ML24142A142
| ML24142A142 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | University of Missouri-Columbia |
| Issue date: | 08/27/2024 |
| From: | Travis Tate NRC/NRR/DANU/UNPO |
| To: | Sanford M Univ of Missouri - Columbia |
| References | |
| 50-186/OL-24-01 OL-24-01 | |
| Download: ML24142A142 (37) | |
Text
Mr. Matthew Sanford, Executive Director University of Missouri-Columbia Research Reactor Center 1513 Research Park Drive Columbia, MO 65211
SUBJECT:
EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-186/OL-24-02, UNIVERSITY OF MISSOURI-COLUMBIA
Dear Mr. Sanford:
During the week of July 29, 2024, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered an operator licensing examination at your University of Missouri-Columbia research reactor. The examinations were conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.
In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC website at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Michele DeSouza at 301-415-0747 or via email at Michele.DeSouza@nrc.gov.
Sincerely, Travis L. Tate, Chief Non-Power Production and Utilization Facility Oversight Branch Division of Advanced Reactors and Non-Power Production and Utilization Facilities Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No. 50-186
Enclosures:
- 1. Examination Report No. 50-186/OL-24-02
- 2. Written examination cc: w/enclosures to GovDelivery Subscribers August 27, 2024 Signed by Tate, Travis on 08/27/24
ML24142A142 NRR-079 OFFICE NRR/DANU/UNPO/CE NRR/DANU/UNPO/OLA NRR/DANU/UNPO/BC NAME MDeSouza NJones TTate DATE 8/26/2024 8/27/2024 8/272024
U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT REPORT NO.:
50-186/24-02 FACILITY DOCKET NO.:
50-186 FACILITY LICENSE NO.:
R-103 FACILITY:
University of Missouri-Columbia EXAMINATION DATES:
Week of July 29, 2024 SUBMITTED BY:
SUMMARY
During the week of July 29, 2024, the NRC administered operator licensing examinations to five Reactor Operator (RO) candidates. All candidates passed all applicable portions of the examination.
REPORT DETAILS 1.
Examiner:
Michele C. DeSouza, Chief Examiner, NRC 2.
Results:
RO PASS/FAIL SRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAIL Written 5/0 0/0 5/0 Operating Tests 5/0 0/0 5/0 Overall 5/0 0/0 5/0 3.
Exit Meeting:
Deborah Farnsworth, MURR Senior Director-Reactor Operations Ronald Astrino, MURR Reactor Manager Dan Doenges, MURR Health Physics & Safety Manager Robert Hudson, MURR Assistant Reactor Manager-Training Russell Gibson, MURR Assistant Reactor Manager-Operations Michele C. DeSouza, Chief Examiner, NRC Prior to administration of the written examination, based on facility comments, adjustments were accepted. Comments provided corrections and additional clarity to questions/answers and identified where changes were appropriate based on current facility conditions.
Upon completion of all operator licensing examinations, the NRC examiner met with facility staff representatives to discuss the results. At the conclusion of the meeting, the NRC examiner thanked the facility for their support in the administration of the examination.
Michele DeSouza 8/8/2024 Michele C. DeSouza, Chief Examiner Date
University of Missouri - Columbia Operator Licensing Examination Week of July 29, 2024
U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY:
University of Missouri -
Columbia REACTOR TYPE:
TRIGA DATE ADMINISTERED:
08/01/2024 CANDIDATE:
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:
Answers are to be written on the Answer sheet provided. Attach all Answer sheets to the examination. Point values are indicated in parentheses for each question. A 70% in each category is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.
% OF CATEGORY % OF CANDIDATE'S CATEGORY VALUE TOTAL SCORE VALUE CATEGORY 20.00 33.3 A. REACTOR THEORY, THERMODYNAMICS AND FACILITY OPERATING CHARACTERISTICS 20.00 33.3 B.
NORMAL AND EMERGENCY OPERATING PROCEDURES AND RADIOLOGICAL CONTROLS 20.00 33.3 C.
FACILITY AND RADIATION MONITORING SYSTEMS 60.00 % TOTALS FINAL GRADE All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.
Candidate's Signature
Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, & Facility Operating Characteristics A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)
If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.
