ML113202865

V. C. Summer Initial Exam 2011-301 Final RO Written Exam

ML113202865
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Site:	Summer
Issue date:	11/15/2011
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ES-401-7
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ES-401 Site-Specific RO Written Examination Form ES-401-7 Cover Sheet U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Site-Specific RO Written Examination Applicant Information Name:

Date: 20 October 2011 Facility/Unit: V.C. Summer Region: I II J Ill IV Reactor Type: W CE BWD GE D Start Time: Finish Time:

Instructions Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top of the answer sheets. To pass the examination, you must achieve a final grade of at least 80.00 percent. Examination papers will be collected 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> after the examination begins.

Applicant Certification All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Applicants Signature Results Examination Value Points Applicants Score Points Applicants Grade Percent ES-401, Page 30 of 33

- 2011 FtRC RO EXAM -

1. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• Volume Control Tank (VCT) level transmitter LT-1 15 has failed high.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements identifies the response to actual VCT level and the effects on the design functions associated with the Chemical and Volume Control System?

A. Actual VCT Level will lower and automatic emergency makeup from the RWST is disabled.

B. Actual VCT Level will remain stable and automatic emergency makeup from the RWST is disabled.

C. Actual VCT Level will remain stable and normal automatic makeup capability to the VCT is disabled.

D. Actual VCT Level will lower and normal automatic makeup to the VCT will start at the appropriate setpoint.

I

2011 NRC RO EXAM

2. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• Flow in the RCS loop A drops to 75%.

Which ONE (1) of the following permissive bistables, if in the wrong condition for current plant status, would prevent an automatic reactor trip?

A. P-7 B. P-8 C. P-9 D. P-12 2

2011 NRC ROEXAM

3. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• Pressurizer Level Control Channel Selector switch is in the 459+460 position.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below identifies both of the following:

1) The level channel that will eventually cause a reactor trip with no operator action if it fails high low.

2) Whether LT-459 and LT-460 serve as Reactor Trip protection channels.

A. 1) LT-459

2) LT-459 and LT-460 serve as Reactor Trip protection channels.

B. 1)LT-459

2) LT-459 and LT-460 serve only as pressurizer level control channels.

C. 1)LT-460

2) LT-459 and LT-460 serve as Reactor Trip protection channels.

D. 1)LT-460

2) LT-459 and LT-460 serve only as pressurizer level control channels.

3

201 1 NRC RO EXAM

4. Given the following plant conditions:

0800:

A Loop temperature indications:

Tavg - 587.2°F, stable.

AT - 99.9%.

0810:

A Loop temperature indications:

Tavg 624°F.

AT- 0%.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the loop Resistance Temperature Detector (RTD) failure that would cause these indications and whether entry into AOP-4033, CONTINUOUS CONTROL ROD MOTION to place rods in MANUAL is required?

A. One Loop A Thot failed high; YES.

B. Loop A Tcold failed high; YES.

C. One Loop A Thot failed high; NO.

D. Loop A Tcold failed high; NO.

4

2O1t NRC ROEXAM

5. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• A feed line rupture occurs just downstream of PVT-488, SG B EWE.

• A Reactor Trip occurs.

Which ONE (1) of the following will be received simultaneously with a feedwater isolation signal actuation?

A. XCP 615, 1-2, RCS TAVG LO B. XCP 615, 1-3, RCS TAVG LO-LO C. Permissive Indicator Channel II LP B P-12 D. STM/EW MISMATCH indicator CHAN IV SG B EB-488A 5

2011 NRC RO EXAM

6. Given the following plant conditions:

• 8% power.

• Intermediate Range N-36 failed high.

Which ONE (I) of the following indicates the expected indications for Reactor Trip Breakers and of first out window XCP-626, pt 3-6, IR FLUX HI, ten (10) minutes after the failure?

A. Trip breakers will indicate shut.

XCP-626 pt 3-6, IR FLUX HI will be dim.

B. Trip breakers will indicate shut.

XCP-626 pt 3-6, IR FLUX HI will be flashing intermittently at a faster rate than the other alarms.

C. Trip breakers will indicate open.

XCP-626 pt 3-6, IR FLUX HI will be flashing at the same rate as other alarms.

D. Trip breakers will indicate open.

XCP-626 pt 3-6, lR FLUX HI will be flashing intermittently at a faster rate than the other alarms.

6

2011 NRC RO EXAM

7. Given the following plant conditions:

• The reactor tripped 30 minutes ago.

• The crew is monitoring the Critical Safety functions.

Which ONE (1) of the following power supply failures would deenergize the Nuclear Instruments needed to evaluate the status of the Subcriticalitv Safety function per EOP-12.0, MONITORING OF CRITICAL SAFETY FUNCTIONS?

Loss of 120 VOLT Vital AC Distribution Panels:

A. APN 5901 and APN 5902 B. APN 5901 and APN 5903 C. APN 5902 and APN 5903 D. APN 5902 and APN 5904 7

2011 NRCRO EXAM

8. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• STP 345.037, SOLID STATE PROTECTION SYSTEM ACTUATION LOGIC AND MASTER RELAY TRAIN A, is in progress.

• Reactor trip breaker RTA is in the TEST position.

• Bypass breaker BYA is in the CONNECT position and closed.

• During the testing both trains of SSPS generate valid reactor trip signals.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the smallest set of coincident failures that would prevent an automatic reactor trip in the conditions described?

(RT = Reactor Trip Breaker, BY = Bypass Breaker)

A. Inoperable Shunt trip coils on RTA, RTB, and BYA.

B. Inoperable Undervoltage trip coils on RTB and BYA.

C. Inoperable Undervoltage trip coils on both RTA and RTB and an inoperable shunt trip coil on BYA.

D. Inoperable Undervoltage trip coils on both RTB and BYA and an inoperable shunt trip coil on RTB.

8

2011 NRC RO EXAM

9. Given the following plant conditions:

• The plant is at 100% power, steady state conditions.

• RCS pressure at 2235 psig.

• All systems are in automatic.

• Group 2 backup heaters are in NORMAL AFTER STOP.

If the NROATC raises the pressurizer pressure master controller setpoint (adjusts the potentiometer) by 40 psig, which ONE (1) of the following describes the response of the pressure control system components after ONE (1) minute?

(Assume a step change in the controller setpoint.)

B!U Heaters (Group 2) Spray Valves A. ON CLOSED B. OFF CLOSED C. OFF OPEN D. ON OPEN 9

2011 NRC RO EXAM

10. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• The A Diesel Generator is running in the Test mode per STP-125.002A, DIESEL GENERATOR A OPERABILITY TEST.

• EDG output breaker, BUS I DA DG FEED, is open.

• All A train DC power is lost due to grQunds on bus 1 HA.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes:

1) The status of the A EDG following the loss of DC power.

2) The status of the 51 overcurrent protection for bus I DA.

A. 1) A EDG will trip.

2) 1 DA is protected by the 51 overcurrent trips.

B. 1) A EDG will trip.

2) 1 DA is not protected by the 51 overcurrent trips.

C. 1) A EDG will remain running.

2) 1 DA is protected by the 51 overcurrent trips.

