1 seconds *1 lef t -

AK,gg/K,gg i

p e

1 2.21 lbm 3.7 x 1020 dps 1 kg 1 Curie 5

3.41 r 10 BTU /hr i

2.54 x 10 BTU /hr 1 Mw 3

I hp 9/5 *C + 32 778 ft-lbf

• F

[.:

1 BTU 5/9 ('T - 32)

I.

'C p

e 1

l i.

i i

FWR FORat B l

l QUESTION:

1 i

~ When determining shutdovre margin for an operating reactor, how many control rods (CEAs) are assumed to remain EHLLI withdrawn?

i A.

A single control rod (CEA) of the highest reactivity worth B.

A symmetrical pair of control rods (CEAs) of the highest reactivity worth C.

A single control rod (CEA) of average reactivity worth D.

A symmetrical pair of control rods (CEAs) of average reactivity worth QUESTION:

2 i

A reactor at end of life has been shutdown from 100 percent power and cooled down to 140 degrees F over three days.

During the cooldown, Boron concentration was increased by 100 ppa. Given the following absolute values of reactivities added during the cooldown, assign a (+) or (-) as appropriate and choose the current value of SHUTDOWN MARGIN.

Xenon -

()

2.675% delta-K/K Temperature - ( ) 0.5004 delta K/K Power Defect - ( ) 1.575% delta-K/K Rods -

( ) 6.918% delta K/K Boron -

( ).1.040% delta-K/K A.

--3.208% delta K/K B.

8.558% delta K/K C.

1.128% delta-K/K D.

-6.3584 Jelta K/K PWR FORM B 1

i L

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QUESTION:

3 g

Which one of the following plant parameter. changes will result in an INGREAEE in shutdown margin for a shtatdown reactor at end of core life?

A.

RCS boron concentration is increased by 100 ppa.

B.

One control _ rod (CEA) is fully withdrawn for a test.

t C.

Xenon has decayed for 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> following shutdown.

D.

RCS is cooled down by 300 degrees F.

j s

QUESTION: 4

.e The magnitude of the stable startup rate achieved for a given positive i

reactivity addition to a critical reactor is dependent on the and A.

prompt neutron lifetime; axial flux distribution

{

B.

prompt neutron lifetime; control rod (CEA) position C.

average effective decay constant; average delayed neutron fraction D.

-average effective decay constant; axial flux distribution I

QUESTION:

5 Delayed neutrons contribute more to reactor stability than prompt neutrons because they the average neutron generation time and are born at a kinetic energy.

A.

increase; lower t

B.

decrease; higher C.

increase; higher D.

decrease; lower s

PWR FORM B 2

f,3 fl L

[

~,'

PWR FORM D'.

QUESTION:

6 I

Euring core physics testing, reactor coolant temperature should be held as j

e stable as possible. This will MINIMIE the effects of on reactivity messarements.

I A.

xenon concentration i

B.

control rod (CEA) worth C.

reactor coolant inventory I'

D.

moderator temperature coefficient QUESTION:

7 f

Under which of the following conditions is a reactor core most likely to have E

a ZDSITIVE moderator-temperature coefficient?

A.

High coolant temperature at end of-life B.

High coolant temperature at beginning of life C.

Low coolant temperature at end of-life D.

Low coulant temperature at beginning-of life QUESTION:

8 During a. plant heatup (vich an initial negstive moderator temperature coefficient), the moderator tempers.ture coefficient becomes increasingly more NEGATIVE. This is because:

i A.

as moderator density decreases, more thermal neutrons are absorbed by the moderator than by the fur"..

-B.

the change in the thermal utilization factor daminaces the change in the resonance escape probability.

C.

a greater density change per degree T occurs at higher reactor coolant temperatures.

D, the core transitions from an under-moderated condition to an over-moderated condition.

PWR FORM B 3

---c

+ - + --

F- -

3 PWR FORM 3 QUESTION: 9 i

Which one of the following groups contain parameters that, if varied, will each have a DIRECT effect on the power coefficient?

A.

Control rod (CEA) position, reactor power, moderator voids B.

Moderator temperature, RCS pressure, Xenon level C.

Fuel temperature, xenon level, control rod (CEA) position D.

Moderator voids, fuel temperature, moderator temperature i

QUESTION: 10 The reactor is exactly critical below the point of adding heat.

Control rods (CEAs) are withdrawn to establish a 0.5 dpm startup rate.

Reactor power will increase:

A.

and stabilize at a value above the point of adding heat.

B.

temporarily, then stabilize at the original value.

C.

and stabilize at a value below the point of adding heat.

D.

continuously until control rods (CEAs) are reinserted.

QUESTION:

11 l'

A comparison of the heat flux in the hottest coolant channel to the average l

heat flux in the core describes:

1L, A.

a core correction calibration factor.

B.

a hot channel / peaking factor.

