ML021830360
ML021830360 | |
Person / Time | |
---|---|
Site: | Pennsylvania State University |
Issue date: | 07/11/2002 |
From: | Madden P NRC/NRR/DRIP/RORP |
To: | Randy Erickson Pennsylvania State Univ, University Park, PA |
Isaac P, NRC/NRR/DRIP/RORP, 301-415-1019 | |
Shared Package | |
ML02180360 | List: |
References | |
50-005/OL-02-01, FOIA/PA-2004-0200 50-005/OL-02-01 | |
Download: ML021830360 (44) | |
Text
July 11, 2002 Dr. Rodney A. Erickson Vice President and Dean of the Graduate School Pennsylvania State University 304 Old Main University Park, PA 16802-1504
SUBJECT:
INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT LETTER NO. 50-005/OL-02-01, PENNSYLVANIA STATE UNIVERSITY, JUNE 2002
Dear Dr. Erickson:
During the week of June 17, 2002, the NRC administered examinations to employees of your facility who had applied for a license to operate your Pennsylvania State University Reactor.
The examination was conducted in accordance with NUREG-1478, "Non-Power Reactor Operator Licensing Examiner Standards," Revision 1.
In accordance with 10 CFR 2.790 of the Commission's regulations, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's document system (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at (the Public Electronic Reading Room) http://www.nrc.gov/NRC/ADAMS/indesx.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Patrick Isaac at 301-415-1019.
Sincerely,
/RA/
Patrick M. Madden, Section Chief Research and Test Reactors Section Operating Reactor Improvements Program Division of Regulatory Improvement Programs Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No.50-005
Enclosures:
- 1. Initial Examination Report No. 50-005/OL-02-01
- 2. Examination and answer key cc w/enclosures:
Please see next page
Pennsylvania State University Docket No. 50-5 cc:
Mr. Eric J. Boeldt, Manager of Radiation Protection The Pennsylvania State University 304 Old Main University Park, PA 16802-1504 Dr. C. Frederick Sears, Director The Pennsylvania State University Breazeale Nuclear Reactor University Park, PA 16802-1504 Mr. William P. Dornsife, Director Bureau of Radiation Protection Department of Environmental Protection 13th Floor, Rachel Carson State Office Bldg.
P.O. Box 8469 Harrisburg, PA 17105-8469
July 11, 2002 Dr. Rodney A. Erickson Vice President and Dean of the Graduate School Pennsylvania State University 304 Old Main University Park, PA 16802-1504
SUBJECT:
INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT LETTER NO. 50-005/OL-02-01, PENNSYLVANIA STATE UNIVERSITY, JUNE 2002
Dear Dr. Erickson:
During the week of June 17, 2002, the NRC administered examinations to employees of your facility who had applied for a license to operate your Pennsylvania State University Reactor.
The examination was conducted in accordance with NUREG-1478, "Non-Power Reactor Operator Licensing Examiner Standards," Revision 1.
In accordance with 10 CFR 2.790 of the Commission's regulations, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's document system (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at (the Public Electronic Reading Room) http://www.nrc.gov/NRC/ADAMS/indesx.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Patrick Isaac at 301-415-1019.
Sincerely,
/RA/
Patrick M. Madden, Section Chief Research and Test Reactors Section Operating Reactor Improvements Program Division of Regulatory Improvement Programs Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No.50-005
Enclosures:
- 1. Initial Examination Report No. 50-005/OL-02-01
- 2. Examination and answer key cc w/enclosures:
Please see next page DISTRIBUTION:
PUBLIC RORP/R&TR r/f Facility File EBarnhill (O6-D17)
ADAMS ACCESSION #: ML021830360 TEMPLATE #: NRR-074 OFFICE RORP:CE IEHB:LA RORP:SC NAME PIsaac:rdr EBarnhill PMadden DATE 07/ 02 /2002 07/ 03 /2002 07/ 10 /2002 C = COVER E = COVER & ENCLOSURE N = NO COPY OFFICIAL RECORD COPY
U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT REPORT NO.: 50-005/OL-02-01 FACILITY DOCKET NO.: 50-005 FACILITY LICENSE NO.: R-2 FACILITY: Pennsylvania State University EXAMINATION DATES: 06/20 - 21/2002 EXAMINER: Patrick Isaac, Chief Examiner SUBMITTED BY: /RA/ 06/24/2002 Patrick Isaac, Chief Examiner Date
SUMMARY
During the week of June 17, 2002, NRC administered Operator Licensing examinations to two (2) Reactor Operator (RO) candidates. The candidates passed the examinations.
