ML24052A337

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Examination Report Letter No. 50-193/OL-24-01, Rhode Island Nuclear Science Center
ML24052A337
Person / Time
Site: Rhode Island Atomic Energy Commission
(R-95)
Issue date: 04/25/2024
From: Travis Tate
NRC/NRR/DANU/UNPO
To: Goodwin C
Rhode Island Nuclear Science Center
References
50-193/24-01 50-193/OL-24
Download: ML24052A337 (37)


Text

Dr. Cameron Goodwin, Director Rhode Island Nuclear Science Center 16 Reactor Road Narragansett, RI 02882-1165

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-193/OL-24-01, RHODE ISLAND NUCLEAR SCIENCE CENTER

Dear Dr. Goodwin:

During the week of April 15, 2024, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered an operator licensing examination at your Rhode Island Nuclear Science Center Research Reactor. The examinations were conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.

In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC website at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Dan Hoang at (301) 415-3052 or via email at Dan.Hoang@nrc.gov.

Sincerely, Travis L. Tate, Chief Non-Power Production and Utilization Facility Oversight Branch Division of Advanced Reactors and Non-Power Production and Utilization Facilities Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No. 50-193

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-193/OL-24-01
2. Written examination cc: w/enclosures to GovDelivery Subscribers April 25, 2024 Signed by Tate, Travis on 04/25/24

ML24052A337 NRR-079 OFFICE NRR/DANU/UNPO/CE NRR/DANU/UNPO/OLA NRR/DANU/UNPO/BC NAME DHoang NJones TTate DATE 4/25/2024 4/25/2024 4/25/2024 U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT REPORT NO.:

50-193/OL-24-01 FACILITY DOCKET NO.:

50-193 FACILITY LICENSE NO.:

R-95 FACILITY:

POOL EXAMINATION DATES:

Week of April 15, 2024 SUBMITTED BY:

SUMMARY

REPORT DETAILS 1.

Examiner:

Dan V. Hoang, Chief Examiner, NRC 2.

Results:

RO PASS/FAIL SRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAIL Written 1/0 N/A 1/0 Operating Tests 1/0 N/A 1/0 Overall 1/0 N/A 1/0 3.

Exit Meeting:

Matthew M. Marrapese, Reactor Supervisor, RINSC Michael J. Davis, Assistant Director, RINSC John Dunn, Facility Engineer, RINSC Dan V. Hoang, Chief Examiner, NRC Facility comments were accepted prior to the administration of the written examination.

At the conclusion of the meeting, the NRC examiner thanked the facility for their support during the administration of the examinations. The examiner discussed the weaknesses observed during the operating test to include modifications to procedures and how to improve program performance in the training programs.

Dan v. Hoang_______

4/23/2024 Dan V. Hoang, Chief Examiner Date

RHODE ISLAND NUCLEAR SCIENCE CENTER Operator Licensing Examination Week of April 15th, 2024 U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY:

Rhode Island Nuclear Science Center REACTOR TYPE:

POOL DATE ADMINISTERED:

04/16/2024.

CANDIDATE:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:

Answers are to be written on the Answer sheet provided. Attach all Answer sheets to the examination. Point values are indicated in parentheses for each question. A 70% in each category is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.

% OF CATEGORY % OF CANDIDATE'S CATEGORY VALUE TOTAL SCORE VALUE CATEGORY 20.00 33.3 A. REACTOR THEORY, THERMODYNAMICS AND FACILITY OPERATING CHARACTERISTICS 20.00 33.3 B.

NORMAL AND EMERGENCY OPERATING PROCEDURES AND RADIOLOGICAL CONTROLS 19.00 33.3 C.

