ML12353A329

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2012-10 Final Written Exam
ML12353A329
Person / Time
Site: Cooper Entergy icon.png
Issue date: 10/30/2012
From: Vincent Gaddy
Operations Branch IV
To:
laura hurley
References
Download: ML12353A329 (218)


Text

ES-401 Site-Specific RO Written Examination Form ES-401-7 Cover Sheet U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Site-Specific RO Written Examination Applicant Information Name:

Date: 11-05-2012 Facility/Unit: Cooper Nuclear Station Region: I II III IV Reactor Type: W CE BW GE Start Time: Finish Time:

Instructions Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top of the answer sheets. To pass the examination, you must achieve a final grade of at least 80.00 percent. Examination papers will be collected 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> after the examination begins.

Applicant Certification All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Applicants Signature Results Examination Value ____75____ Points Applicants Score __________ Points Applicants Grade __________ Percent

QUESTION: 1 A LOCA is in progress with RHR Pump B as the only source injecting into the RPV. The following conditions exist:

  • RPV level is -130 inches on the fuel zone instruments and rising at 5 inches/minute.
  • RHR Loop B injection is 3000 gpm.
  • RPV pressure is 80 psig and steady.

One minute later RHR-MO-13B, PUMP B TORUS SUCTION closes for unknown reasons.

Assuming all systems operate as designed and no operator actions are taken after RHR-MO-13B closes, what is the plant response?

a. RHR Pump B continues to run.

RPV level begins lowering due to no injection.

b. RHR Pump B trips due to valve closure.

RPV level continues rising at a slower rate due to pressure maintenance injection.

c. RHR Pump B continues to run.

RPV level continues rising at a slower rate due to pressure maintenance injection.

d. RHR Pump B trips due to valve closure.

RPV level begins lowering due to no injection.

QUESTION: 2 24818 RHR Loop B is operating in the Shutdown Cooling (SDC) Mode, when RPV pressure rises to 85 psig.

Which one of the following describes the expected system response?

(Assume all systems being operated from the control room.)

RHR Pump B trips and

a. RHR pump suction valve RHR-MO-15B auto closes, and Inboard Injection valve RHR-MO-25B auto closes.
b. Shutdown Cooling suction valves RHR-MO-17 and RHR-MO-18 auto close, and Inboard Injection valve RHR-MO-25B auto closes.
c. Shutdown Cooling suction valves RHR-MO-17 and RHR-MO-18 auto close, RHR pump suction valve RHR-MO-15B auto closes.
d. Min flow control valve RHR-MO-16B auto opens, and Inboard Injection valve RHR-MO-25B auto closes.

QUESTION: 3 The following conditions exist:

  • The plant is in MODE 5.
  • RHRSW Booster Pump A is operating in support of RHR SDC mode.
  • RPV coolant temperature is 140°F and rising 1°F every 15 minutes.
  • RHRSW Loop A flow on SW-FI-132A, SW FLOW, is indicating 2500 gpm.

The CRS directs the BOP operator to lower the RPV coolant temperature to 110°F.

  • The BOP operator places control switch HX-A SW DISCH VLV 89A to the OPEN position.
  • Simultaneously MCC-K de-energizes.

What is required to lower the RPV coolant temperature to 110°F?

a. Start RHRSW Booster Pump B.
b. Start RHRSW Booster Pump C.
c. Coordinate with an NLO to manually open SW-MO-89A locally.
d. Continue holding the control switch for HX-A SW DISCH VLV 89A until SW-FI-132A is indicating the desired flow.

QUESTION 4 The plant is operating at power and Barton Narrow Range instrument NBI-LIS-101B fails downscale. Subsequently a reactor scram occurs due to a PCIS Group 1 and HPCI starts and initiates in response to RPV level lowering. No operator actions are taken with the HPCI controls.

How does HPCI respond to these conditions?

a. HPCI continues to inject as RPV level goes above 59 inches.
b. HPCI speed lowers to minimum regardless of RPV level.
c. HPCI turbine trips and HPCI-MO-14, STM TO TURB VLV closes.
d. HPCI-MO-16, STM SUPP OUTBD ISOL VLV closes and HPCI speed ramps down to zero.

QUESTION: 5 5630 Core Spray pump A is delivering 2400 gpm as indicated on CS-FI-50A, PUMP FLOW, while operating in the test lineup for surveillance testing. The control room operator raises system flow to 4000 gpm.

How does Core Spray pump operation affect Wide Range Torus level indication (PC-LRPR-1A),

CNTMNT/TORUS PRESS & LVL RCDR, and why?

Wide Range Torus water level indicates . . .

a. higher than actual water level due to higher pressure in the discharge piping of the operating pump.
b. higher than actual water level due to reduced pressure in the suction piping of the operating pump.
c. lower than actual water level due to higher pressure in the discharge piping of the operating pump.
d. lower than actual water level due to reduced pressure in the suction piping of the operating pump.

QUESTION: 6 The plant is operating at rated conditions and the Standby Liquid Control above core plate inner pipe has separated from the bottom core plate. The pipe is now measuring below core plate pressure.

What effect does this condition have on Core Spray line break detection system?

a. CS-DPIS-43A & B indicate approximately -10 psid for BOTH systems.
b. CS-DPIS-43A & B indicate approximately zero for BOTH systems.
c. Core Spray break detection alarms annunciate for BOTH systems.
d. Core Spray break detection alarm annunciates in ONLY ONE Core Spray system.

QUESTION: 7 2194 During a failure to scram condition, the CRS orders both SLC Pumps started. Both SLC Pump control switches are taken to START and the following conditions result:

  • SLC Pump A trips after running 10 seconds.
  • Squib Valve 14B fails to fire.

What is the condition of the SLC system?

a. SLC is NOT being injected into the RPV into the RPV due to Squib Valve 14B failing to fire.
b. SLC can be injected into the RPV by SLC Pump B only by manual valve manipulations.
c. SLC is NOT being injected into the RPV because Squib Valves 14A and 14B are in series.
d. SLC is being injected into the RPV because SLC Pump B is discharging to the RPV via Squib Valve 14A.

QUESTION: 8 The plant is operating at 70% power making preparations for surveillance testing. BOTH Main Turbine Stop Valve 1 limit switches fail open causing the Stop Valve to indicate closed but actual Stop Valve position remains unchanged.

The limit switches are now repaired and the contacts are closed.

How does the Reactor Protection System (RPS) respond to both the limit switches opening?

How does the operator restore the Reactor Protection System according to Procedure 2.1.5, Reactor Scram?

The RPS system

a. Channel A de-energizes.

The operator places the REACTOR SCRAM RESET switch to Group 1 and 4, then back to NORM.

b. Channel A de-energizes.

The operator places the REACTOR SCRAM RESET switch to Group 1 and 4, Group 2 and 3, then back to NORM.

c. Channel B de-energizes.

The operator places the REACTOR SCRAM RESET switch to Group 2 and 3, then back to NORM.

d. Channel B de-energizes.

The operator places the REACTOR SCRAM RESET switch to Group 1 and 4, Group 2 and 3, then back to NORM.

QUESTION: 9 24791 A reactor startup is in progress, when a fire completely de-energizes 24/48 VDC Div I Bus.

Which IRMs will still be available for monitoring Reactor power?

a. A, C, E, G
b. B, D, F, H
c. A, B, C, D
d. E, F, G, H

QUESTION: 10 21774 During a Reactor Startup, the following indications were observed;

  • IRM F indication rose from 50/125 to 122/125 on range 6.
  • All other IRMs remained at approximately 50/125 on range 6.
  • All automatic actions took place at their Tech Spec Values.

Following the observations above, the following events occurred;

  • IRM F indication returned back to 50/125 from 122/125 on range 6.
  • All other IRMs remained at approximately 50/125 on range 6.

On panel 9-5 the control room operator performed the following actions:

  • bypassed IRM F.
  • reset all automatic actions that resulted from the actions of IRM F.

For this event, what is the status of the Alarms and Alarm Indicating Lights, both on Panel 9-5 and on Panel 9-12? (Exclude the IRM bypass lights)

The alarms on Panel 9-5 are

a. clear; the alarm indicating lights on Panels 9-5 are reset and are NOT illuminated but the ones on Panel 9-12 are NOT reset and still illuminated.
b. clear; the alarm indicating lights on BOTH Panels 9-5 and 9-12 are reset and are NOT illuminated.
c. NOT clear; the alarm indicating lights on Panels 9-5 are reset and are NOT illuminated, but the ones on Panel 9-12 are NOT reset and are still illuminated.
d. NOT clear; the alarm indicating lights on NEITHER Panel 9-5 or 9-12 are reset and are still illuminated.

QUESTION: 11 What is the purpose of the Source Range Monitor (SRM) system?

The SRM system

a. monitors local thermal neutron flux and provides input to the Rod Block Monitor (RBM) system.
b. provides a continuous indication and permanent record of the core bulk thermal power until the Reactor Mode switch is in RUN.
c. monitors the core neutron flux levels and their rate of change during shutdown, refueling, and startup.
d. automatically detects and blocks control rod withdrawal that could violate MCPR limits.

QUESTION: 12 What positions must the associated meter function switches be placed in to allow the control room operator to read the LPRM output for the above illuminated indicating light?

What does the output on the meter face indicate?

One switch pointing to the

a. 1D position and one switch pointing to the COUNT position.

The meter indicates upscale.

b. 1D position and one switch pointing to the COUNT position.

The meter indicates downscale.

c. 1 position and one switch pointing to the D position.

The meter indicates upscale.

d. 1 position and one switch pointing to the D position.

The meter indicates downscale.

QUESTION: 13 Where does RCIC receive its steam supply and into what feedwater (FW) line does it inject?

MS Line FW Line

a. A B
b. C A
c. C B
d. A A

QUESTION: 14 An Automatic Depressurization System (ADS) initiation has occurred, and RPV blowdown is in progress. The following conditions exist:

  • The initiation signals are still present.
  • RPV Pressure is 950 psig and lowering.

The control room operator presses and releases the ADS LOGIC A TMR and ADS LOGIC B TMR RESET pushbuttons.

What is the RPV pressure response over the next five minutes?

a. RPV pressure stops lowering while the RESET pushbuttons are depressed and immediately resumes lowering when the RESET pushbuttons are released.
b. RPV pressure stops lowering and continues rising until the safety valves open.
c. RPV pressure stops lowering for 109 seconds, and then resumes lowering.
d. RPV pressure continues lowering without pause.

QUESTION: 15 626 What effect does the tripping of RPS MG Set A EPAs have on the Primary Containment Isolation System?

a. Half Group 1, 2, 3, 6 and 7 isolations.
b. Full Group 1, 2, 3, 6 and 7 isolations.
c. Half Group 1 and 2 isolations.

Full Group 3, 6 and 7 isolations.

d. Half Group 1, 2 and 7 isolations.

Full Group 3 and 6 isolations.

QUESTION: 16 Due to ongoing events, the following are displayed in the control room:

  • Alarm 9-3-1/C-2, DRYWELL PNEUMATIC HDR LOW PRESSURE VID Display (1029) DRYWELL PNEUMATIC HDR PRESSURE LOW

The reactor is shutdown with pressure at rated conditions. How can the control room operator lower RPV pressure so the Condensate Booster Pumps can inject into the RPV?

a. Close IA-SOV-SPV21, DRYWELL IA SUPPLY VLV from Panel 9-3, and SRV valves are opened with their control switches as needed.
b. Open SRV VALVES 71E, 71F, 71G by placing their Isolation switches to ISOL in the ASD room.
c. Open the main turbine bypass valves in MANUAL mode from an HMI.
d. Open SRV VALVE 71H with its control switch.

QUESTION: 17 The plant is starting up and in MODE 1. SRV testing has been completed satisfactorily and two hours have lapsed. MS-TR-166, MAIN STEAM RELIEF AND SAFETY VALVE LEAK TEMP RECORDER, Channel 5 for Relief/Safety Valve B is indicating 195°F and steady. PMIS Point T143, MS RELIEF VALVE B is indicating 195°F and steady. No control room alarms associated with safety relief valves are present.

What is the condition of SRV B?

a. The valve is leaking.
b. The valve is full open.
c. The tailpipe thermocouple is failed open.
d. The valve is closed and indicating normally.

QUESTION: 18 The plant is starting up and the second Reactor Feed Pump has been placed in service one minute ago. RFPT A and RFPT B are being operated in MDEM mode. Three speed probes for RFPT A turn INVALID and two speed probes for RFPT B turn INVALID.

How are both RFPTs controlled in these conditions? (Assume the control room operator only utilizes the HMI UP/DOWN arrows).

a. RFPT A speed is changed utilizing the HMI UP/DOWN arrows in MDVP.

RFPT B speed is changed utilizing the HMI UP/DOWN arrows in MDVP.

b. RFPT A speed is changed utilizing the HMI UP/DOWN arrows in MDEM.

RFPT B speed is changed utilizing the HMI UP/DOWN arrows in MDVP.

c. RFPT A speed is changed utilizing the HMI UP/DOWN arrows in MDEM.

RFPT B speed is changed utilizing the HMI UP/DOWN arrows in MDEM.

d. RFPT A speed is changed utilizing the HMI UP/DOWN arrows in MDVP.

RFPT B speed is changed utilizing the HMI UP/DOWN arrows in MDEM.

QUESTION: 19 With the plant at power, the following timeline of events/actions occur:

  • 0800 Drywell pressure starts rising.
  • 0805 The control room operator is aligning for venting.
  • 0830 Reactor building pressure is indicating -0.30 inches wg.

How is the SGT system affected by the conditions above?

What does procedure require to be performed within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> of the high primary containment trip signal?

a. SGT continues to vent from primary containment.

Both SGT fan control switches must be placed in OFF and then to STANDBY.

b. SGT vents from the Reactor Building plenum only.

Both SGT fan control switches must be placed in RUN.

c. SGT vents from the Reactor Building plenum only.

The preferred SGT fan control switch must be placed in RUN and the other SGT fan control switch must be placed in OFF and then to STANDBY.

d. SGT continues to vent from primary containment.

The preferred SGT fan control switch must be placed in OFF and then to STANDBY and the other SGT fan control switch must be placed in RUN.

QUESTION: 20 23132 The plant is operating at rated conditions. The Electrical Maintenance department is troubleshooting a relay on 4160VAC critical bus 1F. Troubleshooting activities cause the bus to lockout. The control room operators respond according to alarm procedure guidance.

What condition and action statements of Technical Specifications require entry?

a. TS 3.8.1 AC Sources - Operating only.
b. TS 3.8.2 AC Sources - Shutdown only.
c. TS 3.8.1 AC Sources - Operating and TS 3.8.7 Distribution Systems - Operating.
d. TS 3.8.2 AC Sources - Shutdown and TS 3.8.8 Distribution Systems - Shutdown.

QUESTION: 21 25667 The plant is in a normal full power electrical lineup. The following alarm is received:

C-4/E-7 NO BREAK SYSTEM INVERTER 1A VOLTAGE FAILURE.

The electrical system responds as designed. What is the source of power to the NBPP?

a. MCC-L via a step down transformer and bypassing the inverter cabinet static switch.
b. MCC-L via a step down transformer and the inverter cabinet static switch.
c. MCC-R via a step down transformer and bypassing the inverter cabinet static switch.
d. MCC-R via a step down transformer and the inverter cabinet static switch.

QUESTION: 22 What is the normal power supply to the Main Turbine Emergency Bearing Oil Pump?

a. 125VDC Distribution Panel 1A via 125VDC SWGR 1A.
b. 125VDC Distribution Panel 1B via 125VDC SWGR 1B.
c. 250VDC Turbine Building Starter Rack via 250VDC SWGR 1A.
d. 250VDC Turbine Building Starter Rack via 250VDC SWGR 1B.

