IR 05000288/1999001
| ML20210G495 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Reed College |
| Issue date: | 05/24/1999 |
| From: | Isaac P NRC (Affiliation Not Assigned) |
| To: | |
| Shared Package | |
| ML20210F620 | List: |
| References | |
| 50-288-OL-99-01, NUDOCS 9908030111 | |
| Download: ML20210G495 (36) | |
Text
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U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT REPORT NO.:
50-288/OL-99-01 FACILITY DOCKET NO.:
50-288 FACILITY LICENSE NO.:
R-112 FACILITY:
Reed College EXAMINATION DATES:
5/03/99 - 5/06/99 EXAMINER:
Patri Isaac, Chief Examiner SUBMITTED BY:
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5/24/99 E
fck gChief Examiner Date SUMMARY:
I During the week of May 3,1999, NRC administered Operator Licensing Examinations to eight Reactor Operator (RO) and four Senior Reactor Operator Upgrade (SROU) candidates.
Four of the RO candidates failed the examinations. All the SFO candidates passed their respective examinations.
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T 9900030111 990728 PDR ADOCK 050002 8 l
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-2-REPORT DETAILS j
1.
Examiners:
Patrick Isaac, Chief Examiner Paul Doyle 2.
Results:
i RO PASS / FAIL SRO PASS / Fall TOTAL PASS / Fall Written 5/3 N/A 5/3 Operating Tests 7/1 4/0 11/1 Overall 4/4 4/0 8/4 3.
Exit Meeting:
Personnel attending:
Stephe ' +,ntz, Director, Reed College Reactor Christop.u, S. Melhus, Ascistant Director, Reed College Reactor Patrick J. Isaac, Chief Examiner l
The facility examination comments were discussed as noted in Enclosure 2. The Chief Examiner agreed to delete questions C.2 and C.18 from the examination.
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NRC RESOLUTIONS -WRITTEN EXAMINATION
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QUESTION (C.2)
Which one of the following describes the regulating rod drive motor and speed?
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Motor Speed a.
Variable Speed 24 in/ min.
b.
Non-Synchronous 24 in/ min.
c.
Single-Phase 19 in/ min.
d.
Servomotor 19 in/ min.
ANSWER: a Facility Comment:
The answer key is a. The Reed Mechanical Maintenance Manual states:
The shim-and safety-rod drive motors are non-synchronous, single phase, and electrically reversible and can insert or withdraw a rod at a rate of about 19 inimin. The regulating-rod drive, which has a servo type motor, is driven a maximum of 24 in./ min.
Many students were confused how the regulating rod could be variable speed when its speed is set at 24 in./ min. The SAR includes the term variable when describing the servomotor, but students study the maintenance manual more than the SAR for information on rod control.
Once a student discard a because of the term variable speed, there is no correct choice.
We reccmmend that the question be deleted from the exam and modified for future exams.
NRC Resolution:
Comment accepted. Question C.2 will be deleted from the examination.
ENCLOSURE 2 i
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U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER INITIAL REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY:
Reed REACTOR TYPE:
TRIGA DATE ADMINISTERED:
1999/05/03 REGION:
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CANDIDATE:
lNSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:
Answers are to be written on the answer sheet provided. Attach the answer sheets to the examination. Points for each question are indicated in parentheses for each
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question. A 70% in each section is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.
% OF CATEGORY % OF CANDIDATE'S CATEGORY VALUE TOTAL SCORE VALUE CATEGORY 20.00 34.5 A. REACTOR THEORY, THERMODYNAMICS AND FACILITY OPERATING CHARACTERISTICS 20.00 34.5 B. NORMAL AND EMERGENCY OPERATING PROCEDURES AND RADIOLOGICAL CONTROLS 18.00 31.0 C. FACILITY AND RADIATION MONITORING SYSTEMS 58.00
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TOTALS FINAL GRADE All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.
Candidate's Signature ENCLOSURE 3
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IA. RX THEORY. THERMO & FAC OP CHARS
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. ANSWER' SHEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)
If you change your answer, write your selection in the blank.
MULTIPLE CHOICE 001 a-b c d 002 a b c d __
003 a b c d 004 a b c d 005 m b c d 006 a b c d 007 a b c d 008 a b c d 009 a b c d 010 a b c d 011 a b c d 012 a b c d 013 a b c d 014 a b c d
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015 a b c d 016 a b c d 017 a b c d 018 a b c d 019 a b c d 020 a b c d (""* END OF CATEGORY A ***")
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B.- NORMAUEMERG PROCEDURES & RAD CON I
ANSWER SHEET
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Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)
If you change your answer, write your selection in the blank.
MULTIPLE CHOICE 001 abcd 002 a b c d 003 a b c d
>
004 a b c d 005 a b c d 006 a b c d 007 a b c d
- 008 a b ~ c d 009 a b c d 010 a _b c _ d 011 abcd 012 a b c d __
013 a b c d 014 a b c d,,,,._
j 015 a b c d 010 a b c d I
017 a b c d i
018 a b c d 019 a b c d 020 a b c d (""* END OF CATEGORY B "*")
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C. PLANT AND RAD MONITORING SYSTEMS
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ANSWER S HEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)
If you cht.nge your answer, write your selection in the blank.