A01 a b c d ___
A02 a b c d ___
A03 a b c d ___
A04 a b c d ___
A05 a b c d ___
A06 a ________ b ________ c ________ d ________ (0.25 each)
A07 a b c d ___
A08 a b c d ___
A09 a b c d ___
A10 a b c d ___
A11 a b c d ___
A12 a b c d ___
A13 a b c d ___
A14 a b c d ___
A15 a b c d ___
A16 a b c d ___
A17 a b c d ___
A18 a b c d ___
A19 a b c d ___
A20 a b c d ___
(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)
Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)
If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.
B01 a b c d ___
B02 a b c d ___
B03 a b c d ___
B04 a b c d ___
B05 a b c d ___
B06 a ________ b ________ c ________ d ________ (0.25 each)
B07 a b c d ___
B08 a b c d ___
B09 a ________ b ________ c ________ d ________ (0.25 each)
B10 a b c d ___
B11 a b c d ___
B12 a b c d ___
B13 a b c d ___
B14 a b c d ___
B15 a b c d ___
B16 a b c d ___
B17 a b c d ___
B18 a b c d ___
B19 a b c d ___
B20 a b c d ___
(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)
Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)
If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.
C01 a b c d ___
C02 a ________ b ________ c ________ d ________ (0.25 each)
C03 a b c d ___
C04 a b c d ___
C05 a b c d ___
C06 a b c d ___
C07 a b c d ___
C08 a b c d ___
C09 a b c d ___
C10 a b c d ___
C11 a b c d ___
C12 a b c d ___
C13 a b c d ___
C14 a b c d ___
C15 a b c d ___
C16 a b c d ___
C17 a b c d ___
C18 a b c d ___
C19 a b c d ___
C20 a b c d ___
(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)
(********** END OF EXAMINATION **********)
NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:
1.
Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.
2.
After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.
3.
Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.
4.
Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.
5.
Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each Answer sheet.
6.
Mark your Answers on the Answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.
7.
The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.
8.
If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.
9.
When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and Answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.
10.
Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your Answer is on your Answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.
11.
To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category and a 70 percent overall.
12.
There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.
EQUATION SHEET
=
+
DR - Rem, Ci - curies, E - Mev, R - feet 1 Curie = 3.7 x 1010 dis/sec 1 kg = 2.21 lb 1 Horsepower = 2.54 x 103 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41 x 106 BTU/hr 1 BTU = 778 ft-lb
°F = 9/5 °C + 32 1 gal (H2O) 8 lb
°C = 5/9 (°F - 32) cP = 1.0 BTU/hr/lb/°F cp = 1 cal/sec/gm/°C
2 2
max
P 1
sec 1.0
eff
te P
P 0
eff K
S S
1
sec 10 1
4
eff SUR 06 26
2 1
1 1
2 1
eff eff K
CR K
CR
2 2
1 1
CR CR 2
1 1
1 eff eff K
K M
1 2
1 1
CR CR K
M eff
)
(
0 10 t
SUR P
P
0 1
P P
eff eff K
K SDM
1
2 1
1 2
eff eff eff eff K
K K
K
693
.0 2
1 T
eff eff K
K 1
t e
DR DR
0
2 6
R n
E Ci DR 2
2 2
2 1
1 d
DR d
DR
1 2
1 2
2 2
Peak Peak
T UA H
m T
c m
Q P
Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.01
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following conditions will DECREASE the core excess reactivity?
a.
Fuel depletion b.
Burnup of the burnable poison c.
Insertion of a positive reactivity worth experiment d.
Lowering moderator temperature (Assume negative temperature coefficient)
QUESTION A.02
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following is the expected stable neutron count rate, given a source strength of 250 neutrons per second (N/sec) and a multiplication factor of 0.5?
a.
250 neutrons/second b.
325 neutrons/second c.
475 neutrons/second d.
500 neutrons/second QUESTION A.03
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following best describes the difference between reflectors and moderators?
- a. Reflectors decrease core leakage while moderators thermalize neutrons.
- b. Reflectors thermalize neutrons while moderators decrease core leakage.
- c. Reflectors shield against neutrons while moderators decrease core leakage.
- d. Reflectors decrease thermal leakage while moderators decrease fast leakage.
Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.04
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following parameters is the MOST significant in determining the differential rod worth of a control rod?
a.
Flux shape b.
Rod speed c.
Reactor power d.
Fuel temperature QUESTION A.05
[1.0 point]
How high will the reactor power get given the following: the lowest of the reactor high power scram set points is 120%, the scram delay time is 0.5 seconds, the reactor is operating at 100%
power prior to the scram, and the reactor period is positive 20 second?
a.
111%
b.
116%
c.
123%
d.
137%
QUESTION A.06
[1.0 point, 0.25 each]
Match the following neutron interactions in Column A with the appropriate definition in Column B. (Answers used only once)
Column A Column B
- a. Fission
- 1. Neutron enters nucleus, forms a compound nucleus, then decays by gamma emission.
- b. Scattering
- 2. Particle enters nucleus, forms a compound nucleus
- c. Particle ejection and is excited enough to eject a new particle with the incident neutron remaining in the nucleus.
- d. Radiative capture
- 3. Nucleus absorbs neutron and splits into two similarly sized parts.
- 4. Nucleus is struck by a neutron and emits a single neutron
Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.07
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following is defined as the balance between the rate of production of fast neutrons from thermal fission and rate of absorption of thermal neutrons by the fuel?
a.
Utilization factor b.
Reproduction factor c.
Infinite Multiplication factor d.
Effective multiplication factor QUESTION A.08
[1.0 point]
The following data was obtained during a reactor fuel load.
Step No. of Elements Detector A (count/sec) 1 0
170 2
2 190 3
5 225 4
9 300 5
13 500 The estimated number of additional elements required to achieve criticality is between:
- a. 1 to 2
- b. 3 to 4
- c. 5 to 7
- d. 8 to 10 QUESTION A.09
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following isotopes will readily absorb neutrons when it interacts with neutrons?
- a. Hydrogen-1
- b. Oxygen-16
- c. Boron-10
- d. Iodine-131
Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.10
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following best describes the effects of moderator temperature DECREASE on neutron multiplication? Lf - Fast non-leakage probability Lt - Thermal non-leakage probability
- a. Lf, Lt, rod worth
- b. Lf, Lt, rod worth
- c. Lf, Lt, rod worth
- d. Lf, Lt, rod worth QUESTION A.11
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following is a correct statement of how delayed neutrons enhance the ability to control reactor power?
- a. Prompt neutrons can cause fissions in both U-235 and U-238 and delayed neutrons can only cause fissions in U-235.
- b. Delayed neutrons are born at higher energy levels than prompt neutrons.
- c. The average number of delayed neutrons produced per fission is higher than the average number of prompt neutrons.
- d. Delayed neutrons increase the average neutron lifetime that allows a reactor to be controlled.
QUESTION A.12
[1.0 point]
A subcritical reactor, keff is increased from 0.917 to 0.966. Which ONE of the following is the amount of reactivity that was added to the core?
- a. 3.64%k/k
- b. 4.35%k/k
- c. 5.53%k/k
- d. 6.53%k/k
Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.13
[1.0 point]
What does the 1/M represent during a Subcritical Multiplication data plot?
- a. Inverse of the moderator coefficient of reactivity
- b. Inverse multiplication of the count rate between generations
- c. Inverse of fuel elements presented in the core
- d. Inverse migration length of neutrons of varying energies QUESTION A.14
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following isotopes is an example of a fertile material?
- a. Plutonium-239
- b. Uranium-238
- c. Uranium-235
- d. Uranium-233 QUESTION A.15
[1.0 point]
What is ?
- a. The fractional change in neutron population per generation
- b. The fraction of all fission neutrons that are born as delayed neutrons
- c. The time required for the reactor to change by power by a factor of e
- d. The fraction of all delayed neutrons that reach thermal energy
Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.16
[1.0 point]
The reactor is on a CONSTANT positive period. Which ONE of the following power changes will take the SHORTEST time to complete?
- a. From 100 kW to 150 kW
- b. From 10 kW to 20 kW
- c. From 10 W to 30 W
- d. From 1 W to 5 W QUESTION A.17
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following conditions would INCREASE the shutdown margin of a reactor?