C.

a heat flux normalizing factor, t

D.

an axial / radial flux deviation factor.

PWR FORM B 4

6 m

m

^

rwm romM l

QUESTION:

12 t

.The plant is operating at equilibrium 100 percent power level at BOL with all' control rods (CEAs) fully withdrawn.

If control rods (CEAs) are partially INSERTED, the axial' neutron flux will shift toward of the reactor.

l

)

A.-

the top B.

the middle C.

the bottos.

D.

both the top and the bottom a

QUESTION:

13 I

Which of:the folleving is HQI a consideration in establishing control rod (CEA) insertion limits?

r A.

. Maximize control rod (CEA) maneuvering' capability.

B.

Ensure ain'imum shutdown margin available, C.

Minimize the worth of an ejected control rod.

i D.

Maintain allowable power distribution.

- QUES TION:

14 it The IEQ characteristics of Xe-135 that result in it being a MAJs1 reactor poison.is its relatively

- half-life and relatively absorption cross section.

A.

short; large l..

B.

short; small l

l' C.~

long; large l

.D.

long; small l

l^

l 8

t l

FORM B 5

r

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<..,=v.

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PWR FORM 3 QUESTION:

15 A reactor has been operating at 50 percent power for a week when power is quickly ramped (over 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />) to 100 percent. How will the xenon j

concentration in the core respond?-

l A.

Decreases initially, then builds to a new equilibrium concentration in 8 to 10 hours1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br />.

B.

Increases steadily to a new equilibrium concentration in 20 to 30 hours3.472222e-4 days <br />0.00833 hours <br />4.960317e-5 weeks <br />1.1415e-5 months <br />.

C.

Decreases initially, then builds to a new equilibrium concentration in 40 to 50 hours5.787037e-4 days <br />0.0139 hours <br />8.267196e-5 weeks <br />1.9025e-5 months <br />.

D.

Increases steadily to a new equilibrium concentration in 60 to 70 hours8.101852e-4 days <br />0.0194 hours <br />1.157407e-4 weeks <br />2.6635e-5 months <br />.

QUESTION:

16 Two identical reactors are operating at power. Reactor "A" is at 50 percent power and reactor "B" is at 100 percent power. Both reactors trip / scram at the same time. Which statement describes post trip / scram Xenon behavior?

A.

Xenon will peak first in reactor "A".

B.

Xenon will peak first in reactor "B".

C.

Xenon will peak in both reactors at the same time, D.

Xenon will not peak in either reactor; it will simply decay away.

r QUESTION:

17 Xenon oscillations that tend to DAMPEN thematives 'toward equilibrium over time are oscillations.

A.

converging B.

diverging C.

diffusing D,

transitioning PWR FORM B 6

D Pwa romu a QUESTION:

18 Four hours after a reactor trip from equilibrium full power operation, the reactor is taken critical and power is immediately stabilized for critical data. In order to maintain a GQREIARI reactor power, the operator must add reactivity because xenon concentration is

. A.

positive; increasing B.

positive; decreasing C.

negative; increasing D.

negative; decreasing QUESTION:

19 A reactor that has been operating at rated power for about two weeks is reduced in power to 50 percent. What happens to the Xe-135 concentration in the core?

A.

There will be no change because iodine concentration is constant.

B.

Xenon will initially build up, then decrease to a new equilibrium value.

C.

Xenon will initially decrease, then build up to a new equilibrium value.

D.

Xenon will steadily decrease to a new equilibrium value.

QUESTION:

20 The plant is operating at EOL with a full-power boron concentration of 15 ppm.

After the refueling, the full-power boron concentration is approximately 1,200 ppm. Which of the following is the reason for the necessary INCREASE in boron concentration?

A.

Xenon concentration in the core at EOL is much greater than at BOL.

B.

Differential boron worth at EOL is much greater than at BOL.

[IBW at EOL is significantly smaller than at BOL.)

C.

The excess reactivity in the core at BOL is much greater than at EOL.

r D.

The integral control rod (CEA) worth at EOL is much greater than at BOL.

PWR FORM B 7

l PWR FORM 3 j

QUESTION: 21 The reactor is subcritical with a reactor startup in progress. Assuming the reactor remains subcritical, a short control rod VITHDRAVAL will cause the reactor startup rate indication to increase rapidly in the positive direction, and then:

A.

gradually decrease and stabilize at zero, b.

rapidly decrease and stabilize at a negative 1/3 dpm.

C.

stabilize until the POAH is reached; then decrease to zero.

i D.

continue a rapid increase until the POAH is reached; the,a decrease to zero.

QUESTION:

22 During a reactor startup, the operator adds 1,000 pcm (1.0% delta K/K) of positive reactivity by withdrawing control rods (CEAs), thereby increasing equilibrium source range neutron level from 220 cps to 440 cps.

In order to raise equilibrium source range neutron level to 880 eps, an additional of positive reactivity must be added.

A.