ENCLOSURE 1
REPORT DETAILS
- 1. Examiner:
Patrick Isaac, Chief Examiner
- 2. Results:
RO PASS/FAIL SRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAIL Written 2/0 N/A 2/0 Operating Tests 2/0 N/A 2/0 Overall 2/0 N/A 2/0
- 3. Exit Meeting:
Personnel attending:
Terry Flinchbaugh, Operations Manager Patrick Isaac, Chief Examiner, USNRC Mr. Flinchbaugh recommended that the correct answer for question B. 012, of the written examination, should be changed from b to a and that two correct answers a and b should be accepted for question B. 017. The chief examiner agreed with Mr. Flinchbaughs recommendation and the answer key was modified accordingly.
U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY: Penn State University REACTOR TYPE: TRIGA DATE ADMINISTERED: 06/20/02 REGION: 1 CANDIDATE: _______________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:
Answers are to be written on the answer sheet provided. Attach all answer sheets to the examination. Point values are indicated in parentheses for each question. A 70% in each category is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.
% OF CATEGORY % OF CANDIDATE'S CATEGORY VALUE TOTAL SCORE VALUE CATEGORY 20.00 33.3 A. REACTOR THEORY, THERMODYNAMICS AND FACILITY OPERATING CHARACTERISTICS 20.00 33.3 B. NORMAL AND EMERGENCY OPERATING PROCEDURES AND RADIOLOGICAL CONTROLS 20.00 33.3 C. FACILITY AND RADIATION MONITORING SYSTEMS 60.00 % TOTALS FINAL GRADE All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.
Candidate's Signature ENCLOSURE 2
A. RX THEORY, THERMO & FAC OP CHARS ANSWER SHEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)
If you change your answer, write your selection in the blank.
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(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)
B. NORMAL/EMERG PROCEDURES & RAD CON ANSWER SHEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)
If you change your answer, write your selection in the blank.
001 a b c d ___
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(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)
C. PLANT AND RAD MONITORING SYSTEMS ANSWER SHEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)
If you change your answer, write your selection in the blank.
001 a b c d ___
002 a b c d ___
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(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)
(********** END OF EXAMINATION **********)
NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:
- 1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.
- 2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.
- 3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.
- 4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.
- 5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each answer sheet.
- 6. Mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.
- 7. The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.
- 8. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.
- 9. When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.
- 10. Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your answer is on your answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.
- 11. To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.
- 12. There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.
Section A L Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics EQUATION SHEET C C Q = m cp T C C Q = m h SCR = S/(1-Keff)
C Q = UA T CR1 (1-Keff)1 = CR2 (1-Keff)2 26.06 (eff) (1-Keff)0 SUR = ))))))))))))) M = ))))))))))
( - ) (1-Keff)1 SUR = 26.06/ M = 1/(1-Keff) = CR1/CR0 P = P0 10SUR(t) SDM = (1-Keff)/Keff P = P0 e(t/) I = Io e-ux (1-)
P = )))))))) Po R* = 1 x 10-4 seconds
= (R*/) + [(-)/eff] = R*/(-)
= (Keff-1)/Keff R=6CEn
= Keff/Keff 0.693
_ T1/2 = ))))))
= 0.007 DR1D12 = DR2D22 DR = DRoe-t Cp (H20) = 0.146 kw P = S / (1 - Keff) gpm @ EF 1 Curie = 3.7x1010 dps 1 kg = 2.21 lbm 1 hp = 2.54x103 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41x106 BTU/hr 1 BTU = 778 ft-lbf EF = 9/5EC + 32 931 Mev = 1 amu EC = 5/9 (EF - 32)
QUESTION: 001 (1.00)
Section A L Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics Given a source strength of 100 neutrons per second (N/sec) and a multiplication factor of 0.8, the expected neutron count rate would be:
- a. 125 N/sec
- b. 250 N/sec
- c. 400 N/sec
- d. 500 N/sec QUESTION: 002 (1.00)
With the reactor critical at 10 KW a rod is pulled to insert a positive reactivity of $0.18. Which one of the following will be the stable reactor period as a result of this reactivity insertion?
- a. 10 seconds
- b. 45 seconds
- c. 55 seconds
- d. 65 seconds QUESTION: 003 (1.00)
An initial count rate of 100 is doubled five times during a startup. Assuming an initial Keff of 0.950, which one of the following is the new Keff?
- a. 0.957
- b. 0.979
- c. 0.985
- d. 0.998 QUESTION: 004 (1.00)
Consider two identical critical reactors, with the exception that one has a beta of 0.0072 and the other has a beta of 0.0060. Each reactor is operating a 10 watts. Which one of the following compares the response of the reactors to a +0.1% delta k/k reactivity insertion?
