ML15239A031

Exam Rept 50-269/OL-89-02 on 891211-14 for Units 1,2 & 3. Exam Results:Six Senior Reactor Operators & All Eight Reactor Operators Passed Exams

ML15239A031
Person / Time
Site:	Oconee
Issue date:	02/01/1990
From:	Baldwin R, Casto C NRC OFFICE OF INSPECTION & ENFORCEMENT (IE REGION II)
To:
Shared Package
ML15239A030	List: ML15239A029 ML15239A031
References
50-269-OL-89-02, 50-269-OL-89-2, NUDOCS 9002260337
Download: ML15239A031 (46)

Text

j REG<.

UNITED STATES 0

NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION REGION II 10 101 MARIETTA STREET, N.W.

ATLANTA, GEORGIA 30323 ENCLOSURE 1 EXAMINATION REPORT -

50-269/OL-89-02 Facility License:

Duke Power Company Oconee Nuclear Station Route 2, Box 610 Seneca, SC 29678 Facility Docket Nos.:

50-269, 50-270, and 50-287 Facility License Nos.:

DPR-38, DPR-47, and DPR-55 Examinations were administered at the Oconee Nuclear Station near Seneca, South Carolina.

Chief Examiner:

t_

J Richard,, Baldwin Date Signed Approved By:

2 -

( A Char es A. Casto, Chief Date Sined Operator Licensing Section 2 Division of Reactor Safety Summary:

Examinations were administered during the period December 11 - 14, 1989.

Written examinations and operating tests were administered to seven SRO and eight RO applicants. Six SROs and eight ROs passed these examinations.

F O22'-:

kPDC

REPORT DETAILS

1. Examiners:

• R. Baldwin, NRC, Reqion II T. Peebles, NRC, Region II G. Salyers, NRC, Region II D. Graves, NRC, Region IV S. McCrory, NRC, Region IV

• Chief Examiner

2. Facility Personnel at Exit Meeting M. Tuckman, Station Manager H. Barron, Station Manager P. Stovall, Director Operator Training D. Sweigart, Superintendent of Operations G. Ridgeway, Shift Operations Manager L. Hindman, Senior Instructor T. Lee, Senior Instructor T. Farmer, Senior Instructor

3. Exit Meetina:

At the conclusion of the site visit the Chief Examiner met with representatives of the plant staff to discuss the results of the examination.

It was pointed out by the examination team that the candidates' usage of the Steam Generator Tube Rupture procedure was a generic problem. On all groups that used this procedure, confusion while performing certain key steps was noted, especially step 11 of EP/1800/01 Section 504.

As discussed with the facility staff, a concern about the number of facility personnel observing the examination was excessive and was allowed this time in order to allow trainina of another facility instructor.

While this did not adversely impact this particular examination, it did cause some concern reqardina the administration of the examination.

This practice of having more than two facility personnel (Examiner Standard ES 302) in the booth at one time will be at the discretion of the Chief Examiner and will be highly discouraged during future examinations.

During the simulator examinations electrical power fluctuations caused delays in administering the examination.

These delays caused undue pressure on the candidates during the examination.

2 It was pointed out that during the simulator examinations the current models used to develop the simulator characteristics were barely adequate to evaluate a candidate's performance properly.

During one simulator scenario the session had to be terminated due to a cooldown initiated by the simulator itself, and no further evaluation was possible.

It was also pointed out that the current models used for the simulator would most likely not be a useful tool for Requalification Examination evaluation scheduled in the summer of 1990.

After the new Westinahouse models are installed and are being used for training, the NRC will evaluate their effectiveness for the 1990 Requalification examination.

The cooperation given to the examination team was noted and greatly appreciated.

The licensee did not identify as proprietary any of the material provided to or reviewed by the reviewer.

NR.. 'oifLicial Use Only Nuclear Regulatory Commission Operator Licensing Examination This document is removed from Official Use Only category on date of examination.

NRC Official Use Only

U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION SENIOR REACTOR OPERATOR LICENSE EXAMINATION REGION 2

FACILITY:

Oconee 1, 2 & 3 REACTOR TYPE:

PWR-B&W177 DATE ADMINSTERED:

89/12/11 CANDIDATE:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:

Points for each question are indicated in parentheses after the question.

The passing grade requires at least 80% correct overall.

Examination papers will be picked up four and one half (4 1/2) hours after the examination starts.

% OF C"GORY % OF CANDIDATE'S CATEGORY E

TOTAL SCORE VALUE CATEGORY 48.00 60.Q0 EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS (43%)

PLANT SYSTEMS (40%) AND PLANT-WIDE GENERIC RESPONSIBILITIES (17%)

TOTALS FINAL GRADE All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Candidate's Signature

NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS Dng the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

heating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.

2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have not received or given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.

3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.

4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.

5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet.

6. Use the answer sheet provided for your answers. Use paper provided for additional answer space. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.

7. Print your name in the upper right-hand corner of each answer sheet.

8. Before you turn in your examination, consecutively number each answer sheet, including any additional pages inserted when writing your answers on the examination question page.

9. Use abbreviations only if they are commonly used in facility literature.

Avoid using symbols such as < or > signs to avoid a simple transposition error resulting in an incorrect answer. Write it out.

10. The point value for each question is indicated in parentheses after the question. The amount of blank space on an examination question page is NOT an indication of the depth of answer required.

11. Show all calculations, methods, or assumptions used to obtain an answer.

12. Partial credit may be given. Therefore, ANSWER ALL PARTS OF THE QUESTION AND DO NOT LEAVE ANY ANSWER BLANK. NOTE: partial credit will NOT be given on multiple choice questions.

