ML13352A070

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Examination Report 50-188/OL-14-01, Kansas State University
ML13352A070
Person / Time
Site: Kansas State University
Issue date: 12/19/2013
From: Gregory Bowman
Research and Test Reactors Branch B
To: Geuther J
Kansas State University
Young P, 301-415-4094
Shared Package
ML13240A259 List:
References
50-188/OL-14-01
Download: ML13352A070 (30)


Text

December 19, 2013 Dr. Jeffrey Geuther, Director Nuclear Reactor Facility Manager Kansas State University 112 Ward Hall Manhattan, KS 66506-2500

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-188/OL-14-01, KANSAS STATE UNIVERSITY

Dear Dr. Geuther:

During the week of December 2, 2013, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered operator licensing examinations at your Kansas State University reactor. The examination was conducted according to NUREG-1478, Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors, Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed at the conclusion of the examination with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report.

In accordance with Section 2.390 of Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html (the Public Electronic Reading Room). The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. If you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Phillip T. Young at (301) 415-4094 or via electronic mail Phillip.Young@nrc.gov.

Sincerely,

/RA/

Gregory T. Bowman, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Policy and Rulemaking Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No. 50-188

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-188/OL-14-01
2. Written examination cc without enclosures: see next page

December 19, 2013 Dr. Jeffrey Geuther, Director Nuclear Reactor Facility Manager Kansas State University 112 Ward Hall Manhattan, KS 66506-2500

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-188/OL-14-01, KANSAS STATE UNIVERSITY

Dear Dr. Geuther:

During the week of December 2, 2013, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered operator licensing examinations at your Kansas State University reactor. The examination was conducted according to NUREG-1478, Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors, Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed at the conclusion of the examination with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report.

In accordance with Section 2.390 of Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html (the Public Electronic Reading Room). The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. If you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Phillip T. Young at (301) 415-4094 or via electronic mail Phillip.Young@nrc.gov.

Sincerely,

/RA/

Gregory T. Bowman, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Policy and Rulemaking Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No. 50-188

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-188/OL-14-01
2. Facility comments with resolution
3. Written examination with facility comments incorporated cc without enclosures: See next page DISTRIBUTION w/ encls.:

PUBLIC PROB r/f GBowman Facility File CRevelle (O07-F8)

ADAMS ACCESSION #: ML13352A070 NRR-079 OFFICE NRR/DPR/PROB:CE NRR/DPR/PROB:LA NRR/DPR/PROB:BC NAME PYoung CRevelle GBowman DATE 12/18/2014 12/18/2014 12/19/2014 OFFICIAL RECORD COPY

Kansas State University Docket No. 50-188 cc:

Office of the Governor State of Kansas Suite 2415 300 SW 10th Avenue Topeka, KS 66612-1590 Thomas A. Conley, RRPJ, CHP Section Chief Radiation and Asbestos Control KS Dept of Health & Environment 1000 SW Jackson, Suite 330 Topeka, KS 66612-1365 Mayor of Manhattan P.O. Box 748 Manhattan, KS 66502 Test, Research, and Training Reactor Newsletter University of Florida 202 Nuclear Sciences Center Gainesville, FL 32611

U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT REPORT NO.:

50-188/OL-14-01 FACILITY DOCKET NO.:

50-188 FACILITY LICENSE NO.:

R-88 FACILITY:

Kansas State University SUBMITTED BY:

_________/RA/___________________

12/10/2013 Phillip T. Young, Chief Examiner Date

SUMMARY

During the week of December 2, 2013, the NRC administered license examinations to four reactor operator license candidates.

REPORT DETAILS

1.

Examiner:

Phillip T. Young, Chief Examiner

2.

Results:

RO PASS/FAIL SRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAIL Written 3/1 0/0 3/1 Operating Tests 4/0 0/0 4/0 Overall 3/1 0/0 3/1

3.

Exit Meeting: Phillip T. Young, NRC, Chief Examiner Dr. Jeff Geuther, Director The NRC Examiner thanked the facility for their support in the administration of the examinations. Examiner discussed applicant weaknesses in secondary cooling and understand of primary system leaks.

U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER INITIAL REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY:

Kansas State University REACTOR TYPE:

TRIGA DATE ADMINISTERED: 12/2/2013 CANDIDATE:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:

Answers are to be written on the answer sheet provided. Attach the answer sheets to the examination. Points for each question are indicated in brackets for each question. A 70% in each section is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.

