ML18200A104

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Examination Report No. 50-186/OL-18-02, University of Missouri - Columbia
ML18200A104
Person / Time
Site: University of Missouri-Columbia
Issue date: 08/02/2018
From: Anthony Mendiola
Research and Test Reactors Oversight Projects Branch
To: Sanford M
Univ of Missouri - Columbia
Randiki C
Shared Package
ML18110A083 List:
References
50-186/18-02, 50-186/OL-02
Download: ML18200A104 (42)
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Text

August 2, 2018 Mr. Matthew Sanford, Interim Reactor Facility Director University of Missouri-Columbia Research Reactor Center 1513 Research Park Drive Columbia, MO 65211

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-186/OL-18-02, UNIVERSITY OF MISSOURI - COLUMBIA

Dear Mr. Sanford:

During the week of June 25, 2018, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered an operator licensing examination at your University of Missouri-Columbia reactor.

The examination was conducted according to NUREG-1478, Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors, Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with you and those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.

In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosure will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Mrs. Paulette Torres at (301) 415-5656 or via e-mail Paulette.Torres@nrc.gov.

Sincerely,

/RA/

Anthony J. Mendiola, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Licensing Projects Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No. 50-186

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-186/OL-18-02
2. Written Examination cc: Bruce Meffert, Reactor Manager, MURR cc: w/o enclosure: See next page

ML18200A104 NRR-074 OFFICE NRR/DLP/PROB NRR/DIRS/PROB/OLA NRR/DLP/PROB/BC NAME PTorres CRandiki (AMendiola for) AMendiola DATE 07/05/2018 08/02/2018 08/02/2018 University Of Missouri - Columbia Docket NO: 50-186 cc:

Les Foyto, Associate Director University of Missouri-Columbia Research Reactor Center 1513 Research Park Drive Columbia, MO 65211 Homeland Security Coordinator Missouri Office of Homeland Security P.O. Box 749 Jefferson City, MO 65102 Planner, Dept. of Health and Senior Services Section for Environmental Public Health P.O. Box 570 Jefferson City, MO 65102-0570 Deputy Director for Policy Department of Natural Resources 1101 Riverside Drive Fourth Floor East Jefferson City, MO 65101 A-95 Coordinator Division of Planning Office of Administration P.O. Box 809, State Capitol Building Jefferson City, MO 65101 Test, Research, and Training Reactor Newsletter University of Florida 202 Nuclear Sciences Center Gainesville, FL 32611

U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT REPORT NO.: 50-186/OL-18-012 FACILITY DOCKET NO.: 50-186 FACILITY LICENSE NO.: R-103 FACILITY: University of Missouri - Columbia Reactor EXAMINATION DATE: June 25-27, 2018 SUBMITTED BY: ________/RA/______________ ___07/05/2018______

Paulette Torres, Chief Examiner Date

SUMMARY

During the week of June 25, 2018 the NRC administered licensing examinations to three Reactor Operator (RO) applicants. The applicants passed all portions of the examination.

REPORT DETAILS

1. Examiner: Paulette Torres, Chief Examiner, NRC
2. Results:

RO PASS/FAIL SRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAIL Written 3/0 0/0 3/0 Operating Tests 3/0 0/0 3/0 Overall 3/0 0/0 3/0

3. Exit Meeting:

Paulette Torres, Chief Examiner, NRC Robert Hudson, Training Coordinator, MURR Jeremy Custard, Assitant Reactor Manager for Engineering, MURR Sean Schaefer, Assitant Reactor Manager for Operations, MURR Per discussion with the facility, editorial adjustments to the written exam were accepted. The NRC examiner thanked the facility for their support in the administration of the examination.

ENCLOSURE 1

U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY: University Of Missouri

- Columbia REACTOR TYPE: TANK DATE ADMINISTERED: 06/27/2018 CANDIDATE: _______________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:

Answers are to be written on the Answer sheet provided. Attach all Answer sheets to the examination. Point values are indicated in parentheses for each question. A 70% in each category is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.

