ML18039A933

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301 Exam Report Items SRO as Given - Delay Release 2 Yrs
ML18039A933
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Site: Saint Lucie  NextEra Energy icon.png
Issue date: 02/08/2018
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PSL L-17-1 NRC WRITTEN EXAM DATE: 12/19/2017 EXAM:

SRO

76.

Given the following timeline:

12:00:00 Unit 1 is in Mode 5 RCS level is 33 ft The 1A train of SDC is in service the 1B train is in Standby 12:03:00 RCS Level is 32 ft and LOWERING 1-AOP-01.08, RCS Leakage is entered 12:05:00 The SDC Pump Trip Criteria on RCS Level is MET Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

1-AOP-01.08 requires the SDC Pumps to be secured at a MINIMUM level of ____(1)____.

IF at 12:20:00, the crew has NOT restored RCS Level and SDC flow; the Crew is required to

____(2)____.

Note: 1-ONP-01.04, Plant Condition 4 SDC in Operation with Reduced Inventory A.

(1) 31 ft 3 inches (2)

GO TO 1-ONP-01.04 B.

(1) 31 ft 3 inches (2) remain in 1-AOP-01.08 and Initiate Safety Function status checks of 1-ONP-01.04 C.

(1) 29 ft 9.5 inches (2)

GO TO 1-ONP-01.04 D.

(1) 29 ft 9.5 inches (2) remain in 1-AOP-01.08 and Initiate Safety Function status checks of 1-ONP-01.04

77.

Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 1 has experienced a SGTR
  • 1-EOP-04, SGTR is in progress at step 10 INITIATE lowering RCS Temperature to less than 510 °F Which ONE of following completes the statement below?

The RCS is cooled down to less than a ____(1)____ of 510 °F, in accordance with 1-EOP-04, Step 10.

The purpose of this action ____(2)____ to prevent a MSSV from lifting after the S/G is isolated in accordance with CEN 152, BD-E-4, SGTR Basis.

A.

(1)

Thot (2) is B.

(1)

Thot (2) is NOT C.

(1)

Rep CET (2) is D.

(1)

Rep CET (2) is NOT

78.

Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 2 has tripped due to the loss of the 2A Main Feedwater Pump
  • The crew has entered 2-EOP-15, Functional Recovery
  • 2A S/G pressure is 710 psia LOWERING
  • 2B S/G pressure is 790 psia STABLE Which ONE of the following describes:

(1) the MOST affected S/G?

AND (2) when the faulted S/G is NO longer considered FAULTED?

A.

(1) 2A S/G is the MOST affected S/G (2)

When the MSSV is gagged B.

(1) 2A S/G is the MOST affected S/G (2)

When 2-EOP-99, Appendix R, Steam Generator Isolation is complete C.

(1) 2B S/G is the MOST affected S/G (2)

When the MSSV is gagged D.

(1) 2B S/G is the MOST affected S/G (2)

When 2-EOP-99, Appendix R, Steam Generator Isolation is complete

79.

Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 1 is at 100% power
  • 1A EDG is out of service
  • The 1AB Electrical Busses are aligned to the B side Subsequently:
  • The 1A DC bus is energized from the 1AB Battery Charger
  • ONLY the 1AB DC has been aligned to the A side Which ONE of the following describes the battery rating and the requirements regarding the 1A DC Busses?

The 1A DC Battery is rated to operate for a MAXIMUM of ____(1)____ hours without the assistance of a battery charger during emergency operations.

Per ADM-11.16, the 1AB battery charger ____(2)____ be used to satisfy Tech Spec Surveillance Requirement for verifying D.C. Train operability per 4.8.2.3.1, D.C.

Distribution - Operating.

NOTE: ADM-11.16, Transient Procedure Use and Adherence A.

(1) 2 (2) can B.

(1) 2 (2) can NOT C.

(1) 4 (2) can D.

(1) 4 (2) can NOT

80.

Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 1 is at 100% power Subsequently:
  • The BRCO reports ALL lights on RPS channel B are OFF Which ONE of the following describes the impact on the plant, and the appropriate response?