QUESTION: 23 The 125VDC Div 1 batteries are being charged after the charger had been removed from service for maintenance. How could plant operations be affected while charging the batteries?

a. Potassium hydroxide could accumulate and corrode battery terminals causing loads on the circuit to become overheated due to resistance to electrical current.
b. Nickel oxide-hydroxide could accumulate and corrode battery terminals causing loads on the circuit to become overheated due to resistance to electrical current.
c. Hydrogen could be generated and an explosive atmosphere could cause detonation and battery damage rendering the batteries inoperable.
d. Arsine could be generated and an explosive atmosphere could cause detonation and battery damage rendering the batteries inoperable.

QUESTION: 24 Diesel Generator 1 automatically starts on a valid signal and is powering 4160V Bus 1F. The following exist:

  • All DG automatic initiation signals are clear.
  • 4160V Bus 1A is energized.
  • DG 1 EMERGENCY TO NORMAL RESET is pushed and released.
  • DG 1 DROOP PARALLEL switch is in PARALLEL.
  • SYNCH SWITCH is in 1FA.

What indications are procedurally required to be present for the control room operator to transfer 4160V Bus 1F to 4160V Bus 1A?

The synchroscope has to be rotating slowly in the

a. counter-clockwise (SLOW) direction and DG voltage is slightly LOWER than Bus 1A voltage.
b. counter-clockwise (SLOW) direction and DG voltage is slightly HIGHER than Bus 1A voltage.
c. clockwise (FAST) direction and DG voltage is slightly LOWER than Bus 1A voltage.
d. clockwise (FAST) direction and DG voltage is slightly HIGHER than Bus 1A voltage.

QUESTION: 25 7057 What automatic interlock functions on a service air leak to prevent losing all air to the critical components in the Instrument Air (IA) System?

a. IA-SOV-SPV21, DRYWELL IA SUPPLY, receives an open signal to supply the reliable air header.
b. IA-SOV-SPV21, DRYWELL IA SUPPLY, receives a close signal to supply the reliable air header.
c. SA-PCV-609, SERVICE AIR SYSTEM ISOLATION, receives a close signal to isolate the SA System from the IA System.
d. SA-PCV-609, SERVICE AIR SYSTEM ISOLATION, receives a open signal to supply additional air to the IA System.

QUESTION: 26 What is the power supply for each REC pump?

a. 1A and 1B Pumps are powered from MCC-S.

1C and 1D Pumps are powered form MCC-K.

b. 1A and 1B Pumps are powered from MCC-K.

1C and 1D Pumps are powered form MCC-S.

c. 1A and 1B Pumps are powered from MCC-K.

1C and 1D Pumps are powered form MCC-Y.

d. 1A and 1B Pumps are powered from MCC-Q.

1C and 1D Pumps are powered form MCC-S.

QUESTION: 27 Control rod 26-27 is continuously inserted from notch 16 to 12.

What is the minimum drive water flow, indicated on CRD-FI-305 on Panel 9-5, as the control rod moves past notch 14?

a. 2 gpm
b. 4 gpm
c. 6 gpm
d. 8 gpm

QUESTION: 28 How is the Reactor Recirculation seal flow rate controlled?

a. Setting a manual flow regulator between 0.25 and 0.5 gpm.
b. Setting a manual flow regulator between 1.6 and 1.8 gpm.
c. Seal internal orifices regulate flow between 0.25 and 0.5 gpm.
d. Seal internal orifices regulate flow between 1.6 and 1.8 gpm.

QUESTION: 29 5060 What is the reason for ensuring the Reactor Recirculation Pump Discharge Valve Jog Circuit is used when starting a RR Pump above 30% power?

The Discharge Valve Jog Circuit ensures . . .

a. the resultant shrink in Reactor level is within the capability of the Reactor Level Control System.
b. the resultant swell in Reactor level is within the capability of the Reactor Level Control System.
c. the subsequent rise in Reactor power does not exceed the flow biased High Flux scram setpoint.
d. Jet Pump NPSH conditions are maintained as the valve strokes open.

QUESTION: 30 The plant is operating at rated conditions. The flow in the RWCU system piping downstream of RWCU-MO-18, OUTBD ISOL VLV, has reached 195% of rated conditions. No RWCU valve actuations have automatically occurred. All control room attempts to close RWCU valves have failed. Secondary Containment temperatures are rising.

Using the provided Wall Chart, what is the HIGHEST Emergency Action Level (EAL) reached for this condition?

a. An ALERT due to the loss of the Primary Containment Fission Product Barrier.
b. An ALERT due to the loss of the Secondary Containment Fission Product Barrier.
c. A Site Area Emergency due to the loss of the Reactor Coolant System Barrier and Primary Containment Barrier.
d. A Site Area Emergency due to the loss of the Fuel Clad Barrier and Reactor Coolant System Barrier.

QUESTION: 31 1223 A full reactor scram from rated conditions has been initiated. What will be the indication of a control rod that has moved past the full-in position 10 seconds after the scram (assume no operator action is taken)?

Full In Light Four Rod Display

a. ON Blank
b. ON 00
c. OFF Blank
d. OFF 00

QUESTION: 32 Reactor power is 54% and control rod 34-27 is selected for withdrawal. The following occur:

After control rod withdrawal and the subsequent selection of control rod 26-37, what is the response of Rod Block Monitor A as observed on RBM A meter at Panel 9-14?

AFTER 34-27 AFTER 26-37 MOVEMENT SELECTED

a. 56-58% 54%
b. 102-103% 54%
c. 100% 100%
d. 102-103% 100%

QUESTION: 33 1728 The plant is operating at 75% power with RHR Loop A operating in Suppression Pool Cooling (SPC). A reactor coolant leak develops in the Drywell resulting in the following conditions:

  • Drywell pressure 3.4 psig and rising slowly
  • Reactor pressure 700 psig and steady
  • Reactor water level +36 " (wide range) and steady What is the status of RHR-MO-39A, OUTBOARD SPC VALVE and RHR-MO-66A, HX BYPASS VALVE five (5) minutes later? (Assume NO operator actions taken with RHR Loop A controls).

RHR-MO-39A position RHR-MO-66A position

a. CLOSED OPEN
b. OPEN OPEN
c. CLOSED CLOSED
d. OPEN CLOSED

QUESTION: 34 RHR Pump D is operating and controlling drywell pressure between 2 psig and 10 psig. All systems operate per design. What is the power supply to RHR Pump D at the present time?

a. 4160V Bus 1F via 4160V Bus 1A.
b. 4160V Bus 1G via 4160V Bus 1B.
c. 4160V Bus 1F via the Emergency Station Transformer.
d. 4160V Bus 1G via the Emergency Station Transformer.

QUESTION: 35 93 A plant startup is in progress with the Reactor Mode Switch in RUN. MCC-L de-energizes.

What effect(s) does this have on the Main Steam system?

a. MO-74 (MSL Drain Inboard Isolation) closes.
b. MO-77 (MSL Drain Outboard Isolation) closes.
c. Inboard MSIVs and MO-74 (MSL Drain Inboard Isolation) closes.
d. Outboard MSIVs and MO-77 (MSL Drain Outboard Isolation) closes.

QUESTION: 36 23729 What effect does de-energizing 125 VDC power panel BB-2 have on the main turbine trip logic?

The main turbine . . .

a. CAN be manually tripped from the Control Room AND can be tripped locally. The main turbine automatic electric trips WILL function.
b. CAN be manually tripped from the Control Room AND can be tripped locally. The main turbine automatic electric trips will NOT function.
c. CANNOT be manually tripped from the Control Room, but CAN be tripped locally. The main turbine automatic electric trips WILL function.
d. CANNOT be manually tripped from the Control Room, but CAN be tripped locally. The main turbine automatic electric trips will NOT function.

QUESTION: 37 The plant was operating at rated conditions when the main generator tripped on an NSST fault.

Ten minutes later the following alarm is received:

B-2/C-1, TG EXHAUST HOOD A TEMP HIGH A check of TGI-R-RECCST, CONTROLLED START TEMP, CH 9 - 1ST LP TURBINE EXHAUST, reveals the temperature is 195°F and rising slowly.

How does this condition impact the main turbine?

What operator action is required per alarm B-2/C-1?

a. The high pressure turbine could experience differential expansion and rubbing of the turbine blades on the casing.

If turbine is on turning gear, on HOOD SPRAY screen, TG EXHAUST HOOD A control, verify hood spray operation by verifying DEMAND is > 0%.

b. The high pressure turbine could experience differential expansion and rubbing of the turbine blades on the casing.

Lower condenser backpressure by opening AR-MO-150, VACUUM BREAKER.

c. The low pressure turbine could experience differential expansion and rubbing of the turbine blades on the casing.

If turbine is on turning gear, on HOOD SPRAY screen, TG EXHAUST HOOD A control, verify hood spray operation by verifying DEMAND is > 0%.

d. The low pressure turbine could experience differential expansion and rubbing of the turbine blades on the casing.

Lower condenser backpressure by opening AR-MO-150, VACUUM BREAKER.

QUESTION: 38 21750 How does a loss of Plant Air affect the operation of Secondary containment Isolation valves HV-259AV and HV-261AV, Reactor Building Vent Exhaust Inboard Isolation valves?

A loss of plant air

a. requires both valves to be closed manually if an auto close signal is received.
b. prevents the closing of HV-259AV with its control switch.
c. prevents the closing of HV-261AV from an automatic isolation signal.
d. requires accumulator air as a motive force for closing both valves.

QUESTION: 39 1063 Given the following conditions:

  • Recirculation Pump B has tripped.
  • RR-MO-53B, Recirculation Pump B discharge valve was closed and is now open.
  • LOOP B JET PUMP FLOW (FI-92B) indicates 2 Mlbm/hr.
  • LOOP A JET PUMP FLOW (FI-92A) indicates 35 Mlbm/hr.

What is the expected value for indicated Total Core Flow as indicated on Panel 9-5 Recorder DPR/FR-95 AND what is Actual Core Flow?

Indicated total Core Flow Actual core flow

a. 33 Mlbm/hr 33 Mlbm/hr
b. 33 Mlbm/hr 37 Mlbm/hr
c. 37 Mlbm/hr 33 Mlbm/hr
d. 37 Mlbm/hr 37 Mlbm/hr

QUESTION: 40 The plant was operating at full power with the Startup Station Transformer (SSST) de-energized for switchyard work. The plant experiences a reactor scram and the electrical systems operate per design. The crew enters Procedure 5.3EMPWR, EMERGENCY POWER DURING MODES 1, 2, OR 3. The crew misses performing step addressing the Main Condensate Pumps and they are in the configuration shown below.

The SSST is repowered. With no manipulation of the above switches, what is the status of the Main Condensate Pumps after the non-critical 4160V buses are re-energized?

a. There is no change to the pumps status as they remained operating throughout the transient.
b. The pump breakers all trip once their respective buses are repowered.
c. The pumps all start with the potential of water hammer damage in the system.
d. The pumps all start with the pumps running deadheaded.

QUESTION: 41 The plant is operating in Mode 1 in a normal system alignment when the control room operator reports that several RCIC MOVs have lost their indicating lights. What could be the cause of this condition?

a. 125VDC SWGR 1A Bus has a blown fuse which supplies the RCIC Starter Rack.
b. 125VDC SWGR 1B Bus has a blown fuse which supplies the RCIC Starter Rack.
c. 125V Charger 1A sustained a DC output over voltage.
d. 125V Charger 1B sustained a DC output over voltage.

QUESTION: 42 The plant is operating at 100% power when the main turbine trips.

What is the immediate reactor water level response to this condition?

a. RPV level rapidly lowers greater than 20 inches.
b. RPV level rapidly rises greater than 10 inches.
c. RPV level slowly lowers to 15 inches.
d. RPV level slowly rises to 54.5 inches.

QUESTION: 43 A reactor scram has just occurred. Procedure 2.1.5, Reactor Scram directs operating the instruments represented by the picture below. What sequence of operator actions are required per Procedures 4.1.1, SRMs and 4.1.2, IRMS?

a. Press POWER ON switch.

Press SRM A through D SELECT switches.

Press IRM A through H SELECT switches.

Press and hold DRIVE IN switch until IN lights all illuminated, then release.

b. Press SRM A through D SELECT switches.

Press IRM A through H SELECT switches.

Press and hold DRIVE IN switch until IN lights all illuminated, then release.

c. Press POWER ON switch.

Press SRM A through D SELECT switches.

Press IRM A through H SELECT switches.

Momentarily press DRIVE IN switch.

d. Press SRM A through D SELECT switches.

Press IRM A through H SELECT switches.

Press POWER ON switch.

Momentarily press DRIVE IN switch.

QUESTION: 44 What is the reason for manually tripping the main turbine during a control room abandonment event?

a. To cause the main turbine bypass valves to open and control RPV pressure throughout the event.
b. To take positive action to trip the turbine without relying on automatic trips.
c. To initiate a reactor scram and place the reactor in a low energy state.
d. To preclude RPV inventory overfill resulting in RFPT trips.

QUESTION: 45 10641 Following a LOCA, HPCI is maintaining RPV level and RHR loop B is in suppression pool cooling. The following annunciators now alarm:

  • M-1/A-1, REC SYSTEM LOW PRESSURE
  • M-1/A-3, REC SURGE TANK LOW LEVEL The crew performed the following per Procedure 5.2REC, Loss of REC:
  • Stopped all the operating REC pumps.
  • Closed REC-MO-709, DRYWELL RETURN ISOLATION.
  • Inspected the critical loops and found them intact.
  • Restarted REC Pump 1A.

The following plant and REC system conditions are now present:

  • REC critical loop supply pressures are 60 psig and oscillating.
  • Surge tank level is low out of sight and the level control valve is open.

What REC action is required per 5.2REC?

a. Stop REC pump 1A.
b. Split the critical loops.
c. Start two additional REC pumps.
d. Supply SW backup to REC critical loops.

QUESTION: 46 The plant is operating at power when a partial loss of instrument air occurs. The crew enters Emergency Procedure 5.2AIR, Loss of Instrument Air. The procedure directs the crew to enter Procedure 2.1.5, SCRAM, and close the MSIVs and drains. The procedure also directs the crew to ensure the preferred Standby Gas Treatment system is operating.

Why is the crew directed to ensure the preferred Standby Gas Treatment system is operating?

a. To provide dilution flow to the Elevated Release Point due to the Off-Gas dilution fan running deadheaded.
b. To ensure proper Reactor Building Quad room cooling due to room coolers temperature control valves failing closed.
c. To support Reactor Building Kaman operation due to the loss of building ventilation.
d. It is critical for HPCI operation when adequate core cooling is required.

QUESTION: 47 24838 The Plant is in Mode 4 with RCS temperature at 175°F

  • RHR Pump B is in service in SDC.
  • RHR Loop A is out of service for maintenance.
  • RWCU is in service with 1 pump and 2 filters.

RHR Pump B trips due to a motor failure.

What effect does this have on the RWCU system?

a. RWCU can now provide more core forced circulation inside the shroud.
b. The additional cooling in the downcomer precludes flashing in the RWCU suction.
c. The reactor heat removal rate in the regenerative heat exchanger becomes greater.
d. The reactor heat removal rate in the non-regenerative heat exchanger becomes greater.

QUESTION: 48 A refueling accident has occurred. What is the Standby Gas Treatment system relationship with this event?

a. The trains start when reactor building exhaust radiation levels reach predetermined levels and any subsequent radiation release is through the elevated release point.
b. The trains start when reactor building exhaust radiation levels reach predetermined levels and any subsequent radiation release is through the reactor building exhaust.
c. The trains remain idle and any radiation release is through the elevated release point.
d. The trains remain idle and any radiation release is through the reactor building exhaust.