% OF CATEGORY % OF CANDIDATE'S CATEGORY VALUE TOTAL SCORE VALUE CATEGORY 20.00 33.3 A. REACTOR THEORY, THERMODYNAMICS AND FACILITY OPERATING CHARACTERISTICS 20.00 33.3 B. NORMAL AND EMERGENCY OPERATING PROCEDURES AND RADIOLOGICAL CONTROLS 20.00 33.3 C. FACILITY AND RADIATION MONITORING SYSTEMS 60.00  % TOTALS FINAL GRADE All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Candidate's Signature ENCLOSURE 2

A. Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics ANSWER SHEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

A01 a b c d ___

A02 a b c d ___

A03 a b c d ___

A04 a b c d ___

A05 a b c d ___

A06 a b c d ___

A07 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___

A08 a b c d ___

A09 a b c d ___

A10 a b c d ___

A11 a b c d ___

A12 a b c d ___

A13 a b c d ___

A14 a b c d ___

A15 a b c d ___

A16 a b c d ___

A17 a b c d ___

A18 a b c d ___

ENCLOSURE 3

A19 a b c d ___

A20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF SECTION A *****)

B. Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls ANSWER SHEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

B01 a b c d ___

B02 a b c d ___

B03 a b c d ___

B04 a b c d ___

B05 a b c d ___

B06 a b c d ___

B07 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___

B08 a b c d ___

B09 a b c d ___

B10 a b c d ___

B11 a b c d ___

B12 a b c d ___

B13 a b c d ___

B14 a b c d ___

B15 a b c d ___

B16 a b c d ___

B17 a b c d ___

B18 a b c d ___

B19 a b c d ___

B20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF SECTION B *****)

C. Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems ANSWER SHEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

C01 a b c d ___

C02 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___

C03 a ___ b ___ c ___

C04 a b c d ___

C05 a b c d ___

C06 a b c d ___

C07 a b c d ___

C08 a b c d ___

C09 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___

C10 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___

C11 a b c d ___

C12 a b c d ___

C13 a b c d ___

C14 a b c d ___

C15 a b c d ___

C16 a b c d ___

C17 a b c d ___

C18 a b c d ___

C19 a b c d ___

C20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF SECTION C *****)

(********** END OF EXAMINATION **********)

NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.
2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.
3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave.

You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.

4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.
5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each Answer sheet.
6. Mark your Answers on the Answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.
7. The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.
8. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.
9. When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and Answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.
10. Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your Answer is on your Answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.
11. To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.
12. There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.

EQUATION SHEET

=

Pmax =

( )2 (2 ) eff = 0.1sec 1 t

P = P0 e S S SCR = * =1x104 sec 1 K eff eff + &

SUR = 26 .06

( ) (

CR1 1 K eff1 = CR2 1 K eff 2 ) CR1 ( 1 ) = CR2 ( 2 )

(1 ) M=

1

= 2 CR P = P0 10SUR(t )

P= P0 1 K eff CR1 1 K eff1 1 K eff

1 K eff 2 K eff

  • 0.693 K eff 2 K eff1

+ T1 =

eff + & 2 K eff1 K eff 2 K eff 1

= DR = DR0 e t 2 DR1 d1 = DR2 d 2 2

K eff 6 Ci E (n) ( 2 )2 = (1 )2 DR =

R2 Peak2 Peak1 DR - Rem, Ci - curies, E - Mev, R - feet 1 Curie = 3.7 x 1010 dis/sec 1 kg = 2.21 lbm 1 Horsepower = 2.54 x 103 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41 x 106 BTU/hr 1 BTU = 778 ft-lbf °F = 9/5 °C + 32 1 gal (H2O) 8 lbm °C = 5/9 (°F - 32) cP = 1.0 BTU/hr/lbm/°F cp = 1 cal/sec/gm/°C 1ft = 30.48 cm