- a. Inserting an experiment adding positive reactivity
- b. Depletion of Uranium fuel
- c. Depletion of a burnable poison
- d. Lowering moderator temperature if the moderator temperature coefficient is negative QUESTION A.18
[1.0 point]
The reactor is critical and increasing in power. Power has increased from 10 watts to 800 watts in 90 seconds. How long, at this rate, will it take power to increase from 4 kW to 10 kW? Note:
Neglect any negative temperature coefficient.
a.
1.9 seconds b.
12 seconds c.
16 seconds d.
19 seconds
Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.19
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following is the MAJOR source of energy released during fission?
- a. Fission fragments
- b. Fission product decay
- c. Prompt gamma rays
- d. Fission neutrons QUESTION A.20
[1.0 point]
Following a reactor scram, what is the reason for the 80 second period?
- a. Ability of U-235 to fission with source neutrons
- b. Decay constant for the longest-lived neutron precursors
- c. The amount of negative reactivity added during a scram is greater than the shutdown margin
- d. Fuel temperature coefficient adds positive reactivity as a result of the decrease in fuel temperature
(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)
Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.01
[1.0 point]
In the event of a suspected fuel leak, which ONE of the following nuclides would be present?
a.
N-16 b.
Ar-41 c.
Fe-60 d.
Kr-85 QUESTION B.02
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following is the definition of Committed Dose Equivalent?
a.
The sum of external deep dose equivalent and the organ dose equivalent.
b.
The dose equivalent that the whole body receives from sources outside the body.
c.
The sum of the effective dose equivalent (for external exposures) and the committed effective dose equivalent (for internal exposures).
d.
The dose equivalent to organs or tissues that will be received from an intake of radioactive material by an individual during the 50-year period following the intake.
QUESTION B.03
[1.0 point]
According to the MURR Emergency Plan, the area for which emergency planning is performed and bounded by a 150-meter radius from the MURR exhaust stack and lies within the site boundary is defined as __________.
- a. Emergency Planning Zone
- b. Site Boundary
- c. Operations Boundary
- d. Emergency Control Center
Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.04
[1.0 point]
Reactor Operator works in a high radiation area for eight (8) hours a day. The dose rate in the area is 100 mrem/hour. Which ONE of the following is the MAXIMUM number of days in which Reactor Operator may perform his duties WITHOUT exceeding 10 CFR 20 limits?
- a. 5 days
- b. 6 days
- c. 7 days
- d. 12 days QUESTION B.05
[1.0 point]
What is the MINIMUM number of hours per calendar quarter you must perform the functions of an RO to maintain an active RO license in accordance with 10 CFR Part 55.53(e)?
a.
4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> b.
5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> c.
6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> d.
7 hours8.101852e-5 days <br />0.00194 hours <br />1.157407e-5 weeks <br />2.6635e-6 months <br /> QUESTION B.06
[1.0 point, 0.25 each]
Identify each of the following surveillances as a channel check (CHECK), a channel test (TEST) or a channel calibration (CAL).
- a. During a reactor startup, you verify a reactor period interlock.
- b. During reactor operations, you compare radiation monitor readings.
- c. During annual shutdown, you adjust the continuous air monitor scram set point to match recent data collected.
- d. During a startup, you verify the reactor interlock system by performing simultaneous withdrawal of two control rods.
Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.07
[1.0 point]
In accordance with MURR REP-8, control rod drive mechanism failure or stuck rod, which ONE of the following is NOT an immediate action?
- a. Verify reactor is shutting down
- b. Verify non-affected rods are bottomed
- c. Trip auto transfer switch breaker on substation B
- d. Scram the reactor by placing the master control switch to test QUESTION B.08
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following is NOT considered an abnormal occurrence?
- a. During the reactor operation, a student inserted an experiment that causes a short period scram.
- b. During the reactor operation, the operator noted the pool water level indicates 29 feet.
- c. During the reactor operation, the operator couldnt withdraw the regulating rod from 6-in position.
- d. During the reactor training, a student lets the power drift up to the 120 % of full power, whereupon a rod run-in occurs.
QUESTION B.09
[1.0 point, 0.25 each]
Match the following events in accordance with MURR Emergency Plan Classification
[Notification of Unusual Event (NUE), Alert (A), Site Area Emergency (SAE)].
- a. Tornado directed toward the reactor facility.