- a. The resulting period will be shorter for the reactor with the 0.0072 beta fraction
- b. The resulting period will be shorter for the reactor with the 0.0060 beta fraction
- c. The resulting power level will be higher for the reactor with the 0.0072 beta fraction
- d. The resulting power level will be higher for the reactor with the 0.0060 beta fraction QUESTION: 005 (1.00)
Which one of the following materials in the reactor cause a "PROMPT" core reactivity addition when
Section A L Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics reactor power is changed?
- a. U-235 and Reactor coolant
- b. U-235 and ZrH
- c. U-238 and ZrH
- d. U-238 and graphite QUESTION: 006 (1.00)
The reactor is critical and increasing in power. Power has increased from 20 watts to 80 watts in 60 seconds. How long will it take at this rate for power to increase from 0.080 KW to 160 KW?
- a. 0.5 minute
- b. 2.5 minutes
- c. 5.5 minutes
- d. 10.5 minutes QUESTION: 007 (1.00)
A reactor with an initial population of 24000 neutrons is operating with Keff = 1.01. Of the CHANGE in population from the current generation to the next generation, how many are prompt neutrons?
- a. 25
- b. 238
- c. 2500
- d. 24240
Section A L Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION: 008 (1.00)
Given the following Core Reactivity Data:
Control Rod (A) Total Worth ($) (B) Worth Removed ($)
Transient Rod 2.78 1.68 Safety Rod 4.42 2.60 Shim Rod 2.98 1.52 Regulating Rod 2.84 1.60 Which one of the following is the calculated shutdown margin that would satisfy the Technical Specification MINIMUM SHUTDOWN MARGIN ?
- a. 1.17
- b. 2.98
- c. 3.06
- d. 5.62 QUESTION: 009 (1.00)
Which one of the following is the PRIMARY reason that delayed neutrons are so effective at controlling reactor power?
- a. Delayed neutrons make up a very large fraction of the fission neutrons in the core.
- b. Delayed neutrons have a much longer mean lifetime than prompt neutrons.
- c. Delayed neutrons are born at thermal energies.
- d. Delayed neutrons are born at lower energies than prompt neutrons.
QUESTION: 010 (1.00)
Which one of the following is the principal source of heat in the reactor after a shutdown from extended operation at 1 MW?
- a. Production of delayed neutrons
- b. Kinetic energy of fission fragments
- c. Spontaneous fission of U-238
- d. Gamma interactions
Section A L Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION: 011 (1.00)
The following data was obtained during a reactor fuel load.
No. of Elements Detector A (cps) 0 20 8 28 16 30 24 32 32 42 40 80 Which one of the following represents the number of fuel elements predicted to reach criticality?
- a. 48
- b. 52
- c. 56
- d. 60 1.0 +)))0)))0)))0)))0)))0)))0)))0)))0)))0)))0)))0)))0)))0)))0)))0))),
0.9 /)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))1 0.8 /)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))1 0.7 /)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))1 0.6 /)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))1 0.5 /)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))1 0.4 /)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))1 0.3 /)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))1 0.2 /)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))1 0.1 /)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))3)))1 0.0 .)))2)))2)))2)))2)))2)))2)))2)))2)))2)))2)))2)))2)))2)))2)))2)))-
4 8 12 16 20 24 28 32 36 40 44 48 52 56 60 NUMBER OF ELEMENTS INSTALLED QUESTION: 012 (1.00)
Following 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> at 1 MW, the reactor operator reduces reactor power to 50%. Rod control is placed in manual mode and all rod motion is stopped. Which one of the following describes the response of reactor power, without any further operator actions, and the PRIMARY reason for its response?
- a. Power increases due to the burnout of xenon.
- b. Power increases due to the burnout of samarium.
- c. Power decreases due to the buildup of xenon.
- d. Power decreases due to the buildup of samarium.
Section A L Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION: 013 (1.00)
Which one of the following is a correct statement concerning the factors affecting control rod worth?
- a. Fuel burn up causes the rod worth for periphery rods to decrease.
- b. Fuel burn up causes the rod worth to increase in the center of the core.
- c. The withdrawal of a rod causes the rod worth of the remaining inserted rods to increase.
- d. As Rx power increases rod worth increases.
QUESTION: 014 (1.00)
For all operations above 900 KW, all rods shall be balanced. Which one of the following is the reason for maintaining a balanced configuration?
- d. To reduce the effect of fission product poisons by reducing xenon and samarium buildup in the center of the core.
- f. To increase the worth of the rods by increasing the core average neutron flux.
- g. To minimize the effects of flux tilt on the Wide Range Monitor.
QUESTION: 015 (1.00)
Which ONE of the following statements describes the subcritical reactor response as Keff approaches unity?
- a. A LARGER change in neutron level results from a given change in Keff and a SHORTER period of time is required to reach the equilibrium neutron level for a given change in Keff.