UNIVERSITY OF MISSOURI -

COLUMBIA Operator Licensing Examination Week of June 25, 2018 QUESTION A.01 [1.0 point]

Energy Yield (Q) from a nuclear fission reaction is in the range of (or is approximately):

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 2

a. < 1 eV
b. 1.86 keV
c. 200 MeV
d. 1000 MeV QUESTION A.02 [1.0 point]

A reactor is subcritical if:

a. = 1.0
b. Keff < 1.0 or < 0.0
c. K= 1.0, =
d. Keff > 1.0 or > 0.0 QUESTION A.03 [1.0 point]

What is the meaning of any point on a differential rod worth curve? Represents

a. The amount of reactivity that one inch of rod motion would insert at that position in the core.
b. The zero reactivity when the rod is on the bottom and the positive reactivity being added as the rod is withdrawn.
c. The negative reactivity added as the rod is inserted.
d. The cumulative area under the differential curve starting from the bottom of the core.

QUESTION A.04 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following changes does not require a movement of control rods in order to maintain constant reactor power?

a. Pool water temperature decrease

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 3

b. U-235 burnup
c. Xe-135 buildup
d. N-16 formation QUESTION A.05 [1.0 point]

The effective multiplication factor (Keff) can be determined by dividing the number of neutrons produced from fission in the fourth generation by the number of neutrons produced from fission in the _________ generation.

a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fifth QUESTION A.06 [1.0 point]

Because the temperature of the fuel reacts immediately to changes in reactor power, the Fuel Temperature Coefficient is also called the:

a. Prompt Temperature Coefficient
b. Moderator Temperature Coefficient
c. Nuclear Doppler Effect
d. Void Coefficient QUESTION A.07 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the items in Column A with the isotopes in Column B.

The most important fission product poison is 135Xe. The process that show how this isotope is formed and its decay is:

Column A Column B

1. 135 Ba

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 4

2. 135 Cs
3. 135 I
4. 135 Te QUESTION A.08 [1.0 point]

Delayed neutrons contribute more to reactor stability than prompt neutrons because they

________ the average neutron generation time and are born at a __________ kinetic energy.

a. Decrease, lower
b. Increase, lower
c. Decrease, higher
d. Increase, higher QUESTION A.09 [1.0 point]

The neutron interaction in the reactor core that is MOST efficient in thermalizing fast neutrons occurs with the:

a. Hydrogen atoms in the water molecules.
b. Nitrogen-16 from Oxygen.
c. Boron atoms in the control rods.
d. Aluminum atoms in the fuel cladding.

QUESTION A.10 [1.0 point]

Reactivity is defined as the:

a. Fractional change in neutron population per generation.
b. Number of neutrons by which neutron population changes per generation.
c. Rate of change of reactor power in neutron per second.
d. Change in the number of neutrons per second that causes a fission event.

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 5 QUESTION A.11 [1.0 point]

Fuel is being loaded into the core. The operator is using a 1/M plot to monitor core loading. Which ONE of the following conditions would result in a non-conservative prediction of core critical mass, i.e., the reactor would reach criticality prior to the predicted critical mass?

a. The detector is too far away from the source and the fuel.
b. The detector is too close to the source and the fuel.
c. Excessive time is allowed between fuel elements being loaded.
d. A fuel element is placed between the source and the detector.

QUESTION A.12 [1.0 point]

What order process is the radioactive decay differential equation?

a. Zero
b. First
c. Second
d. Third QUESTION A.13 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the major source of heat generation after an operating reactor has been shut down and cooled down for several days?

a. Resonance capture
b. Fission fragment decay
c. Delayed neutron reactions
d. Corrosion product activation

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 6 QUESTION A.14 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the primary mechanism for transferring heat through the cladding of a fuel rod?

a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Mass Transfer QUESTION A.15 [1.0 point]

The reaction 54Xe135 _____ + 55Cs135 is an example of:

a. Alpha Decay
b. Beta Decay
c. Gamma Emission
d. Electron Capture QUESTION A.16 [1.0 point]

What is the effect of delayed neutrons on the neutron flux decay following a scram from full power?

a. Adds negative reactivity creating a greater shutdown margin.
b. Adds positive reactivity due to the fuel temperature decrease following the scram.
c. Limits the final rate at which power decreases to a -80 second period.
d. Decreases the mean neutron lifetime.