QUESTION: 49 The plant is operating at rated conditions. A steam leak develops in the drywell. What effect does this have on containment? (Assume no operator actions are taken)

a. Drywell temperature rises and then steadies out when the torus to drywell vacuum breakers open.
b. Suppression pool water temperature continually rises as drywell temperature rises.
c. Torus pressure rises at a faster rate than the drywell because of its relatively smaller size.
d. Torus air space temperature equalizes with drywell temperature.

QUESTION: 50 The Plant is operating at 100% power when a DEH malfunction occurs, causing RPV Pressure to rise to 1122 psig. Assume Drywell Temperature is 100F and Torus pressure is 1.2 psig.

What is the expected SRV tailpipe temperature response of RV71C?

RV71Cs tailpipe temperature starts at approximately

a. 150F and rapidly rises to approximately 300F.
b. 150F and slowly rises to approximately 360F.
c. 220F and rapidly rises to approximately 300F.
d. 220F and rapidly rises to approximately 360F.

QUESTION: 51 5334 An Anticipated Transient Without Scram (ATWS) has occurred. Average Reactor Thermal Power is 15% AND Suppression Pool temperature is 96°F and rising 1°F every 5 minutes.

What is the MAXIMUM temperature the Suppression Pool temperature may reach before Boron injection is required?

a. 110°F.
b. 123°F.
c. 139°F
d. 140°F

QUESTION: 52 23331 A Loss of Coolant Accident has occurred with the following conditions:

  • Reactor pressure 200 psig (lowering slowly)
  • Torus pressure 5 psig (rising slowly)
  • Drywell temperature 400° F (all points) (steady)

RPV water level can no longer be determined.

What action is performed next and why?

a. Spray the Drywell to lower primary containment pressure.
b. Spray the torus to lower primary containment temperature.
c. Flood the RPV because fuel submergence cannot be assured.
d. Flood the RPV because minimum steam cooling pressure is not met.

QUESTION: 53 23333 A LOCA has occurred with the following conditions:

  • RHR Pump C is the only low pressure ECCS pump available.
  • Maximum injection is required
  • Current RHR flow rate 7000 gpm
  • Torus pressure 9.57 psig (stable)
  • Torus average water temp 185°F (rising slowly)

The CRS directs that NPSH and Vortex requirements be complied with.

What action is required for RHR Pump C and why?

a. Lower flow to 6000 gpm because of NPSH limits.
b. Lower flow to 6000 gpm because of Vortex limits.
c. Raise flow to 7700 gpm as allowed by Vortex limits.
d. Raise flow to 8600 gpm as allowed by NPSH limits.

QUESTION: 54 Given the following conditions:

  • The plant has experienced a LOCA.
  • CRD is the only system injecting into the RPV.
  • RPV pressure is stable at 900 psig utilizing SRVs.
  • RPV water level has stabilized at -156 inches (Corrected Fuel Zone).

What is the status of core cooling?

a. Adequate core cooling does NOT exist because the core is uncovered.
b. The core is covered so adequate core cooling exists.
c. The core is adequately cooled because Minimum Steam Cooling Pressure conditions exist.
d. Steam cooling is providing adequate core cooling at this RPV level.

QUESTION: 55 The plant is operating at 100% power when the following occur:

  • Very little rod motion on the scram.
  • The crew initiates ARI.
  • Both RR pumps are tripped.

Current plant conditions are:

  • Reactor power 15% (stable)
  • Reactor Pressure 935 psig (stable)
  • Reactor water level +13"(NR) (stable)

The CRS orders RPV injection stopped and prevented.

Why is stop and prevent injection ordered at this time?

a. To lower reactor water level which mitigates the consequences of thermal-hydraulic instabilities.
b. To prevent uncontrolled injection of large amounts of cold unborated water and fuel damage due to overpower conditions.
c. To prevent injection from sources inside the shroud which cause large power excursions and fuel damage.
d. To raise the subcooling of the cold unborated feedwater injection which lowers reactor power and heat addition to containment.

QUESTION: 56 19785 During the execution of EOP 5A, RADIOACTIVITY RELEASE CONTROL, the CRS directs Emergency Depressurization (ED) to be performed.

What is the basis for Emergency Depressurizing while performing EOP 5A, Radioactive Release Control actions?

a. ED ensures the availability of equipment in the turbine building, which is necessary to mitigate the event, is not challenged.
b. ED ensures the energy level of the radiation and the atmospheric dispersion factors fall within the bounds of the accident analysis.
c. ED ensures the isotopic mixture of radioactive materials deposited off-site will be within the bounds of the EPA Protective Action Guides.
d. ED ensures the lowest possible driving head and flow of primary systems that are discharging outside of containment.

QUESTION: 57 An active electrical fire has been automatically extinguished in the Service Water Pump room.

What class of fire existed and what are the potential hazard(s) associated with entering the Service Water Pump room?

a. Class D fire and the hazard is electrocution due to water deluge discharge.
b. Class C fire and the hazard is electrocution due to water deluge discharge.
c. Class C fire and the hazards are physical symptoms such as dizziness, headache, and confusion due to Halon discharge.
d. Class D fire and the hazards are physical symptoms such as dizziness, headache, and confusion due to Halon discharge.

QUESTION: 58 The plant is operating at 96% power and grid disturbances cause both 4160V 1F and 1G bus voltages to oscillate as follows:

TIME RESPONSE OF Bus 1F & 1G 0800 Dips to 3950V for 7 seconds.

0804 Dips to 3950V for 12 seconds.

0810 Dips to 3850V for 7 seconds.

0813 Dips to 3850V for 12 seconds.

What EOP(s) require entry and what time is the entry required?

a. EOP 1A only at 0800.
b. EOPs 1A and 3A at 0804.
c. EOPs 1A and 3A at 0810.
d. EOP 1A only at 0813.

QUESTION: 59 16653 A plant shutdown is in progress. With the Reactor operating at 19% power (main turbine still on the line), the BOP operator notices that steam pressure to the Steam Jet Air Ejectors is lowering rapidly and subsequently determines that opening the SJAE steam supply bypass valves does not correct the problem.

The crew enters Abnormal Procedure 2.4VAC, LOSS OF CONDENSER VACUUM and vacuum is now 22Hg.

What immediate action(s) is/are required?

a. Perform Rapid Power Reduction per Procedure 2.1.10.
b. Place Mechanical Vacuum Pumps in service per Procedure 2.2.55.
c. Scram the Reactor, then trip the Main Turbine per Procedure 2.1.5.
d. Trip the Main Turbine and enter Procedure 2.2.77.

QUESTION: 60 5425 The plant has been operating at 100% power for the past 90 days following a refueling outage, when the following events occur:

  • An MSIV isolation occurs for unknown reasons.
  • The Reactor is shutdown.
  • RPV Pressure rises to 1090 psig, then lowers to 875 psig.
  • 20 minutes later, pressure is cycling between 990 AND 825 psig.

Which of the following statements describes the status of Low Low Set (LLS)?

a. Neither LLS valve is controlling pressure within its designed range.
b. LLS is correctly controlling pressure with SRV F. SRV D is NOT responding as designed.
c. LLS is correctly controlling pressure with SRV D. SRV F is NOT responding as designed.
d. LLS is correctly controlling pressure with BOTH LLS valves.

QUESTION: 61 The plant is operating at power when RPV level begins to rise. As water level rises, what are the potential consequences to the plant if automatic actions do NOT take place?

a. An elevated water level results in cooler water entering the downcomer causing a significant effect on available NPSH for the RR Pumps.
b. An elevated water level results in a higher water level in the downcomer causing a significant effect on available NPSH for the RR Pumps.
c. RPV level being high enough that moisture carryover causes steam quality to lower and damage to steam driven turbines.
d. RPV level being high enough that moisture carryover causes steam quality to rise and damage to steam driven turbines.

QUESTION: 62 A leak has developed in the drywell. What MINIMUM drywell pressure will cause an automatic reactor scram?

a. 0.6 psig
b. 1.5 psig
c. 1.84 psig
d. 2.0 psig

QUESTION: 63 Power has been raised to 90% after a control rod swap evolution. The control room operator notices SJAE Radiation monitor indication slowly rising. Annunciator 9-4-1/C-4, OFFGAS TIMER INITIATED, alarms 15 minutes later. The CRS enters Procedures 5.2FUEL, FUEL FAILURE and 2.4OG,OFF-GAS ABNORMAL.

What is the appropriate operator action per procedure(s) and why?

a. Scram the reactor and place OFFGAS TIMER switch to CLOSE to contain the radiation release.
b. Lower reactor power to lower the radiation release.
c. Scram the reactor to lower the fission product gap release and lower the radiation release.
d. Lower reactor power and close the MSIVs to contain the radiation release.

QUESTION: 64 24586 Following a LOCA and SCRAM the following conditions are noted:

  • HPCI high suppression pool water level suction transfer logic is defeated per 5.8.20.
  • HPCI is injecting at 4000 gpm with suction from the ECST.
  • Reactor pressure is 650 psig.
  • Reactor water level is -155 inches (corrected FZ) and steady.
  • Drywell temperature is 185°F and rising slowly.
  • Drywell pressure is 4.0 psig and rising slowly.
  • Torus pressure is 2.6 psig and rising slowly.
  • Suppression pool temperature is 120°F and steady.

What action is required?

a. Initiate drywell sprays.
b. Emergency depressurize.
c. Align HPCI suction to the Suppression Pool.
d. Vent primary containment with drywell vent line.

QUESTION: 65 The Reactor Building HVAC is in a normal lineup. Outside temperature is 70°F and winds are steady at 5 miles per hour. The running Reactor Building exhaust fan vortex damper closes.

Per Panel R Annunciator R-2 alarm procedure, when does the Reactor Building exhaust and supply fans trip for the present conditions?

a. Immediately with Reactor Building pressure at -0.45 wg or more negative.
b. After a 45 second time delay with Reactor Building pressure at -0.45 wg or more negative.
c. Immediately with Reactor Building pressure at -0.15 wg or less negative.
d. After a 45 second time delay with Reactor Building pressure at -0.15 wg or less negative.

QUESTION: 66 16476 An RO left shift work on 6/3. The RO worked all scheduled workdays this year as BOP until leaving shift. Since leaving shift, the RO performed the following shifts as the BOP:

  • 7/19 worked 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />
  • 8/18 worked 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />
  • 8/30 worked 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />
  • 9/10 worked 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> What is this operator's license status on 9/11?
a. License is active and only stays active with another 12-hour shift before 10/1.
b. License is active and only stays active with another 12-hour shift before 11/1.
c. License became inactive on 6/30.
d. License became inactive on 7/31.

QUESTION: 67 The plant is operating at power when an unexpected alarm is received.

What information is to be relayed to control room supervision concerning the alarm, according to Procedure 2.3.1, GENERAL ALARM PROCEDURE? (Assume the alarm is a valid alarm)

a. Read or paraphrase the annunciator descriptor only.
b. Report alarm card automatic actions and any referenced TS/TRM/ODAM.
c. Read or paraphrase the annunciator descriptor and any referenced TS/TRM/ODAM.
d. Report the alarm as an unexpected alarm only.

QUESTION: 68 Refueling operations are taking place per Procedure 10.25.1, REFUELING-CORE REFUELING SUPPORT OPERATIONS. A control rod is withdrawn and a bypass jumper for refueling interlocks is installed for the RPIS probe buffer card of the withdrawn control rod.

What indication is available to inform the At the Controls operator the control rods refueling interlocks are bypassed?

a. The Panel 9-5 Full Core Display FULL IN indicating light illuminates and the FULL OUT indicating light extinguishes.
b. The Panel 9-5 Full Core Display FULL IN indicating light extinguishes and the FULL OUT indicating light illuminates.
c. Both Panel 9-5 Full Core Display FULL IN and FULL OUT indicating lights extinguish.
d. Both Panel 9-5 Full Core Display FULL IN and FULL OUT indicating lights illuminate.

QUESTION: 69 16466 During a reactor startup and heatup after a refueling outage, reactor period was infinity after withdrawing a control rod. The following conditions are present with NO control rod movement for the last two (2) minutes:

  • The reactor is on range 5 of the IRMs (rising)
  • Reactor period is +120 seconds (getting shorter)

What action is required?

a. Insert a manual scram.
b. Range IRMs as necessary to keep them on scale until the Point of Adding Heat (POAH) is reached.
c. Fully insert control rods per the Emergency Power Reduction section of NPP 10.13 until the reactor is subcritical.
d. Wait and see if reactor period shortens to under 50 seconds, then insert the last withdrawn control rod until period is longer than 50 seconds.

QUESTION: 70 The SE Quad fan coil unit is having its belts replaced by maintenance personnel.

Does the Core Spray subsystem have to be declared inoperable? Why or why not?

a. No; support equipment does not need to be maintained in an operable status to maintain the TS Required Equipment Operable.
b. No; if maintenance can return the support system to a functional state, then the TS required equipment can remain Operable.
c. Yes; any work on a support system that is associated with a Technical Specification piece of equipment affects the operability of that system.
d. Yes; the Tech Spec for the SE Quad fan coil unit states that the associated Core Spray System must be declared inoperable.

QUESTION: 71 The plant is operating at power when a leak in the Reactor Building causes a building high radiation alarm. The Rx Bldg HVAC isolates on a valid high radiation signal and 10 minutes later the Reactor Building Vent radiation monitors are all reading 5 mR/hr and steady.

What does EOP 5A, Secondary Containment Control require for building ventilation control?

a. Verify the HVAC isolation valves all closed and then start Standby Gas Treatment system.
b. Install EOP PTMs to override the high radiation signal and then restart Rx Bldg HVAC.
c. Restart the Rx Bldg HVAC and leave Standby Gas Treatment system operating.
d. Verify the radiation levels and then restart Rx Bldg HVAC.

QUESTION: 72 One of the rooms in the Reactor Building contains an area in which a person could receive a deep dose equivalent (DDE) of 1250 mR/hr.

Why is the entrance required to be posted as a Locked High Radiation Area?

a. To preclude 10CFR100, REACTOR SITE CRITERIA, radiation limits from being exceeded.
b. To preclude 10CFR20, STANDARDS FOR PROTECTION AGAINST RADIATION, radiation limits from being exceeded.
c. To ensure CNS Planned Special Exposure (PSE) limits are not exceeded during an accident.
d. To ensure dose to the control room personnel does not exceed federal limits during a fuel handling accident.

QUESTION: 73 5923 What is the basis for requiring boron injection before the Boron Injection Initiation Temperature (BIIT) (Graph 8) is exceeded?

a. Ensures Hot Shutdown Boron weight is injected into the RPV before the Primary Containment Pressure Limit (Graph 11) is exceeded.
b. Ensures Cold Shutdown Boron weight is injected into the RPV before the Heat Capacity Temperature Limit (Graph 7) is exceeded.
c. Ensures Cold Shutdown Boron weight is injected into the RPV before the Primary Containment Pressure Limit (Graph 11) is exceeded.
d. Ensures Hot Shutdown Boron weight is injected into the RPV before the Heat Capacity Temperature Limit (Graph 7) is exceeded.

QUESTION: 74 During EOP actions, the order is given to Stop and Prevent all injection into the RPV. What priority is given when performing the order and why?

Priority is given to the

a. systems that are injecting or about to inject because the objective is to lower RPV water level or prevent a power excursion.
b. systems that are injecting or about to inject because RPV level control would be more difficult in the given level band.
c. highest capacity systems because a rapid cooldown could exceed procedural cooldown rate limitations.
d. low pressure systems because they can rapidly be secured with an individual control switch.

QUESTION: 75 A fire has been confirmed in the Turbine Building. The CRS has entered Procedure 5.1INCIDENT, SITE EMERGENCY INCIDENT. As the control room operator you are directed to announce the fire to station personnel. What are your actions for these conditions?