13. Proportional grading will be applied. Any additional wrong information that is provided WILL count against you. For example, if a question is worth one point and asks for four responses, each of which is worth 0.25 points, and you give five responses, each of your responses will be worth 0.20 points. If one of your five responses is incorrect, 0.20 will be deducted and your total credit for that question will be 0.80 instead of 1.00 even though you got the four correct answers.

14. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.

1. When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and answer sheets.

In addition, turn in all scrap paper.

15. Tc pass the examination, you must achieve an overall grade of 80% or greater and at least 70% in each category.

0 There is a time limit of 4.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> for completion of the examination.

1.When you are done and have turned in your examination, leave the examin ation area as defined by the examiner. If you are found in this area while the examination is still in progress, your license may be denied or revoked.

EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 4

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QUESTION: 01 (1.00)

Which ONE of the following correctly describes the behavior of RCS pressure, if a Small Break LOCA occurs which is NOT large enough to actuate the ECCS and feedwater is NOT available?

a. Pressure initially decreases slowly, then rapidly drops when the OTSGs are boiled dry.

b. Pressure decreases slowly until it levels off above ECCS actuation pressure.

c. Pressure initially decreases, then rapidly increases when the OTSGs boil dry.

d. Pressure initially decreases, then when OTSGs boil dry, continues to decrease, but at a much slower rate.

QUESTION: 02 (1.00) h selection below represents the correct order of importance for listed Emergency Procedure sections, when performing E 11/A/1800/01?

Assume a Steam Generator Tube Rupture was NOT the initial entry condition.

PROCEDURES:

1. Excessive Heat Transfer

2. Loss of Heat Transfer

3. Loss of Subcooling

4. Steam Generator Tube Leak SELECTIONS:

a. 3, 2, 1, 4.

b. 2, 1, 4, 3.

c. 3, 1, 2, 4.

d. 4, 3, 2, 1.

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QUESTION: 03 (1.00)

During a Loss Of Coolant Accident, the operator is required to secure the RCP's when a loss of subcooling is indicated, because: (CHOOSE ONE)

a. The core exit thermocouples provide erratic indication, if subjected to a two-phase environment.

b. The RCP's are not effective in cooling the core, if pumping a two-phase mixture.

c. The RCP seals are subject to severe damage, if the RCP's are operated in a two-phase environment.

d. RCP operation in a two-phase environment increases the inventory (mass) being lost through the break.

QUESTION: 04 (1.00) the BWST is NOT available, procedure AP/l/A/1700/11 Section 504, ckout," directs the operator to take HPI suction from the:

a. RB Emergency Sump.

b. LPI system (from the quench tank).

c. Unit 2 BWST.

d. Spent fuel pool.

QUESTION: 05 (1.00)

Upon a loss of 1KI, AP/l/A/1700/23, "Loss of 1KI bus," directs an operator to the Aux Shutdown Panel to perform various actions. Which one of the following is an action the operator can perform from this panel?

a. Bypass Turbine Stop Valve controls.

b. Re-energize Turbine Bypass Valves.

c. Control RCS pressure with Heater Banks 1, 3 and 4.

d. Bypass 1KI Inverter.

(*****

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EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 6

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QUESTION: 06 (1.00)

EP/l/A/1800/01 Section CP-601, "Cooldown Following Large LOCA," requires caustic be added to the RB Emergency Sump. One reason for this caustic addition is to: (CHOOSE ONE)

a. Help ensure the spray nozzles remain clear.

b. Cause Iodine to plate out in the sump, rather than throughout the piping.

c. Lower the pH of the sump water, thus lowering general corrosion.

d. Reduce the rate of Hydrogen-generating reactions between metals and boric acid.

QUESTION: 07 (1.00)

EP/l/A/1800/01 Section 504, "SG Tube Leak," provides directions for idly cooling the RCS to 532 degrees F. The limiting consideration ing this rapid cooldown is maintaining:

a. Affected SG pressure below 1050 psig.

b. Less than 100 degrees F/hr RCS cooldown rate.

c. Pressurizer level greater than 80 inches.

d. Reactor vessel head in an unvoided condition.

QUESTION: 08 (1.00)

Which one of the following is NOT an automatic action which the operator should expect to occur as a result of a reactor trip from 100 %

power, according to EP/l/A/1800/01?

a. Feedwater runback to control S/G level.

b. Letdown isolation valve HP-5 shuts.

c. Turbine bypass valves open.

d. Unit auxiliaries transfer to CT1.

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EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 7 (43%)

QUESTION: 09 (1.00)

In the event of a continuous rod withdrawal accident, which ONE of the following will be the first reactivity coefficient to insert negative reactivity?

a. Doppler coefficient

b. Moderator temperature coefficient

c. Pressure coefficient

d. Void coefficient QUESTION: 10 (1.00)

Which one Breaker and/or contactor combination below would result in de-energizing ALL CRD motors?

a. Breaker A, Breaker C, Contactor F

b. Breaker A, Breaker B, Contactor F

c. Breaker B, Breaker D, Contactor E

d. Breaker B, Contactor E, Contactor F QUESTION: 11 (1.00)

According to EP/l/A/1800/01 Section 503, "Excessive Heat Transfer,"

reestablishing feedwater flow to an intact SG that is dry should be controlled to approximately 100 GPM (.05 10E6 lbm/hr) to minimize:

a. additional overcooling caused by feedwater addition.

b. the magnitude of SG level overshoot.

c. thermal shock to the emergency feedwater nozzles.

d. thermal shock to the lower tube sheet.

0

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EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 8

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QUESTION: 12 (1.00)

EP/l/A/1800/01 section 505, "ES Actuation" refers to stopping the Reactor Coolant Pumps. Which one of the following is the condition requiring the Reactor Coolant Pumps to be stopped?

a.

a LOCA occurred

b.

Reactor Protection initiated a Reactor Trip

c.

High Pressure Injection System Initiated

d.