500 pcm (0.5% delta-K/K)

B.

1000 pcm (1.0% delta K/K)

.C.

2000 pcm (2.0% delta K\\K)

D.

4000 pcm (4.0% delta K/K)

QUESTION:

23 As criticality is approached iluring a reactor startup, equal insertions of positive reactivity result in a absolute change in equilibrium j

count rar.e and a time to reach each new equilibrium.

A.

smaller; shorter B.

smaller; longer C.

greater; shorter D.

greater; longer PWR FORM B 8

m

)

t PWR FORM 3

i QUESTION

24 in order to predict criticality, the operator must predict the amount of positive reactivity that must be added to OVERCOME the effects of:

A.

Boron, moderator voids, and burnable poisons.

B.

control rods (CEAs), Xenon, and moderator temperature.

C.

power defect, burnable poisons, and control rods (CEAs).

D.

moderator temperature, moderator voids, and Xenon.

QUESTION:

25 Which two parameters have the MOST SIGNIFICANT effect on reactivity upon reaching criticality during a reactor startup, and prior to reaching the point of adding heat?

A.

Coolant temperature and rod (CEA) position B.

Coolant temperature and coolant pressure C.

Rod (CEA) position and reactor power D.

Coolant pressure and reactor power QUESTION:

26 The plant is operating at equilibrium 50 percent power level.

Contro. tods (CEAs) are manually withdrawn for 5 seconds.

When plant parameters have j

stabilized:

1 I

A.

coolant temperature will be higher.

B.

reactor (primary) coolant system pressure will be lower.

C.

reactor power will be higher.

l D.

pressurizer level will be lower.

PWR FORM B 9

4 1

c.l -

l l

i PWR FORM B l

i.

QUESTION:

27 The reactor is operating at equilibrium 20 percent power. The operator withdraws rods (CEAs) as necessary to immediately establish and maintain a l-0.10 DPM startup rate. How long will it take for the reactor to reach 70 l

percent power?

I A.

~ 2.5 minutes j

B.-

5.5 minutes

'l 1

C.

7.5 minutes j

D.

10.5 minutes

?

4 f

QUESTION:

28 i

The' reactor has been operating at 75 percent power for several weeks. A partial steam line break occurs and 3 percent total steam flow is escaping.

I Assuming no operator or automatic actions, stable reactor power will and stable reactor coolant temperature will i

A.

increase; increase B.

not change; increase C.

increase; decreese l

t D.

not change; decrease L

QUESTION:

29 A pressure gauge on a condenser reads 27 inches of Mercury (Hg) vacuum. What is the absolute pressure corresponding to this vacuum?

(Assume an atmospheric pressure'of 15 psia.)

A.

1.0 psia j

B.

1.5 psia 1

C.

3.0 psia D.

15.0 psia PWR FORM B 10 9

if 3,,

L

,,,pg,,

QUESTION:

30 Excessive heat removal from the LP turbine exhaust steam in the main condenser will result in:

A.

thermal shock.

B.

loss of condenser vacuum.

C.

condensate depression.

D.

fluid compression.

QUESTION:

31 The saturation pressure for water at 328 degrees F is:

A.

8$ psig.

B.

100 psig.

C.

115 psig.

D.

130 psig.

QUESTION:

32 The reactor coolant system is being maintained at 1000 psia. A pressurizer safety / relief valve is slowly discharging to a collection tank, which is maintained at 5 psig. What is the ENTHALPY of the fluid entering the tank?

A.

1,156 BTU /lbm B.

1,178 BTU /lba C.

1,193 BTU /lba D.

1,210 BTJ/lba PWR FORM B 11

.I twa romu a QUESTION:

33 Which of the following will cause overall plant efficiency to INCREASE?

A.

Increasing total steam generator blowdown from 30 gpm to 40 gpm.

B.

Changing steam quality from 99.7 percent to 99.9 percent.

C.

Bypassing a feedwater heater during normal plant operations.

D.

Increasing condenser pressure from 1 psia to 2 psia.

QUESTION:

34 Which of the following methods would INCREASE the possibility and/or severity of water hammer?

r A.

Venting fluid systems prior to starting a pump.

B.

Starting a pump with the discharge valve fully open.

C.

Starting a pump with the discharge valve fully closed.

D.

Opening and closing system valves slowly.

QUESTION:

35 A centrifugal pump is being returned to service after maintenance.

The operator FAILS to vent the pump properly.

When the pump is started the operator should see capacity and discharge head.

A.

lower; lower B.

lower; higher C.

higher; lower D.

higher; higher PWR FORM B 12

.....,.7-

]

.i t'-

l i

PWR FORM 3 QUESTION:

36_

i l

The Mbi.QR effect of operating centrifugal pumps in PARALLEL is:

A.

increased system pressure.

l B.

increased system flow rate.

C.

decreased system pressure.

D.

decreased system flow rate.