D. 1) A EDG will remain running.

2) 1 DA is not protected by the 51 overcurrent trips.

10

2011 NRC RO EXAM

11. Following a loss of all offsite power (115 KV and 230 Ky), which ONE (1) of the following decribes the operation of valves XVB-31 07A, RBCU 64A/65A RTN TO SW PND, and MVG-3106A, SWBP A DISCH?

A. XVB-3107A must be fully open before MVG-3106A actually starts to open.

B. XVB-3107A must begin opening before MVG-3106A actually starts to open.

C. MVG-3106A must be fully open before XVB-3107A actually starts to open.

D. MVG-3106A must begin opening before XVB-3107A actually starts to open.

11

2011 NRC RO EXAM

12. Given the following plant conditions:

• A plant trip occurred due to a loss of all off-site power (115 KV and 230 Ky).

• The A EDG failed to start automatically and cannot be started from the Control Room.

• An operator has manually depressed XVM1 0996A-DG DIESEL GEN A MAIN AIR STARE VALVE A in accordance with AOP-304.1 LOSS OF BUS 1 DA(1 DB) WITH THE DIESEL NOT AVAILABLE

• A EDG has NOT started.

Which ONE (1) of the following would prevent the A D/G from reaching rated speed when the Air Start Valve A is manually depressed?

A. The Fuel Oil Accumulator Tank DRY light is lit.

B. The LOCAL/REMOTE/MAINT switch is in REMOTE.

C. The LOCAL/REMOTE/MAINT switch is in MAINTENANCE.

D. A large rupture occurred on XTKOO9A, DIESEL GENERATOR A AIR RECEIVER TANK A.

12

2011 NRC RO EXAM

13. Given the following plant conditions:

o 100% power.

• ALL Offsite Power (115 KV and 230 KV) is lost.

• Both DG A and B start and restore power to their respective ESF Bus.

• The crew is performing SOP-306,Section V. A and B. OPERATION OF DIESEL GENERATOR A and B AFTER AN AUTOMATIC START AND LOAD.

• The plant is initiating a natural circulation cooldown in accordance with site procedures.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes which pressurizer heaters operators will use to maintain subcooled conditions in the RCS and the minimum required action(s) to make those heaters available?

A. Only the BU Heaters will be used; ESF LOADING SEQ RESETS must be taken to NON-ESF LCKOUTS only.

B. Only the BU Heaters will be used; ESF LOADING SEQ RESETS must be taken to NON-ESF LCKOUTS and AUTO-START BLOCKS.

C. Only the Control Heaters will be used; ESF LOADING SEQ RESETS must be taken to NON-ESF LCKOUTS only.

D. Only the Control Heaters will be used; ESF LOADING SEQ RESETS must be taken to NON-ESF LCKOUTS and AUTO-START BLOCKS.

13

2011 NRC RD EXAM

14. Given the following plant conditions:

• The Pressurizer Level Control Channel Selector switch is in the 460+461 position.

• An electrical failure causes the loss of a 120 VAC vital instrument bus.

• With no operator actions, the following affects are observed:

- XCP-616 point 1-1, PZR LVL HI, alarms.

- XCP-616 point 1-3, BLCK HTRS ISOL LTDN PZR LCS LO, alarms.

- XCP-616 point 3-1, PZR HTR CNTRL OR BU GRP 1/2 TRIP, alarms.

- All letdown orifice valves close.

- Letdown isolation LCV-460 closes.

- All pressurizer heaters are tripped off.

- Charging flow slowly reduces to minimum.

Which ONE (1) of the following electrical failures has occurred?

A. APN-5901, 120 VOLT VITAL AC DISTR PANEL 1, has been deenergized.

B. APN-5902, 120 VOLT VITAL AC DISTR PANEL 2, has been deenergized.

C. APN-5903, 120 VOLT VITAL AC DISTR PANEL 3, has been deenergized.

D. APN-5904, 120 VOLT VITAL AC DISTR PANEL 4, has been deenergized.

14

2011 NRC ROEXAM

15. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Large Break LOCA occurs.

• A lockout of EMERG AUX XFMR XTF-31 occurs upon reactor trip.

• The BOP Operator is monitoring indications for the Emergency Diesel Generators on the Main Control Boards.

Which ONE (1) the following describes, for the B Emergency Diesel Generator,

1) The maximum design time in which the Emergency Diesel generator is required to achieve rated speed during an emergency start.

2) The expected frequency response that will be observed by the BOP operator as the sequencer sequences.

A. 1) 7 seconds.

2) DG B frequency remains stable.

B. 1) 10 seconds.

2) DG B frequency remains stable.

C. 1) 7 seconds.

2) DO B frequency fluctuates.

D. 1) 10 seconds.

2) DO B frequency fluctuates.

15

2011 NRC RO EXAM

16. Given the following plant conditions:

• All offsite power has been lost (115 KV and 230 Ky).

• Operators are taking action in accordance with EOP-6.0, LOSS OF ALL ESF AC POWER.

Which ONE (1) of the choices indicates the battery voltage that must be maintained as directed by EOP-6.0 and the Main Control Board indication available to monitor battery discharge?

A. 1 08V Amp meter only.

B. 126 V Amp meter only.

C. 108V Voltage meter only.

D. 126 V Voltage meter only.

16

2011 NRC RO EXAM -

17. Given the following plant conditions:

• 14% power.

• The Generator Breaker and MAIN XFMR FEED OCB 8902 simultaneously open.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the status of the reactor and RCPs after this event?

A. Rx tripped. No RCPs are running.

B. Rx tripped. All RCPs are running.

C. Rx critical. No RCPs are running.

D. Rx critical. All RCPs are running.

17

2011 NRC RD EXAM

18. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• At time 0000 XCP-633, point 2-1, REGULATOR CORE 1 ALARM, is received due to a over excitation limit (DEL) alarm on CORE 1.

• At time 0004 the BOP operator goes to LOWER on the GEN FIELD VOLT ADJ Control Switch per the ARP.

• At time 0005 XCP-633, point 2-1, REGULATOR CORE I ALARM, reflashes due to a bridge overtemperature trip on CORE 1.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes how the BOP operators action affects the Main Generator load and, based on the bridge overtemperature condition, how the Main Generator Voltage Regulator will respond?

A. Reactive load will decrease; and A bumpless transfer to Core 2 will occur.

B. Reactive load will decrease; and The Main Generator Breaker and Generator Field Breaker will OPEN.

C. Real load will decrease; and A bumpless transfer to Core 2 will occur.

D. Real load will decrease; and The Main Generator Breaker and Generator Field Breaker will OPEN.

18

2011 NRC RO EXAM

19. Given the following plant conditions:

• A large break loss of coolant accident has occu red.

• Annunciator XCP-639 point 6-4, BUS 1 DX LCKOUT 86B, was received two minutes ago.

• No operator action has been taken.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements identifies the bus that contains the breaker for the A Reactor Building Spray Pump and where that bus is getting power from in this condition?