- b. A LARGER change in neutron level results from a given change in Keff and a LONGER period of time is required to reach the equilibrium neutron level for a given change in Keff.
- c. A SMALLER change in neutron level results from a given change in Keff and a SHORTER period of time is required to reach the equilibrium neutron level for a given change in Keff.
- d. A SMALLER change in neutron level results from a given change in Keff and a LONGER period of time is required to reach the equilibrium neutron level for a given change in Keff.
QUESTION: 016 (1.00)
An experiment to be placed in the central thimble has been wrapped in cadmium. Which one of the following types of radiation will be most effectively blocked by the cadmium wrapping?
- a. Thermal neutrons
- b. Fast neutrons
- c. Gamma rays
- d. X-rays
Section A L Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics QUESTION: 017 (1.00)
Immediately after a pulse [approximately 1 millisecond] where is the maximum temperature in a fuel element?
- a. in the fuel cladding itself
- b. near the fuel-cladding interface.
- c. at the middle thermocouple, midplane of the fuel region.
- d. at the central fuel-zirconium interface QUESTION: 018 (1.00)
The reactor is operating at 500 KW in steady-state and in manual mode. Which one of the following describes the stable reactor period if the safety rod drops fully into the core and no operator action is taken?
- a. -34 seconds due to the rapid decrease in prompt neutrons
- b. -34 seconds due to the rapid decay of the short lived delayed neutron precursors
- c. -80 seconds due to the slowing down length of prompt neutrons
- d. -80 seconds due to the decay half life of the long lived delayed neutron precursors QUESTION: 019 (1.00)
Which one of the following factors in the "six factor" formula is the most strongly affected by the Negative Temperature Coefficient ?
- a. The fast fission factor
- b. The thermal utilization factor
- c. The resonance escape probability
- d. The thermal non-leakage probability QUESTION: 020 (1.00)
The TRIGA reactor is required to pulse from low power levels. Which one of the following is the reason for this limitation on power level prior to the pulse?
- a. To prevent exceeding the maximum power level limit
- b. To prevent exceeding the fuel element temperature limit
- c. To prevent exceeding the pool temperature limit
- d. To prevent exceeding the reactivity insertion limits
Section A L Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION: 001 (1.00)
Following an irradiation of a specimen, the resulting radioisotope is expected to equal 12 curies.
The radioisotope will decay by the emission of two gamma rays per disintegration with energies of 1.14 Mev and 1.36 Mev. Which one of the following is the radiation exposure rate (R/hr) at one 6 feet from the specimen with no shielding?
- a. 180 R/hr
- b. 30 R/hr
- c. 5 R/hr
- d. 2.72 R/hr QUESTION: 002 (1.00)
A small radioactive source is to be stored in the reactor bay with no shielding. The source reads 2 R/hr at 1 foot. A Radiation Area barrier would have to be erected approximately ___ from the source.
- a. 400 feet
- b. 40 feet
- c. 20 feet
- d. 10 feet QUESTION: 003 (1.00)
A room contains a source which, when exposed, results in a general area dose rate of 175 millirem per hour. This source is scheduled to be exposed continuously for 35 days. Select an acceptable method for controlling radiation exposure from the source within this room.
- a. Lock the room to prevent inadvertent entry into the room.
- b. Equip the room with a device to visually display the current dose rate within the room.
- c. Equip the room with a motion detector that will alarm in the control room.
- d. Post the area with the words "Danger-Radiation Area".
Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION: 004 (1.00)
Consider two point sources, each having the same curie strength. Source A's gammas have an energy of 1 MEV whereas Source B's gamma have an energy of 2 MEV. You obtain a reading from the same Geiger counter 10 feet from each source. Concerning the two readings, which one of the following statements is correct?
- a. Both readings are the same.
- b. The reading from Source B is half that of Source A.
- c. The reading from Source B is twice that of Source A.
- d. The reading from Source B is four times that of Source A.
QUESTION: 005 (1.00)
Which one of the following is the definition for Annual Limit on Intake (ALI)?
- a. 10 CFR 20 derived limit, based on a Committed Effective Dose Equivalent of 5 rems whole body or 50 rems to any individual organ, for the amount of radioactive material inhaled or ingested in a year by an adult worker.
- b. The concentration of a radionuclide in air which, if inhaled by an adult worker for a year, results in a total effective dose equivalent of 100 millirem.
- c. The effluent concentration of a radionuclide in air which, if inhaled continuously over a year, would result in a total effective dose equivalent of 50 millirem for noble gases.
- d. Projected dose commitment values to individuals, that warrant protective action following a release of radioactive material.
QUESTION: 006 (1.00)
In order to ensure the health and safety of the public, 10CFR50 allows the operator to deviate from Technical Specifications. What is the minimum level of authorization needed to deviate from Tech.