Sound the Fire Alarm Pulse Tone for ten (10) seconds and direct the

a. Fire Brigade and Utility Fire Brigade to a specific fire locker designated by the control room operator and the Turbine Building NLO to the scene of the fire.
b. Fire Brigade to a specific fire locker designated by the control room operator and the Utility Fire Brigade and Fire Brigade Leader to the location of the fire.
c. Fire Brigade and Utility Fire Brigade to an exterior entrance closest to the fire and the Incident Commander to the scene of the fire.
d. Fire Brigade to a specific fire locker designated by the control room operator; the Utility Fire Brigade to an exterior entrance closest to the fire and the Turbine Building NLO to the scene of the fire.

HANDOUT TABLE OF CONTENTS

1. EAL Matrix Category F
2. EOP NOTE 3, Graph 3 and Graph 5 (NPSH Limits)
3. EOP Graph 4 (Vortex Limits)
4. EOP Graph 7 (Heat Capacity Temperature Limit)
5. EOP Graph 8 (Boron Injection Initiation Temperature)

ES-401 Site-Specific SRO Written Examination Form ES-401-8 Cover Sheet U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Site-Specific SRO Written Examination Applicant Information Name:

Date: 11-05-2012 Facility/Unit: Cooper Nuclear Station Region: I II III IV Reactor Type: W CE BW GE Start Time: Finish Time:

Instructions Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top of the answer sheets. To pass the examination you must achieve a final grade of at least 80.00 percent overall, with 70.00 percent or better on the SRO-only items if given in conjunction with the RO exam; SRO-only exams given alone require a final grade of 80.00 percent to pass. You have 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> to complete the combined examination, and 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br /> if you are only taking the SRO portion.

Applicant Certification All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Applicants Signature Results RO/SRO-Only/Total Examination Values 75 / 25 / 100 Points Applicants Scores / / Points Applicants Grade / / Percent

QUESTION: 1 A LOCA is in progress with RHR Pump B as the only source injecting into the RPV. The following conditions exist:

  • RPV level is -130 inches on the fuel zone instruments and rising at 5 inches/minute.
  • RHR Loop B injection is 3000 gpm.
  • RPV pressure is 80 psig and steady.

One minute later RHR-MO-13B, PUMP B TORUS SUCTION closes for unknown reasons.

Assuming all systems operate as designed and no operator actions are taken after RHR-MO-13B closes, what is the plant response?

a. RHR Pump B continues to run.

RPV level begins lowering due to no injection.

b. RHR Pump B trips due to valve closure.

RPV level continues rising at a slower rate due to pressure maintenance injection.

c. RHR Pump B continues to run.

RPV level continues rising at a slower rate due to pressure maintenance injection.

d. RHR Pump B trips due to valve closure.

RPV level begins lowering due to no injection.

QUESTION: 2 24818 RHR Loop B is operating in the Shutdown Cooling (SDC) Mode, when RPV pressure rises to 85 psig.

Which one of the following describes the expected system response?

(Assume all systems being operated from the control room.)

RHR Pump B trips and

a. RHR pump suction valve RHR-MO-15B auto closes, and Inboard Injection valve RHR-MO-25B auto closes.
b. Shutdown Cooling suction valves RHR-MO-17 and RHR-MO-18 auto close, and Inboard Injection valve RHR-MO-25B auto closes.
c. Shutdown Cooling suction valves RHR-MO-17 and RHR-MO-18 auto close, RHR pump suction valve RHR-MO-15B auto closes.
d. Min flow control valve RHR-MO-16B auto opens, and Inboard Injection valve RHR-MO-25B auto closes.

QUESTION: 3 The following conditions exist:

  • The plant is in MODE 5.
  • RHRSW Booster Pump A is operating in support of RHR SDC mode.
  • RPV coolant temperature is 140°F and rising 1°F every 15 minutes.
  • RHRSW Loop A flow on SW-FI-132A, SW FLOW, is indicating 2500 gpm.

The CRS directs the BOP operator to lower the RPV coolant temperature to 110°F.

  • The BOP operator places control switch HX-A SW DISCH VLV 89A to the OPEN position.
  • Simultaneously MCC-K de-energizes.

What is required to lower the RPV coolant temperature to 110°F?

a. Start RHRSW Booster Pump B.
b. Start RHRSW Booster Pump C.
c. Coordinate with an NLO to manually open SW-MO-89A locally.
d. Continue holding the control switch for HX-A SW DISCH VLV 89A until SW-FI-132A is indicating the desired flow.

QUESTION 4 The plant is operating at power and Barton Narrow Range instrument NBI-LIS-101B fails downscale. Subsequently a reactor scram occurs due to a PCIS Group 1 and HPCI starts and initiates in response to RPV level lowering. No operator actions are taken with the HPCI controls.

How does HPCI respond to these conditions?

a. HPCI continues to inject as RPV level goes above 59 inches.
b. HPCI speed lowers to minimum regardless of RPV level.
c. HPCI turbine trips and HPCI-MO-14, STM TO TURB VLV closes.
d. HPCI-MO-16, STM SUPP OUTBD ISOL VLV closes and HPCI speed ramps down to zero.

QUESTION: 5 5630 Core Spray pump A is delivering 2400 gpm as indicated on CS-FI-50A, PUMP FLOW, while operating in the test lineup for surveillance testing. The control room operator raises system flow to 4000 gpm.

How does Core Spray pump operation affect Wide Range Torus level indication (PC-LRPR-1A),

CNTMNT/TORUS PRESS & LVL RCDR, and why?

Wide Range Torus water level indicates . . .

a. higher than actual water level due to higher pressure in the discharge piping of the operating pump.
b. higher than actual water level due to reduced pressure in the suction piping of the operating pump.
c. lower than actual water level due to higher pressure in the discharge piping of the operating pump.
d. lower than actual water level due to reduced pressure in the suction piping of the operating pump.

QUESTION: 6 The plant is operating at rated conditions and the Standby Liquid Control above core plate inner pipe has separated from the bottom core plate. The pipe is now measuring below core plate pressure.

What effect does this condition have on Core Spray line break detection system?

a. CS-DPIS-43A & B indicate approximately -10 psid for BOTH systems.
b. CS-DPIS-43A & B indicate approximately zero for BOTH systems.
c. Core Spray break detection alarms annunciate for BOTH systems.
d. Core Spray break detection alarm annunciates in ONLY ONE Core Spray system.

QUESTION: 7 2194 During a failure to scram condition, the CRS orders both SLC Pumps started. Both SLC Pump control switches are taken to START and the following conditions result:

  • SLC Pump A trips after running 10 seconds.
  • Squib Valve 14B fails to fire.

What is the condition of the SLC system?

a. SLC is NOT being injected into the RPV into the RPV due to Squib Valve 14B failing to fire.
b. SLC can be injected into the RPV by SLC Pump B only by manual valve manipulations.
c. SLC is NOT being injected into the RPV because Squib Valves 14A and 14B are in series.
d. SLC is being injected into the RPV because SLC Pump B is discharging to the RPV via Squib Valve 14A.

QUESTION: 8 The plant is operating at 70% power making preparations for surveillance testing. BOTH Main Turbine Stop Valve 1 limit switches fail open causing the Stop Valve to indicate closed but actual Stop Valve position remains unchanged.

The limit switches are now repaired and the contacts are closed.

How does the Reactor Protection System (RPS) respond to both the limit switches opening?

How does the operator restore the Reactor Protection System according to Procedure 2.1.5, Reactor Scram?

The RPS system

a. Channel A de-energizes.

The operator places the REACTOR SCRAM RESET switch to Group 1 and 4, then back to NORM.

b. Channel A de-energizes.

The operator places the REACTOR SCRAM RESET switch to Group 1 and 4, Group 2 and 3, then back to NORM.

c. Channel B de-energizes.

The operator places the REACTOR SCRAM RESET switch to Group 2 and 3, then back to NORM.

d. Channel B de-energizes.

The operator places the REACTOR SCRAM RESET switch to Group 1 and 4, Group 2 and 3, then back to NORM.

QUESTION: 9 24791 A reactor startup is in progress, when a fire completely de-energizes 24/48 VDC Div I Bus.

Which IRMs will still be available for monitoring Reactor power?

a. A, C, E, G
b. B, D, F, H
c. A, B, C, D
d. E, F, G, H

QUESTION: 10 21774 During a Reactor Startup, the following indications were observed;

  • IRM F indication rose from 50/125 to 122/125 on range 6.
  • All other IRMs remained at approximately 50/125 on range 6.
  • All automatic actions took place at their Tech Spec Values.

Following the observations above, the following events occurred;

  • IRM F indication returned back to 50/125 from 122/125 on range 6.
  • All other IRMs remained at approximately 50/125 on range 6.

On panel 9-5 the control room operator performed the following actions:

  • bypassed IRM F.
  • reset all automatic actions that resulted from the actions of IRM F.

For this event, what is the status of the Alarms and Alarm Indicating Lights, both on Panel 9-5 and on Panel 9-12? (Exclude the IRM bypass lights)

The alarms on Panel 9-5 are

a. clear; the alarm indicating lights on Panels 9-5 are reset and are NOT illuminated but the ones on Panel 9-12 are NOT reset and still illuminated.
b. clear; the alarm indicating lights on BOTH Panels 9-5 and 9-12 are reset and are NOT illuminated.
c. NOT clear; the alarm indicating lights on Panels 9-5 are reset and are NOT illuminated, but the ones on Panel 9-12 are NOT reset and are still illuminated.
d. NOT clear; the alarm indicating lights on NEITHER Panel 9-5 or 9-12 are reset and are still illuminated.

QUESTION: 11 What is the purpose of the Source Range Monitor (SRM) system?

The SRM system

a. monitors local thermal neutron flux and provides input to the Rod Block Monitor (RBM) system.
b. provides a continuous indication and permanent record of the core bulk thermal power until the Reactor Mode switch is in RUN.
c. monitors the core neutron flux levels and their rate of change during shutdown, refueling, and startup.
d. automatically detects and blocks control rod withdrawal that could violate MCPR limits.

QUESTION: 12 What positions must the associated meter function switches be placed in to allow the control room operator to read the LPRM output for the above illuminated indicating light?

What does the output on the meter face indicate?

One switch pointing to the

a. 1D position and one switch pointing to the COUNT position.

The meter indicates upscale.

b. 1D position and one switch pointing to the COUNT position.

The meter indicates downscale.

c. 1 position and one switch pointing to the D position.

The meter indicates upscale.

d. 1 position and one switch pointing to the D position.

The meter indicates downscale.

QUESTION: 13 Where does RCIC receive its steam supply and into what feedwater (FW) line does it inject?

MS Line FW Line

a. A B
b. C A
c. C B
d. A A

QUESTION: 14 An Automatic Depressurization System (ADS) initiation has occurred, and RPV blowdown is in progress. The following conditions exist:

  • The initiation signals are still present.
  • RPV Pressure is 950 psig and lowering.

The control room operator presses and releases the ADS LOGIC A TMR and ADS LOGIC B TMR RESET pushbuttons.

What is the RPV pressure response over the next five minutes?

a. RPV pressure stops lowering while the RESET pushbuttons are depressed and immediately resumes lowering when the RESET pushbuttons are released.
b. RPV pressure stops lowering and continues rising until the safety valves open.
c. RPV pressure stops lowering for 109 seconds, and then resumes lowering.
d. RPV pressure continues lowering without pause.

QUESTION: 15 626 What effect does the tripping of RPS MG Set A EPAs have on the Primary Containment Isolation System?

a. Half Group 1, 2, 3, 6 and 7 isolations.
b. Full Group 1, 2, 3, 6 and 7 isolations.
c. Half Group 1 and 2 isolations.

Full Group 3, 6 and 7 isolations.

d. Half Group 1, 2 and 7 isolations.

Full Group 3 and 6 isolations.

QUESTION: 16 Due to ongoing events, the following are displayed in the control room:

  • Alarm 9-3-1/C-2, DRYWELL PNEUMATIC HDR LOW PRESSURE VID Display (1029) DRYWELL PNEUMATIC HDR PRESSURE LOW

The reactor is shutdown with pressure at rated conditions. How can the control room operator lower RPV pressure so the Condensate Booster Pumps can inject into the RPV?

a. Close IA-SOV-SPV21, DRYWELL IA SUPPLY VLV from Panel 9-3, and SRV valves are opened with their control switches as needed.
b. Open SRV VALVES 71E, 71F, 71G by placing their Isolation switches to ISOL in the ASD room.
c. Open the main turbine bypass valves in MANUAL mode from an HMI.
d. Open SRV VALVE 71H with its control switch.

QUESTION: 17 The plant is starting up and in MODE 1. SRV testing has been completed satisfactorily and two hours have lapsed. MS-TR-166, MAIN STEAM RELIEF AND SAFETY VALVE LEAK TEMP RECORDER, Channel 5 for Relief/Safety Valve B is indicating 195°F and steady. PMIS Point T143, MS RELIEF VALVE B is indicating 195°F and steady. No control room alarms associated with safety relief valves are present.

What is the condition of SRV B?

a. The valve is leaking.
b. The valve is full open.
c. The tailpipe thermocouple is failed open.
d. The valve is closed and indicating normally.

QUESTION: 18 The plant is starting up and the second Reactor Feed Pump has been placed in service one minute ago. RFPT A and RFPT B are being operated in MDEM mode. Three speed probes for RFPT A turn INVALID and two speed probes for RFPT B turn INVALID.

How are both RFPTs controlled in these conditions? (Assume the control room operator only utilizes the HMI UP/DOWN arrows).

a. RFPT A speed is changed utilizing the HMI UP/DOWN arrows in MDVP.

RFPT B speed is changed utilizing the HMI UP/DOWN arrows in MDVP.

b. RFPT A speed is changed utilizing the HMI UP/DOWN arrows in MDEM.

RFPT B speed is changed utilizing the HMI UP/DOWN arrows in MDVP.

c. RFPT A speed is changed utilizing the HMI UP/DOWN arrows in MDEM.

RFPT B speed is changed utilizing the HMI UP/DOWN arrows in MDEM.

d. RFPT A speed is changed utilizing the HMI UP/DOWN arrows in MDVP.

RFPT B speed is changed utilizing the HMI UP/DOWN arrows in MDEM.

QUESTION: 19 With the plant at power, the following timeline of events/actions occur:

  • 0800 Drywell pressure starts rising.
  • 0805 The control room operator is aligning for venting.
  • 0830 Reactor building pressure is indicating -0.30 inches wg.

How is the SGT system affected by the conditions above?

What does procedure require to be performed within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> of the high primary containment trip signal?

a. SGT continues to vent from primary containment.

Both SGT fan control switches must be placed in OFF and then to STANDBY.

b. SGT vents from the Reactor Building plenum only.

Both SGT fan control switches must be placed in RUN.

c. SGT vents from the Reactor Building plenum only.

The preferred SGT fan control switch must be placed in RUN and the other SGT fan control switch must be placed in OFF and then to STANDBY.

d. SGT continues to vent from primary containment.

The preferred SGT fan control switch must be placed in OFF and then to STANDBY and the other SGT fan control switch must be placed in RUN.

QUESTION: 20 23132 The plant is operating at rated conditions. The Electrical Maintenance department is troubleshooting a relay on 4160VAC critical bus 1F. Troubleshooting activities cause the bus to lockout. The control room operators respond according to alarm procedure guidance.

What condition and action statements of Technical Specifications require entry?

a. TS 3.8.1 AC Sources - Operating only.
b. TS 3.8.2 AC Sources - Shutdown only.
c. TS 3.8.1 AC Sources - Operating and TS 3.8.7 Distribution Systems - Operating.
d. TS 3.8.2 AC Sources - Shutdown and TS 3.8.8 Distribution Systems - Shutdown.

QUESTION: 21 25667 The plant is in a normal full power electrical lineup. The following alarm is received:

C-4/E-7 NO BREAK SYSTEM INVERTER 1A VOLTAGE FAILURE.