A. 480V Bus 1 DA1 from offsite power B. 480V Bus 1 DA1 from the A Emergency Diesel Generator C. 7.2KV Bus 1 DA from offsite power D. 7.2KV Bus 1 DA from the A Emergency Diesel Generator 19

2011 NRC RO EXAM

20. Given the following plant conditions:

100% power.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements identifies the power supplies for the Rod Drive MG sets and the status of the reactor if a lockout occurs on XTF-31?

A. 1BI,1CI 100% power and stable B. 1B3,1C2 100% power and stable C. 1B1, 101 Reactor tripped D. 1B3, 102 Reactor tripped 20

2011 NRCRO EXAM

21. Given the following plant conditions:

• MODE 6.

• 1DB is deenergized for maintenance in the switchyard.

• The Bus 1 DA normal incoming breaker tripped open.

• The A Emergency Diesel trips on overspeed and cannot be restarted.

Which ONE (1) of the following relay(s), if actuated, would prevent closing the normal incoming breaker to I DA?

1. BUS IDXLCKOUT86B

2. XFMRXTF3I LCKOUT86T31

3. BUS lEA 0/C 51BX-IEA A. I ONLY B. 2 ONLY C. 1AND3 D. 2AND3 21

2011 NRC RO EXAM

22. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• All offsite power is lost (115 KV and 230 Ky).

• Both EDGs fail to start.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below cqmpletes the following statement?

EOP-6.0, LOSS OF ALL ESF AC POWER, directs that the service water pumps be in order to A. placed in NORMAL AFTER STOP immediately provide DG cooling when power is restored.

B. placed in NORMAL AFTER STOP prevent immediately overloading the ESF bus when power is restored.

C. left in NORMAL AFTER START immediately provide DG cooling when power is restored.

D. left in NORMAL AFTER START prevent immediately overloading the ESF bus when power is restored.

22

2011 NRCRO EXAM

23. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Waste Gas Decay Tank release is in progress per SOP-I 19, WASTE GAS PROCESSING.

• The following is the current meteorology data.

- 61m-lOmATis-1.40°F.

- 40m-lOm AT is -0.7 °F.

- Wind direction is from the East-Southeast.

- Wind speed is 3 mph.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below describes if the release can be continued and, if it must be stopped, the reason for doing so?

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. The release may continue.

B. The release may not continue because it could be drawn into the Control Building.

C. The release may not continue because it could be drawn into the Auxiliary Building.

D. The release may not continue because wind speed is not high enough for the stability class.

23

201 1NRC RO EXAM

24. Given the following plant conditions:

• The plant was initially at 100% power.

• A reactor trip occured at 0000.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below answers both of the following based on the conditions provided:

1) Of those listed below, what is the first time the RCS cooldown limit is exceeded?

2) A design feature that operates to prevent exceeding that limit?

A. 1) At 0045 Tavg was 500°F.

2) XVG281 1-MS, MSR EXTR STEAM BLOCK VLV automatically closes.

B. 1) At 0100 Tavg was 450°F.

2) XVG281 1-MS, MSR EXTR STEAM BLOCK VLV automatically closes.

C. 1) At 0045 Tavg was 500°F.

2) IPV-2231, MS/PEGGING STM TO DEAERATOR automatically closes.

D. 1)At 0100 Tavg was 450°F.

2) IPV-2231, MS/PEGGING STM TO DEAERATOR automatically closes.

24

2011 NRC ROEXAM

25. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Main Steamline Break has occurred on the B SG.

• A Reactor Trip and Safety Injection have occu red.

• The Motor Driven and Turbine Driven Emergency Feedwater pumps have started.

- Flow to the B SG is rapidly increasing.

• FCV-3541 MD EFP TO SG B and FCV-3546 TD EFP TO SG B are fully open.

Which ONE (1) of following completes this statement?

The MD EFW pump will be protected from runout damage by a control signal from closing A. FE 3571 on the combined EFW line both FCVs 3541 and 3546 at 515 gpm B. FE 3571 on the combined EFW line both FCVs 3541 and 3546 at 730 gpm C. FE 3541 on the MD EFW line FCV 3541 at 515 gpm D. FE 3541 on the MD EFW line FCV 3541 at 730 gpm 25

2011 NRC ROEXAM

26. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• B RB Instrument Air compressor is tagged out.

• A RB Instrument Air compressor just tripped on high discharge pressure.

Assuming no operator action, which ONE (1) of the following describes the response of the RB Instrument Air System?

A. RB air header pressure decreases until the plant must be manually tripped at 50 psig.

B. RB air header pressure decreases until the A RB Instrument Air compressor restarts at 93 psig.

C. RB air header pressure decreases until IPV-2659, INSTR TO RB AIR HDR VLV opens at 90 psig.

D. RB air header pressure decreases until the XAC-12, SUPP INST AIR COMPRESSOR, starts at 90 psig.

26

2011 NRCROEXAM

27. Which ONE (1) of the following identifies why COW to the RB is automatically isolated and which signal causes the isolation?

A. Minimize release paths from the Reactor Building.

Phase A B. Minimize release paths from the Reactor Building.

Phase B C. Prevent steam formation in the CCW system if RCP seals have failed.

Phase A D. Prevent steam formation in the COW system if RCP seals have failed.

Phase B 27

2011 NRC RO EXAM

28. Given the following plant conditions:

• Mode 5.

• A RB 36 purge is in progress.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

The purge exhaust will be isolated if power is lost to by the closing of on the 36 purge exhaust from the reactor building.

A. RM-A4 RB Purge ONLY PVB-2A, CNTMT EXH ISOL B. RM-A4 RB Purge BOTH PVB-2A and PVB-2B, CNTMT EXH ISOL C. RM-A14 RB Purge Exhaust High Range ONLY PVB-2A, CNTMT EXH ISOL D. RMA14 RB Purge Exhaust High Range BOTH PVB-2A and PVB-2B, CNTMT EXH ISOL 28

2011 NRCROEXAM

29. Given the following plant conditions:

• The contents of Waste Gas Decay Tank A were transferred to the Shutdown Tank G on 10/5 at 0300.

• A Waste Gas release from Shutdown Tank G was planned for 10/6 at 1500 in accordance with SOP-I 19, WASTE GAS PROCESSING.

• Shutdown Tank G was sampled on 10/5 at 2330.

• The Release Permit was approved on 10/6 at 1730.

• Nothing else has been added to Shutdown Tank G.

• Weather conditions have delayed the release.

Which ONE (1) of the following identifies the latest that the release may be initiated without requiring an additional sample?

A. 0300 on 10/6.

B. 2330on10/6.

C. l500onlO/7.

D. 1730on10/7.

29

2011 NRCROEXAM

30. Which ONE (1) of the following identifies when the Reactor Building Access airlock would cause a SIMPLEX alarm in the Main Control Room?

A. Either airlock door is open.

B. Either airlock has a vent valve open.

C. Only if both vent valves on an airlock are open at the same time.

D. Only if both airlock doors are open at the same time.

30

2d11 NRO RD EXAM

31. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• RBCU TRAIN A EMERG switch is selected to XFN-64A.

• A Safety Injection occurs.