QUESTION:

37 Flow instruments used to measure the mass flow rate of saturated steam are density compensated because, for a steam pressure increase at a constant volumetric flow rate, steam density will and the actual mass flow rate will A.

decrease; increase l.

l-B.

increase; decrease C.

increase; increase D.

decrease; decrease QUESTION:

38 During operation of a positive displacement pump, the MOST DESIRJ.BLE method of decreasing system flow rate is to:

A.

throttle the pump discharge valve.

B.

throttle the pump suction valve.

C.

decrease the pump NPSH.

D.

decrease the pump speed.

~{

l PWR FORM B 13 l

t--

4 7;r '

3' i',' s

.,.,c

~

1 1

FWR FORM-B

)

i

. QUESTION:

39 i

The transfer of heat from the reactor fuel to the fuel cladding during normal operations is an example of heat transfer.

l A.

conduction

)

-B.

convection C.

radiant D.

two phase i.

QUESTION: 40 As fluid flow rate INCREASES through the tubes of a shell and tube heat

'[

exchanger, the laminar film thickness

, which causes heat transfer rate to A.~ -

increases; increase B.

increases; decrease C.

decreases; increase D.-

decreases; decrease

-QUESTION: 41 ic The reactor coolant enters the core at 545 degrees F and leaves at 595 degrees

.e F.

If the reactor coolant flow rate is 6.6 x 107 lbm/hr and the specific heat 1

capacity of the coolant is 1.3 BTU /lbm-degree F, what is the core thermal power 7 (1 watt - 3.4127 BTU /hr)

A.

967 MWt g

I B.

1,160 MWt C.

1,257 MWt D.

1,508 MWt v%-

t l

16 o

PWR FORM B 14

='

L, i

F 1

i 9

PWR FORM B QUESTION: 42 I

Which characteristic will ENHANCE steam bubble formation as heat is i

transferred to a liquid adjacent to a heating surface.

A.

Surface scratches or cavities in the heating surface B.

Material dissolved in the bulk of the liquid i

C.

The absence of dissolved gases in the liquid D.

A tightly adherent and smooth' oxide layer on the heating surface l

i l

QUESTION: 43 Which of the following describes departure from nucleate boiling?

A.

Steam bubbles begin to blanket the fuel rod, causing a rapid incretse in the delta T between the fuel rod and the coolant.

B.

Steam bubbles completely blanket the fuel rod, causing an increase in the heat flux from the fuel rod.

C.

Steam bubbles begin to blanket the fuel rod, causing a rapid decrease in the delta T between the fuel rod and the coolant.

D.

Steam bubbles begin to form on the surface of the fuel rod, causing an increase in the heat flux from the fuel rod.

QUESTION: 44

,Which parameter change will reduce the departure from nucleate boiling ratio (DNBR)?

A.

Decrease reactor power.

l' B.

Increase pressurizer pressure.

L C.

Increase reactor coolant flow.

i D.

Increase reactor coolant temperature.

l 1

l PWR FORM B 15

V' h

i t.

FWR FORM 3 l

l QUESTION: 45 l

-In the definition of the departure from nucleate boiling ratio (DNBR), the term ACTUAL HEAT FLUX refers to the:

A.

heat transfer rate per unit area at any point along the fuel rod.

B.

heat transfer rate along the entire fuel rod.

l r

C.

average heat transfer rate per unit area across the core.

4 D.

total heat transferred along the fuel rod.

QUESTION: 46 1

The difference between the actual temperature and the saturation temperature j

of a liquid is the:

A.

critical heat flux.

B.

subcooling margin.

C.

departure from nucleate boiling.

D.

saturation margin.

QUESTION: 47 Assuming that reactor power remains constant at 30 percent, if reactor coolant flow decreases by 10 percent, FUEL temperature will:

L A.

increase, then stabilize at a higher value.

- B.

decrease, then stabilize at a lower value.

C.

increase, then return to the original steady state value.

D.

decrease, then return to the original steady state value.

i l

PWR FORM B 16 l

i n

j' s

+

PWR FORM 3 i'

QUESTION: 48 Which of the following must exist for natural circulation flow to occur?

A.

The heat source must be located higher than the heat sink.

B.

The heat source must be larger than the heat sink.

C.

The heat sink.must be located higher than the heat source.

D.

The heat sink must be larger than the heat source.

QUESTION: 49 Natural circulation flow rate will be CREATER when:

A.

all reactor coolant pumps run for an hour after a reactor trip, and then stop.

B.

two reactor coolant pumps run for an hour after a rea.:or trip, and then stop.

C.

one reactor coolant pump runs for an hour after a reactor trip, and then stops.

D.

reactor coolant pumps stop at the same time the reactor trips.

-QUESTION:

50 If the reactor is operated within core thermal limits, then:

A.

plant thermal efficiency is optimized.

B.

fuel cladding integrity is ensured.

C.

pressurized thermal shock will be prevented.