% of Category % of Candidates Category Value Total Score Value Category 20.00 33.3 A. Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics and Facility Operating Characteristics 20.00 33.3 B. Normal and Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls 20.00 33.3 C. Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems 60.00 TOTALS FINAL GRADE All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Candidate's Signature ENCLOSURE 2 NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

1.

Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.

2.

After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.

3.

Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.

4.

Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.

5.

Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each answer sheet.

6.

Mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.

7.

The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.

8.

If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.

9.

When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.

10.

Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your answer is on your answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.

11.

To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.

12.

There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.

13.

When you have completed and turned in you examination, leave the examination area. If you are observed in this area while the examination is still in progress, your license may be denied or revoked.

EQUATION SHEETs DR - Rem, Ci - curies, E - Mev, R - feet Peak

)

(

=

Peak

)

(

1 1

2 2

2 2

1 Curie = 3.7 x 1010 dis/sec 1 kg = 2.21 lbm 1 Horsepower = 2.54 x 103 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41 x 106 BTU/hr 1 BTU = 778 ft-lbf EF = 9/5 EC + 32 1 gal (H2O). 8 lbm EC = 5/9 (EF - 32) cP = 1.0 BTU/hr/lbm/EF cp = 1 cal/sec/gm/EC T

UA

=

H m

=

T c

m

=

Q p

K 1

S S

=

SCR eff

)

(-

CR

=

)

(-

CR

)

K (1

CR

=

)

K (1

CR 2

2 1

1 eff 2

eff 1

2 1

seconds 0.1

=

-1 eff

26.06

=

SUR eff K

1 K

1

=

M eff eff 1

0 CR CR

=

K 1

1

=

M 2

1 eff e

P

=

P t

0 P

)

(1

=

P 0

10 P

=

P SUR(t) 0 K

)

K (1

=

SDM eff eff

=

eff

+

=

K 1)

K

(

=

eff eff

K x

k K

K

=

eff eff eff eff 2

1 1

2

0.693

=

T e

DR

=

DR t

0 R

6CiE(n)

=

DR 2

d DR

=

d DR 2

2 2

1 2

1

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.001 (1.00 point)

{1.0}

Which ONE of the following statements correctly describes a characteristic of subcritical multiplication?

a. The number of neutrons gained per generation doubles for each succeeding generation.
b. For equal reactivity additions, it requires less time for the equilibrium neutron population to be reached.
c. When the indicated count rate doubles, the margin to criticality has been reduced by approximately one-half.
d. A constant neutron population is achieved when the total number of neutrons produced in one generation is equal to the number of source neutrons added in the next generation.

Answer:

A.01

c.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Module 4, Subcritical Multiplication, pg 6.

Question A.002 (1.00 point)

{2.0}

Fuel is being loaded into the core. The operator is using a 1/M plot to monitor core loading.

Which ONE of the following conditions would result in a non-conservative prediction of core critical mass (i.e., the reactor would become critical before the predicted number of fuel elements are loaded)?

a. The detector is too far from the source.
b. The detector is too close to the source.
c. Excessive time is allowed between fuel elements being loaded.
d. A fuel element is placed between the source and the detector.

Answer:

A.02

b.

Reference:

R. R. Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, page 5-21.

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.003 (1.00 point)

{3.0}

A reactor fuel consisting of only U-235 and U-238 is 20% enriched. This means that:

a. 20% of the volume of the fuel consists of U-235.
b. 20% of the weight of the fuel consists of U-235.
c. 20% of the total number of atoms in the fuel consists of U-235.
d. the ratio of the number of U-235 atoms to the number of U-238 atoms is 0.20 (20%).

Answer:

A.03

b.

Reference:

R. R. Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, page 2-51.

Question A.004

[1.0 point]

{4.0}

A reactor is operating at a constant power level with equilibrium xenon. Reactor power is then doubled. The equilibrium xenon level at the higher power level will be:

a. higher than its value at the lower power level, but not twice as high.
b. twice as high.
c. more than twice as high.
d. the same as at the lower power level.

Answer:

A.004 a.

Reference:

DOE Reference, Module 3, Xenon, page 37.