• The BOP is performing Attachment 3 of EOP-1 .0, SI EQUIPMENT VRIFICATION.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements describes the minimum flow that the attachment will verify in each train of RBCUs and if RBCU-65A will have service water flow through its cooling coils?

A. 2000 gpm.

RBCU-65A will have service water flow.

B. 2000 gpm.

RBCU-65A will not have service water flow.

C. 4000 gpm.

RBCU-65A will have service water flow.

D. 4000 gpm.

RBCU-65A will not have service water flow.

31

2011 NRCROEXAM -

32. Given the following plant conditions:

SOP-i 18, COMPONENT COOLING WATER, section Ill.B, ACTIVE LOOP SWITCHOVER is being performed to make A train the active loop.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

MVB-9503A, CC TO RHR HX A is taken to CLOSED and when flow indicated on FI-7034, HX A FLOW GPM, is between tile non-essentials are swapped.

MVB-9503B, CC TO RHR HX B, is taken to OPEN A. 5000 gpm and 4000 gpm, While non-essentials valves are stroking.

B. 5000gpmand4000gpm, After non-essentials valves have stroked.

A C. 2880 gpm and 1920 gpm, While non-essentials valves are stroking.

D. 288ogpmandi92ogpm, After non-essentials valves have stroked.

32

- 2011 NRCROEXAM

33. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• The controlling PZR level transmitter fails as is.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the effect when the plant load is reduced to 20% and stabilized?

Assume no Operator Action A. Charging flow increases and actual PZR level increases. A reactor trip occurs.

B. Charging flow decreases and actual PZR level decreases. Letdown will isolate and the PZR heaters will cut off.

C. Charging flow increases and actual PZR level increases. The backup heaters will energize.

D. Charging flow remains constant and actual PZR level decreases. Letdown will isolate and the PZR heaters will cut off.

33

2011 NRC RO EXAM

34. Given the following plant conditions:

• The reactor has been at 100% power for 30 days.

• Annunciator XCP-642, point 4-3, RC LTDN LO RNG RM-L1 HI RAD, is in alarm.

• Chemistry reports an increase in Iodine activity.

Which ONE (1) of the following actions i required with regard to letdown flow?

In crease flow though the to A. Cation bed demineralizer 120 gpm B. Cation bed demineralizer 165 gpm C. Mixed bed demineralizers 120 gpm D. Mixed bed demineralizers 165 gpm 34

2011 NRCRO EXAM -.

35. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Loss of Coolant Accident and Safety Injection have occu red.

• The crew is implementing EOP-1 .0 REACTOR TRIP/SAFETY INJECTION ACTUATION.

• Step 24 directs the crew to check PRT conditions are normal.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the basis for this check?

A. To verify Makeup Water to the PRT is isolated.

B. Diagnose a failed RCP No.2 seal.

C. Diagnose a leaking PZR PORV.

D. To determine if the PRT rupture disks have failed.

35

2011 NRC RO EXAM

36. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Loss of Coolant Accident has occurred.

• RCS pressure is 345 psig and dropping slowly.

• NO action has been taken by the crew.

Which ONE (1) of thefollowing statements describes the current status of the Safety Injection System?

SI Accumulator Level RHR lnection Flow A. Stable and on-scale Zero B. Dropping or off-scale low Zero C. Dropping or off-scale low Rising D. Stable and on-scale Rising 36

2011 NRC RO EXAM

37. Which ONE (1) of the following incidents has the potential for the greatest release of radioactivity within twenty four hours after occurrence?

A. A spent fuel assembly is dropped in the Spent Fuel Pool during core off-load for refueling.

B. Just prior to the beginning of core off-load, a complete loss of Spent Fuel Pool Cooling occurs.

C. Just after core re-load, with the reactor vessel head off and the cavity full, electrical problems cause a loss of RHR.

D. With the core off-loaded, a misalignment causes Spent Fuel Pool to start to transfer to the Refueling Water Storage Tank.

37

2011 NRCROEXAM

38. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• PCV-444D, PZR SPRAY, sticks open.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes:

• 1) The Reactor Protection System Trip that protects against Departure from Nucleate Boiling?

2) How the above failure will affect the associated setpoint within the first TEN (10) seconds after the failure?

Assume no Operator Action A. 1) Overpower Delta T (OPt\T),

2) Setpoint will increase.

B. 1) Overpower Delta T (OPAT),

2) Setpoint will decrease.

C. 1) Overtemperature Delta T (OTAT),

2) Setpoint will increase.

D. 1) Overtemperature Delta T (OTAT),

2) Setpoint will decrease.

38

2011 NRCRO EXAM

39. Given the following plant conditions:

• Pressurizer pressure is 1385 psig.

• Pressurizer relief tank (PRT) pressure is 5 psig.

Assume:

• Ambient heat losses are negligibJe.

• Steam quality in the pressurizer bubble is 100%.

If the Pressurizer Code Safety is leaking, which ONE (1) of the following is the approximate temperature as read on Tl-465 SAFETY TEMP °F?

A. 220°F B 228°F C 267°F D. 285°F 39

2011 NRC ROEXAM

40. Given the following plant conditions:

• The plant is in Mode 4.

• RHR Train A is in service.

• The Instrument Air supply line to HCV-603A, RHR HEAT EXCHANGER A OUTLET VALVE falls off (is completely detached).

Which ONE (1) of the choices below identifies the following:

1) The failure position of HCV-603A

2) The temperature trend of RHR injection flow (temp recorder RHR LOOP A TEMP TR-604A (T-606A)) ten minutes after the failure?

A. 1) OPEN

2) Temperature rises.

B. 1) OPEN

2) Temperature drops.

C. 1) CLOSED

2) Temperature rises.

D. 1) CLOSED

2) Temperature drops.

40

2011 NRC RO EXAM

41. Given the following plant conditions:

• 13% power.

• Tavg is 562° F.

• Steam dumps are controlling in automatic in the STEAM PRESSURE mode.

• The Main Generator is ready to be paralleled to the grid.

• The synchroscope is rotating fast in the FAST direction.

Which ONE (1) of the following actions would potentially cause an initial swell in S/G water level?

A. Shifting the STM DUMP MODE SELECT to TAVG MODE.

B. Inserting control rods 5 steps in MANUAL.

C. Lowering the setpoint on the STM DUMP CNTRL potentiometer (clock).

D. Adjusting turbine controls to reduce the speed of rotation of the synchroscope.

41

2011 NRC ROEXAM

42. Given the following plant conditions:

• A main steam line break has occurred upstream of the main turbine stop valves.

• An AUTO SI has initiated.

• The crew is performing EOP-1 .0, REACTOR TRIP/SAFETY INJECTION ACTUATION.

• All narrow range steam generator levels indicate zero.

• RCS temperature is 485° F and lowering.

• None of the MSIVs can be closed.

• All Emergency Feedwater (EFW) Pumps are running.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the required action with respect to EFW flow?

A. Maintain a minimum of 450 GPM of total EFW flow.

B. Lower EFW flow to a minithum of 50 GPM to each steam generator.

C. Isolate EFW flow to each steam generator.

D. Maximize EFW flow to one SG and isolate EFW flow to the other two.

42

2011 NRC RO EXAM

43. Given the following plant conditions:

• 25% power.