QUESTION A.17 [1.0 point]

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 7 Several processes occur that may increase or decrease the available number of neutrons. Select from the following the six-factor formula term that describes an INCREASE in the number of neutrons during the cycle.

a. Thermal utilization factor
b. Resonance escape probability
c. Thermal non-leakage probability
d. Reproduction factor QUESTION A.18 [1.0 point]

A reactor is subcritical with a Keff of 0.925. Which ONE of the following is the MINIMUM reactivity (K/K) that must be added to produce prompt criticality? Given eff=0.007

a. 0.012
b. 0.047
c. 0.054
d. 0.088 QUESTION A.19 [1.0 point]

If Beta for U-235 is 0.0065 and Beta effective is approximately 0.007, how does this difference affect reactor period in the reactor period equation, T=(-p)/p? This difference produces a

_________ for a given addition of reactivity with Beta effective.

a. Longer period
b. Shorter period
c. Stable period
d. Decay constant () increase QUESTION A.20 [1.0 point]

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermohydraulics & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 8 Which ONE of the following describes the term Prompt Drop?

a. A reactor is subcritical at negative 80-second period.
b. A reactor has attained criticality on prompt neutrons alone.
c. The instantaneous change in power level due to inserting a control rod.
d. The instantaneous change in power level due to withdrawing a control rod.
                                  • End of Section A *****************

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 9 QUESTION B.01 [1.0 point]

What is the HALF LIFE of the isotope contained in a sample which produces the following count rates?

Time (Minutes) Counts per Minute (cpm)

Initial count 840 30 740 60 615 90 512 180 270

a. 310 minutes
b. 210 minutes
c. 110 minutes
d. 60 minutes QUESTION B.02 [1.0 point]

In an emergency in order to protect the public health and safety, 10 CFR 50 allows the operator to depart from a license condition or a technical specification. What is the minimum level of authorization needed to deviate from this action?

a. Reactor Director
b. Reactor Supervisor
c. Licensed Reactor Operator
d. Licensed Senior Reactor Operator

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 10 QUESTION B.03 [1.0 point]

The exposure rate for a point source is 100 mR/hr at a distance of 4 m. What is the exposure rate at a distance of 2 m?

a. 200 mR/hr
b. 400 mR/hr
c. 600 mR/hr
d. 800 mR/hr QUESTION B.04 [1.0 point]

Given the following instruments, which ONE is the best to check your hands and clothing for beta-gamma contamination upon leaving a contamination zone?

a. GM Pancake
b. Ionization chamber survey instrument
c. Portable sodium Iodide (NaI) detector
d. Zinc Sulfide (ZnS) detector QUESTION B.05 [1.0 point]

Reactor Operator works in a high radiation area for eight (8) hours a day. The dose rate in the area is 280 mR/hour. Which ONE of the following is the MAXIMUM number of days in which Reactor Operator may perform his duties WITHOUT exceeding 10 CFR 20 limits?

a. 1 days
b. 2 days
c. 3 days
d. 4 days

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 11 QUESTION B.06 [1.0 point]

Per MURR Technical Specifications, the Maximum 125% of full power Reactor Power Level for Mode III Operation is _________.

a. 50 kW
b. 100 kW
c. 5 MW
d. 10 MW QUESTION B.07 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the events listed in Column A with its emergency classification listed in Column B.

Items in Column B can be used once, more than once or not at all.

Column A Column B

a. Bomb threats. 1. Notification of Unusual Events
b. Fire in the reactor room. 2. Alert
c. Loss of physical control of the facility. 3. Site Area Emergency
d. Major damage to fuel has occurred with actual or imminent failure of primary system integrity and containment integrity.