Specs?
- a. USNRC
- b. Reactor Supervisor
- c. Licensed Senior Reactor Operator.
- d. Licensed Reactor Operator.
Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION: 007 (1.00)
Which one of the following statements describes the basis for the Safety Limit applicable to fuel temperature?
- a. Excessive gas pressure between the fuel-moderator and cladding may result in loss of fuel element cladding integrity.
- b. High fuel temperature combined with lack of adequate cooling could result in fuel melt.
- c. Excessive hydrogen produced as a result of the zirconium-water reaction is potentially explosive.
- d. Pulsing the reactor at high fuel temperatures could result in loss of fuel element cladding integrity.
QUESTION: 008 (1.00)
The maximum power level shall be no greater than 1.1 Mw (thermal). This is an example of a:
- a. safety limit.
- b. limiting safety system setting.
- c. limiting condition for operation.
- d. surveillance requirement.
QUESTION: 009 (1.00)
At 8:00 am, prior to the start of reactor operation, a checkout procedure is performed in accordance with SOP-2. The reactor is started up, operated, and then secured at 1:00 pm due to a power failure. Which one of the following describes the checkout requirement for a subsequent startup at 4:00 pm ?
- a. a new checkout procedure must be performed.
- b. the checkout procedure does not need to be performed.
- c. only the power range monitor checks and tests, and fuel temperature 1 and 2 channel checks and tests must be performed.
- d. only the manual scram channel test must be performed.
QUESTION: 010 (1.00)
Which one of the following statements describes the reason for the Technical Specifications limit on primary coolant conductivity?
- a. maintain the coolant in a slightly basic condition.
- b. restrict the concentration of coolant dissolved oxygen.
- c. to ensure that leaking fuel are detected.
- d. to prevent activated contaminants from becoming a radiological hazard.
Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION: 011 (1.00)
SELECT the condition under which a reactor bay personnel door may be blocked open.
(NOTE: Consider each choice separately.)
- a. The reactor is shutdown and the console key removed.
- b. At least one person capable of following written instructions is in the Control Room.
- c. The PSBR Director is in the Control Room.
- d. One member of the Penn. State University Campus Police is in the Control Room.
QUESTION: 012 (1.00)
In accordance with EP-2, "Fire and Explosion," which one of the following actions should be taken FIRST for any minor fire that clearly involves non-radioactive materials?
- a. Extinguish the fire.
- b. Sound the building fire alarm system.
- c. Summon the Fire Department.
- d. Contact Health Physics.
QUESTION: 013 (1.00)
In the event of a bomb threat, the person receiving the threat should ...
- a. ask the person making the threat for his name and address.
- b. call 911 after the call has ended.
- c. immediately activate the Emergency Plan.
- d. immediately evacuate the reactor building and proceed to the facility gate.
QUESTION: 014 (1.00)
To maintain an active operator license, the functions of an operator must be actively performed for at least:
- a. four hours per calendar year.
- b. six hours per calendar year.
- c. four hours per calendar quarter.
- d. six hours per calendar quarter.
Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION: 015 (1.00)
Which one of the following terms matches the definition of The reactor building and all connected structures ?
- a. Emergency Planning Zone (EPZ).
- b. Reactor Site Boundary.
- c. Restricted Area.
- d. Site Geographical Area.
QUESTION: 016 (1.00)
An Emergency Action Level is:
- a. a condition which calls for immediate action, beyond the scope of normal operating procedures, to avoid an accident or to mitigate the consequences of one.
- b. a class of accidents for which predetermined emergency measures should be taken or considered.
- c. a procedure that details the implementation actions and methods required to achieve the objectives of the Emergency Plan.
- d. a specific instrument reading or observation which may be used as a threshold for initiating appropriate emergency procedures.
QUESTION: 017 (1.00)
In accordance with the Technical Specifications, which one of the following conditions is permissible when the reactor is operating?
- a. Reactor core cooled by natural convective water flow.
- b. One control rod is inoperable.
- c. A single secured experiment having a reactivity worth of 2.59% delta k/k.
- d. Operating in square wave mode with the linear power channel inoperable.
Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION: 018 (1.00)
During irradiated fuel movement, which one of the following applies to the operation of the facility exhaust system and emergency exhaust system?
- a. One facility exhaust fan shall be operating and the emergency exhaust system shall be operable.
- b. The facility exhaust system shall be operable with both fans running and the emergency exhaust system shall be operable.
- c. One facility exhaust fan shall be operating and, except for periods of time of less than 48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> during maintenance, the emergency exhaust system shall be operable.
- d. The emergency exhaust system shall be operating. The facility exhaust system shall be operable with a minimum of one fan available.