The electrical system responds as designed. What is the source of power to the NBPP?

a. MCC-L via a step down transformer and bypassing the inverter cabinet static switch.
b. MCC-L via a step down transformer and the inverter cabinet static switch.
c. MCC-R via a step down transformer and bypassing the inverter cabinet static switch.
d. MCC-R via a step down transformer and the inverter cabinet static switch.

QUESTION: 22 What is the normal power supply to the Main Turbine Emergency Bearing Oil Pump?

a. 125VDC Distribution Panel 1A via 125VDC SWGR 1A.
b. 125VDC Distribution Panel 1B via 125VDC SWGR 1B.
c. 250VDC Turbine Building Starter Rack via 250VDC SWGR 1A.
d. 250VDC Turbine Building Starter Rack via 250VDC SWGR 1B.

QUESTION: 23 The 125VDC Div 1 batteries are being charged after the charger had been removed from service for maintenance. How could plant operations be affected while charging the batteries?

a. Potassium hydroxide could accumulate and corrode battery terminals causing loads on the circuit to become overheated due to resistance to electrical current.
b. Nickel oxide-hydroxide could accumulate and corrode battery terminals causing loads on the circuit to become overheated due to resistance to electrical current.
c. Hydrogen could be generated and an explosive atmosphere could cause detonation and battery damage rendering the batteries inoperable.
d. Arsine could be generated and an explosive atmosphere could cause detonation and battery damage rendering the batteries inoperable.

QUESTION: 24 Diesel Generator 1 automatically starts on a valid signal and is powering 4160V Bus 1F. The following exist:

  • All DG automatic initiation signals are clear.
  • 4160V Bus 1A is energized.
  • DG 1 EMERGENCY TO NORMAL RESET is pushed and released.
  • DG 1 DROOP PARALLEL switch is in PARALLEL.
  • SYNCH SWITCH is in 1FA.

What indications are procedurally required to be present for the control room operator to transfer 4160V Bus 1F to 4160V Bus 1A?

The synchroscope has to be rotating slowly in the

a. counter-clockwise (SLOW) direction and DG voltage is slightly LOWER than Bus 1A voltage.
b. counter-clockwise (SLOW) direction and DG voltage is slightly HIGHER than Bus 1A voltage.
c. clockwise (FAST) direction and DG voltage is slightly LOWER than Bus 1A voltage.
d. clockwise (FAST) direction and DG voltage is slightly HIGHER than Bus 1A voltage.

QUESTION: 25 7057 What automatic interlock functions on a service air leak to prevent losing all air to the critical components in the Instrument Air (IA) System?

a. IA-SOV-SPV21, DRYWELL IA SUPPLY, receives an open signal to supply the reliable air header.
b. IA-SOV-SPV21, DRYWELL IA SUPPLY, receives a close signal to supply the reliable air header.
c. SA-PCV-609, SERVICE AIR SYSTEM ISOLATION, receives a close signal to isolate the SA System from the IA System.
d. SA-PCV-609, SERVICE AIR SYSTEM ISOLATION, receives a open signal to supply additional air to the IA System.

QUESTION: 26 What is the power supply for each REC pump?

a. 1A and 1B Pumps are powered from MCC-S.

1C and 1D Pumps are powered form MCC-K.

b. 1A and 1B Pumps are powered from MCC-K.

1C and 1D Pumps are powered form MCC-S.

c. 1A and 1B Pumps are powered from MCC-K.

1C and 1D Pumps are powered form MCC-Y.

d. 1A and 1B Pumps are powered from MCC-Q.

1C and 1D Pumps are powered form MCC-S.

QUESTION: 27 Control rod 26-27 is continuously inserted from notch 16 to 12.

What is the minimum drive water flow, indicated on CRD-FI-305 on Panel 9-5, as the control rod moves past notch 14?

a. 2 gpm
b. 4 gpm
c. 6 gpm
d. 8 gpm

QUESTION: 28 How is the Reactor Recirculation seal flow rate controlled?

a. Setting a manual flow regulator between 0.25 and 0.5 gpm.
b. Setting a manual flow regulator between 1.6 and 1.8 gpm.
c. Seal internal orifices regulate flow between 0.25 and 0.5 gpm.
d. Seal internal orifices regulate flow between 1.6 and 1.8 gpm.

QUESTION: 29 5060 What is the reason for ensuring the Reactor Recirculation Pump Discharge Valve Jog Circuit is used when starting a RR Pump above 30% power?

The Discharge Valve Jog Circuit ensures . . .

a. the resultant shrink in Reactor level is within the capability of the Reactor Level Control System.
b. the resultant swell in Reactor level is within the capability of the Reactor Level Control System.
c. the subsequent rise in Reactor power does not exceed the flow biased High Flux scram setpoint.
d. Jet Pump NPSH conditions are maintained as the valve strokes open.

QUESTION: 30 The plant is operating at rated conditions. The flow in the RWCU system piping downstream of RWCU-MO-18, OUTBD ISOL VLV, has reached 195% of rated conditions. No RWCU valve actuations have automatically occurred. All control room attempts to close RWCU valves have failed. Secondary Containment temperatures are rising.

Using the provided Wall Chart, what is the HIGHEST Emergency Action Level (EAL) reached for this condition?

a. An ALERT due to the loss of the Primary Containment Fission Product Barrier.
b. An ALERT due to the loss of the Secondary Containment Fission Product Barrier.
c. A Site Area Emergency due to the loss of the Reactor Coolant System Barrier and Primary Containment Barrier.
d. A Site Area Emergency due to the loss of the Fuel Clad Barrier and Reactor Coolant System Barrier.

QUESTION: 31 1223 A full reactor scram from rated conditions has been initiated. What will be the indication of a control rod that has moved past the full-in position 10 seconds after the scram (assume no operator action is taken)?

Full In Light Four Rod Display

a. ON Blank
b. ON 00
c. OFF Blank
d. OFF 00

QUESTION: 32 Reactor power is 54% and control rod 34-27 is selected for withdrawal. The following occur:

After control rod withdrawal and the subsequent selection of control rod 26-37, what is the response of Rod Block Monitor A as observed on RBM A meter at Panel 9-14?

AFTER 34-27 AFTER 26-37 MOVEMENT SELECTED

a. 56-58% 54%
b. 102-103% 54%
c. 100% 100%
d. 102-103% 100%

QUESTION: 33 1728 The plant is operating at 75% power with RHR Loop A operating in Suppression Pool Cooling (SPC). A reactor coolant leak develops in the Drywell resulting in the following conditions:

  • Drywell pressure 3.4 psig and rising slowly
  • Reactor pressure 700 psig and steady
  • Reactor water level +36 " (wide range) and steady What is the status of RHR-MO-39A, OUTBOARD SPC VALVE and RHR-MO-66A, HX BYPASS VALVE five (5) minutes later? (Assume NO operator actions taken with RHR Loop A controls).

RHR-MO-39A position RHR-MO-66A position

a. CLOSED OPEN
b. OPEN OPEN
c. CLOSED CLOSED
d. OPEN CLOSED

QUESTION: 34 RHR Pump D is operating and controlling drywell pressure between 2 psig and 10 psig. All systems operate per design. What is the power supply to RHR Pump D at the present time?

a. 4160V Bus 1F via 4160V Bus 1A.
b. 4160V Bus 1G via 4160V Bus 1B.
c. 4160V Bus 1F via the Emergency Station Transformer.
d. 4160V Bus 1G via the Emergency Station Transformer.

QUESTION: 35 93 A plant startup is in progress with the Reactor Mode Switch in RUN. MCC-L de-energizes.

What effect(s) does this have on the Main Steam system?

a. MO-74 (MSL Drain Inboard Isolation) closes.
b. MO-77 (MSL Drain Outboard Isolation) closes.
c. Inboard MSIVs and MO-74 (MSL Drain Inboard Isolation) closes.
d. Outboard MSIVs and MO-77 (MSL Drain Outboard Isolation) closes.

QUESTION: 36 23729 What effect does de-energizing 125 VDC power panel BB-2 have on the main turbine trip logic?

The main turbine . . .

a. CAN be manually tripped from the Control Room AND can be tripped locally. The main turbine automatic electric trips WILL function.
b. CAN be manually tripped from the Control Room AND can be tripped locally. The main turbine automatic electric trips will NOT function.
c. CANNOT be manually tripped from the Control Room, but CAN be tripped locally. The main turbine automatic electric trips WILL function.
d. CANNOT be manually tripped from the Control Room, but CAN be tripped locally. The main turbine automatic electric trips will NOT function.

QUESTION: 37 The plant was operating at rated conditions when the main generator tripped on an NSST fault.

Ten minutes later the following alarm is received:

B-2/C-1, TG EXHAUST HOOD A TEMP HIGH A check of TGI-R-RECCST, CONTROLLED START TEMP, CH 9 - 1ST LP TURBINE EXHAUST, reveals the temperature is 195°F and rising slowly.

How does this condition impact the main turbine?

What operator action is required per alarm B-2/C-1?

a. The high pressure turbine could experience differential expansion and rubbing of the turbine blades on the casing.

If turbine is on turning gear, on HOOD SPRAY screen, TG EXHAUST HOOD A control, verify hood spray operation by verifying DEMAND is > 0%.

b. The high pressure turbine could experience differential expansion and rubbing of the turbine blades on the casing.

Lower condenser backpressure by opening AR-MO-150, VACUUM BREAKER.

c. The low pressure turbine could experience differential expansion and rubbing of the turbine blades on the casing.

If turbine is on turning gear, on HOOD SPRAY screen, TG EXHAUST HOOD A control, verify hood spray operation by verifying DEMAND is > 0%.

d. The low pressure turbine could experience differential expansion and rubbing of the turbine blades on the casing.

Lower condenser backpressure by opening AR-MO-150, VACUUM BREAKER.

QUESTION: 38 21750 How does a loss of Plant Air affect the operation of Secondary containment Isolation valves HV-259AV and HV-261AV, Reactor Building Vent Exhaust Inboard Isolation valves?

A loss of plant air

a. requires both valves to be closed manually if an auto close signal is received.
b. prevents the closing of HV-259AV with its control switch.
c. prevents the closing of HV-261AV from an automatic isolation signal.
d. requires accumulator air as a motive force for closing both valves.

QUESTION: 39 1063 Given the following conditions:

  • Recirculation Pump B has tripped.
  • RR-MO-53B, Recirculation Pump B discharge valve was closed and is now open.
  • LOOP B JET PUMP FLOW (FI-92B) indicates 2 Mlbm/hr.
  • LOOP A JET PUMP FLOW (FI-92A) indicates 35 Mlbm/hr.

What is the expected value for indicated Total Core Flow as indicated on Panel 9-5 Recorder DPR/FR-95 AND what is Actual Core Flow?

Indicated total Core Flow Actual core flow

a. 33 Mlbm/hr 33 Mlbm/hr
b. 33 Mlbm/hr 37 Mlbm/hr
c. 37 Mlbm/hr 33 Mlbm/hr
d. 37 Mlbm/hr 37 Mlbm/hr

QUESTION: 40 The plant was operating at full power with the Startup Station Transformer (SSST) de-energized for switchyard work. The plant experiences a reactor scram and the electrical systems operate per design. The crew enters Procedure 5.3EMPWR, EMERGENCY POWER DURING MODES 1, 2, OR 3. The crew misses performing step addressing the Main Condensate Pumps and they are in the configuration shown below.

The SSST is repowered. With no manipulation of the above switches, what is the status of the Main Condensate Pumps after the non-critical 4160V buses are re-energized?

a. There is no change to the pumps status as they remained operating throughout the transient.
b. The pump breakers all trip once their respective buses are repowered.
c. The pumps all start with the potential of water hammer damage in the system.
d. The pumps all start with the pumps running deadheaded.

QUESTION: 41 The plant is operating in Mode 1 in a normal system alignment when the control room operator reports that several RCIC MOVs have lost their indicating lights. What could be the cause of this condition?

a. 125VDC SWGR 1A Bus has a blown fuse which supplies the RCIC Starter Rack.
b. 125VDC SWGR 1B Bus has a blown fuse which supplies the RCIC Starter Rack.
c. 125V Charger 1A sustained a DC output over voltage.
d. 125V Charger 1B sustained a DC output over voltage.

QUESTION: 42 The plant is operating at 100% power when the main turbine trips.

What is the immediate reactor water level response to this condition?

a. RPV level rapidly lowers greater than 20 inches.
b. RPV level rapidly rises greater than 10 inches.
c. RPV level slowly lowers to 15 inches.
d. RPV level slowly rises to 54.5 inches.

QUESTION: 43 A reactor scram has just occurred. Procedure 2.1.5, Reactor Scram directs operating the instruments represented by the picture below. What sequence of operator actions are required per Procedures 4.1.1, SRMs and 4.1.2, IRMS?

a. Press POWER ON switch.

Press SRM A through D SELECT switches.

Press IRM A through H SELECT switches.

Press and hold DRIVE IN switch until IN lights all illuminated, then release.

b. Press SRM A through D SELECT switches.

Press IRM A through H SELECT switches.

Press and hold DRIVE IN switch until IN lights all illuminated, then release.

c. Press POWER ON switch.

Press SRM A through D SELECT switches.

Press IRM A through H SELECT switches.

Momentarily press DRIVE IN switch.

d. Press SRM A through D SELECT switches.

Press IRM A through H SELECT switches.

Press POWER ON switch.

Momentarily press DRIVE IN switch.

QUESTION: 44 What is the reason for manually tripping the main turbine during a control room abandonment event?

a. To cause the main turbine bypass valves to open and control RPV pressure throughout the event.
b. To take positive action to trip the turbine without relying on automatic trips.
c. To initiate a reactor scram and place the reactor in a low energy state.
d. To preclude RPV inventory overfill resulting in RFPT trips.

QUESTION: 45 10641 Following a LOCA, HPCI is maintaining RPV level and RHR loop B is in suppression pool cooling. The following annunciators now alarm:

  • M-1/A-1, REC SYSTEM LOW PRESSURE
  • M-1/A-3, REC SURGE TANK LOW LEVEL The crew performed the following per Procedure 5.2REC, Loss of REC:
  • Stopped all the operating REC pumps.
  • Closed REC-MO-709, DRYWELL RETURN ISOLATION.
  • Inspected the critical loops and found them intact.
  • Restarted REC Pump 1A.

The following plant and REC system conditions are now present:

  • REC critical loop supply pressures are 60 psig and oscillating.
  • Surge tank level is low out of sight and the level control valve is open.

What REC action is required per 5.2REC?

a. Stop REC pump 1A.
b. Split the critical loops.
c. Start two additional REC pumps.
d. Supply SW backup to REC critical loops.

QUESTION: 46 The plant is operating at power when a partial loss of instrument air occurs. The crew enters Emergency Procedure 5.2AIR, Loss of Instrument Air. The procedure directs the crew to enter Procedure 2.1.5, SCRAM, and close the MSIVs and drains. The procedure also directs the crew to ensure the preferred Standby Gas Treatment system is operating.

Why is the crew directed to ensure the preferred Standby Gas Treatment system is operating?

a. To provide dilution flow to the Elevated Release Point due to the Off-Gas dilution fan running deadheaded.
b. To ensure proper Reactor Building Quad room cooling due to room coolers temperature control valves failing closed.
c. To support Reactor Building Kaman operation due to the loss of building ventilation.
d. It is critical for HPCI operation when adequate core cooling is required.

QUESTION: 47 24838 The Plant is in Mode 4 with RCS temperature at 175°F

  • RHR Pump B is in service in SDC.
  • RHR Loop A is out of service for maintenance.
  • RWCU is in service with 1 pump and 2 filters.

RHR Pump B trips due to a motor failure.