MULTIPLE CHOICE 001 a b'c d 002 a b c d 003 a b c d 004 a b c d _ _
005 a b c d 006 a b c d 007 a b c d i
i 008 a b c d 009 a b c d 010 a b c d 011 abcd 012 a b c d 013 a b c. d
014 a b c d 015 a b c d 016 a b c d
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017 a b c d 018 a b c d 019 a b c d 020 a b c d (""' END OF CATEGORY C "*")
(""""" END OF EXAMINATION """"")
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-,m..+....
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NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:
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l 1.
Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in rnore severe penalties.
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2.
After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover
. sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given j
assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.
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3.
Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must I
avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.
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4.
Use black ink or dark pencil gnty to faci 9 tate legible reproductions.
5.
Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand comer of the examination j
cover sheet and each answer sheet.
6.
Mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED i
AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.
t 7.
The point value for each question is indicated in (brackets) after the question.
8.
If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.
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9.
When tuming in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.
10.
Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your ?nswer is on your answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.
I 11.
To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.
12.
There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.
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' QUESTION (A.1)
[1.0]
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L A reactor is critical at 1 Watt. Subsequent rod motion causes a power increase at an indicated period of 30 seconds. Reactor power 2 minutes later will be approximately:
a.
55 Watts b.
35 Watts c.
15 Watts d.
5 Watts Question (A.2)
[1.0)
Which one of the following describes the response of the suberitical reactor to eaual insertions of positive reactivity as the reactor approaches criticality at low power?
a.
Each reactivity insertion causes a SMALLER increase in the neutron flux, resulting in a LONGER time to reach equilibrium.
h.
Each reactivity insertion causes a LARGER increase in the neutron flux, resulting in a LONGER time to reach equilibrium.
c.
Each reactivity insertion causes a SMALLER increase in the neutron flux, resulting in a SHORTER time to reach equilibrium, d.
Each reactivity insertion causes a LARGER increase in the neutron flux, resulting in a SHORTER time to reach equilibrium.
Question (A.3)
[1.0)
Which one of the following is true concerning the differences between prompt and delayed neutrons?
a.
Prompt neutrons account for less than one percent of the neutron population while delayed neutrons account for approximately ninety-nine percent of the neutron population b.
Prompt neutrons are released during fast fissions while delayed neutrons are released during thermal fissions c.
Prompt neutrons are released during the fission process while delayed neutrons are released during the decay process d.
Prompt neutrons are the dominating factor in determining the reactor period while delayed neutrons have little effect on the reactor period
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Questi:n (A.4)
[1,0';
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Which one of the following elements will slow down fast neutrons least quickly, i.e. produces the smallest energy loss per collision?
a.
Oxygen-1S b.
Boron-10 c.
Hydrogen-1 d.
Uranium-238 e
Question (A.5)
[1.0]
A reactor contains three control rods and a regulating rod. Which one of the following would result in a determination of the excess reactivity of this reactor?
The reactor is critical at a low power level, with all control rods full out and the regulating a.
rod at some position. The reactivity remaining in the regulating rod (i.e. its rod worth from its present position to full out) is the excess reactivity.
b.
All four rods are full in. The control rods and the regulating rod are withdrawn until the reactor becomes critical. The total rod worth withdrawn is the excess reactivity.
c.
The reactor is at full power. The total rod worth of all rods withdrawn is the excess reactivity.
d.
The reactor is at full power. The total rod worth remaining in all rods (i.e. their rod worths from their present positions to full out) is the excess reactivity.
Question (A.G)
[1.0)
Which one of the following statements conceming reactivity values of equilibrium (at power) xenon and peak (after shutdown) xenon is correct? Equilibrium xenon is of powerlevel; peak xenon is of power level.
a.
INDEPENDENT INDEPENDENT b.
INDEPENDENT DEPENDENT c.
DEPENDENT INDEPENDENT d.
DEPENDENT DEPENDENT
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e Question (A.7)
[1.0]
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Reactor A increases power from 10% to 20% with a period of 50 seconds. Reactor B increases power from 20% to 30% with a period of also 50 seconds. Compared to Reactor A, the time required for the power increase of Reactor B is:
a.
longer than A.
b.
exactly the same as A.
c.
approximately the same as A.
d.
shorter than A.
Question (A.8)
[1.0]
In an operating TRIGA reactor, the effect of the xenon poison is different from that due to samarium because:
a.
The xenon poison will begin to decay twelve to 14 hours1.62037e-4 days <br />0.00389 hours <br />2.314815e-5 weeks <br />5.327e-6 months <br /> after reactor shutdown, whereas samarium poison will peak and its effects will remain indefinitely after shutdown.
b.
The magnitude of the xenon poison effect is usually much smaller than that for samarium.
c.
While both poisons decay with their respective half lives after shutdown, the samarium poison decays with a shorter half life.
d.
While both poisons decay after shutdown, xenon decays 12 times faster than samarium.
Question (A.9)
[1.0)
A reactor is suberitical with a shutdown margin of 0.0526 delta k/k. The addition of a reactor experiment increases the indicated count rate from 10 cps to 20 cps. Which one of the following is the new keff of the reactor 7 a.
.53 b.
.90 c.
.975 d.