D.

reactor vessel thermal stresses will be minimized.

i 1

l l

PWR FORM B 17 1

FWR FORM B QUESTION:

51 During full power operation, critical heat flux (CHF) is MOST. LIKELY to occur in a:

A.

centrally located fuel assembly with flow restrictions.

B.

centrally located fuel assembly without flow restrictions.

C.

peripherally located fuel assembly with flow restrictions.

D.

peripherally located fuel assembly without flow restrictions.

QUESTION:

52 Brittle fracture is the fragmentation of metal resulting from the application of stress at relatively temperatures.

A.

compressive; high B.

compressive; low C.

tensile; high D.

tensile; low QUESTION:

53 Keactor cooldown rate limitations are procedurally established to prevent:

A.

excessive reactivity additions.

B.

brittle fracture of the reactor vessel.

C.

impurities from precipitating out of solution in the reactor vessel.

D.

excessive reactor coolant system subcooling.

PWR FORM B 18 4

i lQ a!

vs m:

"l i

,.2 i

e, PWR FORM B QUESTION:

54 Prolonged exposure o'f the reactor vessel to a fast neutron-flux will cause the i

reference temperature for nil ductility transition (RTNDT) tc;

.l

- A.

increase due to the creation of flaws.

B.

cecrease due to the creation of flaws.

C.

increase due to changes in the material properties of the vessel wall.

D.

decrease due to changes in the material properties of the vessel wall.

L j

QUESTION: 55 l

Pressurized thermal shock is a condition that can occur following a E

of the reactor coolant system (RCS) if RCS pressure is rapidly 1

A.

cooldown; decreased B.

cooldown; increased j

l C.

heatup; decreased D.

heatup; increased QUESTION:

56

- A heatup stress applied to the reactor vessel is:

A.

compressive at the inner wall, tensile at the outer wall.

B.

tensile at the inner wall, compressive at the outer wall.

~

C.

tensile across the entire wall.

- D, compressive across the entire wall, o

PWR FORM B 19 F

t,

-:i 3

PWR FORM B-QUESTION:

57 Operators ahould'use BOTH hands on valve handwheels when positioning manual valves to:

t A,

overcome the resistance of installed locking devices.

B..

control the rate of valve motion to prevent water hammer.

C.

ensure system pressure, temperature, and flow are controlled during valve motion.

i D.

control lateral force to prevent bending the valve stem.

i QUESTION:

58 The DIFFERENCE between the pressure at which a safety / relief valve begins to open and the pressure at which it is fully open is called:

A.

accumulation.

B.

blowdown.

C.

setpoint tolerance.

D.

setpoint deviation.

- h O

PWR FORM B 20

_ +.

f 4, j -,,

-i r

PWR FORM-3 QUESTION: 59 Refer to the figure below for the following question.

i Following a loss of controlling air pressure, the spring-loaded valve will fail:

'4.

open.

t B.

as is.

C.

closed, i,

D, to mid; position.

['

tll t

QMp 7

1l 3i L

1

. a !

~

s

.)

O V

y\\

I s

+

3jhl b

\\/

d r

PWR FORM B 21 1

L

~r 4

p 3M;4 ii u FER FORK Bi QUESTION: -60 The manual declutch lever of a motor-operated valve the motor'and the handwheel.

A.

disengages;. engages

.B.

deenergizes; engages

'C.

engages; disengages

'D.

reenergizes; disengages s

. QUESTION:. 61 To verify the position of a FULLY-OPEN nsanual valve, the operator should:

f A.

fully close the valve, then~ reopen it to the fully open position.

i B.

open the valve until it touches the backseat,cthen close it to the desired position.

L C..

operate-the' valve;in the open direction until the valve is backseated one-half turn.

D.-

operate _the-valve in the closed direction, then reopen the valve to its

. previous open position.

t QUESTION:

62 l:

The most probable'cause for fluctuating indication from a liquid flow rate

~ differential. pressure detector is:

A.'

gas or steam being trapped-in the liquid.

B.

the valve on the equalizing Tine being open.

P C

the valve on the low pressure sensing line being closed.

i#

D, the valve on the high pressure sensing line being closed.,

4 v

PWR FORM B 22 i

.r' F

4.g a

e; e

s

??[

PWR FORM B-i l

' QUESTION:

63; f

A.,

LA ' differential' pressure l(D/P) cell is being'used to measure. flow. rate in aJ q

cooling water system.

Flow rate is' indicating 75 percentLof scale.

If the-

.D/P cell diaphram ruptures, INDICATED flow rate will:

LA.

igo to O percent.

)

B.

go to-100 percent (full-scale).

-C' remain the same.

,l D.

. move slowly to 50" percent (mid-scale).

.i J

QUESTION: : 64

'A differential pressure level transmitter, with its reference leg vented to atmospherc, was calibrated for use on an.open tank atl100 degrees.F.