• The A RCP was removed from service.

Which ONE (1) of the following choices identifies the change in B and C steam generator steam flows and pressures 10 minutes after stopping the A RCP as compared to the values before the pump was stopped?

Assume no Operator Action B and C Steam Flows B and C Steam Generator Pressures A. Higher Same as before B. Higher Lower C. Same as before Same as before D. Same as before Higher 43

2011 NRC RO EXAM

44. Given the following plant conditions:

• Plant is in an outage in Mode 6.

• A system restoration valve lineup is required in a room that is posted Locked Hicih Radiation Area.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below identifies the following:

1) The radiation level at which this posting is required.

2) A requirement for the operator to conduct the lineup.

A. 100 mrem/hr.

Must be accompanied by an HP representative with a radiation monitor.

B. 100 mrem/hr.

Must be accompanied by another operator who performs the radiation protection function with a radiation monitor.

C. 1000 mrem/hr.

Must be accompanied by an HP representative with a radiation monitor.

D. 1000 mrem/hr.

Must be accompanied by another operator who performs the radiation protection function with a radiation monitor.

44

2O11 NRC RO EXAM

45. Given the following plant conditions:

• All offsite power has been lost (115 KV and 230 Ky).

o The Ar EDG is supplying the 1 DA bus.

• A recovery of the normal offsite power source is in progress.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes actions that must be completed to parallel the offsite source to the 1 DA bus in accordance with SOP-306, EMERGENCY DIESEL GENERATOR?

The DG A SYNC SEL Switch is placed in and use the SPEED Switch to cause the SYNCHROSCOPE to rotate________________________

A. NORM, slowly in the fast direction.

B. NORM, slowly in the slow direction.

C. DSL, slowly in the fast direction.

D. DSL, slowly in the slow direction.

45

2I11 NRC 1O EXAM

46. Given the following plant conditions:

The NROATC and the CRS are the only operators present in the Control Room.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below correctly completes the following statement regarding a requirement of SAP-200, CONDUCT OF OPERATIONS?

The NROATC may enter the Area of Secondary Attention in:

A. MODE 6 ONLY to acknowledge alarms Q, to record routine data.

B. MODE 6 ONLY to acknowledge alarms but may NOT do so to record routine data.

C. MODE 5 Q 6 to acknowledge alarms OR to record routine data.

D. MODE 5 Qj, 6 to acknowledge alarms but may NOT do so to record routine data.

46

2011 NRC ROEXAM

47. Which ONE (1) of the following is the minimum required tagging to ensure a motor operated valve (MOV) used as a boundary for system work is correctly isolated for personnel safety per OAP-100.5, GUIDELINES FOR CONFIGURATION CONTROL AND OPERATION OF PLANT EQUIPMENT?

A. A red Danger Tag on the valve breaker and a red Hold Tag on the remote operating switch.

B. A red Danger Tag on the valve breaker and a red Danger Tag on the local valve position handwheel.

C. A red Danger Tag on the local valve position handwheel only.

D. A red Danger Tag on the valve breaker only.

47

2011 NRORO EXAM

48. Given the following plant conditions:

• A fire requires the evacuation of the control room.

• The CRS has directed the BOP and RO to perform the actions of FEP-4.O, CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION DUE TO FIRE.

Which ONE (1)of the following correctly identifies an/the immediate action(s) performd by the BOP in accordance with Enclosure C, DUTIES OF THE BALANCE OF PLANT OPERATOR and how the RO will operate Reactor Coolant Pumps in accordance with, Enclosure B, DUTIES OF THE REACTOR OPERATOR?

A. Trip the reactor; Trips all but one Reactor Coolant Pump.

B. Operate disconnect switches to include those for PCV-445A, B, and PCV-444B, PWR RELIEFs; Trips all but one Reactor Coolant Pump.

C. Trip the reactor; Trips all Reactor Coolant Pumps.

D. Operate disconnect switches to include those for PCV-445A, B, and PCV-444B, PWR RELIEFs; Trips all Reactor Coolant Pumps.

48

2011 NRC ROEXAM

49. Given the following plant conditions:

• The reactor has been tripped.

• The control room has been evacuated due to a fire in the Main Control Board.

• The Control Room Evacuation Panel (CREP) has been manned.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements identifies how the crew will operate PZR Backup Heaters in accordance with FEP-4.0, CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION DUE TO FIRE?

A. Group I Pressurizer backup heaters are cycled locally at XSW 1 DA to control RCS pressure.

B. Group 2 Pressurizer backup heaters are cycled locally at XSW I DB to control RCS pressure.

C. Group I Presurizer backup heaters are energized locally at XSW I DA to equalize Pressurizer and RCS boron concentrations.

D. Group 2 Pressurizer backup heaters are energized locally at XSW I DB to equalize Pressurizer and RCS boron concentrations.

49

2O11 NRC RO EXAM

50. Given the following plant conditions:

• A fire has occurred in Cable Spreading Rooms Zone CB-15.

• A failure of the preaction sprinkler system has resulted in extensive damage.

• Several pieces of equipment have operated inadvertently due to hot shorts.

• The crew entered FEP-4.0, CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION DUE TO FIRE.

• 45 minutes have elapsed since the crew evacuated the control room.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statement?

The Emergency Feedwater pump will be feeding SGs, and ESF electrical equipment will be powered from A. Turbine Driven the EDG B. Turbine Driven offsite power C. A motor driven the EDG D. A motor driven offsite power 50

2011 NRC RO EXAM

51. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• A main steam line break occurs.

• XCP-612 pt4-2, PHASE B ISOL, alarms.

• All Phase B automatic actions have occurred.

Based on the current conditions, which ONE (1) of the following states how RCPs should be operated in accordance with ARP-001-XCP-612 pt 4-2, PHASE B ISOL and what is the status of RCP seal injection?

A. Ensure the Reactor is tripped, then stop all RCPs.

Seal injection still exists.

B. Ensure the Reactor is tripped, then stop all RCPs.

All seal injection has been lost.

C. RCP operation may continue as long as parameters remain within limits as displayed on IPCS screen ZZRCPBRG.

Seal injection still exists.

D. RCP operation may continue as long as parameters remain within limits as displayed on IPCS screen ZZRCPBRG.

All seal injection has been lost.

51

2ll NRC RO EXAM

52. Given the foNowing plant conditions:

• Plant was at 100% power.

• The crew is responding to a Faufted Steam Generator (SIG).

• The S/G has blown dry.

• The crew has transitioned to EOP-1 .2, SI TERMINATION.

• RCS pressure is increasing.

• RWST level is decreasing.

• A Charging Pump is running.

• The crew has just secured B Charging Pump.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the actions that will be taken next per EOP-1 .2, SI TERMINATION, and why a reduction in SI flow should be done expeditiously?

A. Normal charging should be established.

To preserve RWST inventory.

B. Normal charging should be established.

To prevent the pressurizer from going solid.

C. Stop low head safety injection pumps.

To preserve RWST inventory.