1.02
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Question (A.10)
[1.0]
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Following a scram, the value of the stable reactor period is:
a.
approximately -50 seconds, because the rate of negative reactivity insertion rapidly approaches zero.
b.
approximately -10 seconds, as determined by the rate of decay of the shortest lived delayed neutron precursors.
c.
approximately -80 seconds, as determined by the rate of decay of the longest lived delayed neutron precursors.
d.
infinity, since neutron production has been terminated.
Question (A.11)
[1.0)
Which one of the following statements describes how fuel temperature affects the core operating characteristics?
a.
Fuel temperature increa'se will decrease the resonance escape probability.
b.
Fuel temperature decrease results in Doppler Broadening of U2" and Pu * resonance
i peaks and the decrease of resonance escape probability.
I c.
~ Decrease in fuel temperature will increase neu'ron absorption by U " and Pu I
2d d.
Fuel temperature increase results in Doppler Broadening of U2" and PU2d resonance peaks and the decrease of neutron absorption during moderation.
Question (A.12)
[1.0)
,
Which one of the following factors is the most significant in determining the differential worth of a control rod?
a.
The rod speed.
b.
Reactor power.
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c.
The flux shape.
d.
The amount of fuelin the cor ' Question (A.13)
[1.0]
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Which one of the following is the MAXIMUM amount of reactivity that can be promptly inserted into the reactor WITHOUT causing the reactor to go " Prompt Critical"?
a.
0.10 dollars b.
0.46 dollars c.
0.75 dollars
d.
1.90 dollars Question (A.14)
[1.0]
If we assume that the core excess reactivity (cold critical conditions) is worth $2.25, which one of the following is the minimum amount of negative reactivity that must inserted to assure that the reactor is " shutdown" as defined per Tech. Specs.
,
s.
52.25 b.
$2.75 c.
$3.75 d.
$4.25
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Question (A.15)
[1.0)
Which one of the following statements describes the effect of an increase in fuel temperature in a TRIGA fuel element.
a.
The probability that a thermal neutron will lose energy in a collision with an excited state hydrogen atom in UZrH, increases.
b.
The probability that a neutron will escape from the element before being captured in the fuel meat increases.
l c.
A shift in the thermal neutron spectrum, towards lower energies, occurs in the fuel
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element.
d.
The mean free path for fast neutrons in the fuel element in decreased.
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' Question (A.16)
11.0]
,
A reactor with an initial popuhtion of 24000 neutrons is operating with K, = 1.01. Of the CHANGE in population from the current generation to the next geeneration, how many are prompt neutrons?
a.
b.
238-c.
240 d.
24240 Question (A.17)
[1.0)
Following a significant reactor power increase, the moderator temperature coefficient becomes increasingly more negative. This is because:
a.
as moderator density decreases, less thermal neutrons are absorbed by the moderator than by the fuel.
l b.
the change in the thermal utilization factor dominates the change in the resonance escape probability.
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a greater density change per degree F occurs at higher reactor coolant temperatures.
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d.
the core transitions from an under-moderated condition to an over-modersted coadition.
Question (A.18)
[1.0]
Experimenters are attempting to determine the critical mass of a new fuel material. As more fuel
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was added to the reactor, the following fuel to count rate data was taken'
Fuel Counts /Sec 1.00 kg 500 1.50 kg 800 2.00 kg 1142 2.25 kg 1330 2.50 kg 4000 2.75 kg 15873 Which one of the following is the amount of fuel needed for a critical mass?
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a.
2.60 kg
' b.
2.75 kg c.
2.80 kg i
d.
2.95 kg
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Question (A.19)
[1.0)
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Which one of the following will be the resulting stable reactor period when a $0.25 reactivity insertion is made into an exactly critical reactor core? (Assume a S of.0070 and a A of.1 sec ')
a.
18 seconds b.
30 seconds c.
38 seconds d.
50 seconds Question (A.20)
[1.0]
- Which alteration or change to the core will most strongly affect the thermal utilization factor.
a.
Build up of fission products in fuel, b.
Removal of moderator.
c.
Addition of U23e d.
Removal of a control rod.
(*" End of Section A *")
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' Section B Normal /Emera Procedures & Rad Con Page 13
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- QUESTION (B.1)
[1.0]
While performing SOP 01, The Start-up Checklist, the operator places the Count Rate Channel switch to one of the calibrate positions and attempts to raise a control rod. The Source light illuminates and rod motion is noted to occur. Which one of the following describes what was just observed?
The operator checked the; a. -
Source Interlock is inoperable.
b.
Source Interlock is operable.
c.
Rod Raising Interlock is inoperable.
d.
Rod Raising Interlock is operable.
' QUESTION (B.2)
[1.0)
You are designated as " Checker" for the Start-up checklist just completed. Under the Console Section of the checklist, the following data is observed:
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)
Calibration Pt.
Scram Pt.
Linear Channel 100%
276 kW Percent Power Channel 102 %
273 kW Feriod Channel 5 secs 3.5 secs Which one of following describes the response made to this data?
As checker, you conclude that:
a.
all data is within acceptable ranges.
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- b.
the Linear Channel Scram Point exceeds the maximum allowable limit.
c.
the Percent Power Channel Calibration Point exceeds the maximum allowable limit, d.
the Period Channel Scram Point exceeds the maximum allowable limit.