Subcooling Margin was lost QUESTION: 13 (1.00)

According to EP/l/A/1800/01 Cooldown Procedure 603, "HPI Cooling Cooldown," which one of the following describes the prerequisites that must be met, concerning subcooling margin (SCM) and Core Exit Wrmocouples (CETC's), prior to throttling HPI header flow?

a. SCM 20 degrees F or greater, CETC'c stable.

b. SCM 20 degrees F or greater, CETC'c decreasing.

c. SCM 50 degrees F or greater, CETC'c stable.

d. SCM 50 degrees F or greater, CETC'c decreasing.

QUESTION: 14 (1.00)

According to AP/l/A/1700/20, "Loss of Component Cooling," the Standby Component Cooling pump should automatically start if total flow drops to :

a. 500 gpm.

b. 575 gpm.

c. 650 gpm.

d. 725 gpm.

0

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QUESTION: 15 (1.00)

Which one of the following correctly explains what is occurring if, during natural circulation cooldown, pressurizer level increases rapidly after the initiation of pressurizer spray, assuming no other changes have been made by the operators, and pressurizer level was constant prior to the spray valve operation.

a. Pressurizer heaters have energized.

b. Pressurizer level detectors are not indicating accurately.

c. RCS makeup flow has increased, (less backpressure).

d. Voids are forming elsewhere in the primary system.

QUESTION: 16 (1.00)

With regard to an Inadequate Core Cooling transient, the major concern with T-clad at 1800 degrees F is:

a. Melting of the cladding.

b. Excessive hydrogen generation.

c. Fuel melting.

d. Structural failure of core supports.

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QUESTION: 17 (1.00)

Assume a SG Tube Leak exists in the "B" OTSG on Unit 2, with RCP's B1 and Al operating, and cooldown being accomplished using the "A" OTSG

("B" OTSG is isolated), when Station Management directs the operating crew to go to one RCP operating, to obtain an acceptable cooldown rate.

The operating crew should trip RCP:

a. Al, so that RCP Bl remains available for any further required RCS depressurization.

b. Bl, and then use the pressurizer PORV for any further required RCS depressurization.

C.

Bl, but only after further RCS depressurization will no longer be required.

d. Bl, restarting it for short periods of time, for any further required RCS depressurization.

0 QUESTION: 18 (1.00)

For Unit 1, unrestricted reactor operation may continue (per TS 3.1.6) only if RCS leakage through steam generator tubes is:

a. Less than 0.3 gpd.

b. Less than 1.0 gpd.

c. Less than 0.3 gpm.

d. Less than 1.0 gpm.

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QUESTION: 19 (1.00)

Which one of the following considerations would NOT be a problem at Oconee, with regard to OTSG overfill?

a. Excessive dead weight loads.

b. Failure of reliefs to reseat.

c. Hydraulic forces (water hammer).

d. OTSG tube rupture.

QUESTION: 20 (1.00)

If at any time, during the use of the Emergency Operating Procedure, the user becomes confused or lost, he/she should:

a. Backtrack step by step through the procedure from the point of confusion until the situation is understood.

b. Continue through the procedure, making a thorough assessment of plant conditions at the next "Unit Status" description.

c. Go back to the beginning of the procedure and perform a quick check and re-verification of the steps already performed.

d. Go back to the last previous "Unit Status" description which matches the current plant conditions.

QUESTION: 21 (1.00)

According to AP/1/A/1700/22, "Loss of Instrument Air," the reactor must be manually tripped if:

a. Instrument air header pressure decreases to less than 95 psig.

b. Instrument air header pressure decreases to less than 80 psig.

c. Two CRDM Stator temperatures exceed 180 degrees F.

d. Any CRDM Stator temperature exceeds 185 degrees F.

(

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EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 12

('43%)

QUESTION: 22 (1.00)

While performing Emergency Operating Procedure EP/l/A/1800/01, the procedure reader must:

a. Be cognizant of the information in a "NOTE," but need not read the "NOTE" aloud to the crew.

b. Read all "NOTES" aloud to the crew.

c. Refer to the information contained in any "NOTES" as soon as practicable after plant stabilization.

d. Prior to starting any procedure section, read the "NOTES" in that section.

QUESTION: 23 (1.00)

According to OP/0/A/1106/31, "Control of Secondary Contamination," SG U leak size should be recalculated every 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />, or:

a. If it is noted that SG level has changed.

b. If it is noted that RIA-40 count rate has changed.

c. Prior to batch-releasing the contents of the Turbine Building Sump.

d. Whenever the SG has been isolated.

QUESTION: 24 (1.00)

Upon receipt of an "Assymetric Fault" signal which does not clear, with the unit initially at 80% power, the ICS will run power back to:

a. 44%.

b. 48%.

c. 55%.

d. 60%.

0

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EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 13 (43%)

p QUESTION: 25 (1.00)

Assuming initial reactor power was 35% with 4 RCP's operating, which ONE of the following correctly describes the effect a dropped control rod will have on calculated shutdown margin (SDM), imposed by the rod penalty enclosure of PT/3/A/1103/15, "Reactivity Balance Procedure"?

a. Decrease by an amount dependent on the dropped rod's grid location in the core.

b. Decrease by an amount dependent on the dropped rod's initial withdrawal height.

c. Decrease the same amount, regardless of the rod's grid location or initial withdrawal height.

d. Calculated SDM will not change.

QUESTION: 26 (1.00)

• rding to AP/l/A/1700/15, "Dropped Control Rods," the reactor must anually tripped if ever it becomes evident that any:

a. One safety rod, or any two regulating rods has/have dropped.

b. One regulating rod, or any two safety rods has/have dropped.

c. One control rod (safety or regulating) has dropped.

d. Two control rods (safety or regulating) have dropped.