Question A.005

[1.0 point]

{5.0}

Youve just increased power at a research reactor. As a result fuel temperature increased from 100°C to 120°C. For this reactor the fuel temperature coefficient (tf) is -0.01% )k/k/°C, and the average rod worth for the regulating rod is 0.05% )k/k/inch. How far and in what direction must you move the regulating rod to compensate? (Assume all other factors which could affect reactivity remain unchanged.)

a. 2 inches inward
b. 2 inches outward
c. 4 inches inward
d. 4 inches outward Answer:

A.05

d.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory

-0.0001)k/k/°C H +20°C = -0.002)k/k. To compensate must add +0.002)k/k.

(0.002)k/k) ) (0.0005%)k/k/inch) = 4 inches in the positive (outward) direction.

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.006

[1.0 point]

{6.0}

Several processes occur that may increase or decrease the available number of neutrons.

SELECT from the following the six-factor formula term that describes an INCREASE in the number of neutrons during the cycle.

a. Thermal utilization factor (f).
b. Resonance escape probability (p).
c. Thermal non-leakage probability (£th).
d. Reproduction factor ().

Answer:

A.06

d.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Question A.007

[1.0 point]

{7.0}

Which of the following atoms will cause a neutron to lose the most energy during an elastic scattering reaction?

a. O16
b. C12
c. U235
d. H1 Answer:

A.07 d

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Question A.08 (1.00 point)

{8.0}

The effective neutron multiplication factor, Keff, is defined as:

a. absorption/(production + leakage)
b. (production + leakage)/absorption
c. (absorption + leakage)/production
d. production/(absorption + leakage)

Answer:

A.08

d.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Module 3, page 8.

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.009 (1.00 point)

{9.0}

Which ONE of the following describes the term prompt jump?

a. The instantaneous change in power level due to withdrawing a control rod.
b. A reactor which has attained criticality on prompt neutrons alone.
c. A reactor which is critical using both prompt and delayed neutrons.
d. A negative reactivity insertion which is less than eff.

Answer:

A.09

a.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Module 4, page 14.

Question A.010 (1.00 point)

{10.0}

A reactor is operating at criticality. Instantaneously, all of the delayed neutrons are suddenly removed from the reactor. The Keff of the reactor in this state would be approximately:

a. 1.007
b. 1.000
c. 0.993
d. 0.000 Answer:

A.10

c.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Module 2, page 30.

Question A.011

[1.00 point]

{11.0}

During the neutron cycle from one generation to the next, several processes occur that may increase or decrease the available number of neutrons. Which ONE of the following factors describes an INCREASE in the number of neutrons during the cycle?

a.

Thermal utilization factor.

b.

Resonance escape probability.

c.

Thermal non-leakage probability.

d.

Fast fission factor.

Answer:

A.11

d.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Module 3, page 10.

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.012

[1.00 point]

{12.0}

An Integral Rod Worth (IRW) curve is ___________, while a Differential Rod Worth (DRW) curve is __________.

a. the total reactivity worth added by the rod at any point of withdrawal; the reactivity change per unit movement of the rod at the point of withdrawal.
b. at its maximum value when the rod is approximately half-way out of the core; at its maximum value when the rod is fully withdrawn from the core.
c. the slope of the DRW curve at any point of withdrawal; the area under the IRW curve at any point of withdrawal.
d. the reactivity change per unit movement of the rod at any point of withdrawal; the total reactivity worth of the rod at any point of withdrawal.

Answer:

A.12

a.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Module 3, Control Rods, Question A.013

[1.00 point]

{13.0}

A reactor is critical at 50% of rated power, with reactivity = zero. A control rod is withdrawn and the power increases to a higher steady-state value. The reactivity of the reactor at the higher power level is zero because:

a. the positive reactivity due to the fuel temperature decrease balances the negative reactivity due to the control rod withdrawal.
b. the negative reactivity due to the fuel temperature decrease equals the positive reactivity due to the control rod withdrawal.
c. the positive reactivity due to the fuel temperature increase balances the negative reactivity due to the control rod withdrawal.
d. the negative reactivity due to the fuel temperature increase equals the positive reactivity due to the control rod withdrawal.

Answer:

A.13

d.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Module 4, page 28.

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.014 [1.0 point, 0.20 each]

{14.0}

Given a mother isotope of (35Br87)*, identify each of the daughter isotopes as a result of, +, -,

, or n, decay.

a.

33As83

b.

34Se87

c.

35Br86

d.

35Br87

e.

36Kr87 Answer:

A.14

a. = ;
b. = +;
c. = n;
d. = ;
e. = -

Reference:

STD NRC question.