D. Stop low head safety injection pumps.

To prevent the pressurizer from going solid.

52

2011 NRC RO EXAM

53. Given the following plant conditions:

• Steam Generator Tube Rupture occurred.

• Reactor Trip and Safety Injection occurred.

• All offsite power (115KV and 230KV) was lost after reactor trip.

• Both diesels have started and loaded.

• The operators are at the step to depressurize the RCS to reduce break flow in EOP-4.2, SGTR WITH LOSS OF REACTOR COOLANT: SUBCOOLED RECOVERY DESIRED.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the ftt method of depressurization that will be attempted an effect that the loss of power will have on the RCS system response during the depressurization?

A. Auxiliary Spray.

Steam Generator Tubes may void causing an interruption in natural circulation.

B. Auxiliary Spray.

Reactor Vessel Head Upper Plenum may void causing a rapid rise in Pressurizer level.

C. Pressurizer PORV.

Steam Generator Tubes may void causing an interruption in natural circulation.

D. Pressurizer PORV.

Reactor Vessel Head Upper Plenum may void causing a rapid rise in Pressurizer level.

53

2011 NRC ROEXAM

54. Given the following plant conditions:

• Originally at 100% power.

• Blowdown is aligned to the condenser.

• Annunciator MN STM LINE RM-G19 HI RAD (XCP-646, 2-1) has actuated.

• An automatic Reactor Trip and Safety Injection occurred.

• The following response is seen on RM-GI9A:

Before trip After 10 minutes Reading : 39.7 mREM/hr 0.1 mREM/hr Which ONE (1) of the following describes the reason for the RM-G1 9A response another radiation monitor that will be used to diagnose a transition to EOP-4.0, STEAM GENERATOR TUBE RUPTURE?

A. Primary to secondarç leak flow has decreased RM-L3, Steam Generator Blowdown Liquid Monitor B. N-16 gamma radiation detected has decreased RM-L3, Steam Generator Blowdown Liquid Monitor C. Primary to secondary leak flow has decreased RM-A9, Cndsr Exhaust Gas Atmos Monitor D. N-16 gamma radiation detected has decreased RM-A9, Cndsr Exhaust Gas Atmos Monitor 54

2011 NRC RO EXAM

55. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Loss of Coolant Accident outside containment has occurred.

• The crew is performing the actions in EOP-2.5, LOCA OUTSIDE CONTAINMENT.

Which ONE (1) of the following indications is used to determine if the leak has been isolated in accordance with EOP-2.5?

A. RCS pressure B. Pressurizer level C. RCS Subcooling D. RVLIS indication 55

2011 NRC RO EXAM

56. Given the following plant conditions:

• A small break loss of coolant accident has occurred.

• All Reactor Coolant Pumps have been stopped.

• All S/G narrow range levels are approximately 50% and stable.

• Operators are responding using EOP-2.i, POST-LOCA COOLDOWN AND DEPRESSURIZATION.

Which ONE (1) of the choices below completes the following statements?

While natural circulation is occurring will be at saturation temperature for the associated steam generator pressure.

After RCS level decreases to the point that steam voiding has just begun to occur in the RCS hot leg, the steam generators will A. T t

0 stop removing heat due interruption of natural circulation B. TcoId stop removing heat due interruption of natural circulation C. Thot continue removing heat by reflux boiling D. TcoId continue removing heat by reflux boiling 56

2011 NRC RD EXAM

57. Given the following plant conditions:

100% power.

• A Pressurizer safety failed open.

• The crew has just entered EOP-2.1, POST-LOCA COOLDOWN AND DEPRESSURIZATION.

• RWST level is 80% and decreasing.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements identifies the operator action that was taken with respect to the RHR pumps in accordance with EOP-2.0, LOSS OF REACTOR OR SECONDARY COOLANT, and the reason for that action?

A. Both RHR pumps were kept running to provide injection flow.

B. ONE (1) RHR pump was stopped to align to charging pump suction.

C. ONE (1) RHR pump was stopped to conserve RWST inventory.

D. Both RHR pumps were stopped to prevent damage from miniflow operation.

57

2011 NRC ROEXAM

58. Given the following plant conditions:

• The plant was operating at 100% power.

• A large break loss of coolant accident occurred.

• Operators are in the process of establishing Cold Leg Recirculation in accordance with EOP-2.2, TRANSFER TO COLD LEG RECIRCULATION.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the system(s) that must have their suctions manually transferred from the RWST in accordance with EOP-2.2 AND what signal(s) must be reset in order to make the transfer(s)?

A. Charging ONLY Safety Injection ONLY B. Charging AND Spray Safety Injection ONLY C. Charging ONLY Safety Injection AND Phase A D. Charging AND Spray Safety Injection AND Phase A 58

2011 NRC RO EXAM

59. Given the following plant conditions:

• An uncontrolled rapid depressurization of all steam generators is occurring.

• Reactor Trip and Safety Injection have occurred.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the time in core life that would more likely result in a return to criticality after the trip and lowest Intermediate Range SUR indication given below that will result in a ORANGE path on the Subcriticality Critical Safety function, in accordance with EOP-12.O, MONITORING OF CRITICAL SAFETY FUNCTIONS?

A. End of Life

+0.1 DPMandstable B. End of Life

+0.2 DPM and stable C. Beginning of Life

+0.1 DPM and stable D. Beginning of Life

+0.2 DPM and stable 59

- 2011 NRC ROEXAM

60. Given the following:

• A reactor trip has occurred.

• The crew has entered EOP-15.1, RESPONSE TO STEAM GENERATOR OVERPRESSURE.

The following conditions exist:

SG A pressure indicates 1250 psig.

• SG B and C pressures indicate 1110 psig.

• SG A NR level is 65%.

• Instrument air header pressure is at 40 psig and lowering.

Which ONE (1) of the following actions is required to mitigate the SG overpressure condition in accordance with EOP-15.1?

A. Place A SG Power Relief controller in PWR RELIEF mode and adjut the controller setpoint to reduce affected SG pressure.

B. Place Steam Dump Controller in MANUAL in the STEAM PRESSURE mode, adjust the controller to reduce affected SG pressure.

C. Locally operate steam dump valves in each condenser to reduce affected SG pressure.

D. Locally operate the A SG PORV to reduce SG pressure.

60

2011 NRC RO EXAM

61. Which ONE (1) of the following is the first MajorAction Category in EOP-17.1, REACTOR BUILDING FLOODING, and reason for this in accordance with the background document?

A. Identify and isolate unexpected sources of water in the RB to mitigate flooding that could damage plant equipment.

B. Evaluate ECCS system status to determine strategy to transition to cold and hot leg injection.

C. Notify TSC personnel of sump level, chemistry, and activity level to determine a strategy to transfer excess water out of containment.

D. Have chemistry evaluate sump chemistry, and activity level to determine changes in the planned transition to cold and hot leg injection.

61

2011NRC RO-EXAM

62. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• The A charging pump is in service.

• The following alarms are received on the Main Control Board:

- REGEN HX LTDN OUT TEMP HI

- RCP A (B) (C) #1 SL INJ FLO LO

- CHG LINE FLO HI/LO

• No other alarms are in at this time.