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QUESTION: 27 (1.00)

In OP-O/A/1105/09, "Control Rod Drive System," Precaution 2.10 states that attempts to operate a partially withdrawn control rod which is stuck or jammed may only be accomplished in RUN speed because:

a. The operation must be performed within one hour, or power must be reduced.

b. Attempting to operate it in JOG speed may overload the spider.

c. JOG speed would not apply sufficient torque to free up the stuck rod.

d. The motor coils would overheat if operated in JOG speed.

QUESTION: 28 (1.00)

According to EP/l/A/1800/01 CP-604, "Solid Plant Cooldown," a steam ble will begin to form in the pressurizer when RCS pressure drops w pressurizer Psat if:

a. Core Flood Tanks have not dumped.

b. Coupling exists between the RCS and the OTSG's.

c. No leakage exists through pressurizer relief or spray valves.

d. At least one Reactor Coolant Pump is operating.

(*****

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EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 15 (43%)

QUESTION: 29 (1.00)

When performing EP/l/A/1800/01 CP-602, "SG Cooldown With Saturated RCS," placing one LPI train in switchover and leaving the other train in injection mode:

a. Allows starting of RCP's to collapse voids.

b. Ensures LPI NPSH requirements are met before BWST level reaches 6 feet.

c. Protects the SG in a loop with a small break.

d. Provides faster cooldown and better circulation through the core.

QUESTION: 30 (1.00)

During a post-accident situation, if a cooldown is being performed ng procedure CP-604, "Solid Plant Cooldown," the operators are cted to go to CP-602, "SG Cooldown With Saturated RCS" whenever subcooling margin equals zero degrees F, and subcooling cannot be restored to greater than:

a. 0 degrees F, within 2 minutes.

b. 5 degrees F, within 5 minutes.

c. 5 degrees F, within 10 minutes.

d. 10 degrees F, within 10 minutes.

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EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 16 (43%)

QUESTION: 31 (1.00)

According to EP/1/A/1800/01, Enclosure 7.1A, "Normal Containment Cooldown Limits," if depressurization into the Thermal Shock Operating Region (TSOR) is required, which one of the following depressurization methods is PREFERRED, assuming no RCP's are operating?

a. Utilize auxiliary pressurizer spray.

b. Turn pressurizer heaters off and lower level.

c. Open 1RC-66 (PORV).

d. Open RCS high point vents.

QUESTION: 32 (1.00)

According to EP/l/A/1800/01 Section 506, "Unanticipated Nuclear Power Production," if a loss of subcooling exists, the RCP's should:

a. Be tripped immediately.

b. Remain in operation, even if component cooling and seal injection is lost.

c. Remain in operation, unless RCP limits are about to be exceeded.

d. Remain in operation, until the effects of negative reactivity insertion are being indicated by the NI's.

QUESTION: 33 (1.00)

EP/l/A/1800/01 CP-605, "Subcooled Cooldown," is entered ONLY from:

a. CP-601, "Cooldown Following a Large LOCA."

b. CP-602, "SG Cooldown With Saturated RCS."

c. CP-603, "HPI Cooling Cooldown."

d. CP-604, "Solid Plant Cooldown."

C

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EM2RGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 17 (43%)

QUESTION: 34 (1.00)

According to procedure AP/l/A/1700/20, "Loss of Component Cooling,"

the operator is required to manually trip the reactor if:

a. Any heat exchanger outlet temperature exceeds the limit specified in Enclosure 6.1 (Heat Exchanger Temperature Limits).

b. Any two CRD Stator temperatures exceeds 180 degrees F.

c. CC Surge Tank level drops below 12 inches.

d. Either CC-7 or CC-8 (CC return penetration block valves) is found to be shut.

QUESTION: 35 (1.00)

AP/l/A/1700/21, "High Activity in RC System," requires a determination of the SOURCE of high activity (failed fuel, or corrosion products).

Which of the following is a correct reason for this requirement?

a. The reactor must be shutdown within 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />, if there is any confirmed indication of failed fuel.

b. While operating with failed fuel, normal power level changes must be limited to less than 3% FP/hr.

c. Extended cleanup actions must commence within one hour, if the activity is due to crudburst.

d. If activity due to nuclides with half-lives greater than 30 minutes approaches 165/E-bar, the reactor must be shutdown.

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QUESTION: 36 (1.00)

According to the "Caution" note in AP/l/A/1700/21, "High Activity in the RC System," what is the reason for maintaining Reactor Building air temperatures greater than 100 degrees F, if an RCS cooldown is to be performed?

a. Ensure the Reactor Building Purge System is operating at its maximum efficiency.

b. Minimize the load on the reactor building purge fans during extended operation.

c. Prevent Iodine from being absorbed in the reactor building concrete.

d. Prevent Iodine from plating out on piping and structural surfaces.

QUESTION: 37 (1.00) fT ss of makeup has occurred from a trip of the HPI pump due to an e ectrical fault. Seal Injection Isolation Valve has been closed manually due to flow being lost for more than 2 minutes.

Which one of the following gives the reason why the special precaution of slowly increasing the flow must be used in the restoration of seal injection flow?

a. prevents waterhammer.

b. ensures the HPI pump maintains NPSH.

c. avoids thermal shock to RCP seal parts.

d. allows time for the PZR level control valve to respond.

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QUESTION: 38 (1.00)

Which ONE of the following is NOT a portion of the intersystem ties between the HPI system and the SSF Makeup system?

a. A letdown line from the common letdown line (prior to the L/D coolers) through HP-426 to the fuel transfer tube.

b. A line from the SSF Makeup Pump which takes suction on the alternate fuel transfer tube, injects water through SSF-HP-398.

c. A line from the common connection for the BWSTs to spent fuel makeup.

d. A recirculation line from the SSF Makeup pump to the spent fuel pool.