FACILITY AND RADIATION MONITORING SYSTEMS 59.00 %

TOTALS FINAL GRADE All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Candidate's Signature

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, & Facility Operating Characteristics A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

A01 a b c d ___

A02 a b c d ___

A03 a b c d ___

A04 a b c d ___

A05 a b c d ___

A06 a b c d ___

A07 a b c d ___

A08 a b c d ___

A09 a b c d ___

A10 a b c d ___

A11 a b c d ___

A12 a b c d ___

A13 a b c d ___

A14 a b c d ____

A15 a b c d ___

A16 a b c d ___

A17 a b c d ___

A18 a b c d ___

A19 a b c d ___

A20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

B01 a b c d ___

B02 a b c d ___

B03 a b c d ___

B04 a b c d ___

B05 a b c d ___

B06 a b c d ___

B07 a b c d ___

B08 a___ b___ c___ d___(0.25 each)

B09 a b c d ___

B10 a b c d ___

B11 a b c d ___

B12 a b c d ___

B13 a b c d ___

B14 a b c d ___

B15 a b c d ____

B16 a b c d ___

B17 a b c d ___

B18 a b c d ___

B19 a b c d ___

B20 a___ b___ c___ d___(0.25 each)

(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)

Category C: Plant and Radiation Monitoring Systems A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

C01 a b c d ___

C02 a b c d ___

C03 a b c d ___

C04 a b c d ___

C05 a b c d ___

C06 a b c d ___

C07 a b c d ___

C08 a b c d ___

C09 a___ b___ c___ d ___(0.5 each)

C10 a b c d ___

C11 a b c d ___

C12 a b c d ___

C13 a b c d ___

C14 a b c d ___

C15 a b c d ___

C16 a b c d ___

C17 a b c d ___

C18 a b c d ___

C19 a b c d ___

(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)

(********** END OF EXAMINATION **********)

NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

1.

Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.

2.

After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.

3.

Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.

4.

Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.

5.

Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each Answer sheet.

6.

Mark your Answers on the Answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.

7.

The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.

8.

If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.

9.

When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and Answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.

10.

Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your Answer is on your Answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.

11.

To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.

12.

There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.

EQUATION SHEET

=

+

DR - Rem, Ci - curies, E - Mev, R - feet 1 Curie = 3.7 x 1010 dis/sec 1 kg = 2.21 lb 1 Horsepower = 2.54 x 103 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41 x 106 BTU/hr 1 BTU = 778 ft-lb

°F = 9/5 °C + 32 1 gal (H2O) 8 lb

°C = 5/9 (°F - 32) cP = 1.0 BTU/hr/lb/°F cp = 1 cal/sec/gm/°C

2 2

max

P 1

sec 1.0

eff

te P

P 0

eff K

S S

SCR

1

sec 10 1

4

eff SUR 06 26

2 1

1 1

2 1

eff eff K

CR K

CR

2 2

1 1

CR CR 2

1 1

1 eff eff K

K M

1 2

1 1

CR CR K

M eff

)

(

0 10 t

SUR P

P

0 1

P P

eff eff K

K SDM

1

2 1

1 2

eff eff eff eff K

K K

K

693

.0 2

1 T

eff eff K

K 1

t e

DR DR

0

2 6

R n

E Ci DR 2

2 2

2 1

1 d

DR d

DR

1 2

1 2

2 2

Peak Peak

T UA H

m T

c m

Q P

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.01

[1.0 point]

What is the major source of energy released during fission?

a.

Kinetic energy of prompt and delayed neutrons.

b.

Kinetic energy of fission fragments.

c.

Alpha and beta radiation.

d.

Gamma radiation decay.

QUESTION A.02

[1.0 point]

For the alpha decay of a nuclide, the number of protons will and its atomic mass number will _____________.

a.

increase by 2 / increase by 2.

b.

decrease by 2 / decrease by 4.

c.

decrease by 4 / decrease by 2.

d.

increase by 4 / increase by 2.

QUESTION A.03

[1.0 point]

The FAST FISSION FACTOR is defined as a ratio of:

a.

the number of neutrons that reach thermal energy over the number of fast neutrons that start to slow down.

b.

the number of fast neutrons produced from fission in a generation over the number of fast neutrons produced from fission in the previous generation.

c.

the number of fast neutrons produced from U-238 over the number of thermal neutrons produced from U-235.

d.

the number of fast neutrons produced from all fission over the number of fast neutrons produced from thermal fission.