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' Section B Normal /Emera. Procedures & Rad Con Page 14
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- QUESTION (B.3)
[1.0)
Based on the Requalification Plan for operators at NSC, each licensed operator must complete a minimum of reactivity control manipulations during each 2 year cycle, a.
b.
c.
d.
- QUESTION (B.4)
[1.0)
After the reactor is at power from an initial start-up, Core-excess reactivity is calculated to complete SOP 02, Start-up and Core Excess Check. The calculation iridicates the core excess reactivity is 0.021 delta k/k. Which one of the following is the correct action for this excess reactivity?
If the core excess reactivity value:
a.
is less than the allowable maximum, operation may continue.
b.
is greater than recent past values but less than maximum, the reactor must be shutdown and the NRC informed prior to the next reactor startup.
c.
is greater than recent past values but less than maximum, the reactor must be shutdown, even though the reason has been determined.
l d.
is above the allowable maximum, the reactor must be shutdown.
- QUESTION (B.5)
[1.0)
For training purposes, reactor power was increased from 400 watts to an equilibrium power 98%
of the license limit in accordance with SOP 03, Reactor Operations. Which one of the following describes this power increase?
a.
The power increase is within all prescribed procedures and Tech. Specs.
I b.
The power increase is within all prescribed procedures and Tech. Specs. but violates good practice.
c.
It violates SOP 03, but not Tech. Specs.
d.
It violates SOP 03 and Tech. Spec ' Section B Normal /Emera. Procedures & Rad Con Page 15
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- QUESTION (B.6)
[1.0)
Which one of the following is the definition of Committed Dose Equivalent?
a.
The sum of the deep dose equivalent and the committed effective dose equivalent.
b.
The dose equivalent that the whole body receives from sources outside the body.
c.
The sum of the external deep dose equivalent and the organ dose equivalent.
d.
The 50 year dose equivalent to an organ or tissue resulting from an intake of radioactive material.
- QUESTION (B.7)
[1.0)
Who has the responsibility for locating and properly marking off any "high radiation" areas found
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within RRF7 a.
Any operator.
b.
Only the Health Physicist.
c.
Only the Director of RRF.
d.
Only the Director of RRF or the Health Physicist.
- QUESTION (B.8)
[1.0)
,
Select the MINIMUM amount of time that must be spent performing license activities in order to maintain your license active.
a.
4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> per month b.
8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> per month c.
4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> per quarter d.
8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> per quarter
- QUESTION (B.9)
[1.0)
In accordance with Technical Specifications, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE7 a.
Each fuel experiment shall be controlled such that the total inventory of lodine isotopes 131 thru 135 in the experiment is no greater than 1.5 curies.
b.
The reactivity worth of any individual in-core experiment shall not exceed $2.00.
c.
Experiments containing materials corrosive to Rx components shall not be irradiated in the Rx.
d.
Explosive experiments shall be doubly encapsulate lii.
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Section B Normal /Emero, Procedures & Rad Con Page 16
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- QUESTION (B.10)
[1.0)
in accordance with the Reed Emergency implementation procedures, which one of the following is the minimum number and type of portable survey meters required for operations to be allowed?
a.
1 GM and 1 Scintillation.
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b.
1 GM and 1 lon chamber.
c.
2 GM and 1 Scintillation, d.
2 GM and 1 lon chamber.
- QUESTION (B.11)
[1.0)
Whose approval is necessary before radioactive material can be transferred to personnel of another department?
a.
The Senior Reactor Operator on duty, b.
The Reactor Supervisor.
c.
The Reactor Operations Committee.
d.
The Director.
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- QUESTION (B.12)
[1.0)
The following paragraph is a Reed Facility Emergency Plan definition.
i
..that boundary, not necessarily having restrictive barriers, including the adjoining Chemistry Building and extending 250 feet in every direction from the operations boundary.
Which one of the following terms matches the above definition?
a.
Restricted Area.
b.
Site Boundary, c.
Emergency Planning Zone (EPZ).
d.
Offsite Geographical Area.
]
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Section B -Normal /Emera. Procedures & Rad Con Page 17
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- QUESTION (B.13).
[1.0)
Which one of the following approvals are necessary for the experiment type defined in the following paragraph?
Those (experiments) which may be performed under the Technical Specifications and are not routine or modified routine experiments.
Performed at the discretion of the Director with no further review necessary, a.
b.
Performed at the discretion of the Director providing no new hazards are present beyond those allowed in Tech. Specs.
i c.
Performed at the discretion of the Director providing any hazards present beyond those allowed by Tech. Specs are approved by the Reactor Operations Committeo.
d.
Performed at the discretion of the Director after approval from the Reactor Operations Committee.
' QUESTION (B.14)
[1.0)
An area is considered contaminated if.....
I a. -
a reading greater than 3 x 104 above background.
b.
greater than 100 cpm above background with a GM tube.
r c.
greater than 100 dpm/100 cm d.
Any accident involving unsealed beta-gamma particulate.
" QUESTION (B.15)
[1.0)
Prior to performing SOP-01, The Startup Checklist, how far back is the reactor operator required to review the Main Log?
a.
One full shift.
b.