Question A.015

[1.0 point]

{15.0}

Which ONE of the following does NOT affect the Effective Multiplication Factor Keff?

a. The moderator-to-fuel ratio.
b. The moderator temperature.
c. The physical dimensions of the core.
d. The strength of an installed neutron source.

Answer:

A.15

d.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Module 3, pages 2-9.

Question A.016

[1.0 point]

{16.0}

A reactor is subcritical with a Keff of 0.955. Which ONE of the following is the MINIMUM reactivity ()K/K) that must be added to produce prompt criticality? Given eff=0.007

a. 0.007
b. 0.047
c. 0.054
d. 0.064 Answer:

A.16

c.

Reference:

from k=0.995 to criticality (k=1), D = (k-1)/k = -0.047 )k/k or 0.047 )k/k needs to be added to reach criticality. From criticality to JUST prompt, D = eff is required, so minimum reactivity = 0.047+0.007= 0.054

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.017

[1.0 point]

{17.0}

The number of neutrons passing through a one square centimeter of target material per second is the definition of which one of the following?

a.

Neutron Population (np)

b.

Neutron Impact Potential (nip)

c.

Neutron Flux (nv)

d.

Neutron Density (nd)

Answer:

A.17

c.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory, Question:

A.018

[1.0 point]

{18.0}

A reactor contains three safety rods and a control rod. Which one of the following would result in a determination of the excess reactivity of this reactor?

a. The reactor is critical at a low power level, with all safety rods full out and the control rod at some position. The reactivity remaining in the control rod (i.e. its rod worth from its present position to full out) is the excess reactivity.
b. The reactor is shutdown. Two safety rods are withdrawn until the reactor becomes critical. The total rod worth withdrawn is the excess reactivity.
c. The reactor is at full power. The total worth of all rods withdrawn is the excess reactivity.
d. The reactor is at full power. The total worth remaining in all the safety rods and the control rod (i.e. their worth from their present positions to full out) is the excess reactivity.

Answer:

A.18

a.

Reference:

T.S. Definition 1.8,

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.019

[1.0 point]

{19.0}

You are assigned to check the operation of a new nuclear instrumentation channel. You know that the reactor will stabilize with a - 80 second period shortly after shutdown. To check the channel you measure the time for power to decrease by a factor of 10. This time should be approximately

a. 45 seconds (3/4 minute)
b. 90 seconds (1-1/2 minutes)
c. 135 seconds (2-1/4 minutes)
d. 180 seconds (3 minutes)

Answer:

A.19

d.

Reference:

P/P0 = e-T/ ln(0.1) = - T(time)/(-80sec)

Time = ln (0.1) x -80 sec = 184 seconds 3 minutes Question A.020

[1.0 points. 1/4 each]

{20.0}

Match each term in column A with the correct definition in column B.

Column A Column B

a.

Prompt Neutron

1. A neutron in equilibrium with its surroundings.
b.

Fast Neutron

2. A neutron born directly from fission.
c.

Thermal Neutron

3. A neutron born due to decay of a fission product.
d.

Delayed Neutron

4. A neutron at an energy level greater than its surroundings.

Answer:

A.20

a. = 2;
b. = 4;
c. = 1;
d. = 3

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, 8 1988, 3.2.2, p. 3 7

Section B-Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Question B.001

[1.0 point, 0.25 each]

{1.0}

Identify the PRIMARY source (irradiation of Air, irradiation of Water, or Fission product) of EACH of the radioisotopes listed.

a.

1H3

b.

18Ar41

c.

7N16

d.

54Xe135 Answer:

B.01

a. = Water;
b. = Air;
c. = Water;
d. = Fission

Reference:

Standard NRC question.

Question B.002

[1.0 point]

{2.0}

The CURIE content of a radioactive source is a measure of

a. the number of radioactive atoms in the source.
b. the amount of energy emitted per unit time by the source
c. the amount of damage to soft body tissue per unit time.
d. the number of nuclear disintegrations per unit time.

Answer:

B.02

d.

Reference:

Standard Health Physics Definition.

Question B.003

[1.0 point]

{3.0}

Which ONE of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the Safety Limit (SL) and the Limiting Safety System Setting (LSSS)?

a. The SL is a maximum operationally limiting value that prevents exceeding the LSSS during normal operations.
b. The SL is a parameter that assures the integrity of the fuel cladding. The LSSS initiates protective actions to preclude reaching the SL.
c. The SL is a maximum setpoint for instrumentation response. The LSSS is the minimum number of channels required to be operable.
d. The LSSS is a parameter that assures the integrity of the fuel cladding. The SL initiates protective action to preclude reaching the LSSS.