____(1)____ Trip Circuit Breakers will OPEN.

In accordance with ADM-11.16, Transient Procedure Use and Adherence, the Unit will enter ____(2)____.

NOTE: Unit 1 Tech Specs (TS), 3.8.2.1, ONSITE Power Distribution - Operating Unit 2 Tech Specs (TS), 3.8.3.1, ONSITE Power Distribution - Operating A.

(1) 2 (2)

Unit 1 TS, 3.8.2.1 ONLY B.

(1) 2 (2)

Unit 1 TS, 3.8.2.1 and administratively apply the actions of the Unit 2 TS 3.8.3.1 C.

(1) 4 (2)

Unit 1 TS, 3.8.2.1 ONLY D.

(1) 4 (2)

Unit 1 TS, 3.8.2.1 and administratively apply the actions of the Unit 2 TS 3.8.3.1

81.

Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 1 has experienced a Total Loss of Feedwater
  • 1-EOP-06, Total Loss of Feedwater is in progress at Step 11, Verify RCS Heat Removal
  • 1A S/G level is 17% wide range
  • 1B S/G level is 4% wide range
  • The Atmospheric Dump Valves (ADVs) are FULL OPEN
  • Tcold has RISEN steadily from 535° to 541°F over the past 3 minutes Which ONE of the following describes the parameter requiring Once Through Cooling (OTC) in accordance with 1-EOP-06, and the required procedure path for performing OTC?

Based on ____(1)____, the US directs ____(2)____.

Note: 1-EOP-15, Functional Recovery A.

(1)

S/G Levels (2) exiting 1-EOP-06, go to 1-EOP-15, Step 1 and initiate once-through cooling when the required HR-3 step is reached B.

(1)

S/G Levels (2) initiating once-through cooling by referring to 1-EOP-15, HR-3 success path 3 then exiting 1-EOP-06 and entering 1-EOP-15 at step 1 C.

(1)

Tcold RISE (2) exiting 1-EOP-06, go to 1-EOP-15, Step 1 and initiate once-through cooling when the required HR-3 step is reached D.

(1)

Tcold RISE (2) initiating once-through cooling by referring to 1-EOP-15, HR-3 success path 3 then exiting 1-EOP-06 and entering 1-EOP-15 at step 1

82.

Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 2 has experienced a Loss of Coolant Accident (LOCA)
  • The Crew is performing the steps of 2-EOP-03, LOCA
  • RCS Pressure is 280 psia
  • Rep CET Temperature is 660°F
  • The Crew has transitioned to 2-EOP-15, Functional Recovery
  • Containment Temperature is 225°F and RISING
  • Containment Pressure is 44 psia and RISING
  • Annunciator, S-17 CNTMT Press High CSAS Channel Trip is LIT 10 minutes later:
  • Annunciator, S-17 CNTMT Press High CSAS Channel Trip CLEARS Which ONE of the following describes a possible cause of S-17 clearing, and based on that cause, describe the correct emergency classification without using Emergency Coordinator judgement to elevate the classification in accordance with EPIP-01, Classification of Emergencies?

S-17 CLEARED due to the ____(1)____ and the appropriate classification is a

____(2)____.

(REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A.

(1)

Containment Failing (2)

SAE B.

(1)

Containment Failing (2)

GE C.

(1)

Containment Spray reduced Containment pressure (2)

SAE D.

(1)

Containment Spray reduced Containment pressure (2)

GE

83.

Given the following conditions:

  • The 2B S/G has been isolated
  • The "CLOSE" fuses for RCPs 2B1 & 2B2 have been removed Which ONE of the following describes the 2-EOP-04 bases for removal of the "CLOSE" fuses?

Upon power restoration, an RCP start could result in ________.

A.

a RCP seal failure B.

a positive reactivity event C.

operating RCPs outside of NPSH requirements D.

a pressure spike that could exceed the upper limits of Figure 1A

84.

Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 1 is at 100% power performing 1-OSP-99.08, A Train Quarterly Non Check Valve Cycle Test
  • V5200 and V5203, RCS Hot Leg Sample Isolation valves have just been exercised
  • Post testing, V5200 and V5203 were verified to be CLOSED in the control room and locally Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

In accordance with ADM-11.16, Transient Procedure Use and Adherence and Unit 1 TS, 3.6.3.1, Containment Isolation Valves, ________.

A.

no additional action is required as long as V5200 and V5203 remain CLOSED B.

within 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />, at a MINIMUM, EITHER V5200 OR V5203 MUST be deactivated by removing control power fuses C.

within 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />, at a MINIMUM, BOTH V5200 and V5203 MUST be deactivated by removing control power fuses D.

within 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />, at a MINIMUM, BOTH V5200 MUST be deactivated by removing control power fuses AND a manual isolation valve in the flow path must be CLOSED

85.

Given the following conditions:

  • The 1A EDG failed to START
  • The Crew is about to exit 1-EOP-01, Standard Post Trip Actions
  • Pressurizer pressure is 900 psia and RISING
  • ECCS flow is 450 gpm
  • Pressurizer level is 15% and RISING
  • CET is 338°F and Thot is 330°F slowly LOWERING
  • 1A SG is 30 psia and STABLE
  • 1B SG is 750 psia and STABLE
  • 1A SG level is 5% Wide range with 0 AFW flow
  • 1B SG level is 25% Narrow range and RISING with 150 gpm AFW flow
  • Containment pressure is 0 psig
  • Reactor vessel level indicates 4-8 covered
  • SJAE radiation monitor had a RISING trend prior to the trip Which ONE of the following describes the required procedure selection and actions?

The US ____(1)____ required to implement 1-EOP-15, Functional Recovery and depressurize the RCS using Aux. Spray for the purpose of ____(2)____.

(REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A.

(1) is (2)

LOWERING subcooling B.

(1) is (2)

RAISING Safety Injection flow C.

(1) is NOT (2)

LOWERING subcooling D.

(1) is NOT (2)

RAISING Safety Injection flow

86.

Given the following timeline:

00:00:00 Unit 2 is at 100% power RCS Pressure: 2250 psia 2A1 Middle Seal Cavity Pressure: 2150 psig 2A1 Upper Seal Cavity Pressure: 1000 psig 2A1 Bleedoff Cavity Pressure: 110 psig 2-AOP-01.09A1, 2A1 Reactor Coolant Pump has been entered 00:30:00 The Reactor is manually tripped due to degrading conditions that meet trip criteria described in 2-AOP-01.09A1 Which ONE of the following describes the status of the 2A1 RCP seals and the required report of the event in accordance with LI-AA-102-1001, Regulatory Reporting?

At time 00:00:00, the 2A1 RCP ____(1)____ is(are) failed.

In accordance with LI-AA-102-1001, the required report is a(n) ____(2)____ report.

(REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A.

(1)

LOWER seal ONLY (2) 4 hour4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> B.

(1)

LOWER seal ONLY (2) 8 hour9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> C.

(1)

LOWER and MIDDLE seals (2) 4 hour4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> D.

(1)

LOWER and MIDDLE seals (2) 8 hour9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />

87.

Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 1 is in Mode 4 performing a cooldown for a refueling outage
  • RCS Temperature is 305 °F
  • A and B SDC Trains are in service
  • ALL AB Electrical Busses are aligned to the "B" side Subsequently:
  • The 1A Component Cooling Water (CCW) pump trips The crew has entered 1-AOP-14.01, Component Cooling Water Abnormal Operations and performed the following actions:
  • ONLY the 1AB 4160 VAC bus is aligned to the "A" side
  • The 1C CCW pump has been mechanically aligned to the to the "A" side
  • The 1C CCW pump has been started Which ONE of the following describes the reason the cooling water flow is isolated to the SDC HX prior to start of the 1C CCW pump in accordance with 1-AOP-14.01, and the Tech Specs compliance after the 1C CCW pump has been started?

The cooling water flow is isolated to limit flashing on the ____(1)____ side of the SDC HX.

When the 1C CCW pump has been started, Tech Spec 3.7.3, Component Cooling Water System is ____(2)____.