48 hours5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> or to the last log entry for that operator whichever occurs first.
c.
7 days or until the last log entry for that operator whichever occurs first.
d.
30 days or to the last log entry for that operator whichever occurs first..
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b
Section B Normal /Emera. procedures & Rad Con Page 18
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- QUESTION (B.16)
[1.0)
A prerequisite which must be met prior to performing SOP 44, Power Calibration, is that the reactor must not be operated at power levels above 5 watts for 2 days prior to the calibration.
Which one of the following is the reason for this prerequisite? -
a.
Minimizes xenon biasing.
,
b.
At:ows the pool temperature to stabilize.
c.
Maintains thermocouple calibration valid.
i d.
Allows pool conductivity to stabilize.
- QUESTION (B.17)
[1.0]
In accordance with Emergency implementation Procedures, Appendix C, Evacuation of the Facility, the first staff person using the exit corridor shall take the grab bag.
Which ONE of the following has the ultimate responsibility to insure the bag has been taken?
a.
Emergency Coordinator.
b.
The Operator, c.
Senior Member of ENCL.
d.
The first RRF management to arrive on site.
"CUESTION (B.18)
[1.0)
A room contains a source which, when exposed, results in a general area dose rate of 175 millirem per hour. This source is scheduled to be exposed continuously for 35 days. Select an acceptable method for controlling radiation exposure from the source within this room.
a.
Post the area with the words " Danger-Radiation Area".
b.
Equip the room with a device to visually display the current dose rate within the room.
c.
Equip the room with a motion detector that will alarm in the control room, d.
Lock the room to prevent inadvertent entry into the room i
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Section B Normal /Emera. Procedures & Rad Con Page 19
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- QUESTION (8.19) -
[1.0)
Reed's Technical Specifications and operating procedures require the reactor to be shutdown if the reactor pool temperature exceeds a specified limit.
Which one of the following is the LOWEST temperature that EXCEED 0 the Tech. Spec. limit?
a.
50 degrees F -
b.
45 degrees C c.
50 degrees C d.
120 degrees F
- QUESTION (B.20)
[1.0]
A point source of GAMMA radiation measures 50 roentgen /hr [R/hr) gamma, at a distance of 2 feet.
Assuming 100% detector efficiency, which one of the following is the exposure rate [R/hr) from the GAMMA source at a distance of 16 feet?
a.
b.
7.8 c.
4.8 d.
.78 ("* End of Section B "*)
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- Section C Plant and Rad Monitorino Systems Page 20
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- QUESTION (C.1)
[1.0)
All power is lost to the facility and the emergency battery lights are on as required. The reactor is safely shutdown with no imminent emergency apparent. Which of the following is the MAXIMUM length of time that the emergency lights are able to produce light?
a.
1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />, b.
3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br />.
c.
6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.
d.
12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />.
- OUECTlON (0.2)
[1.0)
DELETED Which one of the following describes the regulating rod drive motor and speed?
Motor Speed a.
Variable Speed 24 in/ min.
b.
Non-Synchronous 24 in/ min.
c.
Single-Phase 19 in/ min.
d.
Servomotor 19 in/ min.
' QUESTION (C.3)
[1.0)
Which ONE of the following interlocks will stop withdrawal of control rods?
a.
Automatic control selected following two watts on the log-n channel.
b.
Less than two counts per second on the startup channel.
c.
A period less than 2 seconds.
d.
Loss of one out of three signals to automatic reactor contro _
__
o Section C Plant and Rad Monitorina Systems Page 21
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,
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- QUESTION (C.4)
[1.0]
The pool water level must be maintained at a specified level for proper skimmer operation. Why is this poollevel necessary?,
s.
Above this pool level, the reactor water system pumps will lose suction and fail.
'
i b.
Below this level, air entry could interfere with proper operation of the rabbit tube.
c.
Above this level, the water pressure could damage the purification system filters, d.
Below this level, air entry could damage the purification system demineralizers.
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- QUESTION (C.5)
[1.0)
Which ONE of the following statements is correct for the Linear Power Range Channel?
a.
Covers the entire power spectrum without switching.
b.
Uses an uncompensated ion chamber.
c.
Provides input to the automatic reactor control circuit.
d.
Produces a voltage signal proportional to the logarithm of neutron flux.
- QUESTION (C.6)
[1.0).
A release has occurred in the facility. A check of the Gaseous Stack Monitor reveals a red jeweled light on the front of the monitor readout is illuminated. Which of the following is the
,
significance of this red light?
a.
The air confinement system is activated.
b.
The detector has failed.
'
c.
The failsafe is activated.
d.
The air confinement system is shutdow n-.. -- -
. -. - _. - - -
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Section C Plant and Rad Monitorina Systems Page 22 g
- QUESTION (C.7)
[1.0)
A reactor shutdown is being performed with the control servo in the Automatic Mode.
Which one of the following describes the method by which the control rods will be positioned to continue the shutdown when the regulating rod approaches 20% of its length?
a.
The operator must shift the servo to manual, insert the regulating rod, and then insert the shim and safety rods, b.
The operator must shift the servo to manual, insert the shim and safety rods, and then retum the servo to automatic, c.
Both the shim and the safety rods should automatically drive in to assist in the power reduction.
d.