- b. A terrorist triggered a bomb directed to the reactor core, causing multiple fuel damage and releasing significant fission products to the environment.
- c. Significant fuel damage indicated by high coolant fission product activity.
- d. Release significant radioactive materials to containment during a fuel handling accident outside the core.
Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.10
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following changes would require submittal to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission for approval prior to implementation?
a.
Add a new limit to the pre-startup checklist procedure b.
Replace a primary coolant pump with an identical one c.
Delete section 6.3, Radiation Safety listed in the MURR Technical Specifications d.
Add more responsibilities to the Radiation Protection Officer listed in the health physics procedure QUESTION B.11
[1.0 point]
In accordance with 10 CFR 20, individual members of the public are limited to an annual TEDE of:
a.
50 mrem.
b.
100 mrem.
c.
500 mrem.
d.
5000 mrem.
QUESTION B.12
[1.0 point]
According to the MURR Technical Specifications, which ONE of the following conditions is NOT a Limiting Safety System Setting (LSSS) requirement in Mode II operation?
a.
Reactor Power Level 5 MW.
b.
Reactor Inlet Water Temperature 155F c.
Pressurizer Pressure Minimum 75 Psia.
d.
Both Primary Coolant system loop 1.625 gpm.
QUESTION B.13
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following experimental facilities/research projects conducts experiments that are classified as Neutron Beam Experiments?
a.
Thermal Column b.
Central Test Hole c.
Pneumatic Tube System d.
Graphite Reflector Region
Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.14
[1.0 point]
You are currently a licensed operator at MURR. Which ONE of the following would be a violation of 10 CFR Part 55.53 Conditions of licenses?
a.
Your last medical examination was 16 months ago.
b.
Your last requalification operating test was 13 months ago.
c.
Last quarter you were the licensed operator for 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.
d.
The new requalification program cycle started 18 months ago.
QUESTION B.15
[1.0 point]
In accordance with MURR emergency plan, during an emergency, which ONE of the following has the responsibility for authorizing volunteer emergency workers to incur radiation exposure in excess of normal occupation limits?
- a. Emergency Director
- b. Health Physics Manager
- c. Emergency Coordinator
- d. Emergency Director with concurrence of Health Physics Manager QUESTION B.16
[1.0 point]
According to the MURR Emergency Plan, which ONE of the following is the definition of Emergency Action Guides?
- a. documented instructions that implement actions and methods to achieve the objectives of the Emergency Plan.
- b. specified contamination levels of airborne radiological dose or dose rates that may be used as thresholds for establishing emergency classes.
- c. classes of accidents grouped by severity level.
- d. projected radiological dose levels or dose commitment values to individuals that warrant protective action following a release of radioactive material.
Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.17
[1.0 point]
In order to ensure the health and safety of the public, 10 CFR 50.54(x) allows the operator to deviate from Technical Specifications in an emergency. What is the minimum level of authorization needed to deviate from Technical Specifications in accordance with 10 CFR 50.54(y)?
a.
Reactor Director b.
Senior Reactor Operator c.
Radiation Laboratory Director d.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission QUESTION B.18
[1.0 point]
Per MURR Technical Specifications, what is the MINIMUM shutdown margin with the most reactive shim blade and regulating rod fully withdrawn?
- a. 0.01 k/k
- b. 0.02 k/k
- c. 0.1% k/k
- d. 0.2% k/k QUESTION B.19
[1.0 point]
An experiment reading 30 rem/hr was removed from the reactor. Five hours later, it reads 10 rem/h. What is the half-life of the experiment?
a.
1.23 b.
3.15 c.
5.13 d.
6.98
Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.20
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following defines the term Radiation Area?
a.
Any area to which access is limited for any reason.
b.
Any area to which access is limited for the purpose of protecting individuals against undue risks from exposure to radiation and radioactive materials.
c.
Area where radiation exposure rates would result in a dose equivalent in excess of 5 mrem (0.05 mSv) in one hour at 30 centimeters from the radiation source.
d.
Area where radiation exposure rates would result in a dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1 mSv) in one hour at 30 centimeters from the radiation source.
(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)
Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.01
[1.0 point]
The Automatic Transfer Switch (ATS) houses the sensing and control devices to ensure emergency electrical distribution is powered from which ONE of the following?
a.