QUESTION: 019 (1.00)
Which one of the following applies to DO NOT OPERATE TAG-OUT tags?
- a. Only an SRO may date, initial the tag, and enter it into the Reactor Log Book, and authorize the removal of the tag.
- b. A RO or SRO may date, initial the tag, and enter it into the Reactor Log Book, but only an SRO may remove the tag.
- c. The Director shall be responsible for dating and initialing the tag and entering it into the Reactor Log Book, and the tag may removed by the Director, Operations and Training Manager or their designate.
- d. The Operations and Training Manager shall be responsible for dating and initialing the tag and entering it in the Reactor Log Book, and the tag can only be removed by an SRO.
QUESTION: 020 (1.00)
Prior to insertion into a pneumatic transfer system, a rabbit sample must be inspected by:
- a. the reactor operator
- b. a senior reactor operator
- c. the Director
- d. the Health Physics office
Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION: 001 (1.00)
The TRIGA fuel elements consist of a mixture of zirconium hydride and:
- a. 20% enriched uranium with stainless steel clad
- b. 12% enriched uranium with stainless steel clad
- c. 8.5% enriched uranium with stainless steel clad
Carbon dioxide is used in the pneumatic transfer system instead of compressed air because:
- a. it is more compressible
- b. it does not retain moisture
- c. it minimizes Ar-41 production
- d. it minimizes N-16 production QUESTION: 003 (1.00)
The top grid plate in the reactor:
- a. supports the weight of the fuel assemblies
- b. aligns and supports the nuclear detectors
- c. maintains lateral fuel alignment
- d. serves as a reflector over the top of the core QUESTION: 004 (1.00)
The Wide Range power monitor uses a (an):
- a. uncompensated ion chamber
- b. compensated ion chamber
- c. fission chamber
- d. boron-trifluoride detector
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION: 005 (1.00)
Which one of the following is a control rod interlock?
- a. above reactor power of 1 kW, the transient rod cannot be operated in the pulse mode
- b. only one standard rod at a time can be moved in the pulse mode
- c. control rods cannot be withdrawn unless the count rate is greater than 1 CPS in the manual mode
- d. two control rods cannot be moved at the same time above 1 kW in the manual mode QUESTION: 006 (1.00)
SCRAM logic is designed to meet the single failure criterion. Which one pair of parameters below are in the correct circuits?
Scram Circuit #1 Scram Circuit #2
- a. Fuel temperature High Fission Chamber Power High
- b. Manual Scram Pulse Timer Scram
- c. Pulse Timer Scram GIC Power High
- d. Keyswitch Off Fuel Temperature High QUESTION: 007 (1.00)
In the PSBR Water Handling System, pool water conductivity is measured:
- a. at the suction of the purification pump
- b. downstream of the skimmer
- c. between the filter and purification pump
- d. at the inlet of the demineralizer QUESTION: 008 (1.00)
Streaming of radiation from the central thimble is prevented by:
- a. a graphite shield box over the top of the tube
- b. the tube being filled with water
- c. a boral plug inserted into the top of the tube
- d. large radius bend in the tube QUESTION: 009 (1.00)
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems A reactor stepback is initiated by:
- a. east or west bay monitor high radiation
- b. east and west facility exhaust fans off
- c. high fuel temperature
- d. pulse timer timed out QUESTION: 010 (1.00)
When energized, flow through the Emergency Exhaust System is verified by:
- a. the red power-on light on the Cobalt-60 lobby control panel.
- b. a DCC-X message Emerg Ventilation Flow On.
- c. the red pilot light on the circuit box on the east wall of the reactor bay.
- d. the Absolute Filter pressure gauge reads 0.2 inches H2O.
QUESTION: 011 (1.00)
Which one of the following is correct for the air compressors?
- a. Compressed air for the facility is provided by two air compressors located in the demineralizer room.
- b. Either air compressor can supply the entire system through valve repositioning in the mechanical equipment room.
- c. Normally, the 20 horsepower air compressor supplies the reactor transient rod, and the 1.5 horsepower air compressor supplies the rest of the facility.
- d. Both compressors are set to start at 60 psig and stop at 120 psig, are equipped with a low pressure alarm at 55 psig, and deliver air at about 80 psig to both the transient rod and the rest of the facility.
QUESTION: 012 (1.00)
Which one of the following would be an indication of a leak in the Pool Heat Exchanger?
- a. Increased radioactivity in the pond water.
- b. Decreased delta T across the Pool Heat Exchanger.
- c. Excessive makeup to the pool.
- d. Increased pool level.
QUESTION: 013 (1.00)
Which one of the following will initiate a Reactor Scram AND a Reactor Operation Inhibit?
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems
- a. High pool temperature.
- b. Both East and West Bay Radiation Trips defeated.