The operator should ' manually insert the shim or the safety rod to assist in power control with the servo in au'.omatic.
- QUESTION (C.8)
[1.0)
The rotary specimen rack contains 40 tubular aluminum containers. Of these 40,1 tube has a hole in the bottom. Which one of the following describes the reason for this hole, a.
To equalize pressure between the rack and tubes.
b.
To detect moisture in the bottom of the rack.
c.
To allow moisture buildup in the tubes to drain away, d.
To allow dry air flow to flow through the rack bottom.
- QUESTION (C.9)
[1.0]
Which one of the following describes the minimum flowrate for the Reactor Water System domineralizers?
a.
10 gpm through at least one domineralizer, b.
10 gpm through each demineralizer.
c.
20 gpm through at least one domineralizer.
d.
5 gpm through each demineralize F
' Section,C Plant and Rad Monitorina Systems Page 23 I
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- QUESTION (C.10)
[1.0]
Which ONE of the following statements correctly describes the pneumatic transfer system path and operating pressure?
a.
The pneumatic transfer system exhausts to the reactor room and maintains the transfer system at a positive pressure.
b.
The pneumatic transfer system exhausts to the building exhaust and maintains the transfer system at a positive pressure.
c.
The pneumatic transfer system exhausts to the reactor room and maintains the transfer system at a negative pressure.
d.
The pneumatic transfer syuem exhausts to the building exhaust and maintains the transfer system at a negative pressure.
- QUESTION (C.11)
[1.0]
Each fuel-moderator element has a colored spacer at the top. Which one of the following
describes the fuel loading of a particular element when the spacer is RED?
j a.
- Fully loaded.
b.
3/4 of full load.
c.
% of fullload.
d.
Graphite Dummy.
- QUESTION (C.12)
[1.0)
Which ONE of the following describes the action of the rod control system to drive the magnet draw tube down after a dropped rod?
a.
De-energizing the rod magnet initiates the rod down motion of the draw tube.
b.
Actuation of the MAGNET DOWN limit switch initiates the rod down motion of the draw tube, c.
Actuation of the ROD DOWN limit switch initiates the rod down motion of the draw tube if the rod drive is withdrawn.
d.
Resetting the scram signal initiates the rod down motion of the draw tube.
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' Section C Plant and Rad Monitorina Systems Page 24
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' QUESTION (C.13)
[1.0]
In what region of the Pulse Size vs. Applied Voltage characteristic curve does the fission chamber operate?
a.
Geiger Muller b.
Limited Proportionality c.
Proportional d.
lonization
" QUESTION (C.14)
[1.0] -
Which one of the following does not provide any protective interlocks or actions?
a.
Linear Power Channel.
b.
Log Power (Log-N Channel).
c.
Percent Power Channel.
d.
Count Rate Channel.
- QUESTION (C.15)
[1.0)
Which one of the following is the reason conductivity of the pool water must be maintained at or below 2 micro-mhos/cm?
a.
To maintain pool water pH 6.5 - 7.0.
b.
To maintain clarity of the water.
c.
To enhance the operation of the domineralizers.
d.
To decrease corrosion.
- QUESTION (C.16)
[1.0)
When a compensated ion chamber is used for neutron detection, how is the gamma flux accounted for?
a.
Pulse height discrimination is used to cancel the gamma flux.
b.
The gamma flux is proportional to neutron flux and is counted with the neutrons.
c.
The gamma flux is cancelled by creating an equal end opposite gamma current.
d.
The gamma flux passes through the detector with no interaction because of detector desig (
..
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' Section C Plant and Rad Monitorino Systems Page 25
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' QUESTION (C.17)
[1.0]
Which one of the following describes the radiation to which the lon Chamber, Model RO-2 is sensitive?
!
a.
Beta only.
b.
Beta and Gamma only, c.
Beta, Gamma and X-ray only, d.
Beta, Gamma, X-ray and Alpha only.
- OUESTlON (C.10)
[1.0)
DELETED A reactor shutdown is being performed with the control servo in the Automatic Mode.
,
Which one of the following describes the method by which the control rods will be positioned to continue the shutdown when the regulating rod approaches 20% of its length?
a.
The operator must shift the servo to manual, insert the regulating rod, and then insert the
'
shim and safety rods.
b.
The operator must shift the servo to manual, insert the shim and safety rods, and then return the servo to automatic.
c.
Both the shim and the safety rods should automatically drive in to assist in the power reduction.
d.
The operator should manually insert the shim or the safety rod to assist in power control with the servo in automatic.
i
- QUESTION (C.19)
[1.0)
The Reed Facility License grants permission for possession of 2 specific sources. Which one of the following describes these sources?
J i
a.
A 2 mg Ra-226 and a 1.64 curie plutonium-beryllium source.
b.
A 1 curie americium-beryllium and a 1.64 curie plutonium-beryllium source.
c.
A 1.64 curie americium-beryllium and a 1 curie plutonium-beryllium source.
d.
A 2 mg Ra-226 and a 1 curie americium-beryllium source.
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...
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- Section C Plant and Rad Monitorina Systems Page 26
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- QUESTION (C.20)
[1.0)
)
Which one of the following describes the performance of the Reactor Water System circulating
!
pump as the filter in the system becomes clogged?