Answer:

B.03

b.

Reference:

Standard NRC question on Safety Limits

Section B-Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Question B.004

[1.00 point]

{4.0}

If an evacuation is required, it must be verified complete within:

a. 3 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 30 minutes Answer:

B.04

d.

Reference:

KSU Exam Bank Question B.005

[1.00 point]

{5.0}

The "evacuation alarm" sounds when radiation levels [A] exceed [B].

a. [A] control room

[B] 1 R/h

b. [A] 12-foot level

[B] 10 mR/h

c. [A] 0-foot level

[B] 1,000 mR/h

d. [A] 22-foot level

[B] 5 R/h Answer:

B.05

d.

Reference:

KSU Exam Bank Question B.006

[1.00 point]

{6.0}

Select the MINIMUM radiation level that will actuate the evacuation alarm.

a. 1.7 R/hr
b. 5.8 R/hr
c. 8.2 R/hr
d. 12.1 R/hr Answer:

B.06

b.

Reference:

KSU Exam Bank

Section B-Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Question B.007

[1.0 point]

{7.0}

10CFR50.54(x) states: A licensee may take reasonable action that departs from a license condition or a technical specification (contained in a license issued under this part) in an emergency when this action is immediately needed to protect the public health and safety and no action consistent with license conditions and technical specifications that can provide adequate or equivalent protection is immediately apparent. 10CFR50.54(y) states that the minimum level of management which may authorize this action is

a. any Reactor Operator licensed at facility
b. any Senior Reactor Operator licensed at facility
c. Facility Manager (or equivalent at facility).
d. NRC Project Manager Answer:

B.07

b.

Reference:

10CFR50.54(y)

Question B.008

[1.0 point]

{8.0}

You initially remove a sample from the pool reading 1 R/hr at 30 cm from the source. You then replace the sample in the pool. An hour later you remove the sample and the reading is now 390 mR/hr at 30 cm. You again replace the sample back in the pool. How much longer should you wait to be able to bring out the sample without generating a high radiation area?

a. 1/2 hour
b. 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />
c. 11/2 hours
d. 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br /> Answer:

B.08

c.

Reference:

It = I0 e-t 390 mR/hr ÷ 1000 mR/hr = e-1hr ln(0.39) = -

  • 1 hr.

= 0.9416 hour-1 SOLVING for additional time:

If = It e-t 100mR/hr = 390 mR/hr e-0.9416 (time) ln (0.25) = -0.9163

  • time time = 1.4454 hours0.0516 days <br />1.237 hours <br />0.00736 weeks <br />0.00169 months <br />

Section B-Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Question B.009

[1.0 point]

{9.0}

The Total Effective Dose Equivalent (TEDE) is defined as the sum of the deep-dose equivalent and the committed effective dose equivalent. The deep-dose equivalent is related to:

a. the dose to organs or tissues.
b. the external exposure to the skin or an extremity.
c. the external exposure to the lens of the eye.
d. the external whole-body exposure.

Answer:

B.09

d.

Reference:

Training Manual, Part B1, Definitions.

Question B.010

[1.0 point]

{10.0}

Which ONE of the following is expressly forbidden by the Operations Manual?

a. Acetone in the reactor.
b. Gasoline in the reactor bay.
c. Carbon tetrachloride in the reactor bay.
d. Mercury-glass thermometer in the reactor pool.

Answer:

B.10

d.

Reference:

Operations manual Question B.011

[1.0 point]

{11.0}

The dose rate 10 feet from a point gamma source is 25 mR/hr. A person working for 1.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> at 3 feet from the source will receive a dose of:

a. 83 mR.
b. 125 mR.
c. 278 mR.
d. 417 mR.

Answer B.11

d.

Reference:

Standard NRC Question 1st solve for dose rate at 3 feet:

(DR10 feet)/102 = (DR3 feet)/32 DR3 feet = 25 mR/hr (100/9) = 277.778.

In 1.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> the worker will get 277.778 H 1.5 = 416.667

Section B-Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Question B.012

[1.0 point]

{12.0}

The Continuous Air Monitor (CAM) is set to alarm at the Maximum allowed Effluent Concentration of:

a. Te131
b. I131
c. Xe131
d. Cs131 Answer:

B.12

b.

Reference:

Rewrite of facility supplied question.