- c. High Radiation Co-60 Lab Monitor
- d. Reactor Bay Truck Door open.
QUESTION: 014 (1.00)
Which one of the following describes an RSS operational interlock function while in the PULSE mode of operation?
- a. Prevents manual withdrawal of more than one rod.
- b. Prevents application of air to the transient rod if the drive is not fully down.
- c. Prevents manual withdrawal of any rod.
- d. Prevents movement of all rods except the transient rod.
QUESTION: 015 (1.00)
The DCC-X bulk pool temperature alarms at ~100EF to ensure that:
- a. there is an adequate heat sink for the full thermal power of the reactor.
- b. the anion bed in the demineralizer is not damaged.
- c. the expansion of pool water at higher temperatures does not reduce the moderating capability of the coolant.
- d. nucleate boiling does not occur on fuel element surfaces.
QUESTION: 016 (1.00)
Which one of the following is true for ALL control rods (i.e., the safety, the shim, the regulating and the transient rods)
- a. A stroke of about 15 inches.
- b. A length of about 43 inches.
- c. A fuel follower of about 15 inches.
- d. They contain graphite reflector sections.
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION: 017 (1.00)
Which one of the following is true for the rod drive interlocks?
- a. The rod drive interlock logic is fail safe on loss of power since power is not required for the motor controller digital inputs to perform the inhibit function.
- b. The rod drive pushbuttons provide normally closed contacts for interlock functions and normally open contacts for inputs to DCC-X.
- c. The interlock validation in RSS and the use of redundant software interlocks for the demand velocity signal provide a diverse control rod withdrawal interlock.
- d. If more than one up pushbutton is pressed at one time, the logic blocks manual withdrawal of the last selected rod or rods and all rods in the automatic mode of control.
QUESTION: 018 (1.00)
Which one of the following initiates a reactor operation inhibit by DCC-X?
- a. Emergency exhaust system operating.
- b. Reactor pool level below normal.
- c. Radiation hazard from the neutron beam ports.
- d. Fuel temperature is high.
QUESTION: 019 (1.00)
Which one of the following is one of the several sources of water that are available for adding water to the reactor pool by permanently installed piping?
- a. Water from the Co-60 pool can be pumped by the primary cooling system pump to the reactor pool.
- b. The University water system can supply the pool through the demineralizer.
- c. The University water system can supply a high flow rate to the emergency pool flooding system.
- d. The heat exchanger secondary side can supply the pool drain lines.
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION: 020 (1.00)
Which one of the following is a correct description of the design response of the emergency lighting system when AC current is lost?
- a. A relay closes so that the un-interruptible power supply (UPS) provides power to the emergency lighting system.
- b. A relay closes so that emergency generator power is supplied to the emergency lighting system lights.
- c. A relay closes so that emergency lighting system battery DC power is supplied to the emergency lighting system lights.
- d. An alarm indication is sent to the DCC-X which initiates transfer to the facility transformer.
(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)
(***** END OF EXAMINATION *****)
Section A L Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics ANSWER: 001 (1.00) d.
REFERENCE:
C.R. = S/(1 - Keff) 6 C.R. = 100/(1 - 0.8) = 100/0.2 = 500 ANSWER: 002 (1.00) b.
REFERENCE:
Reactivity added = $0.18 x .007 = 0.00126
= (-)/eff = .007 - .00126 = 45.6 seconds
(.1) (.00126)
ANSWER: 003 (1.00) d.
REFERENCE:
CR1 (1-Keff1) = CR2 (1 - Keff2) or M1 (1-Keff1) = M2 (1 - Keff2)
CR2/CR1 = 32 ÷ CR1 (1-Keff1)/CR2 = 1 - Keff2) ÷ 100 (1-0.950)/3200 = 1 - Keff2 Keff2 = 1 - .0015625 = .998 ANSWER: 004 (1.00) b.
REFERENCE:
PSTR Training Manual, Section 2.13 ANSWER: 005 (1.00) c.
REFERENCE:
PSTR Training Manual, Section 2.23.3 ANSWER: 006 (1.00) c.
REFERENCE:
P = Poet/T ÷ 80 = 20e60 sec/T ÷ T = 43.28 sec 1.6 x 105 watts = 80et/43.28 t = 329 sec = 5.5 minutes ANSWER: 007 (1.00) b.
REFERENCE:
PSTR Training Manual, Section 2.9 24000 x 1.01 = 24240 neutrons in next generation 24240 - 24000 = 240 neutrons added 240 neutrons added - 0.7% delayed neutron fraction = 238 prompt neutrons added ANSWER: 008 (1.00) b.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Core Evaluation SDM = 3(B) - Max. (A) = $7.40 - $4.42 = $2.98 ANSWER: 009 (1.00) b.