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a.
Pump discharge flow decreases and discharge pressure increases.
b.
Pump amps increases and pump NPSH increases.
c.
Pump discharge flow increases and discharge pressure decreases.
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d.
Pump amps decreases and NPSH decreases.
("* End of Section C "*)
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'Section A R Theory. Thermo & Fac. Oceratina Characteristics Page 27
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ANSWER: (A.01)
(1.00)
a REFERENCE P=P e* = 1e"'8"" = 54.6 ANSWER: (A.02)
(1.00)
b REFERENCE Glasstone, S. and Sesonske, A, Nuclear Reactor Engineering, Kreiger Publishing, Malabar, Florida, 1991, $$ 3.161 - 3.163, pp.190 - 191.
Bum, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, C 1988, Chapt. 5, pp. 5-1 - 5-28.
ANSWER: (A.03)
(1.00)
c REFERENCE Lamarsh, J.R., Introduction to Nuclear Engineering, - 1983. $ 7.1, pp. 280 - 284.
Bum, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, C 1982, $9 3.2.2 - 3.2.3, pp. 3-7 - 3-12.
ANSWER: (A.04)
(1.00)
d REFERENCE Standard NRC Ouestion ANSWER: (A.05)
(1.00)
a REFERENCE-Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, @ 1988, $$ 6.2.1, pp. 6-2.
ANSWER: (A.06)
(1.00)
d REFERENCE
' Lamarsh, J.R., Introduction to Nuclear Engineering, - 1983 9 7.4, pp. 316 - 322.
.
Bum, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, @ 1988, 99 8.1 -8.4, pp. 8-3 - 8-14.
ANSWER: (A.07)
(1.00)
d REFERENCE The power of reactor A increases by a' factor of 2, while the power of reactor B increases by a factor of 1.5. Since the periods are the same (rate of change is the same), power increase B takes a shorter time.
..-
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~
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Section A R Theory. Thermo & Fac. Doeratina Characteristics Page 28
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' ANSWER: 08 (1.00)
a REFERENCE Lamarsh, J.R., introduction to Nuclear Engineering, - 1983. $ 7.4, pp. 316 - 322.
Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, C 1988, $5 8.1 --8.4, pp. 8-3 - 8-14.
ANSWER: (A.09)
(1.00)
c REFERENCE:
SDM = 1-4/4 - 4 = 1/SDM + 1 - 4 = 1/0.0526 + 1 4 =.95
-
CR,/CR = (1 - %)/ (1 - K.) - 10/20 = (1 - %) / (1 - 0.95)
(0.5) x (0.05) = (1 - %)
% = 1 -(0.5)(0.05) = 0.975
)
-
Burn, R., Introduction to Nucsear Reactor Operations, C 1982, S 6.2.3, p. 3-4.
l ANSWER: (A.10)
(1.00)
c REFERENCE Lamarsh, J.R., Introduction to Nuclear Engineering, - 1983. @ 7.1, p. 289.
Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, C 1982, G 4.6, p. 4-16.
ANSWER: (A.11)
(1.00)
a REFERENCE Glasstone, S. and Sesonske, A, Nuclear Reactor Engineering, 1991, 6 5.98, p. 264.
,
i ANSWER: (A.12)
(1.00)
c
,
REFERENCE i
Lamarsh, J.R., introduction to Nuclear Engineering,1983. $ 7.2, p. 303.
Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, C 1982, 5 7.2 & 7.3, pp. 7-1 - 7-9.
ANSWER:(A.13)
(1.00)
c REFERENCE Glasstone S. and Sesonske, Nuclear Reactor Engineering,1991, p. 264.
ANSWER: (A.14)
(1.00)
d REFERENCE i
'Section A R Theory. Thermo & Fac. Doeratino Characteristics Page 29
'
c I
ANSWER: (A.15)
(1.00)
b REFERENCE SAR Appendix E-2; Standard TRIGA Question ANSWER: (A.16)
(1.00)
b f
REFERENCE 24000 neutrons in current generation * 1.01 = 24240 neutrons in next generation 240 neutrons added - 0.7% delayed neutron fraction = 238 prompt neutrons added ANSWER: (A.17)
(1.00)
c REFERENCE Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, C 1982, G 6.4.1, pp. 6-5.
'
AlJSWER: (A.18)
(1.00)
c REFERENCE Lamarsh, J.R., Introduction to Nuclear Engineering, - 1983. S, p.102.
Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, @ 1982, 6 5.5, pp. 5-18 - 5-25.
ANSWER: (A.19)
(1.00)
b REFERENCE Glass: ane, S. and Sesonske, A, Nuclear Reactor Engineering, 1991,9 5.18, p. 234.
T = (Fp)/Ap T = (.0070.00175)l.1 x.00175 = 30 seconds i
ANSWER: (A.20)
(1.00)
d REFERENCE Lamarsh, J.R., Introduction to Nuclear Engineering, - 1983. S 7.2, p. 300
Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, O 1982, 9 3.3, pp. 3-13 - 3-18.
(*" End of Section A *")
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'*
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Section B Normal /Emera. Procedures & Rad Con.
Page 30
- ANSWER (B.1)
a.
- REFERENCE - (B.1)
Reed, SOP 01,' Step 1.7.6.7, page 8.