Normal power source only b.
Emergency power source only c.
Temporary battery power source only d.
Either the normal or emergency power source QUESTION C.02
[1.0 point, 0.25 each]
Match the Area Radiation Monitors in Column A with its current set point in Column B. Answers may be used once, more than once or not at all.
Column A Column B
- a. Bridge
- 1. 3 mR/hr
- b. Fuel Vault
- 2. 4 mR/hr
- c. Air Plenum #1
- 3. 6 mR/hr
- d. North Beamport Wall
- 4. 50 mR/hr
- 5. 12,000 cpm QUESTION C.03
[1.0 point]
Pressurizer Relief Valve (V537) will relieve pressure directly from the pressurizer to the facility exhaust system which ONE of the following is the MINIMUM required pressure?
- a. 25 psig
- b. 50 psig
- c. 100 psig
- d. 250 psig
Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.04
[1.0 point]
What should you do, when a high radiation level condition is detected by the Air Plenum 1 and Air Plenum 2 channels?
- a. Nothing, keep working
- b. Notify the Control Room Director only
- c. Notify the Health Physic department only
- d. Verify the containment building isolation QUESTION C.05
[1.0 point]
The figure below depicts which ONE of the following nuclear instrumentation detectors?
a.
Fission Chamber b.
Geiger-Mueller Detector c.
Compensated Ion Chamber d.
Uncompensated Ion Chamber QUESTION C.06
[1.0 point]
High Voltage Panel # 3 (HVP-3) provides power to which ONE of the following?
- a. Distribution Center-1 only.
- b. Distribution Center-2 only.
- c. Distribution Center-1 and Distribution Center-3.
- d. Distribution Center-1 and Distribution Center-2.
Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.07
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following is the primary air effluent from MURR?
a.
- b. Argon-41
- c. Cobalt-60
- d. Cesium-137 QUESTION C.08
[1.0 point]
In accordance with MURR Technical Specification, which ONE of the following is approximately the MINIMUM amount of water required to provide shielding from direct core radiation with the reactor at full power?
- a. 26 feet
- b. 27 feet
- c. 28 feet
- d. 29 feet QUESTION C.09
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following best describes the flow path of the pool coolant demineralizer loop?
- a. DI tankDemin PumpPool Inlet FilterReactor PoolPool Outlet Filter
- b. Reactor PoolPool Demin PumpPool Inlet FilterDI TankPool Outlet Filters
- c. Reactor PoolPool Outlet FiltersPool Demin PumpPool Inlet FilterDI Tank
- d. Pool Inlet FilterDI TankPool Outlet FiltersPool Demin PumpReactor Pool
Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.10
[1.0 point]
How many charcoal filters are required to be operable when processing Iodine-131 in the Iodine-131 processing hot cell?
- a. 1
- b. 2
- c. 3
- d. 4 QUESTION C.11
[1.0 point]
When the reactor is operating above 100kW, sufficient cooling of the control blades is provided by which ONE of the following?
- a. Forced convection flow
- b. In-pool heat exchanger
- c. Natural circulation of pool water
- d. DCW supplied from the After Cooler QUESTION C.12
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following set of valves actuates to isolate the in-pool portions of the primary coolant system from the remainder of the system?
- a. V507A and V507B
- b. V527A and V527B
- c. V543A and V543B
- d. V546A and V546B
Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.13
[1.0 point]
If pressurizer liquid level decreases below the normal operating level, which ONE of the following actions does NOT occur?
- a. At approximately 7 inches (17.78 cm) below centerline, LC 936 signals water addition valve V527B to open and start coolant charging pump 533, adding water to the pressurizer.
- b. At approximately 11 inches (27.94 cm) below center line LC 937 initiates a pressurizer water lo level annunciator alarm and signals valve V527A to close.
- c. At approximately 13 inches (33.0 cm) below center line, the surge line isolation valve V527C closes to prevent an introduction of nitrogen gas into the primary coolant system.
- d. At approximately 13 inches (33.0 cm) below center line, LC 935 initiates a reactor scram by opening a contact (K28-2) in the process input string to E3B of the Reactor Safety System NCLUs.