Question B.013

[1.0 point]

{13.0}

Which ONE of the following statements is FALSE? The Reactor Manager may authorize temporary changes to a procedure provided that

a. the Reactor Safeguards Committee approves the changes.
b. the changes do not alter the original intent of the procedure.
c. all licensed individuals are informed of the changes.
d. the changes are noted in the operations logbook.

Answer:

B.13

a.

Reference:

Administrative Plan, section 5.0.

Question B.014

[1 point]

{14.0}

According to the Emergency Plan, the Emergency Planning Zone (EPZ) is

a. Room 110 (Reactor Bay).
b. Room 109 (Control Room) and Room 110 (Reactor Bay).
c. Ward Hall.
d. Ward Hall and the adjacent Fenced Area.

Answer:

B.14

b.

Reference:

Emergency Plan § 1.5.2

Section B-Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Question B.015

[1 point, 0.25 each]

{15.0}

Identify each of the four surveillances listed as a channel CHeck, a channel TEST, or a channel CALibration.

a. During performance of the Daily Checkout you verify the Bay differential pressure is negative.
b. Following maintenance on Nuclear Instrument channel 1 you compare its readings to Nuclear Instrument channel 2 readings.
c. You verify a temperature channel's operation by replacing the RTD with a precision variable resistance and checking proper output.
d. You perform a heat balance (calorimetric) on the primary system and based on Nuclear Instrumentation readings you make adjustments.

Answer:

B.15

a. = CH;
b. = CH;
c. = TEST;
d. = CAL Reference :

KSU Technical specification § 1, Definitions Question B.016

[1.0 point, 1/4 each]

{16.0}

Match the 10 CFR Part 55 requirements listed in Column A for an actively licensed operator with the correct time period from Column B. Column B answers may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Column A Column B

a. License Expiration 1 year
b. Medical Examination 2 years
c. Requalification Written Examination 3 years
d. Requalification Operating Test 6 years Answer:

B.16

a. = 6;
b. = 2;
c. = 2;
d. = 1

Reference:

10 CFR 55.

Section B-Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Question B.017

[1.0 point]

{17.0}

Two point sources have the same curie strength. Source As gammas have an energy of 1 Mev, whereas Source Bs gammas have an energy of 2 Mev. You obtain readings from the same GM tube and Ion Chamber at 10 feet from each source. Concerning the four readings, which ONE of the following statements is correct?

a. The reading from Source B is twice that of Source A for both meters.
b. The reading from Source B is twice that of Source A for the Ion chamber but the same for the GM tube.
c. The reading from Source B is half that of Source A for the GM tube, but the same for the Ion Chamber.
d. The reading from both sources is the same for both meters.

Answer:

B.17

b.

Reference:

GM tube cannot distinguish between energies, but an ion chamber can.

Question B.018

[1.0 point]

{18.0}

The OPERATIONS BOUNDARY is defined as:

a. Room 110 of Ward Hall.
b. Ward Hall and adjacent fenced areas.
c. Facility Control Center.
d. Nuclear Engineering Departmental Office.

Answer:

B.18

a.

Reference:

Emergency Plan, section 1.1.

Section B-Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Question B.019

[1.0 point]

{19.0}

Which ONE of the following statements describes a reactivity limitation imposed on experiments?

a. The absolute reactivity worth of all experiments in the reactor shall not exceed $2.00.
b. An experiment which will not cause a 20-second period can be inserted in the core when the reactor is at power.
c. When determining the absolute reactivity worth of an experiment, the reactivity effects associated with the moderator temperature is to be considered.
d. No experiment shall be inserted or removed unless all control blades are fully inserted.

Answer:

B.19

a.

Reference:

Technical Specifications, I.3(a).

Question B.020

[1.0 point]

{20.0}

In accordance with Experiment No. 1, "Isotope Production," removal of any material from a region of significant neutron flux must be done in the presence of:

a. the Reactor Supervisor.
b. a Senior Reactor Operator.
c. a representative of the University Radiation Safety Office.
d. a person approved by the Reactor Supervisor who is trained in the safe handling of radioactive materials.

Answer:

B.20

d.

Reference:

Experiment No. 1, page 4.

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.001

[1.0 point]

{1.0}

Water returning to the pool from the primary system is ejected through an angled nozzle, which causes a swirling motion in the pool. Which ONE of the following is the PRIMARY purpose for this design?

a. To increase the heat transfer rate due to increased convective flow.
b. To break up O16 bubbles in the pool thereby decreasing the production of N16.
c. To increase the transport time for N16 to reach the surface of the pool.
d. To decrease the activation rate of O16 to N16 due to a decrease in time within the core.