What effect does this have on the RWCU system?

a. RWCU can now provide more core forced circulation inside the shroud.
b. The additional cooling in the downcomer precludes flashing in the RWCU suction.
c. The reactor heat removal rate in the regenerative heat exchanger becomes greater.
d. The reactor heat removal rate in the non-regenerative heat exchanger becomes greater.

QUESTION: 48 A refueling accident has occurred. What is the Standby Gas Treatment system relationship with this event?

a. The trains start when reactor building exhaust radiation levels reach predetermined levels and any subsequent radiation release is through the elevated release point.
b. The trains start when reactor building exhaust radiation levels reach predetermined levels and any subsequent radiation release is through the reactor building exhaust.
c. The trains remain idle and any radiation release is through the elevated release point.
d. The trains remain idle and any radiation release is through the reactor building exhaust.

QUESTION: 49 The plant is operating at rated conditions. A steam leak develops in the drywell. What effect does this have on containment? (Assume no operator actions are taken)

a. Drywell temperature rises and then steadies out when the torus to drywell vacuum breakers open.
b. Suppression pool water temperature continually rises as drywell temperature rises.
c. Torus pressure rises at a faster rate than the drywell because of its relatively smaller size.
d. Torus air space temperature equalizes with drywell temperature.

QUESTION: 50 The Plant is operating at 100% power when a DEH malfunction occurs, causing RPV Pressure to rise to 1122 psig. Assume Drywell Temperature is 100F and Torus pressure is 1.2 psig.

What is the expected SRV tailpipe temperature response of RV71C?

RV71Cs tailpipe temperature starts at approximately

a. 150F and rapidly rises to approximately 300F.
b. 150F and slowly rises to approximately 360F.
c. 220F and rapidly rises to approximately 300F.
d. 220F and rapidly rises to approximately 360F.

QUESTION: 51 5334 An Anticipated Transient Without Scram (ATWS) has occurred. Average Reactor Thermal Power is 15% AND Suppression Pool temperature is 96°F and rising 1°F every 5 minutes.

What is the MAXIMUM temperature the Suppression Pool temperature may reach before Boron injection is required?

a. 110°F.
b. 123°F.
c. 139°F
d. 140°F

QUESTION: 52 23331 A Loss of Coolant Accident has occurred with the following conditions:

  • Reactor pressure 200 psig (lowering slowly)
  • Torus pressure 5 psig (rising slowly)
  • Drywell temperature 400° F (all points) (steady)

RPV water level can no longer be determined.

What action is performed next and why?

a. Spray the Drywell to lower primary containment pressure.
b. Spray the torus to lower primary containment temperature.
c. Flood the RPV because fuel submergence cannot be assured.
d. Flood the RPV because minimum steam cooling pressure is not met.

QUESTION: 53 23333 A LOCA has occurred with the following conditions:

  • RHR Pump C is the only low pressure ECCS pump available.
  • Maximum injection is required
  • Current RHR flow rate 7000 gpm
  • Torus pressure 9.57 psig (stable)
  • Torus average water temp 185°F (rising slowly)

The CRS directs that NPSH and Vortex requirements be complied with.

What action is required for RHR Pump C and why?

a. Lower flow to 6000 gpm because of NPSH limits.
b. Lower flow to 6000 gpm because of Vortex limits.
c. Raise flow to 7700 gpm as allowed by Vortex limits.
d. Raise flow to 8600 gpm as allowed by NPSH limits.

QUESTION: 54 Given the following conditions:

  • The plant has experienced a LOCA.
  • CRD is the only system injecting into the RPV.
  • RPV pressure is stable at 900 psig utilizing SRVs.
  • RPV water level has stabilized at -156 inches (Corrected Fuel Zone).

What is the status of core cooling?

a. Adequate core cooling does NOT exist because the core is uncovered.
b. The core is covered so adequate core cooling exists.
c. The core is adequately cooled because Minimum Steam Cooling Pressure conditions exist.
d. Steam cooling is providing adequate core cooling at this RPV level.

QUESTION: 55 The plant is operating at 100% power when the following occur:

  • Very little rod motion on the scram.
  • The crew initiates ARI.
  • Both RR pumps are tripped.

Current plant conditions are:

  • Reactor power 15% (stable)
  • Reactor Pressure 935 psig (stable)
  • Reactor water level +13"(NR) (stable)

The CRS orders RPV injection stopped and prevented.

Why is stop and prevent injection ordered at this time?

a. To lower reactor water level which mitigates the consequences of thermal-hydraulic instabilities.
b. To prevent uncontrolled injection of large amounts of cold unborated water and fuel damage due to overpower conditions.
c. To prevent injection from sources inside the shroud which cause large power excursions and fuel damage.
d. To raise the subcooling of the cold unborated feedwater injection which lowers reactor power and heat addition to containment.

QUESTION: 56 19785 During the execution of EOP 5A, RADIOACTIVITY RELEASE CONTROL, the CRS directs Emergency Depressurization (ED) to be performed.

What is the basis for Emergency Depressurizing while performing EOP 5A, Radioactive Release Control actions?

a. ED ensures the availability of equipment in the turbine building, which is necessary to mitigate the event, is not challenged.
b. ED ensures the energy level of the radiation and the atmospheric dispersion factors fall within the bounds of the accident analysis.
c. ED ensures the isotopic mixture of radioactive materials deposited off-site will be within the bounds of the EPA Protective Action Guides.
d. ED ensures the lowest possible driving head and flow of primary systems that are discharging outside of containment.

QUESTION: 57 An active electrical fire has been automatically extinguished in the Service Water Pump room.

What class of fire existed and what are the potential hazard(s) associated with entering the Service Water Pump room?

a. Class D fire and the hazard is electrocution due to water deluge discharge.
b. Class C fire and the hazard is electrocution due to water deluge discharge.
c. Class C fire and the hazards are physical symptoms such as dizziness, headache, and confusion due to Halon discharge.
d. Class D fire and the hazards are physical symptoms such as dizziness, headache, and confusion due to Halon discharge.

QUESTION: 58 The plant is operating at 96% power and grid disturbances cause both 4160V 1F and 1G bus voltages to oscillate as follows:

TIME RESPONSE OF Bus 1F & 1G 0800 Dips to 3950V for 7 seconds.

0804 Dips to 3950V for 12 seconds.

0810 Dips to 3850V for 7 seconds.

0813 Dips to 3850V for 12 seconds.

What EOP(s) require entry and what time is the entry required?

a. EOP 1A only at 0800.
b. EOPs 1A and 3A at 0804.
c. EOPs 1A and 3A at 0810.
d. EOP 1A only at 0813.

QUESTION: 59 16653 A plant shutdown is in progress. With the Reactor operating at 19% power (main turbine still on the line), the BOP operator notices that steam pressure to the Steam Jet Air Ejectors is lowering rapidly and subsequently determines that opening the SJAE steam supply bypass valves does not correct the problem.

The crew enters Abnormal Procedure 2.4VAC, LOSS OF CONDENSER VACUUM and vacuum is now 22Hg.

What immediate action(s) is/are required?

a. Perform Rapid Power Reduction per Procedure 2.1.10.
b. Place Mechanical Vacuum Pumps in service per Procedure 2.2.55.
c. Scram the Reactor, then trip the Main Turbine per Procedure 2.1.5.
d. Trip the Main Turbine and enter Procedure 2.2.77.

QUESTION: 60 5425 The plant has been operating at 100% power for the past 90 days following a refueling outage, when the following events occur:

  • An MSIV isolation occurs for unknown reasons.
  • The Reactor is shutdown.
  • RPV Pressure rises to 1090 psig, then lowers to 875 psig.
  • 20 minutes later, pressure is cycling between 990 AND 825 psig.

Which of the following statements describes the status of Low Low Set (LLS)?

a. Neither LLS valve is controlling pressure within its designed range.
b. LLS is correctly controlling pressure with SRV F. SRV D is NOT responding as designed.
c. LLS is correctly controlling pressure with SRV D. SRV F is NOT responding as designed.
d. LLS is correctly controlling pressure with BOTH LLS valves.

QUESTION: 61 The plant is operating at power when RPV level begins to rise. As water level rises, what are the potential consequences to the plant if automatic actions do NOT take place?

a. An elevated water level results in cooler water entering the downcomer causing a significant effect on available NPSH for the RR Pumps.
b. An elevated water level results in a higher water level in the downcomer causing a significant effect on available NPSH for the RR Pumps.
c. RPV level being high enough that moisture carryover causes steam quality to lower and damage to steam driven turbines.
d. RPV level being high enough that moisture carryover causes steam quality to rise and damage to steam driven turbines.

QUESTION: 62 A leak has developed in the drywell. What MINIMUM drywell pressure will cause an automatic reactor scram?

a. 0.6 psig
b. 1.5 psig
c. 1.84 psig
d. 2.0 psig

QUESTION: 63 Power has been raised to 90% after a control rod swap evolution. The control room operator notices SJAE Radiation monitor indication slowly rising. Annunciator 9-4-1/C-4, OFFGAS TIMER INITIATED, alarms 15 minutes later. The CRS enters Procedures 5.2FUEL, FUEL FAILURE and 2.4OG,OFF-GAS ABNORMAL.

What is the appropriate operator action per procedure(s) and why?

a. Scram the reactor and place OFFGAS TIMER switch to CLOSE to contain the radiation release.
b. Lower reactor power to lower the radiation release.
c. Scram the reactor to lower the fission product gap release and lower the radiation release.
d. Lower reactor power and close the MSIVs to contain the radiation release.

QUESTION: 64 24586 Following a LOCA and SCRAM the following conditions are noted:

  • HPCI high suppression pool water level suction transfer logic is defeated per 5.8.20.
  • HPCI is injecting at 4000 gpm with suction from the ECST.
  • Reactor pressure is 650 psig.
  • Reactor water level is -155 inches (corrected FZ) and steady.
  • Drywell temperature is 185°F and rising slowly.
  • Drywell pressure is 4.0 psig and rising slowly.
  • Torus pressure is 2.6 psig and rising slowly.
  • Suppression pool temperature is 120°F and steady.

What action is required?

a. Initiate drywell sprays.
b. Emergency depressurize.
c. Align HPCI suction to the Suppression Pool.
d. Vent primary containment with drywell vent line.

QUESTION: 65 The Reactor Building HVAC is in a normal lineup. Outside temperature is 70°F and winds are steady at 5 miles per hour. The running Reactor Building exhaust fan vortex damper closes.

Per Panel R Annunciator R-2 alarm procedure, when does the Reactor Building exhaust and supply fans trip for the present conditions?

a. Immediately with Reactor Building pressure at -0.45 wg or more negative.
b. After a 45 second time delay with Reactor Building pressure at -0.45 wg or more negative.
c. Immediately with Reactor Building pressure at -0.15 wg or less negative.
d. After a 45 second time delay with Reactor Building pressure at -0.15 wg or less negative.

QUESTION: 66 16476 An RO left shift work on 6/3. The RO worked all scheduled workdays this year as BOP until leaving shift. Since leaving shift, the RO performed the following shifts as the BOP:

  • 7/19 worked 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />
  • 8/18 worked 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />
  • 8/30 worked 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />
  • 9/10 worked 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> What is this operator's license status on 9/11?
a. License is active and only stays active with another 12-hour shift before 10/1.
b. License is active and only stays active with another 12-hour shift before 11/1.
c. License became inactive on 6/30.
d. License became inactive on 7/31.

QUESTION: 67 The plant is operating at power when an unexpected alarm is received.

What information is to be relayed to control room supervision concerning the alarm, according to Procedure 2.3.1, GENERAL ALARM PROCEDURE? (Assume the alarm is a valid alarm)

a. Read or paraphrase the annunciator descriptor only.
b. Report alarm card automatic actions and any referenced TS/TRM/ODAM.
c. Read or paraphrase the annunciator descriptor and any referenced TS/TRM/ODAM.
d. Report the alarm as an unexpected alarm only.

QUESTION: 68 Refueling operations are taking place per Procedure 10.25.1, REFUELING-CORE REFUELING SUPPORT OPERATIONS. A control rod is withdrawn and a bypass jumper for refueling interlocks is installed for the RPIS probe buffer card of the withdrawn control rod.

What indication is available to inform the At the Controls operator the control rods refueling interlocks are bypassed?

a. The Panel 9-5 Full Core Display FULL IN indicating light illuminates and the FULL OUT indicating light extinguishes.
b. The Panel 9-5 Full Core Display FULL IN indicating light extinguishes and the FULL OUT indicating light illuminates.
c. Both Panel 9-5 Full Core Display FULL IN and FULL OUT indicating lights extinguish.
d. Both Panel 9-5 Full Core Display FULL IN and FULL OUT indicating lights illuminate.

QUESTION: 69 16466 During a reactor startup and heatup after a refueling outage, reactor period was infinity after withdrawing a control rod. The following conditions are present with NO control rod movement for the last two (2) minutes:

  • The reactor is on range 5 of the IRMs (rising)
  • Reactor period is +120 seconds (getting shorter)

What action is required?

a. Insert a manual scram.
b. Range IRMs as necessary to keep them on scale until the Point of Adding Heat (POAH) is reached.
c. Fully insert control rods per the Emergency Power Reduction section of NPP 10.13 until the reactor is subcritical.
d. Wait and see if reactor period shortens to under 50 seconds, then insert the last withdrawn control rod until period is longer than 50 seconds.

QUESTION: 70 The SE Quad fan coil unit is having its belts replaced by maintenance personnel.

Does the Core Spray subsystem have to be declared inoperable? Why or why not?

a. No; support equipment does not need to be maintained in an operable status to maintain the TS Required Equipment Operable.
b. No; if maintenance can return the support system to a functional state, then the TS required equipment can remain Operable.
c. Yes; any work on a support system that is associated with a Technical Specification piece of equipment affects the operability of that system.
d. Yes; the Tech Spec for the SE Quad fan coil unit states that the associated Core Spray System must be declared inoperable.

QUESTION: 71 The plant is operating at power when a leak in the Reactor Building causes a building high radiation alarm. The Rx Bldg HVAC isolates on a valid high radiation signal and 10 minutes later the Reactor Building Vent radiation monitors are all reading 5 mR/hr and steady.

What does EOP 5A, Secondary Containment Control require for building ventilation control?

a. Verify the HVAC isolation valves all closed and then start Standby Gas Treatment system.
b. Install EOP PTMs to override the high radiation signal and then restart Rx Bldg HVAC.
c. Restart the Rx Bldg HVAC and leave Standby Gas Treatment system operating.
d. Verify the radiation levels and then restart Rx Bldg HVAC.

QUESTION: 72 One of the rooms in the Reactor Building contains an area in which a person could receive a deep dose equivalent (DDE) of 1250 mR/hr.

Why is the entrance required to be posted as a Locked High Radiation Area?

a. To preclude 10CFR100, REACTOR SITE CRITERIA, radiation limits from being exceeded.
b. To preclude 10CFR20, STANDARDS FOR PROTECTION AGAINST RADIATION, radiation limits from being exceeded.
c. To ensure CNS Planned Special Exposure (PSE) limits are not exceeded during an accident.
d. To ensure dose to the control room personnel does not exceed federal limits during a fuel handling accident.

QUESTION: 73 5923 What is the basis for requiring boron injection before the Boron Injection Initiation Temperature (BIIT) (Graph 8) is exceeded?

a. Ensures Hot Shutdown Boron weight is injected into the RPV before the Primary Containment Pressure Limit (Graph 11) is exceeded.
b. Ensures Cold Shutdown Boron weight is injected into the RPV before the Heat Capacity Temperature Limit (Graph 7) is exceeded.
c. Ensures Cold Shutdown Boron weight is injected into the RPV before the Primary Containment Pressure Limit (Graph 11) is exceeded.
d. Ensures Hot Shutdown Boron weight is injected into the RPV before the Heat Capacity Temperature Limit (Graph 7) is exceeded.