QUESTION B.08 [1.0 point]

During a building evacuation, which ONE of the following buildings is not part of the Emergency Planning Zone (EPZ)?

a. Dalton
b. USDA Lab
c. Greenhouse
d. The International Institute for Nano and Molecular Medicine

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 12 QUESTION B.09 [1.0 point]

You are currently the licensed operator at the control of the reactor. Which ONE of the following violates 10 CFR Part 55.53 Conditions of licenses?

a. Last license medical examination was 26 months ago.
b. Last requalification operating test was 11 months ago.
c. Last quarter you were the licensed operator for 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.
d. Last requalification written examination was 13 months ago.

QUESTION B.10 [1.0 point]

In order to perform the Rod Withdrawal Prohibit Channel Calibration Compliance Check Procedure, the reactor needs to be secured and the core defueled by how many fuel elements?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. None QUESTION B.11 [1.0 point]

Each fueled experiment shall be limited such that the total inventory of iodine-131 through iodine-135 in the experiment is not greater than:

a. 5 millicuries
b. 300 millicuries
c. 1.5 curies
d. 150 curies

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 13 QUESTION B.12 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is not a Probable Cause of Reduction in Power stated in FM-19 Unscheduled Power Reduction Report?

a. Utility Interruption
b. Human Performance
c. Equipment Malfunction
d. Unscheduled Maintenance QUESTION B.13 [1.0 point]

The volume in the flux trap occupied by the removable experiment sample canister is:

a. Control Blade Gaps
b. Z Basket
c. Center Test Hole
d. Reflector Region QUESTION B.14 [1.0 point]

Radiation monitoring instrumentation required by Technical Specifications shall be channel _________ on a semiannual basis.

a. Calibrated
b. Cleansed
c. Checked
d. Tested

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 14 QUESTION B.15 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the Trip Set Point for the Primary Coolant Flow?

a. 3200 gpm
b. 1650 gpm
c. 1600 gpm
d. 850 gpm QUESTION B.16 [1.0 point]

The OPERATIONS BOUNDARY is the area where the _________ has authority over all activities.

a. MURR Director
b. Reactor Manager
c. Health Physics Manager
d. Lead Senior Reactor Operator QUESTION B.17 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the next four correct sequence of immediate actions, following a reactor isolation event?

a. Inform facility of reactor isolation, verify reactor scrammed, activate facility emergency organization, verify containment sealed.
b. Verify containment sealed, verify reactor scrammed, activate facility emergency organization, and inform facility of reactor isolation.
c. Verify reactor scrammed, verify containment sealed, inform facility of reactor isolation, activate facility emergency organization.
d. Activate facility emergency organization, verify containment sealed, inform facility of reactor isolation, verify reactor scrammed.

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures and Radiological Controls Page 15 QUESTION B.18 [1.0 point]

The radius of MURR's EPZ is the area bounded by a __________radius from the MURR exhaust stack which lies completely within the site boundary.

a. 60 meter
b. 150 meter
c. 400 meter
d. 760 meter QUESTION B.19 [1.0 point]

All of the following procedures have the statement Gang Control Rod withdrawal is only permitted to 2.0 inches below the Estimated Critical Position (ECP) as a Precaution and Limitation EXCEPT:

a. Reactor Startup - Normal
b. Reactor Startup - Hot
c. Reactor Startup - Recovery from Temporary Power Reduction
d. Changing Rector Power Level QUESTION B.20 [1.0 point]

The ___________ nuclear instrumentation is used in the automatic reactor control system.

a. Signal Processor #1
b. Signal Processor #2
c. Power Range Monitor Channel 6
d. Wide Range Monitor
                                                            • End of Section B ********************************

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 16 QUESTION C.01 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the voltage produced by the Emergency Diesel Generator?

a. 161 volts
b. 22 volts
c. 4000 volts
d. 480 volts QUESTION C.02 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the detector location in Column A with the corresponding detector in Column B.