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.04

[1.0 point]

Given a source strength of 1000 neutrons per second (N/sec) and a multiplication factor of 0.8, which ONE of the following is the expected stable neutron count rate?

a.

700 N/sec.

b.

5000 N/sec.

c.

10000 N/sec.

d.

20000 N/sec.

QUESTION A.05

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the stable reactor period which will result in a power rise from 1% to 100% power in 2 minutes?

a.

0.5 second.

b.

13 seconds.

c.

26 seconds.

d.

43 seconds.

QUESTION A.06

[1.0 point]

The reactor is SHUTDOWN by 5 %k/k with the count rate of 1000 counts per second (cps).

The control rods are withdrawn until the count rate is quadrupled. What is the value of Keff?

a.

0.952 b.

0.976 c.

0.988 d.

1.002

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.07

[1.0 point]

Inelastic scattering can be described as a process whereby a neutron collides with a nucleus and leaves the nucleus in an excited state. The nucleus later:

a.

emits a gamma ray and a neutron with lower energy.

b.

emits a gamma ray and a neutron with higher energy.

c.

emits a beta particle and a neutron with lower energy.

d.

emits an alpha particle ONLY.

QUESTION A.08

[1.0 point]

While a reactor is at 5 watts, the reactor operator is withdrawing a control rod to insert a positive reactivity of 0.156 %k/k. Which ONE of the following will be the stable reactor period as a result of this withdrawal? Given beta-effective = 0.0073 and eff= 0.1.

a.

17 seconds.

b.

27 seconds.

c.

37 seconds.

d.

47 seconds.

QUESTION A.09

[1.0 point]

Which term is described by the following?

The increase in neutron population by providing a positive additional reactivity while the reactor is subcritical.

a.

Subcritical Multiplication.

b.

Inverse Multiplication.

c.

Neutron Production.

d.

Source Strength.

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.10

[1.00 point]

What is ?

a.

The fractional change in neutron population per generation.

b.

The fraction of all fission neutrons that are born as delayed neutrons.

c.

The time required for the reactor to change by power by a factor of e.

d.

The fraction of all delayed neutrons that reach thermal energy.

QUESTION A.11

[1.00 point]

Which ONE of the following types of neutrons has a mean neutron generation lifetime of 12.5 seconds?

a.

Prompt.

b.

Delayed.

c.

Fast.

d.

Thermal.

QUESTION A.12

[1.00 point]

Which term is described by the following?

Depart from criticality.

a.

1/M b.

K-effective c.

Reactor period d.

Reactivity

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.13

[1.00 point]

Which ONE of the following has a long-term effect on Keff but is of no consequence during short term and transient operation?

a.

Fuel burnup.

b.

Increase in fuel temperature.

c.

Increase in moderator temperature.

d.

Xenon and Samarium fission products.

QUESTION A.14

[1.00 point]

A mechanism by which a nucleus can gain stability by converting a neutron to a proton or vice versa is called:

a.

alpha decay.

b.

beta decay.

c.

gamma decay.

d.

photoelectric effect.

QUESTION A.15

[1.00 point]

The reactor is at 5 watts. The reactor operator accidentally inserts a fuel element worth of 0.8%k/k into the core. With this insertion, the reactor will be:

a.

subcritical.

b.

Critical.

c.

Not critical.

d.

prompt critical.

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.16

[1.0 point]

On the average, how many neutrons are produced for each fission of U-235?

a.

2.00 neutrons.

b.

2.09 neutrons.

c.

2.42 neutrons.

d.

2.93 neutrons.

QUESTION A.17

[1.0 point]

Excess reactivity is the amount of reactivity ________.

a.

associated with burnable poisons.

b.

needed to achieve prompt criticality.

c.

available below that which is required to make the reactor subcritical.

d.

available above that which is required to keep the reactor critical.

QUESTION A.18

[1.00 point]

Which ONE of the following is a correct statement of why delayed neutrons enhance the ability to control reactor power than prompt neutrons?

a.