- ANSWER - (8.2)
b.
- REFERENCE - (8.2)
Reed, SOP 01, Steps 1.7.6.3.2,.3, and.4, pages 6-7.
- ANSWER (B.3)
e
- REFERENCE Requalification Plan Section 4.2 I
- ANSWER (B.4)
a.
- REFERENCE (B.4)
Reed, SOP-02, Step 2.7.2, page 3.
'
]
- ANSWER (B.5)
c.
- REFERENCE (B.5)
Reed, SOP 03, Precaution 3.5.4, page 1.
- ANSWER (B.6)
d.
REFERENCE 10CFR20.1003 j
' ANSWER (B.7)
'
a.
- REFERENCE (B.7)
Reed, SOP 21.3 i
- ANSWER -(B.8)
'
c.
- REFERENCE (B.8)
'
10 CFR 55.53; REED Requal. Plan Sect. 4.1
' ANSWER (B.9)
a
- REFERENCE RRF Tech Specs
'Section B Normal /Emero erutdur s & Rad Con Page 31
,
- ANSWER (B.10)
6.
- REFERENCE (B.10)
Reed EIPs, Section 2.2, page 4.
- ANSWER (B.11)
d.
REFERENCE (B.11)
Reed Admin procedures, page 12, step 12.
- ANSWER (B.12)
b.
- REFERENCE (8.12)
Reed Emergency Plan, Section 2.0, page 7.
- ANSWER (B.13)
d.
- REFERENCE (B.13)
Reed, Administrative Procedures,Section IV.4.2 and 4.3, page 13.
- ANSWER (B.14)
b.
- REFERENCE (B.14)
Reed, SOP 22 Section 22.2
- ANSWER (B.15)
d.
- REFERENCE (B.15)
Reed, SOP 01, Section 1.4
'
' ANSWER (B.16)
a.
- REFERENCE (B.16)
Reed, SOP 44, Section 44.4, page 1.
- ANSWER (B.17)
b.
- REFERENCE (B.17)
Reed, EIPs, Appendix C, page 13
' ANSWER (B.18)
d REFERENCE 10CFR20.1601(a)(3)
,..
L 'Section B Normal /Emera. Procedures & Rad Con Page 32 o
- ANSWER (B.19)
l c.
- REFERENCE -(B.19)
Reed, Technical Specifications, D.1.
- ANSWER (B.20)
'
d.
l
- REFERENCE (B.20)
D2 = [50 R/hrj x [2/16]2 = 50/64 =.78 Reed Training Manual Chapter 5, pages 18-20 l
l (*** End of Section B "*)
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- Section C Plant and Rad Monitorina Systems Page 33
,,
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- ANSWER (C.1)
c.
- REFERENCE (C.1)
Reed, ElPs, Section 2.4, page 4.
i
- fdO7/CR (0.2)
^
.
- CCIERENCE (C.2)
;;d, CAR p,ege 511.
- ANSWER (C.3)
)
b.
- REFERENCE (C.3)
Reed Technical Specification, Table 11, page 9
- ANSWER (C.4)
d j
' REFERENCE GA Triga Maintenance and Operating Manual
- ANSWER (C.5)
c.
- REFERENCE (C.5)
Reed instrument Maint. Manual, page 1-14.
- ANSWER (C.6)
a.
- REFERENCE (C.6)
Reed, EIPs, Section 1.2, page 2.
- ANSWER (C.7)
d.
- ANSWER (C 8)
b.
- REFERENCE (C.8)
Reed, Maintenance and Operating Manual, page 30.
- ANSWER (C.9)
b.
- REFERENCE (C.9)
Reed, Maintenance and Operating Manual, page 8 m
'Section C Plant and Rad Monitorina Systems Page 34
,
- ANSWER (C.10)
d
- REFERENCE RRF Description and SAR (pg 5-7)
- ANSWER (C.11)
c.
- REFERENCE (C.11)
Reed, Mech. Maint. and Operating Manual, Page 11.
' ANSWER (C.12)
c
- REFERENCE (C12)
GA TRIGA Mech. Maint. & Operating Manual
- ANSWER (C.13)
c
- REFERENCE RRF Introductic9 to Radioactivity (pg 12-1-25 & 2-31)
i
- ANSWER (C.14)
i b.
- REFERENCE (C.14)
Reed, Instrumentation Maintenance Manual, page 1-13,14.
- ANSWER (C.15)
d.
- REFERENCE (C.15)
Reed, Mechanical Maintenance and Operating Manual, page 84.
- ANSWER (C.16)
c.
- REFERENCE (C.16)
RF Training Manual, page 6-12.
- ANSWER (C.17)
c.-
- REFERENCE (C.17)
Reed, Survey instrument instruction Manuals, Model RO-2, page _
, * ' Secti on C Plant and Rad Monitorina Systems Page 35
- ^J20"!:R (0.10)
,
- .
- ntrCCC N OE (0.10)
nad C^P 30, p;;; 4.
- ANSWER (C.19)
c.
' REFERENCE SAR Section 5.3.2, pg 5-14
- ANSWER (C.20)
. a.
- REFERENCE (C.20)
Standard pump performance theory.
(*** End of Section C ***)
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