Column A Column B

1. Fission Chamber #1
2. Fission Chamber #2
3. Compensated Ion Chamber
4. Uncompensated Ion Chamber

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 17 QUESTION C.03 [1.0 point, 0.33 each]

Fill out the blanks. Answers may be used once, more than once or not at all.

The graphite reflector consists of (a) _____ individual graphite elements (wedges); each occupying a (b)_____° arc around the reactor core. The height of the graphite reflector region is (c) ____ inches; centered vertically with respect to the fuel region.

a. ______ 1. 8
b. ______ 2. 12
c. ______ 3. 30
4. 36
5. 45
6. 60 QUESTION C.04 [1.0 point]

What is the Total Rod Worth (Clean Core)?

a. 0.1655 K/K
b. 0.0736 K/K
c. 0.00233 K/K
d. 0.0980 K/K QUESTION C.05 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following MURR isotopes of interest is categorized as an Internal Radiation Hazard?

a. Hydrogen-3
b. Sodium-24
c. Aluminum-28
d. Cobalt-60

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 18 QUESTION C.06 [1.0 point]

The reflector plenum natural convection valve is designated as _________.

a. V509
b. V519A
c. V547
d. V596 QUESTION C.07 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following Area Radiation Monitor Systems (ARMS) have a maximum setpoint basis of 1.5 X normal operating background?

a. Reactor Pool Upper Bridge (north side)
b. Fuel Storage Vault
c. Mechanical Equipment Room (Room 114)
d. Containment Building Exhaust Plenum - No. 2 QUESTION C.08 [1.0 point]

With respect to the Liquid Waste Retention System, the filter housing that uses a 25 micron bag type filter is located just north of Waste Tank (WT):

a. WT1
b. WT2
c. WT3
d. WT4

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 19 QUESTION C.09 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

With respect to the Normal Electrical Distribution, match the corresponding Motor Control Center (MCC) in Colum A with its intended function in Column B. MCC-X contains individual breakers for supplying 480V power to:

Column A Column B

a. MCC-1 1. Secondary coolant system pumps; cooling tower fans and condensate return system pumps.
b. MCC-3 2. A variety of equipment with direct impact on reactor operations.
c. MCC-4 3. A variety of equipment with no direct impact on reactor operations.
d. MCC-5 4. Equipment located within the containment building.

QUESTION C.10 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Select (Open/Close) for the valves and (Secure/Run) for the pumps.

A low pressure condition from pressure detector PT 944A or PT944B on the Primary Coolant System will:

a. _________ valves 507A and 507B (Open/Close)
b. _________ valves 543A and 543B (Open/Close)
c. _________ valve 527C (Open/Close)
d. _________ pumps 501A and 501B (Secure/Run)

QUESTION C.11 [1.0 point]

The In-Pool Heat Exchanger (HX505) is located in:

a. Northwest portion of Room 114
b. North end of reactor pool above refuel level
c. West end of pool below refuel level
d. Southwest pool below refuel level

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 20 QUESTION C.12 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following has a Reactor Safety, Technical Specification requirement of 6 inches above valves (max)?

a. Pool Low Level Scram
b. Low Pool Level Rod Run-In
c. "Vent Tank Lo Level Rod Run-In"
d. "Anti-Siphon Line Hi Level Rod Run-In" QUESTION C.13 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following Nitrogen System components corresponds to the Pressure Relief Valve that relieves pressure from the common header to atmosphere at 160 psig located just above the Nitrogen Station?

a. N-11
b. N-19
c. N-22
d. N-25 QUESTION C.14 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the original use of the Neutron Source in the reactor core?

a. Ensure the reactor change from subcritical to critical by using neutron source only.
b. Provide a reference point where all instruments undergo a check before the reactor is brought to a critical position.
c. Provide enough neutron to assure proper nuclear instrumentation response during initial reactor startup.
d. Prevent the reactor changing from a Mode II to a Mode I if a period exceeds 10 seconds.