If mass-in the tank remains constant and the temperature is raised to'200 degrees F,

-the INDICATED level will:

l

.A.

. remain the-same although' actual level increases.

' ncrease but remain less than actual level.

i B.

C..

. decrease but remain greater than actual level.

- D '.

increase in direct-proportion to the temperature rise.

1 QUESTION:

65 Which one of the-following failures of a wet reference leg differential pressure (D/P) level transmitter will cause its level indicator to indicate the LOWEST. level?

A.'

The D/P' cell diaphragm ruptures.

-B.

The reference leg ruptures.

C.

1The variable leg ruptures.

D.

The equalizing line ruptures.

a PWR FORM B 23 u

4;.

t p

f

~

~~

.1 r-r 1~

(ad ??'.

x fr 2 p~..

?f; i

J."'

t s

glll PWR FORM Bl 7

')

LQUESTIONi-66 L

4 A simple' bellows pressure detector is located in the reactor containment with

~its low pressure side' vented.to-the containment.

If a main steam break raises p

containment pressure by 40 psig, the associated pressure indication (disregarding any temperature effect on the bellows) will:

A.

increase by the square root of 40 psig.

B.

increase by 40 psig..

[

C.

decrease b'y.40 peig.

pl D.

stay constant.

~y i.

t b

QUESTION: '67 A bourdon-tube pressure detector that is indicating 50 percent of scale is suddenly exposed tofa pressure transient that. extends the detector 75 percent beyond.its upper range value. Actual pressure returns to its original value.

Assuming-theJdetector remains intact, the.affected pressure indication will-initially-go off-scale high,.and;then:

A.

become unpredictable until the instrument is calibrated.

B.

return to-a pressure less than original pressure.

C.

' return to original pressure.

.D.

return-to a pressure greater than original pressure.

L E

QUESTION:

68~

l.

L A' resistance temperature detector (RTD). operates on the principle that a l'

change in metal resistance is-proportional to the change in L

A.

directly; metal temperature B.

.directly; metal temperature squared,

C.

inversely; metal temperature D.

inversely; metal temperature squared

'PWR FORM B 24 f

=

i

'in; c; Q y

7, G

i--

PWR FORM B

,69-QUISTION:

'An open circuit in a thermocouple causes the affected temperature-indication i

to fail:-

i A.

high...

B.

' low.

)::

C.

to reference junction temperature.

D.

as is.-

-t QUESTION:

70 Most of the electrons collected in a fission chamber are released as a result of ionizatiens:caured DIRECTLY by:

,A.

fission-fragments.

B.

fission gammas.

t C.

fission betas,

-D.-

fissionable materials.

' QUESTION: :71 t

Which of the following describes the reason for the HIGH SENSITIVITY of'a Geiger Mueller tube radiation detector?

' ~

A.

Changes in applied detector voltage have little effect on detector output.

B.

Geiger-MEeller tuber are longer than other radiation detector types.

C.

Any incident radiation event causing primary ionization results in ion %2ation of the entire detector.

. Geiger-Mueller tubes are capable of operating at relatively high D.

~

detector voltages, allowing detection of low energy radiation.

~

l PWR FORM B 25

+

( '

e r

y P$

i

,, - i PWR FORM B

' QUESTION:

72 Which of the following statements describes the use of a self-reading pocket dosimeter (SRPD)?

A.

SRPDs hold their charge indefinitely when removed from a radiation field.

i B.-

SRPD readings must'be considered inaccurate when they are dropped.

C.

SRPDs can be used to record beta and gamma radiation.

D.

The output of an SRPD is a dose rate in ar/hr.

QUESTION:

73 The range of values around the setpoint of a measured variable where NO ACTION l

occurs in an automatic flow controller is called:

3 A.

deviation.

B' error.

C.

deadband.

D.

bias.

QUESTION: - 74 '

The governor of an emergency diesel generator (D/G) DIRECTLY senses D/G and adjusts D/G

_ flow to maintain a relatively constant D/G frequency.

i l

A.

load, air B.

speed, fuel i-l C.

load, fuel 1

D.

speed, air O

(:

PWR FORM B 26 I

. --=------.- w.

. M 'x n

x

!PWR FORM B

. QUESTION: The' output pressure of a pneumatic controller is typically insufficient to

-drive a valve actuator accurately.

To~ overcome this problem,-a control loop

.would NORMALLY employ 4:

A'..

valve actuating lead / lag unit.

B.

. pressure regulator.

C.

valve positioner.

D.-

filter drive unit.

QUESTION: 76 When shifting from automatic to manual valve control, the manual and automatic controller output signals should be MATCHED to:

A.

' prevent a sudden valve repositioning upon the transfer,

>B.

satisfy the control transfer interlocks.

.C.

move the valve to the new position prior to the transfer.

D.

prevent the controller from locking up due to a large. deviation.