QUESTION: 74 During EOP actions, the order is given to Stop and Prevent all injection into the RPV. What priority is given when performing the order and why?

Priority is given to the

a. systems that are injecting or about to inject because the objective is to lower RPV water level or prevent a power excursion.
b. systems that are injecting or about to inject because RPV level control would be more difficult in the given level band.
c. highest capacity systems because a rapid cooldown could exceed procedural cooldown rate limitations.
d. low pressure systems because they can rapidly be secured with an individual control switch.

QUESTION: 75 A fire has been confirmed in the Turbine Building. The CRS has entered Procedure 5.1INCIDENT, SITE EMERGENCY INCIDENT. As the control room operator you are directed to announce the fire to station personnel. What are your actions for these conditions?

Sound the Fire Alarm Pulse Tone for ten (10) seconds and direct the

a. Fire Brigade and Utility Fire Brigade to a specific fire locker designated by the control room operator and the Turbine Building NLO to the scene of the fire.
b. Fire Brigade to a specific fire locker designated by the control room operator and the Utility Fire Brigade and Fire Brigade Leader to the location of the fire.
c. Fire Brigade and Utility Fire Brigade to an exterior entrance closest to the fire and the Incident Commander to the scene of the fire.
d. Fire Brigade to a specific fire locker designated by the control room operator; the Utility Fire Brigade to an exterior entrance closest to the fire and the Turbine Building NLO to the scene of the fire.

QUESTION: S 1 76 Due to a leak in the suppression pool the reactor is scrammed and the following conditions are present:

  • Suppression pool is 4.5 feet and lowering 0.1 ft every 5 minutes.
  • CS Pump A is injecting and controlling RPV level steady at +10 inches.

Five minutes later, CS Pump A indicated flow and discharge pressure start oscillating full scale of their instruments.

What is the consequence of continuing with the given conditions?

What procedure guidance is used to mitigate the consequence?

a. CS Pump A is becoming air bound.

EOP 1A directs the use of Main Condensate to maintain RPV level.

b. CS Pump A vortex limits are being exceeded.

EOP 1A directs the use of HPCI to maintain RPV level.

c. CS Pump A is becoming air bound.

EOP 1A directs the use of HPCI to maintain RPV level.

d. CS Pump A vortex limits are being exceeded.

EOP 1A directs the use of Main Condensate to maintain RPV level.

QUESTION: S 2 77 The RO reports that SRM B detector will not withdraw and alarm 9-5-1/F-7, SRM UPSCALE/INOP, has been received for the SRM. Per alarm card guidance SRM B has been bypassed on Panel 9-5. Troubleshooting activities have determined the detector drive cannot be repaired in a timely manner.

What actions are required to mitigate this condition?

What procedure provides the guidance?

The SRM B drawer supply fuses are removed after the

a. Reactor MODE switch is in RUN.

Procedure 2.1.1, STARTUP.

b. Reactor MODE switch is in RUN.

Procedure 4.1.1, SRM System.

c. IRMs are on Range 3 or above.

Procedure 2.1.1, STARTUP.

d. IRMs are on Range 3 or above.

Procedure 4.1.1, SRM System.

QUESTION: S 3 78 12514 The plant was operating at rated power when the following conditions occur:

  • Unisolable leak develop in the Torus.
  • Average torus water temperature is 118ºF (rising slowly)
  • Reactor water level is +17 inches (NR) (stable)
  • Reactor pressure is 820 psig (lowering slowly)
  • Drywell pressure is 14 psig (rising slowly)
  • Torus pressure is 11 psig (rising slowly)

Which of the following actions is required at this time?

Control RPV level in accordance with EOP 1A Level leg and

a. exit EOP 1A Pressure Leg and transition to EOP 2A and place 6 SRV control switches to open.
b. remain in EOP 1A Pressure Leg and establish a cooldown < 100°F per hour using SRVs and RCIC.
c. exit EOP 1A Pressure Leg and transition to EOP 2A and Alternate emergency depressurize the RPV with HPCI.
d. exit EOP 1A Pressure Leg and transition to EOP 2A and Alternate emergency depressurize the RPV with the Main Steam Line drain valves.

QUESTION: S 4 79 Control rod withdrawal is being performed and reactor power is 4%. The Panel 9-5 Full Core Display indicating lights all go out. One minute later a control rod drop event occurs which causes LPRM upscale alarms to be received for LPRMs 28-21, 20-21 and 28-13.

What procedures must the CRS enter to mitigate the transient and what operator actions are required?

Enter Procedures

a. 2.4RPIS and 2.4RXPWR and select the control rod and insert it using the emergency-in switch.
b. 5.3NBPP and 2.4CRD and select the control rod and insert it using the emergency-in switch.
c. 2.4RPIS and 2.4RXPWR and scram the reactor.
d. 5.3NBPP and 2.4CRD and scram the reactor.

QUESTION: S 6 81 The plant is operating at 85% power with the following conditions:

  • Steady state conditions have been established.
  • Actual Reactor water level is 35 inches.
  • Channel A Narrow Range detector equalizing valve leaks through causing it to indicate 42 inches.

How does actual RPV level respond?

What procedure guidance corrects this problem?

a. RPV level rises to 37 inches.

Bypass the Channel A Narrow Range instrument input into the RVLCS per Procedure 4.4.1, REACTOR VESSEL LEVEL CONTROL SYSTEM.

b. RPV level lowers to 33 inches.

Bypass the Channel A Narrow Range instrument input into the RVLCS per Procedure 4.4.1, REACTOR VESSEL LEVEL CONTROL SYSTEM.

c. RPV level rises to 37 inches.

Place the MASTER LEVEL controller into MAN per Abnormal Procedure 2.4RXLVL.

d. RPV level lowers to 33 inches.

Place the MASTER LEVEL controller into MAN per Abnormal Procedure 2.4RXLVL.

QUESTION: S 7 82 The plant is at rated conditions and NBI-LI-92, STEAM NOZZLE LEVEL, is indicating upscale and all other control room level instrumentation are indicating normal.

What are the required Technical Specification actions?

Declare NBI-LI-92 inoperable and

a. be in MODE 3 in 12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />.
b. restore the channel to an operable status in 7 days.
c. immediately initiate action to submit a report within the following 14 days.
d. restore the channel to an OPERABLE status in 30 days.

QUESTION: S 8 83 The plant is operating at rated conditions and SP 6.CRD.301, WITHDRAWN CONTROL ROD OPERABILITY IST TEST is ongoing. A control rod is selected but has not yet been moved.

The following alarms are received:

  • 9-5-1/A-4, ROD WITHDRAWAL BLOCK
  • 9-5-1/E-4, RBM DOWNSCALE The RO reports the following:
  • Reactor power lowered abruptly by 5% for reasons unknown
  • Core flow rose by 0.5 mlbm/hr
  • Rod line dropped by 6%.
  • RR suction temperatures changed very little.

What condition do the indications suggest is present?

What mitigating guidance is required?

a. Shroud cracking above the top guide.

Lower RR flow until rod line recovers and insert control rods until the 80% rod line is reached.

b. Shroud cracking between top guide and core plate.

Lower RR flow until rod line recovers and insert control rods until <70% rod line.

c. Shroud cracking above the top guide.

Lower RR flow until core pressure drop is approximately 4.8 psid and insert control rods until <70% rod line.

d. Shroud cracking between top guide and core plate.

Lower RR flow until core pressure drop is approximately 4.8 psid and insert control rods until the 80% rod line is reached.

QUESTION: S 9 84 The plant is operating at 104% rod line and 69% power when the RR Pump A trips. The RO reports reactor power has lowered to 55%.

What procedure is required to be entered, and what condition is indicative of thermal neutron instabilities?

a. Procedure 2.4RXPWR, REACTOR POWER ANOMALIES, and LPRM upscale or downscale indications alarming and clearing with an annunciation period of 10 seconds.
b. Procedure 2.4RR, REACTOR RECIRCULATION ABNORMAL, and LPRM upscale or downscale indications alarming and clearing with an annunciation period of 10 seconds.
c. Procedure 2.4RXPWR, REACTOR POWER ANOMALIES, and SRM period positive to negative SRM period swings with a fluctuation time of 2 seconds.
d. Procedure 2.4RR, REACTOR RECIRCULATION ABNORMAL, and SRM period positive to negative SRM period swings with a fluctuation time of 2 seconds.

QUESTION: S 10 85 The plant is at 65% power steady state. The following occur:

  • B-2/B-3, GEN HYDROGEN TO COOLER HIGH TEMP
  • B-2/F-5, GENERATOR END TURN VIB HIGH
  • TGI-TR-100, TRANSFORMER TEMP, Channels 21-24,Warm Gas H2 Cooler In, are indicating 185°F and rising 1°F every 3 minutes.
  • TGI-VBR-GEN, GENERATOR END TURN VIBRATION, Channel 12 is indicating 15 mils and is steady.

What action is required?

What procedure directs the action?

a. Lower reactor power to maintain the warm gas 194°F.

Procedure 2.4GEN-H2.

b. Trip the turbine generator due high warm gas temperatures.

Procedure 2.4TURB.

c. Lower power to maintain vibrations < 14 mils.

Procedure 2.4GEN-H2.

d. Trip the turbine generator due to high end turn vibrations.

Procedure 2.4TURB.

QUESTION: S 11 86 The plant is shutdown with RHR Loop A operating in shutdown cooling. The following conditions exist:

  • RHR Pump A is operating.
  • Both RR pumps are secured.
  • RHR Loop B is in a standby alignment.
  • RHR Pump C supply breaker is de-energized for maintenance.

On October 6 at 0815, an electrical perturbation causes RHR Pump A and Service Water Pump A to trip.

What is the MAXIMUM time allowed before reactor coolant must be 212°F or less?

a. October 6 at 2015.
b. October 6 at 2215.
c. October 7 at 0815.
d. October 7 at 1015.

QUESTION: S 12 87 21304 An accident occurred. All control rods fully inserted and the following conditions exist:

  • Both CRD pumps are injecting.
  • Reactor pressure is 800 psig (stable).
  • Drywell pressure is 24 psig (rising slowly).
  • Torus pressure is 23 psig (rising slowly).
  • Drywell temperature is 230°F (stable).
  • Suppression Pool temperature is 210°F (rising slowly).
  • Reactor water level is -168 inches (FZ) indicated (steady).

The CRS must

a. direct the control room operator to initiate a < 100°F/hr cooldown.
b. exit EOP-1A pressure leg and Emergency Depressurize per EOP-2A.
c. direct the control room operator to rapidly depressurize the RPV using the main turbine bypass valves.
d. exit EOP-1A and enter SAG-1.

QUESTION: S 14 89 The following conditions exist:

  • Reactor is at 50% power.
  • Drywell Pressure is 0.45 psig and slowly lowering
  • Torus Pressure is 0.35 psig and slowly lowering
  • Suppression Pool level is 9.8 feet and lowering 0.1ft/min.

As Suppression Pool Water Level lowers, what is the expected Torus to Drywell differential pressure change in magnitude and what action(s) is/are required actions based on that differential pressure?

a. D/p magnitude gets larger (greater than 0.1 psid) until it abruptly lowers to 0 psid and remains there. Vent the Drywell per Emergency Procedure 5.8.17, PRIMARY CONTAINMENT VENTING.
b. D/p magnitude gets smaller (less than 0.1 psid) even going through 0 psid eventually and repressurizing (i.e. getting larger). Scram and Enter EOP 1A and Emergency Depressurize the Vessel per EOP 2A.
c. D/p magnitude gets larger (greater than 0.1 psid) until it abruptly lowers to 0 psid and remains there. Scram and Enter EOP 1A and Emergency Depressurize the Vessel per EOP 2A.
d. D/p magnitude gets smaller (less than 0.1 psid) even going through 0 psid eventually and repressurizing (i.e. getting larger). Vent the Drywell per Emergency Procedure 5.8.17, PRIMARY CONTAINMENT VENTING.

QUESTION: S 15 90 A radiation release event has occurred. A field survey at 1.2 miles from the reactor building and on NPPD property has revealed the following:

  • Thyroid CDE is 600 mR for 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> of inhalation.

What is the highest EAL?

Is the location of the survey inside the site boundary or beyond the site boundary?

HIGHEST EAL INSIDE SITE BOUNDARY OR BEYOND

a. ALERT INSIDE Site Boundary
b. ALERT BEYOND Site Boundary
c. SAE INSIDE Site Boundary
d. SAE BEYOND Site Boundary

QUESTION: S 16 91 The plant is starting up and control rods are being withdrawn to bring the reactor critical. The CRD system filter begins to plug, RPV level lowers until annunciator 9-5-2/G-1, REACTOR LOW WATER LEVEL sounds.

What operator action must be taken next, and what procedure is providing the guidance?

a. Shift CRD FCVs per Procedure 2.4CRD.
b. Start idle CRD pump per Procedure 2.4CRD.
c. Lower RWCU blowdown flow per Procedure 2.2.66.
d. Raise RWCU blowdown flow per Procedure 2.2.66.

QUESTION: S 17 92 The plant is operating at rated conditions. The NLO is responding to an A-3 feedwater heater high level condition when the following alarm/CRT messages are received:

A-2/C-4, HEATER LOW LEVEL Alarm CRT indicates Heaters A-3 and A-2 are in a low level condition.

The BOP operator updates the crew that feedwater temperature has lowered by 13°F. The RO has lowered reactor power to 2419 MWth.

How much must the NLO raise feedwater temperature and what is the MAXIMUM time allowed to complete the task?

The NLO raise the feedwater heater level to raise feedwater temperature by

a. 2°F within the next 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />.
b. 4°F within the next 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.
c. 2°F within the next 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.
d. 4°F within the next 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />

QUESTION: S 18 93 A LOCA is occurring with fuel being uncovered and RPV water level is -190 inches (CFZ) and cannot be raised. EOPs 1A, 2A, 3A and 5A are being performed to respond to the event. The following parameters are noted:

  • Drywell High Range Rad Monitors are reading 2.70E3 R/hr.

How are abnormal/emergency operating procedures used in conjunction with EOPs at this time?

a. Continue to perform actions in EOP 1A, 2A, 3A and 5A and enter 5.9H2O2 to reduce the hydrogen concentration in Primary Containment.
b. Exit all EOPs and enter the Severe Accident Guidelines along with 5.9H2O2 to reduce the hydrogen concentration in Primary Containment.
c. Exit all EOPs and enter the SAGs along with SOP 2.2.60.1, CONTAINMENT H2/O2 MONITORING SYSTEM to purge Primary Containment.
d. Exit EOP 1A and 2A only and continue actions for Hydrogen in the Containment per EOP 3A along with EOP 5A to control the Radioactive Release and enter the Severe Accident Guidelines.

QUESTION: S 19 94 3934 Given the following conditions:

  • The plant entered a 14 day LCO at 0900 on Sunday 6/22.
  • An I&C Tech assigned for repairs has worked 10 hour1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br /> consecutive day shifts starting on 6/22.
  • Work is almost complete at the end of the 10 hour1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br /> day shift on 6/30
  • The I&C Tech states one more full 10 hour1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br /> day shift will be required to complete the task.

(Assume the I&C Tech has worked 40 hour4.62963e-4 days <br />0.0111 hours <br />6.613757e-5 weeks <br />1.522e-5 months <br /> work weeks the previous 5 weeks).

Can the same I&C Tech perform the task on the next day?

What procedure controls the decision for completing the work?

a. Yes, if a working hour waiver and fatigue assessment forms are approved.

Procedure 0.12, WORKING HOURS LIMITATIONS AND PERSONNEL FATIGUE MANAGEMENT.

b. Yes, if a working hour waiver and fatigue assessment forms are approved.

Procedure 0-FFD-01, NPG FITNESS FOR DUTY PROGRAM AND BEHAVIOR OBSERVATION PROGRAM.

c. No, a waiver is NOT allowed and another I&C Tech must complete the task.