QUESTION C.14
[1.0 point]
In accordance with MURR EP-RO-012, which ONE of the following conditions does NOT warrant a reactor isolation?
- a. Prolonged fire in containment
- b. Radiation level reading ten times above normal background on the reactor bridge
- c. Concentration of airborne reactivity at the stack is 40 AEC when averaged over 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />
- d. Determination by the Lead Senior Reactor Operator that an abnormal condition requires Reactor Isolation QUESTION C.15
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following Motor Control Centers (MCC) supplies 480V power to the reactor load equipment?
- a. MCC-2
- b. MCC-3
- c. MCC-4
- d. MCC-5
Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.16
[1.0 point]
For the reactor containment integrity to exist, which ONE of the following conditions shall be satisfied?
- a. The truck entry door is open.
- b. The personnel airlock is operable (one door shut and sealed).
- c. The reactor containment building pressure is at positive pressure.
- d. The reactor containment building ventilation doors placed in open position.
QUESTION C.17
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following reactor regions contains flow nozzles that function to restrict flow so that changes in experiments do NOT significantly alter the pool cooling flow through the rod gaps?
- a. Center Test Hole
- b. Active Fuel Region
- c. Beryllium Reflector
- d. Graphite Reflector Region QUESTION C.18
[1.0 point]
In the event of a low primary coolant pressure condition, which ONE of the following actions occurs?
- a. Nitrogen gas is vented to the Room 114 exhaust line
- b. Water is drained from the pressurizer to the drain collection tank
- c. Coolant flow is redirected to bypass the pool coolant heat exchanger
- d. Flow path is provided from the anti-siphon tank to the primary coolant system QUESTION C.19
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following locations is where domestic water enters the facility?
a.
Laboratory basement b.
Area outside mechanical equipment room 114 c.
Southwest corner of the cooling tower basement d.
Missouri University Research Reactor industrial building
Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.20
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following is an indication of a decrease in pressurizer level in conjunction with an increase in pool water?
- a. Failure of isolation valves V546A and V546B
- b. Overspeed of the primary coolant charging pump
- c. Over pressurization of the primary coolant system
- d. Primary coolant system leak within the reactor pool
(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)
((********** END OF EXAMINATION **********))
Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, & Facility Operating Characteristics A.01 Answer:
a
Reference:
Standard NRC question, decreasing core reactivity worth will decrease the core excess A.02 Answer:
d
Reference:
CR=S/(1-k)250/(1-0.5) = 500 N/sec A.03 Answer:
a
Reference:
Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 5.4 A.04 Answer:
a
Reference:
Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 7.2 A.05 Answer:
c
Reference:
P/Po = 120%, T = 20 seconds, t = 0.5, P/Po = 120 e^0.5/20 = 123%
A.06 Answer:
- a. 3; b. 4; c. 2; d. 1
Reference:
DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Volume 2, Module 4, page 1-9 A.07 Answer:
b
Reference:
DOE Handbook, Fundamentals of Nuclear Engineering, NP-03, page 6 A.08 Answer:
c
Reference:
Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 5.5, page 5-18 to 5-25 A.09 Answer:
c
Reference:
Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 2.5.1, page 2-38-43 A.10 Answer:
d
Reference:
Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 3.3.2 A.11 Answer:
d
Reference:
Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 3.3.2, page 3-7 A.12 Answer:
c
Reference:
Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 3.3.4, page 3-20&21
=(keff2-keff1)/(keff1*keff2) = (0.966-0.917)/(0.966*0.917) = 0.0553k/k=5.53%k/k
Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, & Facility Operating Characteristics A.13 Answer:
b
Reference:
DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory, Volume 2, Module 4, page 1-9 A.14 Answer:
b
Reference:
Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 3.2(a), page 3-2 A.15 Answer:
b
Reference:
DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory, Volume 2, Module 4 A.16 Answer:
a
Reference:
P=Poet/Tt=T*ln(P/Po) assume constant period = 1 The smallest ratio of P/Po is the shortest time to complete A.17 Answer:
b
Reference:
Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 6.2.3 A.18 Answer:
d
Reference:
P = P et/T 800 = 10*e (90 sec/T)
T = 20.54sec 10 kW = 4 kW*e (t/20.54) t = 19 sec A.19 Answer:
a
Reference:
Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Table 3.2, page 3-5b
=(k-1)/k-0.051=k-(-0.05k)=k(1+0.05)k=1/1.05 =0.9524 A.20 Answer:
b
Reference:
LaMarsh, 3rd ed., page 345
(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)
Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls B.01 Answer:
d
Reference:
Standard NRC question B.02 Answer:
d
Reference:
10 CFR 20.1003 B.03 Answer:
a
Reference:
MURR Emergency Plan 9.8 B.04 Answer:
b
Reference:
10CFR20.1201(a)(1) [5000 mr x 1 hr x day] = 6.25 days = 6 days; 100 mr
- 8 hr B.05 Answer:
a
Reference:
10 CFR 55.59 B.06 Answer:
- a. Test; b. Check; c. Cal; d. Test
Reference:
MURR Technical Specifications Definitions B.07 Answer:
c
Reference:
MURR REP-8 B.08 Answer:
b
Reference:
MURR TS 1.1 and 3.2 B.09 Answer:
Reference:
MURR Emergency Plan 3.2, 3.2, and 3.4 B.10 Answer:
c
Reference:
MURR Technical Specifications changes requires an amendment B.11 Answer:
b
Reference:
10 CFR 20.1301 B.12 Answer:
d
Reference:
MURR Technical Specifications 2.2 B.13 Answer:
a
Reference:
MURR AP-RO-135
Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls B.14 Answer:
b
Reference:
B.15 Answer:
a
Reference:
MURR Emergency Plan Section 2.1 B.16 Answer:
b
Reference:
MURR Emergency Plan 9.5 B.17 Answer:
b
Reference:
B.18 Answer:
b
Reference:
MURR Technical Specifications 3.1.b B.19 Answer:
b
Reference:
DR = DR0, T1 2 =
0.693
DR = DR0 e-.693/T1/2 10 = 30 e-(.693)(5)/T1/2 0.33 = e-(.693)(5)/T1/2 ln(0.33) = ln(e-(.693)(5)/T1/2)
-1.099 = -3.465 / T1/2 T1/2 = -3.465 / -1.099 T1/2 = 3.15 hr B.20 Answer:
c
Reference:
(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)
Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems C.01 Answer:
d
Reference:
MURR Operations Training Manual, Automatic Transfer Switch,Section II, page 2-2B C.02 Answer:
- a. 4; b. 2; c. 1; d. 2
Reference:
MURR Operations Training Manual, page 1-9B C.03 Answer:
c
Reference:
MURR Operations Training Manual, Pressurizer System,Section III.C, page 4-9B C.04 Answer:
d
Reference:
MURR Operations Training Manual, Area Radiation Monitor System,Section III.C, Page 4-9B.
C.05 Answer:
c
Reference:
Standard NRC question C.06 Answer:
d
Reference:
MURR Operations Training Manual, Normal Electrical Distribution,Section II, page 2-2A.
C.07 Answer:
b
Reference:
MURR Technical Specifications 3.7, Radiation Monitoring Systems and Airborne Effluents, Section 3.7.b, page A-31.
C.08 Answer:
b
Reference:
MURR Technical Specifications 3.2.f, Basis C.09 Answer:
b
Reference:
MURR Operations Training Manual, page 1-5E C.10 Answer:
c
Reference:
MURR Technical Specifications 3.10, page A-38 C.11 Answer:
a
Reference:
MURR Operations Training Manual, page 2-8C C.12 Answer:
a
Reference:
Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems C.13 Answer:
b
Reference:
MURR SAR 7.6.5, page 307 C.14 Answer:
c
Reference:
MURR EP-RO-012, Section 1.0 C.15 Answer:
d
Reference:
MURR Operations Training Manual, page 3-9A C.16 Answer:
b
Reference:
MURR Technical Specifications 3.4, Reactor Containment Building, Section 3.4.a, page A-24 C.17 Answer:
d
Reference:
MURR Operations Training Manual, page 1-8A C.18 Answer:
d
Reference:
MURR Operations Training Manual, page 2-4C C.19 Answer:
c
Reference:
MURR Operations Training Manual, page 1-1A C.20 Answer:
d
Reference:
(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)
((********** END OF EXAMINATION **********))