QUESTION: 77 Which of the following changes in pump operating parameters will DIRECTLY lead to pump cavitation in a centrifugal pump that is operating in a closed-loop system?

A.

Steadily increasing pump inlet temperature.

B.

Steadily decreasing pump flow rate (by reducing pump speed).

C.

, Steadily increasing pump suction pressure.

-D.

Steadily increasing pump discharge pressure.

PWR FORM B 27 i

l t

I t

p t

e

r '-

e z

-i i

g?@

.PWR FORM'3

.:r QUESTION:: 78' The presence of air in a pump casing may result in when the pump is-

_ started.-

-t A.

vortexing i

- B.

pump runout C ',

head loss

+-

ii D.

gas binding f

A QUESTION: i Failure to provide adequate minimum flow for a centrifugal pump can DIRECTLY result in:

A.

discharge piping overpressurization.

't suction piping overpressurization.

B.-

C.

excessive pump leakoff.

D.

. pump overheating.

E h

l QUESTION:

80-1 A constant-speed centrifugal pump motor draws the LEAST' current when the pump is:

A.

at. runout conditions.

i B.-

at operating conditions.

I

~

C.

accelerating to normal speed during secxt.

D.

at shutoff head.

l l:

l'

~

o PWR FORM B 28 i

l:

e

'ee-o

?9'

t

.y o

FWR FORM B~

'l QUESTION:~ 81' Many! larger' centrifugal pumps-are started with their discharge valves CLOSED in-order to prevent:

A.-

Lloss of recirculation-(miniflow).

i l

B.

overloading the pump motor, t

C.

cavitation in the pump.

D..

1'ifting the' discharge relief valve.

f R

. QUEST. ION:

82 j,

An increase'in positive displacement pump speed will cause the available net positive suction head for the pump to:

l

- A.

decrease due to the increase in fluid flow.

B.

decrease due to the increase in fluid discharge pressure.

C.

increase d:a to the increase in fluid discharge pressure.

D.

increase due to the increase in fluid flow.

[.

' QUESTION:

83 The following are indications of a locked reactor (primary)-coolant pump rotor' EXCEPT:

- A.

reactor _(primary) coolant system pressure transient.

B.

peak reactor (primary) coolant pump amps with possible breaker trip.

- C.

decreased flow rate in unaffected loop (s).

D.

low reactor (primary) coolant system flow trip.

PWR FORM B 29 O

a+

' 4 iL?

'n

^,

~

m 4 I

rc ji 6

,4 PWk^ FORM B:

fQUESTION: 44;

~A' centrifugal pump has a flow rate of 3,000 gpm and a current requirement of 200 amps.

If the' speed'is reduced such that the flow rate is 2,000 gpm, what.

_r is the fina1' CURRENT requirement at the new lower speed?

(Assume a constant

[

motor voltage.)..

A.

-59 amps j

B.

89 amps C.

133. amps D.

150 amps V

QUESTION.. 85-l ExcessiveLAC motor current can be caused DIE.ZCTLY by operating the rotor:

A.

completely unloaded, u

L; B.

at full load, L

t C.

with open-circuited windings.

D.

with short-circuited windings.

(

~ QUESTION: ' 86 '

~

Which of th'e following-describes the moter current indications.that would be i

observed during the start of a large AC motor at Fyll load?

~

l-

,s A.

Amps slowly increase to the full-loa /.. vent B.

' Amps increase immediately to the full-load value.

C.

Amps increase.immediately to approximately twice the full-load value and

- then decrease to the normal full-load value.

.D.

Amps increase immediately to more than three times the full-load value and then decrease to the normal full-load value.

PWR FORM B 30 s

rm.

m m.

-2 i

p.

y 8 '

[.:gii 0%.

~

-t i

^*

[

PWR-FORM B-QUESTION:

87 s

i

Which of the following is the reason for LIMITING the number of motor starts-in'a given time period?

-A.

' Minimizes pitting of starter contacts B.

Prevents excessive torsional stresses on motor shaft

.i

.C..

Prevents overheating of motor windings D.

Minimizes axial stresses on motor' bearings.

t

.4 L.'s i

l l

+

p 1'

1 i-W PWR FORM B 31

-o I

f

,. p,... c.

1 ry t

L

.p33.yogg.3-

'I (QUESTION:

88 i

J

' Refer to the figure below for the'following question. All valves are

. identical ~and are initially 50 percent open.

('

. To IDVER the temperature at point 7, the operator should adjust valve s

in the QIEE direction.

.A.-

A-b.-

B C.

C

'D.

D~

m, mftu to SUSitM f'T db V

6 See*P it A

L g

T'

..m9 1

8 g II uns HeT ie dk, S

sov sames D

g u_

m amonenuma g8 13 4,,y sue sammene i

muuuuuum PWR FORM B 32 I

e

,~

w

.+ :

j ~:

f

(J; c'#

4-g ggg g

,yj QUESTION:. 89 The ]ElDR thermodynamic concern resulting from RAPIDLY cooling a pressure

, vessel is:

A.,

loss of subcooling margin.