A.

(1)

CCW (2) met B.

(1)

CCW (2)

NOT met C.

(1)

RCS (2) met D.

(1)

RCS (2)

NOT met

88.

Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 2 is at 100% power
  • Pressurizer Level Control is selected to Channel Y
  • Pressurizer Backup Heaters B1 are out of service due to a breaker failure Subsequently:
  • Pressurizer Level Transmitter, LT-1100Y fails LOW
  • 2-AOP-01.10, Pressurizer Pressure and Level, Att. 5, Recovering Power to Pressurizer Heaters has been completed Which ONE of the following describes the heaters that can be recovered and the applicable Tech Spec requirements?

Based on the given conditions ____(1)____ can be recovered. Tech Spec 3.4.3, Pressurizer, Action (b) ____(2)____ required to be entered.

(REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A.

(1)

B2 and B3 heaters ONLY (2) is B.

(1)

B2 and B3 heaters ONLY (2) is NOT C.

(1)

B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6 heaters (2) is D.

(1)

B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6 heaters (2) is NOT

89.

Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 2 is at 100% power Subsequently:
  • Refueling Water Storage Tank (RWT) Level Transmitter LIS-07-2A fails LOW
  • 2-AOP-99.01, Loss of Tech Spec Instrumentation has been entered Which ONE of the following describes the required action(s) and the Tech Spec implication for continued operation?

2-AOP-99.01, ____(1)____ allow placing the RWT Low Level Bistable in BYPASS.

In accordance with TS 3.3.2, ESFAS Instrumentation, when the bistable action is complete, operation ____(2)____ be continued until the NEXT cold shutdown.

A.

(1) does (2) can B.

(1) does (2) can NOT C.

(1) does NOT (2) can D.

(1) does NOT (2) can NOT

90.

Given the following Unit 1 timeline:

  • 1-EOP-03 is in progress Time:

1352 1417 RCS pressure:

310 psia 300 psia CET:

400 °F 390 °F ECCS Flow:

750 gpm 800 gpm Pressurizer level:

20%

40%

A S/G NR level:

55%

51%

B S/G NR level:

56%

52%

Containment Temp:

185 °F 185 °F RVLMS Sensors 4-8:

covered covered Which ONE of the following describes the EOP implementation strategy?

NOTE: 1-EOP-03, Loss of Coolant Accident 1-EOP-15, Functional Recovery (REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A.

Continue with 1-EOP-03 and depressurize the RCS to increase ECCS flow B.

Exit to 1-EOP-15, IC-2 will be the first safety function that will be addressed C.

Exit to 1-EOP-15, HR-2 will be the first safety function that will be addressed D.

Continue with 1-EOP-03, throttle HPSI flow per Appendix S, Safety Injection Throttling and Restoration

91.

Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 2 is at 100% power
  • JI-006A, Axial Power Shape (ASI) indicates FULL Scale MAX Positive
  • L-9, Reactor Power High Channel Trip
  • L-22, Local Power Density Channel Trip
  • L-34, Nuclear/T Power Channel Deviation
  • L-36, TM/LP Channel Trip Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

The ____(1)____ detector has failed HIGH.

Azimuthal Power Tilt per TS 3.2.4, Azimuthal Power Tilt - Tq ____(2)____ required to be determined at least once per 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />.

A.

(1)

UPPER (2) is B.

(1)

UPPER (2) is NOT C.

(1)

LOWER (2) is D.

(1)

LOWER (2) is NOT

92.

Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 1 is at 100% power
  • A Containment Entry is planned
  • Site Safety reports the Containment Atmosphere for Carbon Monoxide (CO) is too HIGH to support entry
  • A continuous containment purge is required to reduce the CO concentration Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate purge method and the Tech Spec entry requirements?

The Crew will perform the purge using ____(1)____ and apply Tech Spec ____(2)____

A.

(1)

HVE-7 A/B, Cont CNTMT/H2 Purge Fan, through the Continuous Purge (mini-purge) mode filter train IAW 1-NOP-25.02, Hydrogen Purge System (2) 3.6.3.1, Containment Isolation Valves, action statement to isolate the flow path within the specified time B.