Delayed neutrons are born at higher energy levels than prompt neutrons, so delayed neutron can easily cause fission in U-235 with their high energies.

b.

Delayed neutrons increase the average neutron lifetime that allows the reactor control rods control the population of delayed neutrons.

c.

Prompt neutrons can cause fissions in both U-235 and U-238; whereas delayed neutrons can only cause fissions in U-235.

d.

The absorption cross section of delayed neutrons is lower than the absorption cross section of prompt neutrons with U-235.

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.19

[1.00 point]

Which ONE of the following is the main reason for the decrease in reactivity following an increase in fuel temperature?

a.

Low fuel element reactivity worth.

b.

High fuel element reactivity worth.

c.

Reactor fuel type.

d.

A long delay time for transferring heat to the core cooling water.

QUESTION A.20

[1.00 point]

A reactor is slightly supercritical with the following values for each of the factors in the six-factor formular:

Fast fission factor 1.05 Fast non-leakage probability 0.80 Resonance escape probability 0.90 Thermal non-leakage probability 0.92 Thermal utilization factor 0.80 Reproduction factor 1.86 A control rod is inserted to bring the reactor back to critical. Assuming all other factors remain unchanged, the new value for the thermal utilization factor is:

a.

0.698 b.

0.702 c.

0.743 d.

0.773

(***** END OF SECTION A *****)

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.01

[1.00 point]

Reactor Operator works in a high radiation area for eight (8) hours a day. The dose rate in the area is 100 mR/hour. Which ONE of the following is the MAXIMUM number of days in which Reactor Operator may perform his duties WITHOUT exceeding 10 CFR 20 limits?

a.

5 days b.

6 days c.

7 days d.

12 days QUESTION B.02

[1.00 point]

An annual test of the nuclear instrument was performed. Which ONE of the following is the latest the test that must be performed AGAIN without violation of the Technical Specifications?

a.

Not to exceed 13 months.

b.

Not to exceed 14 months.

c.

Not to exceed 15 months.

d.

Not to exceed 16 months.

QUESTION B.03

[1.00 point]

The reactivity worth of the regulating rod shall not exceed______.

a.

0.08 %k/k b.

0.6 %k/k c.

1.0 %k/k d.

3.0 %k/k

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.04

[1.00 point]

Per Procedure SP-01, Facility Access for Visitors, the area that includes the reactor building and the reactor building basement is the _________.

a.

Vital Area b.

Unescorted Area c.

Reconvening Area d.

Uncontrolled Access Area QUESTION B.05

[1.00 point]

The below items are listed as a reportable occurrence, EXCEPT:

a.

Fuel cladding failure.

b.

A violation of the safety limit.

c.

An uncontrolled reactivity change of 0.7 %K/K.

d.

Operation in violation of a limiting condition for operation established in the Technical Specifications.

QUESTION B.06

[1.00 point]

The requalification program must be conducted for a continuous period not to exceed 24 months in duration, in accordance with _______.

a.

10 CFR 19 b.

10 CFR 20 c.

10 CFR 50 d.

10 CFR 55

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.07

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following conditions is a NOT violation of RINSC Technical Specifications, Primary Coolant Conductivity?

a.

Conductivity of the pool water is >2 micromhos/cm.

b.

Conductivity of the pool water is <2 micromhos/cm.

c.

Conductivity of the pool water is <2.5 micromhos/cm.

d.

Conductivity of the pool water is >2.5 micromhos/cm.

QUESTION B.08

[1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the events listed in column A with its emergency classification listed in column B.

Values in Column B can be used once, more than once or not at all.

Column A Column B a.

Loss of building electricity.

1. Unusual Event.

b.

Fire in the reactor control room.

2. Alert.

c.

Hurricane causing damage to the reactor building and 3. Site Area.

Emergency reactor pool resulting in major coolant leakage.

d.

Receipt of a bomb threat directly to the reactor facility. 4. General Emergency.

QUESTION B.09

[1.0 point]

A system or component is defined as "OPERABLE" by Technical Specifications when:

a.

a system is operational when reactor is in the unsecured condition.

b.

a system is operational when reactor is in the shutdown condition.

c.

operating whenever it is not unsecured or shutdown.

d.

it is capable of performing its intended function.