Answer:

C.01

c.

Reference:

SAR § 5.6 Nitrogen 16 Control System Question C.002

[1.0 points, 1/4 each]

{2.0}

Identify the heat transfer mechanism (Radiation, Forced Convection, Natural Convection or Conduction) for each of the following:

a. Cooling the Core
b. Cooling the Pool
c. Transfer of heat across the tubes of the heat exchanger.
d. Transfer of heat to from cooling tower to air (assume a very cold winter day with reactor operating just after start-up)

Answer:

C.02

a. = NC;
b. = FC;
c. = Con; d. = NC

Reference:

Standard NRC question

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.003

[1.0 point]

{3.0}

Which ONE of the following is the actual method used to generate the rod position indication, for the standard control rods on the control panel?

a. Voltage changes generated by the movement of a lead screw between two coils of a transformer.
b. A ten-turn potentiometer linked to the rod drive motor
c. A series of several reed switches which as the rod moves up close to generate a current proportional to rod position.
d. A servo motor connected to the UP and DN buttons which when either button is depressed generates a signal proportional to rod speed.

Answer:

C.03

b.

Reference:

SAR § 7.3.4(a) Standard Control Rod Drives.

Question C.004 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the neutron source utilized in the reactor?

a.

241Am 9Be

b.

239Pu 9Be

c.

210Po 9Be

d.

124Sb 9Be Answer:

C.04

a.

Reference:

SAR § 4.2.4 Neutron Startup Source Question C.005

[1.0 point]

{5.0}

An approved alternative to discharging water from the reactor bay sump to sewerage is to instead pump it to

a. the primary purification system upstream of the filters.
b. the bulk water tank
c. the primary makeup storage tank
d. the secondary surge tank.

Answer:

C.05

d.

Reference:

Procedure No. 24 Sump Water Discharge System

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.006

[1.0 point]

{6.0}

During a survey of the demineralizer 1/2 hour after shutdown, you note that the dose rate has increased by a factor of 10 over the previous day's reading. Is this normal or abnormal, and why?

a. Normal, due to N16 in the coolant.
b. Abnormal, due to the concentration of H3 in the demineralizer.
c. Abnormal, due to fission products in the demineralizer.
d. Normal, due to Ar41 entrained in the coolant system.

Answer:

C.06

c.

Reference:

The demineralizer removes ionic impurities. N16, has much too short a half-life, H3 emits much too weak a beta to be detected, and Ar41 is a noble gas, it will NOT concentrate in the demineralizer.

Question C.007

[1.0 point]

{7.0}

The North-East Beam Port core-end terminates at:

a. The outer surface of the reflector container
b. The inner surface of the reflector container
c. The center of the core
d. The top of the Lazy Susan Answer:

C.07

b.

Reference:

Facility Supplied Question modified to meet NRC requirements.

Also SAR 4.2.3 Neutron Moderator and Reflector Question C.008

[1.0 point]

{8.0}

The purpose of the graphite slugs located at the top and bottom of each fuel rod is to

a. absorb neutrons, thereby reducing neutron embrittlement of the upper and lower guide plates.
b. absorb neutrons, thereby reducing neutron leakage from the core.
c. reflect neutrons, thereby reducing neutron leakage from the core.
d. couple neutrons from the core to the nuclear instrumentation, decreasing shadowing effects.

Answer:

C.08

c.

Reference:

SAR.

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.009

[1.0 point]

{9.0}

Which ONE of the following parameters is NOT measured in the Primary Cooling/Purification System Loops?

a. Temperature
b. Flow Rate
c. Conductivity
d. pH Answer:

C.09

d.

Reference:

SAR § 5.1 Summary Description, Figure 5.1 Question C.010

[1.0 point]

[10.0}

The flow rate in the primary loop is maintained by which ONE of the following methods?

a. A flow orifice in the primary piping.
b. Adjustment of the filter pressure drop.
c. Adjustment of primary pump speed.
d. Throttling the discharge valve of the primary pump.

Answer:

C.10

a.

Reference:

Training Manual, page A1-10.

Question C.011

[1.0 points, 1/4 each]

{11.0}

Match the control rod drive mechanism part from column "A" with the correct function in column "B".