REFERENCE:
PSTR Training Manual, Section 2.12
Section A L Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics ANSWER: 010 (1.00) d.
REFERENCE:
PSTR Training Manual, Section 2.1 ANSWER: 011 (1.00) a.
REFERENCE:
PSTR Training Manual, Chapter 8, Section C ANSWER: 012 (1.00) c.
REFERENCE:
PSTR Training Manual, Section 2.23.2 ANSWER: 013 (1.00) c.
REFERENCE:
PSTR Training Manual, Section 2.21 ANSWER: 014 (1.00) d.
REFERENCE:
PSTR Training Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.4 ANSWER: 015 (1.00) b.
REFERENCE:
PSTR Training Manual, Section 2.18 ANSWER: 016 (1.00) a.
REFERENCE:
PSTR Training Manual, Chapter 7 pg. 31 ANSWER: 017 (1.00) b.
REFERENCE:
PSTR SAR chapter IX, Sect. B ANSWER: 018 (1.00) d.
REFERENCE:
The amount of reactivity inserted by the Safety rod is much larger than beta; therefore, maximum stable negative period of -80 seconds results.
ANSWER: 019 (1.00) b.
REFERENCE:
PSTR Training Manual, Section 2.23.3 ANSWER: 020 (1.00) b.
Section A L Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics
REFERENCE:
PSTR Tech. Specs. 3.1.4
Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls ANSWER: 001 (1.00) c.
REFERENCE:
R = 6 C E n = 6 (12 ci) (1.36 + 1.14 Mev) = 5 R/hr.
62 36 ANSWER: 002 (1.00) c.
REFERENCE:
DR1 DR2 2 DR1 2000
' ÷ X2 ' X1 ' x 12 ' 400ft 2 ' 20ft X2 2
X1 2 DR2 5 ANSWER: 003 (1.00) a.
REFERENCE:
PSTR Training Manual, Chapter 7; 10CFR20.1601(a)(3)
ANSWER: 004 (1.00) a.
REFERENCE:
GM is not sensitive to energy.
ANSWER: 005 (1.00) a.
REFERENCE:
PSTR Training Manual, Chapter 7, pg. 4; 10CFR20.1003 ANSWER: 006 (1.00) c.
REFERENCE:
ANSWER: 007 (1.00) a.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Technical Specifications 2.1 ANSWER: 008 (1.00) c.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Tech. Specs.
ANSWER: 009 (1.00) a.
REFERENCE:
SOP-2, Daily Checkout Procedure.
ANSWER: 010 (1.00) d.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Tech. Specs 3.3.5 ANSWER: 011 (1.00)
Section B Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls a.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Tech. Specs 3.4 ANSWER: 012 (1.00) a.
REFERENCE:
PSBR EP-2.
ANSWER: 013 (1.00) a.
REFERENCE:
PSBR EP-8.
ANSWER: 014 (1.00) c.
REFERENCE:
PSTR AP-3 ANSWER: 015 (2.00) a.
REFERENCE:
EP-1, Definitions.
ANSWER: 016 (1.00) d.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Emergency Preparedness Plan, Section 5.0.
ANSWER: 017 (1.00) a., b.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Technical Specifications, 5.6.
ANSWER: 018 (1.00) a.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Tech. Specs. 3.5 ANSWER: 019 (1.00) b.
REFERENCE:
PSBR AP-10 ANSWER: 020 (1.00) b.
REFERENCE:
PSBR SOP-9
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems ANSWER: 001 (1.00) a.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 3.3 ANSWER: 002 (1.00) c.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 3.20.
ANSWER: 003 (1.00) c.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 3.2 ANSWER: 004 (1.00) c.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 4.9 ANSWER: 005 (1.00) a.
REFERENCE:
CCP-4 ANSWER: 006 (1.00) c.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 4.20.7.2a ANSWER: 007 (1.00) d.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Page 3-13.
ANSWER: 008 (1.00) b.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 3.25 ANSWER: 009 (1.00) c.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 4.20.6.1b ANSWER: 010 (1.00) b.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 3.17
Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems ANSWER: 011 (1.00) b.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 3.14.
ANSWER: 012 (1.00) d.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 3.11 ANSWER: 013 (1.00) d.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 4.20.6.1b ANSWER: 014 (1.00) d.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 4.20.4.2 ANSWER: 015 (1.00) b.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 3.9 ANSWER: 016 (1.00) a.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 3.5 ANSWER: 017 (1.00) b.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 4.20.7.2c ANSWER: 018 (1.00) c.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, page 4-29 ANSWER: 019 (1.00) b.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 3.8 ANSWER: 020 (1.00) c.
REFERENCE:
PSBR Training Manual, Section 3.16