(1)

HVE-7 A/B, Cont CNTMT/H2 Purge Fan, through the Continuous Purge (mini-purge) mode filter train IAW 1-NOP-25.02, Hydrogen Purge System (2) 3.6.1.1, Containment Vessel Integrity for the required contingency actions using a dedicated operator in continuous communication with the control room C.

(1)

HVE-8 A/B, Centrifugal Fan for Containment, Purge System through the Main Purge IAW 1-NOP-06.20, Controlled Gaseous Batch Release to Atmosphere (2) 3.6.3.1, Containment Isolation Valves, action statement to isolate the flow path within the specified time D.

(1)

HVE-8 A/B, Centrifugal Fan for Containment, Purge System through the Main Purge IAW 1-NOP-06.20, Controlled Gaseous Batch Release to Atmosphere (2) 3.6.1.1, Containment Integrity Bases Station a dedicated operator in continuous communication with the control room

93.

Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 2 is at 100% power
  • A team has entered the Unit 2 Containment for a valve inspection
  • A blown fuse results in a loss of the power to RIS-26-3, A Channel Containment (CIS) Radiation Monitor
  • The crew has entered 2-AOP-26.02, Area Radiation Monitors
  • The crew has bypassed the failed ESFAS channel Subsequently:
  • I&C reports the repair is expected to take 50 hours5.787037e-4 days <br />0.0139 hours <br />8.267196e-5 weeks <br />1.9025e-5 months <br /> to complete Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

The containment evacuation alarm ____(1)____ AUTOMATICALLY upon the fuse failure.

In accordance with TS 3.3.2, ESFAS Instrumentation and based on the expected time to repair, the A CIS Radiation bistable ____(2)____ during the entire repair window.

A.

(1) sounded (2)

MUST be placed in trip B.

(1) did not sound (2)

MUST be placed in trip C.

(1) sounded (2)

MAY be maintained in bypass D.

(1) did not sound (2)

MAY be maintained in bypass

94.

Given the following conditions:

  • BOTH Units are at 100% power
  • MINIMUM Shift Crew Complement is filling ALL required positions POSITION QUALIFICATION SM SM SRO ONLY U1 US SRO ONLY U2 US SRO / STA ONLY STA SRO / STA ONLY
  • At 03:30 the Unit 1 Desk RCO (DRCO) had to leave site due to an emergency In accordance with OPS Policy 201, Shift Complement, which ONE of the following describes how the position can be filled.

The VACANT DRCO Position ________.

A.

can be left VACANT until the scheduled end of shift B.

can be filled by the STA fulfilling DRCO/STA dual roles C.

MUST be filled by the Call out of a Licensed Operator ONLY D.

can be filled by the U1 US filling the DRCO Position after being relieved by the STA fulfilling US/STA dual roles

95.

Given the following conditions:

  • An Event requiring activation of the ERO is in progress
  • NO Radioactive releases have occurred Which ONE of the following describes the MINIMUM Emergency Action Level declaration that a Site Evacuation of non-essential personnel is mandatory, and the location that Extra Licensed Operators will report?

Site Evacuation of non-essential personnel is required at ____(1)____.

Extra LICENSED Operators report to the ____(2)____.

A.

(1)

ALERT (2)

OSC B.

(1)

ALERT (2)

Control Room C.

(1)

Site Area Emergency (2)

OSC D.

(1)

Site Area Emergency (2)

Control Room

96.

Given the following conditions:

  • 2 Departments, Electrical and I&C Maintenance are scheduled to work on the 1A1 Debris Filter System CONCURRENTLY utilizing a generic troubleshooting guide
  • The work is expected to take 2 shifts
  • They are requesting to use DIRECT CONTROL in accordance with OP-AA-101-1000, Clearance and Tagging
  • The Electrical Disconnect switch is within line of sight of the work site
  • BOTH the Electrical and I&C Maintenance Departments have verified the disconnect will completely isolate the energy source Which ONE of the following describes who is responsible for authorizing use of DIRECT CONTROL and if DIRECT CONTROL can be authorized in this case?