QUESTION: 39 (1.00)

According to Technical Specification Section 3.6, "Reactor Building,"

ainment Integrity is ensured, partially, by maintaining Reactor ding pressure (when the reactor is critical) between the specified

• its of:

a. 5.5 inches Hg vacuum, and 0.0 psig pressure.

b. 5.0 inches Hg vacuum, and 1.5 psig pressure.

c. 3.0 inches Hg vacuum, and 2.0 psig pressure.

d. 2.5 inches Hg vacuum, and 3.0 psig pressure.

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QUESTION: 40 (1.00)

According to AP/l/A/1700/17, "Loss of Containment Integrity," if a pneumatically-operated valve has been found open (and its ES position is SHUT), then in order to reestablish containment integrity, that valve must be shut, and:

a. Blocked with an appropriate blocking device.

b. Its operating air must be isolated.

c. Its operating air must be isolated and the valve operator bled off.

d. Tagged shut at any of its remote operating stations.

QUESTION: 41 (1.00)

According to AP/l/A/1700/07 Case B, "Loss of LPI System During Decay t Removal," what is the LOWEST allowable differential pressure e which the operating LPI pump may remain in service?

a. 115 psid.

b. 130 psid.

c. 145 psid.

d. 160 psid.

QUESTION: 42 (1.00)

According to AP/2/A/1700/14 Case A, "Loss of HPI Normal Makeup or Seal Supply," the standby HPI pump must be be verified to have automati cally started upon:

a. RCP seal water flow dropping to less than 30 gpm.

b. HPI flow from the operating pump dropping to less than 35 gpm.

c. HPI pump discharge pressure dropping to less than 2375 psig.

d. Pressurizer level dropping below 150 inches.

C

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EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 21 (43%)

QUESTION:

43 (1.00)

According to AP/2/A/1700/14 Case A, "Loss of HPI Normal Makeup or Seal Supply," which one of the following is the preferred order of priority in establishing a source of makeup to the RCS?

a. BWST, then SF Pool, then SSF RC Makeup System.

b. BWST, then SSF RC Makeup System, then SF Pool.

c. SSF RC Makeup System, then SF Pool, then BWST.

d. LDST, then SF Pool, then SSF RC Makeup System.

QUESTION: 44 (1.00)

With regard to its maximum capability, the SSF-ASW pump can be used to simultaneously supply emergency feedwater to:

a. One steam generator on all three units.

b. Both steam generators, on only one unit.

c. Both steam generators, on two units.

d. Both steam generators, on all three units.

QUESTION: 45 (1.00)

While performing AP/l/A/1700/19, "Loss of Feedwater," EFDWP flow must be restricted to less than 500 gpm per pump to prevent:

a. Pump runout.

b. Overcooling the RCS.

c. Overpressurizing the SG's.

d. Thermal shocking the OTSG auxiliary feedwater header.

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EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 22 (43%)

p QUESTION: 46 (1.00)

If symptoms indicate that an inadvertent dilution is in progress, with the reactor critical at power, procedure AP/l/A/1700/03,"Boron Dilution," directs the operator to :

a. Borate only from the BWST, unless control rods exceed allowable limits.

b. Borate only from the CBAST, unless control rods exceed allowable limits.

c. Borate from the CBAST if available, otherwise from the BWST.

d. Borate from the BWST if available, otherwise from the CBAST.

QUESTION: 47 (1.00)

In the event that the reactor fails to trip when a required manual 6tp has been inserted while operating at full power, EP/l/A/1800/01, ion 506, "Unanticipated Nuclear Power Production," requires the ator to:

a. Emergency borate from the BWST.

b. Emergency borate from the CBAST.

c. Insert a mismatch signal by running the ULD to minimum.

d. Manually trip ES Channels 1 and 2.

QUESTION: 48 (1.00)

Which ONE of the following is the most desirable method of fighting a high voltage electrical fire with water?

a. Straight stream directly on fire from at least 50 ft.

b. Wide fog pattern from at least 10 ft.

c. Fog/stream combination from as close as possible.

d. Narrow fog pattern from at least 40 ft.

p

(*****

END OF CATEGORY 5 *****)

PLANT SYSTEMS (40%) AND PLANT-WIDE GENERIC Page 23 RESPONSIBILITIES (17%)

QUESTION: 01 (1.00)

Which one of the following will NOT cause the ICS to enter the TRACKING mode of operation?

a. Placing the Diamond Control Station in Manual.

b. Placing BOTH Main Feedwater Valves in manual control.

c. Providing the turbine with 45% more power than is being produced by the generator.

d. Feedwater Cross Limits in effect.

QUESTION: 02 (1.00)

Which one of the following should enable MS-93, TDEFWP steam supply valve, to open if it fails to open on an automatic signal?

a. Verify power supply is energized (Bkr. 6 on KVID shut).

b. Line up backup air supply to the valve operator.

c. Isolate instrument air to its reducer and bleed the air off the reducer.

d. Place the control switch to "Off" to remove power from the solenoid.

QUESTION: 03 (1.00)

Which one of the following phrases is applicable to a Reactor Protective System SUR Inhibit bistable?

a. Must be manually reset via a toggle switch.

b. Energizes a relay if input senses a trip condition.

c. Can be manually tripped using a toggle switch located directly on the bistable module.

d. Converts two analog input signals into one digital output O

signal.

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PLANT SYSTEMS (40%) AND PLANT-WIDE GENERIC Page 24 RESPONSIBILITIES (17%)

QUESTION: 04 (1.00)

Which one of the following correctly describes the prescribed method for causing the Keowee Hydro Generator to produce a voltage output, once the wicket gate position is established?

a. Close the field breaker, then close the generator supply breaker, then close the field flashing breaker.

b. Close the field breaker, then close the field flashing breaker, then close the generator supply breaker.

c. Close the field flashing breaker, then close the field breaker, then close the generator supply breaker.

d. Close the field flashing breaker, then close the generator supply breaker, then close the field breaker.