Procedure 0.12, WORKING HOURS LIMITATIONS AND PERSONNEL FATIGUE MANAGEMENT.

d. No, a waiver is NOT allowed and another I&C Tech must complete the task.

Procedure 0-FFD-01, NPG FITNESS FOR DUTY PROGRAM AND BEHAVIOR OBSERVATION PROGRAM.

QUESTION: S 20 95 It has just been discovered that a Surveillance with an 18 Month Frequency was missed last refueling outage four months ago. There are no indications of any problems with the related equipment.

Is the equipment OPERABLE? Why or why not?

a. YES. A Surveillance Requirement may be missed one time within a cycle, as long as it is done at the next scheduled time plus 25% at the latest.
b. YES. Up to 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> or up to the limit of the specified Frequency, which ever is greater, may be taken to perform the missed Surveillance Requirement.
c. NO. The affected equipment was inoperable four months ago when the Surveillance Requirement was missed.
d. NO. The affected equipment is immediately inoperable at the time it is known that the Surveillance Requirement was not performed within the required frequency.

QUESTION: S 21 96 26179 The plant is in MODE 5, activities are planned on the Inventory Control Systems affecting that Key Safety Function. A contingency plan is required for those activities before they can begin.

The following concerns were raised:

  • Current approach has identifiable short comings that often result in this undesirable event occurring.
  • The loss of several key safety functions with recovery unable to be accomplished and potential entry into EAL level is highly likely but there are no alternatives.

What is the level of risk and what action must be in place before work is to begin?

a. MEDIUM; Key stakeholders are made aware that an issue could arise during the outage.
b. MEDIUM; Tag-outs in place, supplemental equipment installed, and compensatory measures in place.
c. HIGH; Key stakeholders are made aware that an issue could arise during the outage.
d. HIGH; Tag-outs in place, supplemental equipment installed, and compensatory measures in place.

QUESTION: S 22 97 Due to an accident the OSC has put together a team to protect valuable NPPD property. The task will take 1.2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> to complete and the expected dose for the task is 9 rem for each worker.

What preferred survey instrument(s) must the individuals have to do the work and what is the procedure that directs this requirement?

a. A low range portable survey instrument, 0 to 10 rem/hr.

EPIP Procedure 5.7.12, EMERGENCY RADIATION EXPOSURE CONTROL.

b. A low range portable survey instrument, 0 to 10 rem/hr.

EPIP Procedure 5.7.15, OSC TEAM DISPATCH.

c. A high range portable survey instrument, 0 to 1000 rem/hr is preferred and a low range portable survey instrument, 0 to 50 rem/hr should be available.

EPIP Procedure 5.7.12, EMERGENCY RADIATION EXPOSURE CONTROL.

d. A high range portable survey instrument, 0 to 1000 rem/hr is preferred and a low range portable survey instrument, 0 to 50 rem/hr should be available.

EPIP Procedure 5.7.15, OSC TEAM DISPATCH.

QUESTION: S 23 98 20526 The plant is operating at low power with 2 Circulating Water pumps running. De-icing is in progress. The Radwaste Operator indicates that the Floor Drain Sample Tank requires discharging.

1) Whose approvals/authorizations is/are required in order to accomplish this discharge?
2) What action is required and why if one of the two operating circulating water pumps trip during the discharge?
a. 1) Chemistry department authorizes the release and the duty Shift Manager approves the release.
2) Continue the discharge at a lower rate as sufficient dilution flow exists.
b. 1) Duty Shift Manager authorizes and approves the release.
2) Continue the discharge at a lower rate as sufficient dilution flow exists.
c. 1) Chemistry department authorizes the release and the duty Shift Manager approves the release.
2) Terminate the discharge as insufficient dilution flow exists.
d. 1) Duty Shift Manager authorizes and approves the release.
2) Terminate the discharge as insufficient dilution flow exists.

QUESTION: S 24 99 21807 During the execution of EOPs during an ATWS, water level indication is lost and flooding is entered. Maintenance restores water level indication and the TSC notifies the control room that water level indication is restored.

What action is required?

a. Exit EOP-7B. Enter EOP-1A and restore water level +3 inches to +54 inches per level leg and maintain the reactor depressurized per the pressure leg.
b. Exit EOP-7B. Enter EOP-7A and control level -183 inches FZ to +54 inches with outside shroud injection and Enter EOP-6A and maintain the reactor depressurized.
c. Enter EOP-7A and control level -183 inches FZ to +54 inches with outside shroud injection and continue actions in EOP-7B to maintain the reactor depressurized.
d. Enter EOP-1A and maintain the reactor depressurized in the pressure leg. Enter EOP-7A and control level -183 inches FZ to +54 inches with outside shroud injection.

QUESTION: S 25 100 The plant is operating at 85% power and making plans to raise power to 100% per the load schedule. At 1250, PMIS fails and the IT department reports it will take one hour to being it back. At 1300, the following annunciator is received:

A-1/F-1, ANNUNCIATOR SYSTEM FAILURE The BOP reports that both lamps on the annunciator are illuminated. Maintenance is contacted and at 1305 report the annunciator problem will be repaired in 30 minutes.

What the HIGHEST EAL that is required and what is the MAXIMUM TIME allowed to make the declaration?

The Shift Manager must declare

a. a NOUE no later than 1320.
b. a NOUE no later than 1330.
c. an ALERT no later than 1320.
d. an ALERT no later than 1330.

SRO WRITTEN EXAM HANDOUT TABLE OF CONTENTS

1. EAL Matrix Categories:
  • Category A
  • Category S
  • Category F
  • Notes Table
2. EOP/SAG Graphs and Notes:
  • EOP NOTE 3, Graph 3 and Graph 5 (NPSH Limits)
  • EOP Graph 4 (Vortex Limits)
  • EOP Graph 7 (Heat Capacity Temperature Limit)
  • EOP Graph 8 (Boron Injection Initiation Temperature)
  • EOP Graph 10 (Pressure Suppression Pressure) (Not needed)*
3. TS LCO 3.3.3.1 and Table 3.3.3.1-1
4. TS LCO 3.4.7 and 3.4.8 (Not needed)*
5. Abnormal Procedure 2.4RXPWR, Attachment 3.
6. Procedure 0.50.5, Attachment 2
  • Any labeled Not needed are extras that are not required to answer any question on the exam.

ATTACHMENT 3 ENGINEERING GUIDANCE FOR EVALUATING CORE SHROUD CRACKING CRACK LOCATION BETWEEN TOP ABOVE TOP GUIDE AND CORE BELOW CORE PARAMETER GUIDE PLATE PLATE Abrupt drop could Abrupt drop up to 6% Drop up to 10%

REACTOR POWER exceed 20% rated rated power. rated power.

power.

INDICATED CORE Rises or remains May not change May rise.

FLOW constant. significantly.

Bigger drop with Bigger drop with Bigger drop with ROD LINE rising core flow. rising core flow. rising core flow.

CORE INLET Lowers. N/A N/A SUBCOOLING

  • Rise above normal No significant rise.

RR SUCTION for existing power Rises as expected for N/A TEMP.

level. the power drop.

Lowers by 1/3 of CORE PLATE P N/A N/A normal.

Abnormal RR FLOW TO relationships of RR TOTAL CORE N/A N/A pump flow to core FLOW RATIO flow and core power to core flow.

  • If crack on one side of shroud only, RR Suction Temp. in loop nearest crack separation will rise above other RR loop.

ATTACHMENT 2 SHUTDOWN SAFETY CONTINGENCY PLANS GUIDE14

1. Complete Contingency Plan Form (Attachment 4) by performing the following:

1.1 Describe the purpose of contingency plan.

1.2 Provide closure criteria for contingency plan.

1.3 Provide Graded Approach Contingency Plan grade. Determine grading using Graded Approach information of this attachment. Include a grading basis with grade.

1.4 A list of all work activities covered by the plan.

1.5 A point of contact for each shift responsible for implementing the actions.

1.6 Identify any time critical limits for implementation contingency plan, such as half time to boil, etc.15 1.7 Provide a time estimate for implementing contingency plan.15 1.8 Identify any temporary equipment, temporary power, or special tools needed to support the contingency plan.

1.9 Identify any pre-activation training or document reviews needed to support the contingency plan. Consider the following items:

1.9.1 Need for just-in-time training.

1.9.2 Any special qualifications needed to implement contingency plan.

1.9.3 Any Abnormal or Emergency Procedure needing reviewed by performers to ensure effective contingency plan implementation.

1.9.4 Consider Graded Approach grading when developing plan.

1.10 Identify any temporary equipment or parameter limits needed to provide additional margin while contingency plan is active.

1.11 Identify any additional equipment or parameter monitoring needed to provide additional margin while contingency plan is active. The following should be considered:

1.11.1 Need for additional Operator rounds.

1.11.2 Need for additional logs.

1.11.3 Need for dedicated Operators.

1.11.4 Consider Graded Approach grading when developing plan.

Procedure 0.50.5 Revision 26

ATTACHMENT 2 SHUTDOWN SAFETY CONTINGENCY PLANS GUIDE14 1.12 Identify any protected equipment or work restrictions to be applied while contingency is active. Consider the following:

1.12.1 Guidance of Procedure 0-PROTECT-EQP.

1.12.2 Any temporary power or equipment protection needed.

1.12.3 Status of key safety functions meeting n + 1.

1.12.4 Paragon Risk color.

1.12.5 Any activities that should be avoided while contingency plan is active.

1.12.6 Aggregate risk impact if multiple contingency plans, OPDRVs, Procedure 0.50.5 Higher Risk Activities were to occur simultaneously.

1.12.7 Area work load causing distraction of key personnel responsible for contingency plan implementation.

1.12.8 Consider Graded Approach grading when developing plan.

1.13 Identify any other actions needed to be accomplished before or to support contingency plan activation. Review the following items and include as needed:

1.13.1 Reserving the parts and material to support possible scope expansion and to implement the actions of the plan.

1.13.2 Having sufficient manpower to handle possible scope expansion and/or implementation of the plan in the required amount of time. This could be in the form of non-critical work that can be deleted and/or standby Vendor service contracts that may be implemented in an emergency.

1.13.3 Installation of temporary systems to provide backup and increase Defense-In-Depth.

1.13.4 Instructions for special tools or instruments required to implement or monitor the components/system(s), as necessary.

1.13.5 Temporary equipment and/or power requires testing before it can be credited to support a contingency plan.

1.13.6 Verification of personnel qualifications needed to implement the contingency plan.

1.13.7 For contingency plans that require time critical implementation, review time estimate for implementation. If time margin is low and considering Graded Approach grading, consider requiring the following:15 1.13.7.1 Continuous communications.

Procedure 0.50.5 Revision 26

ATTACHMENT 2 SHUTDOWN SAFETY CONTINGENCY PLANS GUIDE14 1.13.7.2 Backup communication methods.

1.13.7.3 Performing implementation walk-throughs.

1.13.7.4 Pre-staging of personnel.

1.13.8 If contingency plan is for an activity that causes an ORANGE or higher risk window, add Infrequently Performed Test or Evolution (IPTE) briefing as an activation requirement to the contingency plan 1.14 Considering purpose of the contingency plan, review potentially affect Abnormal and Emergency Procedures to ensure they are capable of being performed as written or other methods exist to perform the function.11 1.15 Identify the criteria that require actions of contingency plan to be implemented.

Examples are:

1.15.1 Plan is to be proactively implemented, such as installing a freeze seal to provide a backup isolation barrier before system is to be breached.

1.15.2 If RHR pump operating for SDC trips.

1.15.3 If the SSST de-energizes.

1.15.4 If damage to irradiated fuel occurs.

1.16 Identify contingency plan implementation actions. The following considerations apply:

1.16.1 If Operations Procedures adequately address potential conditions exist, then they should be referenced. Some examples are:

1.16.1.1 Electrical contingencies should list applicable Annunciator Procedures or Emergency Procedures such as Procedure 5.3SBO, Station Blackout, or Procedure 5.3AC-Outage, AC Bus Failure in Modes 4 or 5.

1.16.1.2 Decay heat removal contingency for loss of RHR shutdown cooling could list Procedure 2.4SDC, Shutdown Cooling Abnormal.

1.16.2 Contingency plan actions may be prepared as part of work instructions, Engineering document, separate attachment, or as a controlling document for system windows/plant evolutions with numerous work activities (i.e., Shutdown Cooling Common Suction Window).

1.16.3 Identification of who is required to take action.

1.16.4 Consider Graded Approach grading when developing plan.

Once written and approved, the contingency plan will be assigned a Log Number and will be kept in the OCC Contingency Log Book until it is implemented.

Procedure 0.50.5 Revision 26

ATTACHMENT 2 SHUTDOWN SAFETY CONTINGENCY PLANS GUIDE14 GRADED APPROACH TO CONTINGENCY PLANNING Determine the probability of requiring a contingency for the specific activity based on the following matrix:

LEVEL INTERPRETATION DEFINITION Event is not known to have occurred under similar 1 - Low Highly Unlikely circumstances using current approach.

Event is known to have occasionally happened under 2 - Minor Unlikely similar circumstances. Current approach does not have identified short comings that increase the likelihood.

Current approach has identifiable short comings that 3 - Moderate Likely often result in this undesirable event occurring.

Current approach has usually led to this event occurring 4 - Significant Highly Likely under similar circumstances.

Past experience indicates this event almost always 5 - High Near Certainty occurs under similar circumstances using current approach.

Determine the consequence of the event requiring a contingency plan using the following matrixes:

CONSEQUENCE TABLE LEVEL DEFINITION SHORT DEFINITION No impact or challenges on key safety functions is 1 - Low No impact.

expected.

There may be minor challenges to a key safety 2 - Minor function, but processes and procedures are in place to Minor challenges.

deal with the minor challenge.

There may be moderate performance shortfall; a key Moderate challenges a 3 - Moderate safety function may be affected with degraded key safety function is Defense-In-Depth consequences. affected.

There will be a major loss of a key safety function, Significant challenge to 4 - Significant with significant consequences to the stations a key safety function.

shutdown safety Defense-In-Depth.

The loss of several key safety function with recovery Unacceptable; no 5 - High unable to be accomplished and potential entry into alternatives exist.

EAL level.

Procedure 0.50.5 Revision 26

ATTACHMENT 2 SHUTDOWN SAFETY CONTINGENCY PLANS GUIDE14 Using the contingency plan grading template above, assign the level of risk based on the probability and the highest consequence.

P - Probability = 1 through 5 from table description.

C - Consequences = 1 through 5 from table description.

CONTINGENCY PLAN REQUIREMENTS LOW

  • Formally document contingency plans and include in Outage Contingency Plan Book.
  • Key stakeholders are made aware that an issue could arise during the outage.

MEDIUM

  • Fully develop contingency plans that are formally documented and included in Outage Contingency Plan Book.
  • Time sensitive actions are ready to implement as needed.
  • Activities requiring contingency plan activities are annotated in schedule.

HIGH

  • People are trained, on standby, practiced at the contingency, and ready to be implemented within the time restraints (such as time to boil).
  • Contingency plan developed that meet all of the requirements of this document.
  • Tag-outs in place, supplemental equipment installed, and compensatory measures in place.

Procedure 0.50.5 Revision 26

ATTACHMENT 2 SHUTDOWN SAFETY CONTINGENCY PLANS GUIDE14 CONTINGENCY PLAN IMPLEMENTATION In the case where a contingency plan is written for an entire system window, all work activity owners will be part of a pre-job briefing to verify they understand their role in the contingency plan. The work activity owner shall be familiar with these actions and is considered the single point of contact for implementation.

When needed, the activity owner will retrieve the contingency plan from the OCC Log Book and process it as stated on the plan.

Procedure 0.50.5 Revision 26