The ____(1)____ authorizes use of DIRECT CONTROL.

Regarding the evolution described above, DIRECT CONTROL ____(2)____ be authorized.

A.

(1)

Operations Manager (2) can B.

(1)

Operations Manager (2) can NOT C.

(1)

Operations Shift Supervision (2) can D.

(1)

Operations Shift Supervision (2) can NOT

97.

Which ONE of the following describes evolutions that are defined as an Infrequently Performed Evolution in accordance with OP-AA-1000, Conduct of Infrequently Performed Tests or Evolutions (IPTE), Attachment 2, Infrequently Performed Evolutions?

1-PTP-91, Unit 1 Initial Criticality Following Refueling, ____(1)____ listed as an IPTE.

1-OSP-66.01, Control Element Assembly Exercise, ____(2)____ listed as an IPTE.

A.

(1) is (2) is B.

(1) is (2) is NOT C.

(1) is NOT (2) is D.

(1) is NOT (2) is NOT

98.

Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 1 is at 100% power
  • A radioactive liquid release is in progress from the 1B Waste Monitor Storage Tank
  • Liquid Release Permit # 17-52 was issued to authorize this release
  • After 30 minutes, liquid radwaste discharge radiation monitor channel R-6627(channel #43) alarms, the monitor indicates off-scale HIGH
  • The Desk RCO reports that all the actions of 1-AOP-06.02,Uncontrolled Release of Radioactive Liquids, have been completed
  • I&C reports that Channel R-6627 has failed HIGH and will be out of service for at least 60 days Which ONE of the following describes the required actions to properly complete the discharge from the 1B Waste Monitor Storage Tank?

A.

Issue a new release permit with independent samples and valve lineup verifications B.

Restart the release using permit #17-52, after performing a second independent release rate calculation C.

Issue a new release permit using periodic radioactive tank analysis (grab samples) in lieu of an OPERABLE radiation monitor D.

Restart the release using permit #17-52 with periodic radioactive tank analysis (grab samples) in lieu of an OPERABLE radiation monitor

99.

Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 1 is implementing 1-EOP-15, Functional Recovery The STA reports the following safety function status:
  • RCS Pressure Control is met by PC-3, Saturated Control
  • RCS Inventory Control is met by IC-2, Safety Injection
  • Cntmt Press & Temp is NOT met
  • Containment Isolation is NOT met Which ONE of the following describes the priority for performing the 1-EOP-15 Success Paths?

A.

CI-1, CTPC-3, IC-2, PC-3 B.

CI-1, CTPC-3, PC-3, IC-2 C.

CTPC-3, CI-1, IC-2, PC-3 D.

CTPC-3, CI-1, PC-3, IC-2

100.

Given the following conditions:

  • Unit 1 has experienced a Large Break LOCA
  • General Emergency has been declared
  • The Unit 1 SNPO has been dispatched to perform operations in an attempt to control effluent releases to avoid extensive exposure of large populations Which ONE of the following describes the MAXIMUM TEDE exposure limit for the task and whose authorization is required?

In accordance with EPIP-02, Duties and Responsibilities of the Emergency Coordinator the MAXIMUM TEDE limit is ____(1)____.

In accordance with EPIP-05, Activation and Operation of the Operational Support Center, the SM ____(2)____ authorize the exposure.

A.

(1) 10 REM (2) can B.

(1) 10 REM (2) can NOT C.

(1) 25 REM (2) can D.

(1) 25 REM (2) can NOT

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Saint Lucie SRO Written Exam References

1. Fission Product Barrier Emergency Classification Table
2. 1-EOP-99, Rev 62, Figure 1A, Page 1 of 1
3. 1-EOP-99, Rev 62, Figure 1B, Page 1 of 1
4. 1-EOP-99, Rev 62, Figure 2, Page 1 of 1
5. LI-AA-102-1001, Rev 18, Attachment 1
6. Tech Spec LCO 3/4.4.3, Pressurizer, Page 3/4 4-9
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