ION: 05 (1.00)

The reactor is producing 100% rated thermal power at a core Delta-T of 60 degrees and a total mass flow rate of 100% when a station blackout occurs. If total mass flow rate (on Natural Circulation) has been determined to be 3.0% and reactor decay heat is 2%, then what is the new core Delta-T?

a. 30 degrees F

b. 40 degrees F

c. 60 degrees F

d. 90 degrees F

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PLANT SYSTEMS (40%)

AND PLANT-WIDE GENERIC Page 25 RESPOlSIBILITIES (17%)

QUESTION: 06 (1.00)

In accordance with AP/l/A/1700/22, "Loss of Instrument Air," the operator will have to monitor the Nitrogen backup supply to various valves. Which one of the following valves does NOT have a backup Nitrogen supply?

a. Main Steam to Aux. Steam Regulator Valve IMS-129.

b. EFDW Control Valves 1FDW-315 and -316.

c. MS to TD EFDWP Control Valve 1MS-87.

d. RCP Seal Injection Flow Control Valve 1HP-31.

QUESTION: 07 (1.00)

Which one of the following conditions would result in an Out Inhibit being generated in the Rod Contol Logic?

a. Safety Rod Groups at the out limit.

b. Asymmetric fault (> 9") with power level at 50%.

c. A startup rate of 2.0 DPM in the Source range.

d. High neutron error signal (2.5%).

QUESTION: 08 (1.00)

Following a failure of an ICS Turbine Header Pressure Instrument, what sole ICS control station when placed in "Hand" by the operator will terminate the unit transient?

a. FDW Masters

b. Reactor Bailey

c. Steam Generator-Reactor Master

d. Turbine Header pressure C

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PLANT SYSTEMS (40%) AND PLANT-WIDE GENERIC Page 26 RESPONSIBILITIES (17%)

QUESTION: 09 (1.00)

Which one of the following Westinghouse RCP starting interlocks is identical to a Bingham RCP starting interlock?

a. seal injection flow > 22 gpm

b. #1 seal delta P > 275 psid

c. Tc interlock to start fourth pump.

d. Component cooling flow > 575 gpm.

QUESTION: 10 (1.00)

Which one of the following components is actuated by Engineered Safeguards Channel 1?

a. HPI pump B

b. HPI pump C

c. Valve HP-25 (HPI pump C suction)

d. Valve HP-27 (RC loop B Injection valve)

QUESTION: 11 (1.00)

The maximum allowable time for a Low Pressure Injection pump to operate against a shut-off head (no indicated flow) is:

a. 15 minutes

b. 30 minutes

c. 45 minutes

d. 60 minutes

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PLANT SYSTEMS (40%) AND PLANT-WIDE GENERIC Page 27 RESPONSIBILITIES (17%)

QUESTION: 12 (1.00)

If the ICS Auto/Manual Tave Transfer Switch was initially in "Unit Tave" position with all systems in automatic, and then less than 95%

full flow is sensed in BOTH loops (simultaneously), the system will:

a. Allow the operator to select either Loop-A, Loop-B, or UNIT Tave.

b. Allow the operator to select only UNIT Tave.

c. Automatically select the loop with the LOWEST flow.

d. Automatically select the loop with the HIGHEST flow.

QUESTION: 13 (1.00)

Which one of the following sets of conditions best describes the setpoint of the source range (NI-1 and NI-2) backup high voltage off?

a. Power range channels NI-7 and NI-6 OR power range channels NI-7 and NI-8 greater than or equal to 10% full power.

b. Power range channels NI-5 or NI-6 AND power range channels NI-7 or NI-8 greater than or equal to 10% full power.

c. Power range channels NI-5 and NI-6 OR power range channels NI-7 and NI-8 greater than or equal to 3% full power.

d. Power range channels NI-5 or NI-6 AND power range channels NI-7 or NI-8 greater than or equal to 3% full power.

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PLANT SYSTEMS (40%) AND PLANT-WIDE GENERIC Page 28 RESPO9SIBILITIES (17%)

QUESTION: 14 (1.00)

To manually open the PORV (RC-66) for Unit 3 from the control room, with RCS pressure at 2000 psig, the operator must:

a. Select the low setpoint, using the setpoint key selector switch on UB1.

b. Select "OPEN" using the spring-loaded keyswitch on the back of ICS Cabinet 13.

c. Select "OPEN" on the setpoint selector switch, and push the "OPEN-PERMIT" pushbutton.

d. Select "LOCAL-ASP" on the Auxiliary Shutdown Panel control switch, and push the "OPEN" pushbutton.

QUESTION: 15 (1.00) ich one of the following phrases is NOT correct concerning the rlock between the Control Rod Drive Motors (CRDM's) and minimum able Component Cooling System (CCS) flow rate?

a. Prevents energizing the CRDM's, unless CCS flow to the CRDM's is at least 138 GPM.

b. Has no effect on energized CRDM's if CCS flow drops below the minimum allowable value.

c. Incorporates a 5-second time delay, to prevent interlock actuation due to momentary flow fluctuations.

d. May be overridden by pressing the "CC Interlock" pushbutton.

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P~LANTSYSTEMS (40%) AND PLANT-WIDE GENERIC Page 29 RESPONSIBILITIES (17%)

QUESTION: 16 (1.00)

For Unit 2, placing two channels of the Reactor Protective System in "Manual Bypass" simultaneously, while the reactor is at full power, is prevented by:

a. Actuation of a reactor trip signal (two out of four) when the second channel is placed in "Manual Bypass."

b. Administrative controls -

Only one "Manual Bypass" key is allowed in the control room at any one time.

c. An interlock which returns both channels to "Normal" (non-bypass), whenever an attempt is made to place a second channel in "Manual Bypass."

d. An interlock which returns the FIRST channel to "Normal" (non-bypass), whenever an attempt is made to place a second channel in "Manual Bypass."