Which ONE (1) of the following malfunctions on the A charging pump could be the cause of the abnormal conditions and what will AOP-1 02.2, LOSS OF CHARGING, require first after ensuring the A charging pump is secured?

A. Asheared shaft Start another charging pump.

B. A sheared shaft Close all letdown isolation valves.

C. A ground on motor causes the 50G relay to actuate Start another charging pump.

D. A ground on motor causes the 50G relay to actuate Close all letdown isolation valves.

62

2011 NRG ROEXAM

63. Given the following plant conditions:

At 0000:

• The reactor was in Mode 4 on A Train RHR cooling.

• A loss of RHR cooling occurred due to an operator inadvertantly closing MVG-8701A, RCS LPATOPUMPA.

• The crew has entered AOP-1 15.3, LOSS OF RHR WITH THE RCS INTACT.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the latest time listed below that MVG-8701A can be reopened from the Main Control Board?

Time Temperature Pressure A. 0100 300°F; 375 psig B. 0130 325°F; 400 psig C. 0200 345°F; 420 psig D. 0230 345°F; 435 psig 63

2011 NRC RO EXAM

64. Given the following plant conditions:

• The RCS is at 225°F shutting down for a refueling.

• ONE (1) train of RHR is in service.

• An earthquake has caused the loss of Lake Monticello and Service Water Pond levels.

• All Service Water Pumps have been stopped.

• The crew is performing AOPs 117.1, LOSS OF SERVICE WATER, and 118.1, TOTAL LOSS OF COMPONENT COOLING WATER.

• RCS temperatures are stable.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements identifies the initial overall strategy for RCS temperature control in accordance with AOP-1 17.1?

A. Establish cold leg injection.

B. Establish MDEFW flow to one steam generator and dump steam using that S/Gs PORV.

C. Operate both Component Cooling Water and Residual Heat Removal loops.

D. Alternate operation of Component Cooling Water and Residual Heat Removal loops.

64

2011 NRC RO EXAM

65. Given the following plant conditions:

• Initially 100% power.

• A break occurred in the Instrument Air System.

• The crew entered AOP-220.1, LOSS OF INSTRUMENT AIR, due to lowering Instrument Air Pressure.

• Operators manually tripped the reactor.

• Instrument Air pressure was lost for 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />.

• The cause of the loss of Instrument air has been corrected.

• Operators have begun restoration of systems to normal.

Which ONE (1) of the following contains both:

1) A component that must be realigned in the field to allow operation from the main control board.

2) A valve that must be ungagged.

A. 1) Excess Letdown Flow Control Valve (HCV-137, XS LTDN HX)

2) PVG-3105A- FS TO DG A B. 1) Excess Letdown Flow Control Valve (HCV-137, XS LTDN HX)

2) XVG09627A SW SYS OUTLET HDR CC LOOP A XCONN VALVE C. 1) Motor Driven Emergency Feed Pump Flow Control Valve FCV-3531

2) PVG-3105A FS TO DG A D. 1) Motor Driven Emergency Feed Pump Flow Control Valve FCV-3531

2) XVG09627A SW SYS OUTLET HDR CC LOOP A XCONN VALVE 65

ZQI1 NRCROEXAM -

66. Given the following plant conditions:

• XAC-3A, INSTR AIR CMPR A, is running.

• A forklift has struck a tool manifold, causing a loss of Service Air pressure.

• Operators are monitoring Instrument Air header pressure in the Control Room.

Instrument air header pressure will be maintained by XAC-3B, INSTR AIR CMPR B, starting at and by IPV-8324, STATlONAIR SUPPLY HDR PRESS CONT VALVE fully closing at XAC-3B start IPV-8324 fully closes A. 105 psig 60 psig B. 90 psig 80 psig C. 105 psig 80 psig D. 90 psig 60 psig 66

2011 NRC RO EXAM

67. Initial Plant conditions:

• Power ascension is in progress per GOP-4A, POWER OPERATION (MODE 1 -ASCENDING).

• Reactor Power is 55%.

• Turbine load is constant.

• A and B feedwater pumps are running.

• A, B, and C feedwater booster pumps are running.

Current Plant conditions:

• All SG levels have just begun to decrease at the same rate.

• Operators have verified no feedwater pumps are tripped.

• A, B, and C feedwater booster pumps are running.

Which ONE (1) of the following statements identifies the next operator action required by AOP-21 0.3, FEEDWATER PUMP MALFUNCTION?

A. Start the idle feedwater booster pump.

B. Start the idle feedwater pump.

C. Select the operable feedwater flow channels for the affected SGs.

D. Manually control feedwater pump speed.

67

2011 I4RC RO EXAM

68. Given the following plant conditions:

• A grid disturbance has been reported by the System Controller.

• 230 KV system voltage is 230.9 KV and rising.

• Main Generator Frequency is 60.5 Hertz and rising.

• The crew is implementing AOP-301 .1, RESPONSE TO ELECTRICAL GRID ISSUES.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the immediate concern associated with this given rising system frequency as identified in AOP-301.1?

A. turbine overspeed B. system over-voltage C. generator volts/hertz

• D positive reactivity addition 68

- 2011 NRCRO EXAM -- - -

69. Given the following plant conditions:

• A Steam Generator tube leak has occured.

• Secondary water was rejected to the CST.

Which ONE (1) of the following is the limit for activity contained in the tank in accordance with Technical Specification 3.11 .1 Liquid Effluents! Liquid Holdup Tanks that would be released if a CST rupture occurred?

A. I microcuries per gram DOSE EQUIVALENT 1-131 B. 10 microcuries per gram DOSE EQUIVALENT 1-131 C. 10 Curies excluding tritium and dissolved or entrained noble gases D. 100 Curies excluding tritium and dissolved or entrained noble gases 69

- a0ltNRC.RQExAfvI

70. Given the following plant conditions:

• RCS temperature is 250°F.

• Maintenance is required on XBC I B, DC DISTRI BUS 1 B BATTERY CHARGER, that will require taking the charger out of service for 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.

• XBC lA-I B, BACKUP BATTERY CHRG, is not available.

• XBC1A, DC DISTRI BUS IA BATTERY CHARGER, is available.

Which ONE (1) of the following choices below answers the following:

I) The highest MODE that this maintenance can be performed in without entering a Technical Specification action statement?

2) The action required by Technical Specifications if the maintenance must be done in the current MODE?

A. 1) MODE4 4

2) Declare 1 B battery inoperable immediately B. 1) MODES

2) Declare 1 B battery inoperable immediately C. 1) MODE 4

2) Demonstrate operability of 1 B battery within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> D. 1) MODE 5

2) Demonstrate operability of 1 B battery within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> 70

2011 NRC ROXAM

71. Given the following plant conditions:

• The plant is in MODE 4.

• A steam bubble exists in the Pressurizer.

• A RHR train is in service.

• B RHR train is operable.

• RCS Wide Range pressure is 310 psig.

• FCV-122, CHG FLOW, is in MANUAL.

• Dilution in progress.