COLUMN A COLUMN B

a. Piston
1. Provide rod bottom indication.
b. Potentiometer
2. Provide rod full withdrawn indication.
c. Spring-loaded Pull Rod armature
3. Provide rod position indication when the electromagnet engages the armature.
d. Push Rod
4. Works with dash pot to slow rod near bottom of its travel Answer:

C.11 a = 4; b = 3; c = 1; d = 2.

Reference:

Standard TRIGA Mk II question

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.012

[1.0 point]

{12.0}

Per technical specifications which ONE of the following safety system functions must be operable for both steady-state and pulsing operations?

a. Reactor Power Level Scram
b. Pulse Rod Interlock
c. Manual Scram Bar
d. Control Rod (standard) Position Interlock Answer:

C.12

c.

Reference:

Technical Specification 3.4 Safety and Control Rod Operability, Question C.013

[1.0 point]

{13.0}

The water monitor vessel contains:

a. a temperature probe, a pressure probe, and a GM tube.
b. a temperature probe, a conductivity probe, and a pressure probe.
c. a conductivity probe, a pressure probe, and a GM tube.
d. a conductivity probe, a temperature probe, and a GM tube.

Answer:

C.13

d.

Reference:

Training Manual, page A1-10 Question C.14

[1.0 point]

{14.0}

In the control rod drive system, the contact light will be extinguished if the MAGNET DOWN microswitch is

a. actuated AND the ROD DOWN microswitch is actuated.
b. NOT actuated AND the ROD DOWN microswitch is actuated.
c. actuated OR the ROD DOWN microswitch is NOT actuated.
d. NOT actuated OR the ROD DOWN microswitch is actuated.

Answer:

C.14

b.

Reference:

Training Manual, page A1-17

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.015

[1.0 point]

{15.0}

When the mode switch is placed in the AUTO position the

a. period scram is bypassed.
b. regulating rod will not fall into the core following a scram.
c. regulating rod moves in response to the linear channel signal.
d. regulating rod movement will not be affected by changes in reactor period.

Answer:

C.15

c.

Reference:

KSU Procedure 23 - Automatic Flux Control System Question C.016

[1.0 point]

{16.0}

During a loss of building electrical power:

a. power to reactor instrumentation will not be lost due to a fast transfer (less than 50 msec) to the reserve supply.
b. power to reactor instrumentation will be restored following a 5 second time delay as transfer to the reserve supply occurs.
c. power will be lost to reactor instrumentation but will be automatically restored when building power returns.
d. power will be lost to reactor instrumentation and will not return until building power returns and the line conditioner is manually reset.

Answer:

C.16

d.

Reference:

KSU Training Manual, General Characteristics, § 7, Reactor Instrumentation.

Question C.017

[1.0 point]

{17.0}

The reactor is in the steady state mode with the transient rod shock absorber fully inserted (full down) and no air applied. The shock absorber is moved upward, and the operator then attempts to apply air to the transient rod. Which ONE of the following results?

a. The air solenoid blocks air to the transient rod.
b. The transient rod moves up until it reaches the shock absorber.
c. The shock absorber returns to its full down position.
d. The shim rod moves into the core.

Answer:

C.17

a.

Reference:

KSU Procedures 5, Part 1.

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.018

[1.0 point]

{18.0}

Coolant flow in the demineralizer loop of the reactor coolant system is measured by:

a. differential pressure across the filter.
b. a flow meter at the outlet of the demineralizer.
c. an orifice at the inlet to the heat exchanger.
d. a flow meter at the inlet of the primary pump.

Answer:

C.18

b.

Reference:

KSU Training Manual, General Characteristics, Section 6, Coolant System, Fig. 5.

Question C.019

[1.0 point]

{19.0}

Thermocouples in an instrumented TRIGA fuel element measure temperature at the:

a. interior surface of the cladding.
b. interior of the fuel.
c. outer surface of the fuel.
d. center of the zirconium rod.

Answer:

C.19

b.

Reference:

KSU Training Manual, General Characteristics, Section 7.1, Measurement.

Question C.020

[1.0 point]

{20.0}

Which ONE of the following is the purpose of the mechanical filter installed in the cleanup loop?

a. Maintain low electrical conductivity of the water and a neutral pH.
b. Maintain optical transparency and minimal radioactivity of the water.
c. Maintain a neutral pH and optical transparency of the water.
d. Maintain minimal radioactivity and low electrical conductivity of the water.

Answer:

C.20

b.

Reference:

KSU Training Manual, General Characteristics, Section 6