.ION: 17 (1.00)

An actuation signal from ES channels 5 & 6 will cause all Reactor Building Cooling Units (RBCU's) to automatically operate in:

a. low speed, to conserve the capacity of the Keowee Generator.

b. low speed, so the RBCU fan motors will not trip (fail) on high current.

c. high speed, to assist the RB Spray system in rapid cooldown of the Reactor Building.

d. high speed, to quickly dampen any shock waves, and thus preserve the blowout plates.

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PLANT SYSTEMS (40%) AND PLANT-WIDE GENERIC Page 30 RESPONSIBILITIES (17%)

QUESTION: 18 (1.00)

With regard to the Area Radiation Monitoring (ARM) system, a "FAULT" light on the Area Monitor Test Panel indicates:

a. The one-hour timer is inoperable, or disabled.

b. The fifteen-second timer is inoperable, or disabled.

c. At least one RIA did not alarm.

d. Power has been interrupted to the test panel.

QUESTION: 19 (1.00)

Temperature compensation prov' d by pressurizer temperature, is available for pressurizer el channels:

a.

1 and 2.

is b.

1 and 3 1, 2, and 3.

QUESTION: 20 (1<O-6 Match the following high pressure injection valves with their correct power supplies.

VALVE DESIGNATION POWER SUPPLIES

1. 3HP-20 (seal return isolation)

a. 3X8

2. 3HP-24 (HPI suct. from BWST)

b. 3XSF

3. 3HP-410 (injection header crosstie)

c. 3XS1 (ESF switchgear)

d. 3XS3 (ESF switchgear)

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PLANT SYSTEMS (40%) AND PLANT-WIDE GENERIC Page 31 RESPONSIBILITIES (17%)

QUESTION: 21 (1.00)

The Smart Automatic Signal Selector (SASS) circuitry associated with the ICS monitors Power Ranges:

a. 5 and 8.

b. 7 and 8.

c. 5 and 9.

d. 7 and 9.

QUESTION: 22 (1.00)

Which one of the following sets of conditions will activate a Saturation Condition alarm?

a. Reactor power at 22% in the power range, and core margin to saturation at 10 degrees F.

b. Reactor power at 10E-8 amps in the intermediate range, and core margin to saturation at 12 degrees F.

c. Reactor power at 22% in the power range, and core margin to saturation at 14 degrees F.

d. Reactor power at 10E-8 amps in the intermediate range, and core margin to saturation at 16 degrees F.

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PLANT SYSTEMS (40%) AND PLANT-WIDE GENERIC Page 32 RESPONSIBILITIES (17%)

QUESTION: 23 (1.00)

Which one of the following correctly describes the required actions to remove a Red Tag, if the Red Tag Stub has been lost?

a. Another Work Supervisor in that group may authorize retrieval, as long as he checked the work documentation.

b. The Group Superintendent is the only individual who may sign authorizing removal, and he must inform the Work Supervisor responsible for the work when he returns to the site.

c. The Group Superintendent must approve tag retrieval, but he may authorize this based on verbal approval and having another individual sign his name and initial authorizing tag removal.

d. The Shift Supervisor is the only individual who can authorize tag retrieval in this situation.

ION: 24 (1.00)

Assuming there is a completed NRC Form-4 on file, and there has been no previous exposure, 10CFR20 states that the maximum whole-body dose a woman 21 years of age may receive while doing non-emergency work is:

a. 0.125 Rem per quarter unless shown NOT to be pregnant.

b. 3 Rem per quarter not to exceed an annual dose of 5 Rem.

c. 7.5 Rem.

d. 12 Rem.

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PLANT SYSTEMS (40%) AND PLANT-WIDE GENERIC Page 33 RESPONSIBILITIES (17%)

QUESTION: 25 (1.00)

Following the classification of a station emergency, the time limits for initial notification of the NRC and State/Local 'agencies are:

a. 30 minutes for NRC notification; 15 minutes for State/Local notification.

b. 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> for NRC notification; 15 minutes for State/Local notification.

c. 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> for NRC notification; 30 minutes for State/Local notification.

d. 15 minutes for NRC notification; 30 minutes for State/Local notification.

QUESTION: 26 (1.00)

, cerning an emergency situation during which the station manager is lable:

Prior to releasing information off site, the contents of Emergency Plan message sheet must be approved by the:

a. Emergency Coordinator.

b. Offsite Communicator.

c. On-Shift Communicator.

d. Superintindent of Operations.

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PLANT SYSTEMS (40%) AND PLANT-WIDE GENERIC Page 34 RESPONSIBILITIES (17%)

QUESTION: 27 (1.00)

Which one of the following is a valid method of performing an independent verification?

a. Two individuals independently verifying valve position from a remote position indicator only (such as valve stem position limit switch indication).

b. One individual actually placing a breaker in its required position, then the same individual verifying from a remote indicator that the breaker is in the correct position.

c. One individual observing that a control valve is in the correct position locally, and another individual verifying that the valve's controller output is correct.

d. One individual checking that a valve is in the correct position, and then a second individual obtaining a report from the first individual that the position is correct.

S*

ION: 28 (1.00)

The DPCo weekly Maximum Permissible Concentration (MPC) is MPC-hrs in a 40-hour week.

a. 25

b. 30

c. 35

d. 40

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PLANT SYSTEMS (40%) AND PLANT-WIDE GENERIC Page 35 RESPONSIBILITIES (17%)

QUESTION: 29 (1.00)

The means provided for any worker on site to identify a radiation exposure problem AND submit a recommendation for solving that problem is the:

a.

Daily exposure time record.

b.

OSHA Hazard Communication Standard.

c.