• All RCPs are stopped.

Which ONE(1) of the following describes an expected parameter trend if the running RHR pump trips and the required action as stated in Technical Specifications?

Assume no Operator Action A. Pressurizer level rises.

immediately stop the dilution.

B. Pressurizer level rises.

Stop the dilution within one (1) hour.

C. RCS pressure lowers.

Immediately stop the dilution.

D. RCS pressure lowers.

Stop the dilution within one (1) hour.

71

- 2O1IIsLRCROEXAM

72. In accordance with SOP-lOl, REACTOR COOLANT SYSTEM, which ONE (1) of the following correctly identifies:

1) The lowest seal water outlet temperature at which a RCP must be stopped.

2) The highest MODE in which a RCP can be restarted after the cause of the high seal water outlet temperature is corrected?

A. 1) 195°F.

2) MODE 3.

B. 1) 195°F.

2) MODE 4.

C. 1) 235°F.

2) MODE 3.

D. 1) 235°F.

2) MODE 4.

72

2011 NRC RO EXAM

73. Given the following plant conditions:

• 90% power.

• Plant is operating in Relaxed Axial Offset Control (RAOC).

• All rods were full out.

• Control Rod P-8 partially dropped to 96 steps.

• No operator actions have been taken.

• Delta flux indications are as follows:

Before the Drop After the Drop N41 -4.4% -2.0%

N42 -4.4% -2.0%

N43 -4.4% -12.0%

N44 4 -4.4% -12.0%

Which ONE (1) of the following choices completes the statements below?

AFD is currently the Technical Specification 3.2.1, AXIAL FLUX DIFFERENCE (AFD), limits.

The BOP is required to maintain Tavg within a maximum of of Tref, in accordance with AOP-403.5, STUCK OR MISALIGNED CONTROL ROD.

REFERENCE PROVIDED A. within +1-1.5°F B. outside of +1- 1.5°F C. within +/-5°F D. outside of +1- 5°F 73

2011 NRC RO EXAM

74. Which ONE (1) of the following statements identifies the highest Keff and highest Tavg that can exist when the !!i.t Rx Vessel head bolt is detensioned in accordance with Technical Specifications?

A. 0.95 and 140°F.

B. 0.95 and 200°F.

C. 0.9Oandl4O°F.

D. 0.90 and 200° F.

74

2011 NRC RO EXAM

75. Given the following plant conditions:

• 100% power.

• Makeup to the A SI Accumulator was just completed.

• A SI Accumulator parameters are as follows:

- Boron Concentration: 2207 ppm

- Pressure: 672 psig Which ONE (1) of the following describes whether the boron concentration and pressure are within the Technical Specification limits to establish OPERABILI TY in accordance with TS 3.5.1, ACCUMULATORS?

Boron Concentration Pressure A. Within limit Within limit B. Outside limit Within limit C. Within limit Outside limit D. Outside limit Outside limit 75

TABLE OF CONTENTS 2011 NRC RO EXAM

1. Steam Tables w/ Mollier diagram

2. SOP-119 Attathment VA Page 5 of 5 Revision 17 TABLE A, ACCEPTABLE METEOROLOGY FOR PLAN ND WGDT RELEASES

3. STATION CURVE BOOK, Figure 1-1, Revision dated 5/16/2011 ALLOWABLE INDICATED AXIAL FLUX DIFFERENCE N

O KEY Answers

1. ID Points Type 0 1 004K4.07 3 1.00 MCS A 2 012K6.03 3 1.00 MCS B 3 011K4.03 3 1.00 MCS A 4 016A2.01 4 1.00 MCS D 5 000054G2.1.31 3 1.00 MCS A 6 000007EK2.03 4 1.00 MCS D 7 000032AA2.06 2 1.00 MCS A 8 000029EK2.06 6 1.00 MCS D 9 010A4.01 1 1.00 MCS A 10 063K4.04 6 1.00 MCS D 11 022K1.015 1.00 MCS D 12 064K1.05 5 1.00 MCS D 13 W/E1OEK3.44 1.00 MCS A 14 000057AA2.123 1.00 MCS B 15 064A3.03 7 1.00 MCS D 16 063A3.01 3 1.00 MCS C 17 062K2.01 3 1.00 MCS D 18 045G2.4.31 6 1.00 MCS A 19 026K2.01 2 1.00 MCS D 20 001K2.01 4 1.00 MCS A 21 000055EA2.06 6 1.00 MCS A 22 000056AK3.02 4 1.00 MCS C 23 071A1.062 1.00 MCS C 24 039A 1.05 4 1.00 MCS B 25 061K6.02 2 1.00 MCS C 26 078K1.03 1 1.00 MCS C 27 000026AK3.02 2 1.00 MCS B 28 073K3.01 1 1.00 MCS A 29 2.3.11 2 1.00 MCS B 30 103K4.04 3 1.00 MCS A 31 022A4.02 5 1.00 MCS B 32 008A1.01 3 1.00 MCS A 33 000028AK2.03 5 1.00 MCS B 34 004A2.09 2 1.00 MCS C 35 007G2.4.18 3 1.00 MCS C 36 006A3.01 2 1.00 MCS B 37 000036AA2.03 3 1.00 MCS A 38 012K5.01 3 1.00 MCS D 39 007A4.10 3 1.00 MCS C 40 005K6.03 2 1.00 MCS B 41 041K1.02 3 1.00 MCS C 42 035K6.01 2 1.00 MCS B 43 003K5.04 4 1.00 MCS B 44 2.3.13 3 1.00 MCS C 45 2.1.31 3 1.00 MCS B 46 2.1.2 4 1.00 MCS D 47 2.1.294 1.00 MCS B 48 2.4.25 5 1.00 MCS D

Answers

1. ID Points Type 0 49 2.4.34 4 1.00 MCS B 50 086K3.O1 2 1.00 MCS A 51 2.4.314 1.00 MCS A 52 W/E02G2.2.44 3 1.00 MCS B 53 002K5.144 1.00 MCS D 54 000038EA2M4 2 1.00 MCS D 55 W/EO4EK1.3 3 1.00 MCS A 56 000009EK1.01 3 1.00 MCS D 57 000008AAI.05 2 1.00 MCS D 58 013A2.01 4 1.00 MCS A 59 00004OEA1.25 1.00 MCS A 60 W/E13EK3.4 1 1.00 MCS D 61 W/EI5EA1.33 1.00 MCS A 62 000022G2.4.11 2 1.00 MCS B 63 000025AK1.01 5 1.00 MCS C 64 076K3.05 2 1.00 MCS D 65 000065AA1 .03 4 1.00 MCS D 66 079A4.01 3 1.00 MCS D 67 059G2.4.1 1 2 1.00 MCS D 68 000077AK3.02 6 1.00 MCS D 69 000059AK1.01 3 1.00 MCS C 70 000058G2.2.36 3 1.00 MCS D 71 005K3.014 1.00 MCS A 72 000017AK2.105 1.00 MCS C 73 000003AK1.21 4 1.00 MCS D 74 2.2.35 3 1.00 MCS A 75 2.2.37 3 1.00 MCS C