B.-

thermal shock.

C.

loss;of shutdown margin.

'D.

condensation.

'l-i

l.i s

l

.PWR FORM B 33 1

g

" =-

_r,AJ w

i

%f'y1 i

~ v

+

t' ' )! P, f{

4 -

1.,

PWR FORM'3 QNESTION: L90..

i

. Refer.co the figure below for the following question.

P'ich of the-following effects would occur as a result of a tube FAILURE in-the heat exchanger?

A.

High pressure fluid inventcry increases.

B.~ -

Flow.in *.he low pressure system reverses.-

I JC. -

Temperature in the low pressure system increases, D.

~

y Level in the tank increases, -

r HP FWID e

TANe(

1f

.i m.

/

nun na..

u LP FLU 40

^

u

!~

t-PWR FORM B 34 L

S 9

m.

..E.

ec,

4,-

PWR FORM B QUESTION:

91 When a mixed bed demineralizer resin is exhausted, the resin should be replaced or regenerated because:

A.

the resin williphysically bond together, thereby causing a flow blockage.

B.

ions previously removed by the resin will be released to solution.

C.

the resin will fracture and possibly escape through the retention screens.

D.

particles previously filtered out of solution will b* toleased.

PWR FORM B 35

=

m p p; y _ L v.'

,s.

FWR-FORM:B I

-QUESTION: ' 92

' /3, domineralizer that has been' exposed to should be bypassed because the-resin' beads may decompose.

3 i

A. -

high temperatura B.

low flow C.

low temperature D.

high flow n

' QUESTION:

93 A demineralizer is BORON SATURATED when:

A.

the demineralizer discharges large amounts of boron into the reactor-coolant.-

7

'B.

the demineralizer' absorbs greater than-200 ppm boron per bour.

C.

the domineralizer boron removal rate. decreases rapidly.

D, outlet temperature of the demineralizer begins to incre we _ rapidly.

. QUESTION:

9'4 During maintenance activities, breakers in the open position are TAGGED and BAGGZQ QllI to:

A.

deenergize'comoonents and associated control-and indication circuits.

B.

provide administrative control where safety is not of priL importance.

-C.-

maintain remote indication of breaker position (where available) to ensure personnel safety.

1D.

_ permit immediate availability of the breaker if required for emergency use.

a.

l' D

o.

PWR FORM B 36 e

f a

ng <

4 PWR FORM B 16 ISTION:

95 While locally investigating the condition of a large circuit breaker, the operator observes the following indications:

OPEN/ CLOSED mechanical flag indication indicates open.

OPEN/ CLOSED indicating lights indicate open.

Overcurrent trip flags are actuated on all phases.

Load side voltmeter indicates zero volts.

Load side ammeter indicates zero amperes.

Based on these indications, the operator should report that the circuit breaker is open, racked

, with condition indicated.

A.

in, overload B.

in, no overload C.

out. overload D.

out, no overload QUESTION:

96 Which of the following would cause a loss of ability to remotely trip a circuit breaker AND a loss of position indication?

A.

Loss of breaker control power l

l B.

Failure of breaker contr71 switch C.

Mechanical binding of breaker D.

Breaker in " test" position L

PWR FORM B 37

',o1 s t

6 PWR FORM B QUESTION:

97

' Closing the output breaker of the main generator with the frequency of the

~

generator HIGHER than grid frequency will result in the generator:

A.

behaving as a real load to the grid.

r B..

behaving as a reactive load to the_ grid.

C.

picking up a portion of the grid real load (MWe).

D..

picking up a portion of the grid reactive load (MVAR).

[

QUESTION:

98 Which of the following generator conditions is MOST LIKELY to cause generator damage because of high current?

A.

Tripping the output breaker under full-load conditions B.

Tripping the generator prime mover under full-load conditions C.

Closing the output breaker on a bus-that has an open-circuit fault D.

Closing the output breaker on a bus that has a short-circuit fault

-QUESTION:

99 The function of high voltage electrical disconnects is to:

A.

isolate equipment electrically during no-load conditions.

.B.

isolate equipment electrically during overload conditions.

C.

protect circuits during overcurrent conditions.

~D.

protect. cf.rcuits during undervoltage conditions.

PWR FORM B 38 e

,; c _

>y

.j$f o! L 2

n

o pyg FORM B b:

' QUESTION:

100 The following indications are observed for a breaker in the control' room..

~

- Red (energized) (closed) indicating light "off"

. Green (de energized) (open)-indicating _ light "off"

-. Load amps indicate normal load current Assuming one of the indicating lights is burnt out, what is the condition of the breaker?

-A..

Open and racked in B.

Shut'and racked in C.

Open and racked to " test" position D.-

Shut and racked to " test" PW1? FORM B 39

'+.

-