Radiation Work Permit.

d. ALARA Problem Report.

QUESTION: 30 (1.00)

An accessible, unguarded, exposed electrical circuit at ONS will be identified by barrier tape.

a. Orange

b.

Red

c.

Yellow and Black

d.

Yellow and Magenta.

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PLANT SYSTEMS (40%) AND PLANT-WIDE GENERIC Page 36 RESPOiSIBILITIES (17%)

QUESTION: 31 (1.00)

Which one of the following would NOT require that the Standby Shutdown Facility (SSF) CO-2 Fire Suppression System be isolated and red tagged?

a. The CO-2 discharge alarms are out of service, but a person is standing by to inhibit (delay) CO-2 discharge if the system actuates.

b. Work is being performed inside the Diesel Generator Room at a location requiring 75 seconds for egress from the area.

c. Work is being being performed on the Diesel Generator Room catwalk.

d. Work is being performed on scaffolding immediately inside the double doors on the south end of the Diesel Generator Room.

QUESTION: 32 (1.00) ming there is no leak test in progress, the maximum allowable RCS Iessure while personnel are working in the quench tank cavity is:

a. 220 psig.

b. 1200 psig.

c. 2200 psig.

d. 2285 psig.

(*****

END OF CATEGORY 6 *****)

(**********

END OF EXAMINATION **********)

EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 37 (4 3 % ) '

ANSWER:

01 (1.00) c

REFERENCE:

Question appears on BOTH RO and SRO exams!

OP-OC-TA-AT, p. 15.0.; LO 1.C.3.

4.1/4.7 000074A207

.. (KA's)

ANSWER:

02 (1.00) a

REFERENCE:

Question appears on BOTH RO and SRO exams!

1/A/1800/1, pp. 11-12.

3.8/3.9 000007G012

.. (KA's)

ANSWER:

03 (1.00) d

REFERENCE:

Question appears on BOTH RO and SRO exams!

OP-OC-EAP-E21, p. 6; LO B.1.c.

4.1/4.2 000074K308

.. (KA's)

ANSWER:

04 (1.00)

d.

C

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EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 38

'(43%)'

RE9 RE NCE:

Question appears on BOTH RO and SRO exams!

AP/1/A/1700/11,

p. 20.

4.3/4.6 000055K302

.. (KA's)

ANSWER:

05 (1.00) b

REFERENCE:

Question appears on BOTH RO and SRO exams!

AP/1/A/1700/23, p. 3.

3.5/3.5 000057A106

.. (KA's)

R:

06 (1.00)

REFERENCE:

Question appears on BOTH RO and SRO exams!

OP-OC-EAP-E31, p. 13; LO B.1.e.

4.4/4.6 000011K312

.. (KA's)

ANSWER:

07 (1.00)

C

REFERENCE:

Question appears on BOTH RO and SRO exams!

OP-OC-EAP-E24, pp. 12-13; LO B.1.d.

4.2/4.5 000038K306

.. (KA's)

C

(****CATEGORY 5 CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE ***

EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 39 (43%)

ANSWER:

08 (1.00) b

REFERENCE:

Question appears on BOTH RO and SRO exams!

EP/1A/1800/01, p. 2.

4.0/4.6 000007K301

.. (KA's)

ANSWER:

09 (1.00) a

REFERENCE:

Question appears on BOTH RO and SRO exams!

D o, Fundamentals of Nuclear Reactor Engineering, p.147.

jW3.4/3.8 000001K118

.. (KA's)

ANSWER:

10 (1.00) b

REFERENCE:

Question appears on BOTH RO and SRO exams!

OP-OC-IC-RPS, p.55; LO 22b.

4.2/4.5 000029K301

.. (KA's)

ANSWER:

11 (1.00) d C

(****CATEGORY 5 CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE ***

EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 40 (43%)

REFERENCE:

Question appears on BOTH RO and SRO exams!

EP/1/A/1800/01,

p. 50.

OP-OC-EAP-E23 p. 9; LO 1.c.

3.4/4.2 000040K107

.. (KA's)

ANSWER:

12 (1.00)

d.

REFERENCE:

Question appears on BOTH RO and SRO exams!

OP-OC-EAP-E21 PG. 6 of 13 4.0/4.0 000011A103

.. (KA's)

R:

13 (1.00) d

REFERENCE:

Question appears on BOTH RO and SRO exams!

EP/1/A/1800/01, p. 168.

3.6/4.2 000009A234

.. (KA's)

ANSWER:

14 (1.00) b C

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EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 41 (43%)

REFERENCE:

Question appears on BOTH RO and SRO exams!

AP/1/A/1700/20,

p. 1.

3.6/3.5 000026G010

.. (KA's)

ANSWER:

15 (1.00) d

REFERENCE:

Question appears on BOTH RO and SRO exams!

OP-OC-EAP-E35, p. 8.

3.5/4.1 000028K303

.. (KA's)

R:

16 (1.00)

REFERENCE:

OP-OC-TA-AM1, p. 26; LO B.15.b.

4.6/4.8 000074K102

.. (KA's)

ANSWER:

17 (1.00) b

REFERENCE:

OP-OC-EAP-E24, p. 17.

4.1/4.3 000037K308 (KA's)

C

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EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PLANT EVOLUTIONS Page 42

• (4 3%

ANSWER:

18 (1.00)

C

REFERENCE:

TS 3.1.6.4.

3.2/4.1 000037A210 (KA's)

ANSWER:

19 (1.00) a

REFERENCE:

OP-OC-TA-AT, p.

21-22; LO B.2.

3.5/3.8 Os 000057A205

..(KA's)

ANSWER:

20 (1.00)

C

REFERENCE:

OP-OC-EAP-Ell, p. 14; LO 12.

3.8/3.9 000007G012

.. (KA's)

ANSWER:

21 (1.00)

C

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