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 21 QUESTION C.15 [1.0 point]

The fuel element is __________ cladding plate and the control blades is __________ plate.

a. Aluminum / Boral
b. Boron / Erbium
c. Cadmium / Zirconium Hydride
d. Graphite/ UAlx QUESTION C.16 [1.0 point]

The Lab Impex stack monitor is designed to measure the airborne concentrations in the facility exhaust air of all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Iodine
b. Noble Gas
c. N-16 Activity
d. Radioactive Particulate QUESTION C.17 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following Neutron Flux Monitors has an Auto Control Interlock that prevents reactor auto control from being initiated when reactor period is less than 35 seconds?

a. Source Range - Channel 1
b. Intermediate Range - Channels 2 & 3
c. Power Range - Channels 4, 5, & 6
d. Wide Range Monitor

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 22 QUESTION C.18 [1.0 point]

When the Primary Coolant System Conductivity Meter - Demineralizer Outlet reads

< 2 mhos:

a. The resin bed has been depleted and it needs to be changed.
b. The demineralizer is operable and there is no need to change the resin bed.
c. There is indication of corrosion and degradation of aluminum piping and components.
d. The control room receives a Reactor or Pool Loop Hi Conductivity alarm.

QUESTION C.19 [1.0 point]

On a loss of normal electrical power, the emergency electrical power system is not required for:

a. The protection of the integrity of the fuel elements.
b. The reactor instrumentation and control systems.
c. The containment ventilation isolation doors.
d. The facility ventilation exhaust fans.

QUESTION C.20 [1.0 point]

The ___________ provides for the collection and removal of any gases formed within the primary coolant system.

a. Anti-Siphon System
b. Reactor Loop Vent System
c. Pressurizer System
d. Nitrogen System
                                      • End of Section C ****************************
                                      • End of the Exam ***************************

Section A: Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 23 A.01 Answer: c REF: Lamarsh 3rd, Table 3.6, pg. 88 A.02 Answer: b REF: Burns, Table 3.5, pg. 3-22 A.03 Answer: a REF: Burns, Example 7.2 (b), pg. 7-4 A.04 Answer: d REF: Burns, Problem 7.7.4, pg. 7-17 A.05 Answer: c REF: Burns, Section 3.3.1, pg. 3-16 A.06 Answer: a REF: Lamarsh 3rd ed., Section 7.4, pg. 367 A.07 Answer: a, 4 b, 3 c,2 d,1 REF: Lamarsh 3 ed., Section 7.5, pg. 377 rd Burns, F1gure 8.1, pg. 8-6 A.08 Answer: b REF: Burns, Section 3.2.4, pg. 3-12 and Section 3.4.4, pg. 3-33 A.09 Answer: a REF: Burns, Section 6.4.1, pg. 6-5 A.10 Answer: a REF: Burns, Section 1.3.1, pg. 1-5 A.11

Section A: Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 24 Answer: a REF: Burn, Section 5.5, pg. 5-18 A detector that is too far from the source and fuel will underestimate the effects of adding fuel, since the measured counts will not appreciably increase with each fuel element addition.

A.12 Answer: b REF: Burns, 2.4.6, pg. 2-30 Mathematically, radioactive decay can be represented by the first order, linear differential equation dA/dt = -A where A is the number density of radioactive atoms of a substance and is called the decay constant.

A.13 Answer: b REF: DOE Handbook, NP-03, pg. 34 A.14 Answer: a REF: Lamarsh 3rd, Section 8.3, pg. 417 A.15 Answer: b REF: DOE Fundamentals Handbook, NP-01, pg. 24 A.16 Answer: c REF: Burns, Section 4.10.12, pg. 4-32 to 4-33 A.17 Answer: d REF: Burns, Section 3.2, pg. 3-13 to 3-18 A.18 Answer: d REF: From k = 0.925 to criticality (k=1), = (k-1)/k = -0.081 k/k or 0.081 k/k needs to be added to reach criticality. From criticality to JUST prompt, =

eff is required, so minimum reactivity = 0.081+0.007= 0.088.

A.19 Answer: a REF: Burns, Example 3.4.3, pg. 3-32, 3-33 In the reactor period equation, T=(-p)/p, if Beta effective is used instead of Beta for U-235, the term (eff-p) is larger giving a longer period.

A.20 Answer: c

Section A: Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Page 25 REF: Burns, Section 4.7, pg. 4-21

Section B Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Page 26 B.01 Answer: c REF: A = A0e- t 270 = 840e-180, 180 = -ln (0.321), = 0.00631 min-1 t1/2 = 0.693 / , = 0.693 / 0.00631 min-1 = 109.8 minutes B.02 Answer: d REF: 10 CFR 50.54(y)

B.03 Answer: b REF: I2=I1D12/d22 = (100 mR/hr)(4m)2 / (2m)2 = 400 mR/hr B.04 Answer: a REF: Glasstone, Sesonske, Nuclear Reactor Engineering, Section 9.88, pg.

537 B.05 Answer: b REF: 10 CFR 20.1201(a)(1)

[5000 mR x 1 hr x day] = 2.23 days 280 mR

  • 55.53(i) - the licensee shall have a biennial medical examination.
  • 55.53(h), 55.59(c) - annual operating tests
  • 55.53(e) - the licensee shall actively perform the functions of a licensed operator for a minimum of 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> per calendar quarter.
  • 55.53(h), 55.59(c)(1) - The requalification program must be conducted for a continuous period not to exceed 2 years

Section B Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Page 27 B.10 Answer: b REF: CP-46, pg. 1 B.11 Answer: d REF: TS 3.8.f, pg. A-32 B.12 Answer: d REF: FM-19 B.13 Answer: c REF: TS 1.2, pg. A-1 B.14 Answer: a REF: TS 4.7 b., pg. A-50 B.15 Answer: b REF: TS 3.2 g.3, pg. A-14 B.16 Answer: a REF: EP 9.15, pg. 23 B.17 Answer: c REF: FM 117 EP-RO-012, section 2.0, pg. 2 B.18 Answer: b REF: EP Figure 1, pg. 2, EP 3.1, pg. 8, EP 9.8, pg. 22 B.19 Answer: b REF: OP-RO-210, Section 3.4, pg. 3 OP-RO-212, Section 3.7, pg. 3 OP-RO-230, Section 3.5, pg. 3 B.20 Answer: d REF: OP-RO-330, Section 5.0 NOTE, pg. 3

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 28 C.01 Answer: d REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 3-2B C.02 Answer: a,4 b,3 c,1 d,2 REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 2-9A C.03 Answer: a,2 b,3 c,4 REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 4-8A C.04 Answer: a REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 9-8A C.05 Answer: a REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 1-11A C.06 Answer: c REF: TS 3.2.g basis, pg. A-19 SAR 5.3.5, pg. 5-7 MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 2-5A C.07 Answer: c REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 1-9B FM-21 C.08 Answer: d REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 1-1C and 2-1C C.09 Answer: a,1 b,3 c,4 d,2 REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 2-2A and 3-2A C.10 Answer: a,Close b,Open c,Close d,Secure REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 4-4A C.11 Answer: c REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 3-4B C.12

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Page 29 Answer: d REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 3-4C TS 3.2.f.6, pg. A-14 C.13 Answer: b REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 3-4F C.14 Answer: c REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 4-5B C.15 Answer: a REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 2-8C and 1-8D C.16 Answer: c REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 2-9G C.17 Answer: b REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 5-9A SAR 7.4.2.2.c, pg. 7-22 C.18 Answer: b REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 1-4G TS 3.3.g SAR 5.6.6, SAR 5.5.7 C.19 Answer: a REF: TS 3.6 bases, pg. A-28 MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 4-2B C.20 Answer: b REF: MURR Operations Training Manual, pg. 1-4D

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