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.10

[1.0 point]

Per 10 CFR 20, what is the annual limit of radiation exposure for a visitor?

a.

2 mRem/hr.

b.

100 mRem/hr.

c.

100 mRem.

d.

No limit defined, just need to meet an ALARA program.

QUESTION B.11

[1.00 point]

Which ONE of following types of radiation is the HIGHEST Quality Factor specified in 10 CFR 20?

a.

Alpha.

b.

Beta.

c.

Gamma.

d.

Neutron (unknown energy).

QUESTION B.12

[1.0 point]

A two-curie source emits 80% of a 500 K-ev gamma, what is its dose rate at 1 foot?

a.

0.8 R/hr at 1 ft.

b.

4.8 R/hr at 1 ft.

c.

80 R/hr at 1 ft.

d.

480 R/hr at 1 ft.

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.13

[1.0 point]

Per RINSC Technical Specifications, the insertion rates of individual control rod and Reg rod simultaneously shall not exceed ________.

a.

0.02% k/k per second b.

0.002% k/k per second c.

0.05% k/k per second d.

0.005% k/k per second QUESTION B.14

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is NOT a responsibility of the RO?

a.

Review and audit of safety aspects of reactor facility operations.

b.

Control room observation when core reactivity may be affected.

c.

Participation in requalification program

d.

Preparation of logs and records of reactor operations QUESTION B.15

[1.00 point]

According to the technical specifications, which ONE of the following surveillance activities is NOT required to be performed annually?

a.

Core excess reactivity.

b.

Core shutdown margin.

c.

Shim safety blade reactivity worth.

d.

On-going experiment reactivity worth.

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.16

[1.0 point]

The ventilation flow through the Emergency Filter Bank shall be verified to be less than or equal to 1500 SCFM. The verification shall be performed at least:

a.

Quarterly.

b.

Semi-annually.

c.

Monthly.

d.

Biennially.

QUESTION B.17

[1.0 point]

The Quality Factor is used to convert:

a.

External dose to internal dose.

b.

Dose in rems to dose equivalent in rads.

c.

Dose in rads to dose equivalent in rems.

d.

Derived air concentration (DAC) to Annual limit on Intake (ALI).

QUESTION B.18

[1.00 point]

Which ONE of the following is NOT a guidance/recommendation under Planned Occupational Exposure under Emergency Conditions for Life Saving Actions?

a.

Rescue personnel should be volunteers from the staff or from professional rescue personnel.

b.

Planned whole body dose shall not exceed 100 rems.

c.

Persons receiving exposures limit can receive multiple times in a future as needed.

d.

Normally, exposure under these conditions shall be limited to once in a lifetime.

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.19

[1.00 point]

Which ONE of the following hospitals has agreed to accept contaminated victims for medical treatments?

a.

Rhode Island Hospital in Providence.

b.

Kent County Hospital in Warwick.

c.

South County Hospital in Wakefield.

d.

Newport Hospital in Newport.

QUESTION B.20

[1.0 point, 0.25 point each]

Match each of the Technical Specification Limits in column A with its corresponding value in column B.

Column A Column B a.

Worth of single secured experiment 1. 0.08 %k/k b.

Non-Secured experiment 2. 4.7 %k/k c.

Excess reactivity

3. 0.6 %k/k
d.

Shutdown margin 4.

1.00 %k/k

(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.01

[1.0 point]

RINSC TP-03 lists four methods that can be used to determine control rod reactivity worth.

When using the positive period method which ONE of the following parameters is used?

a.

Pool level vs. coolant level.

b.

Reactivity vs. rod height.

c.

Temperature vs. period.

d.

Count rate vs. k-effective.

QUESTION C.02

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following conditions WILL cause an automatic reactor scram?

a.

High Voltage reading 25 V below suggested operating voltage.

b.

Loss of control rod drive communication for 5 seconds.

c.

Primary coolant flow rate reading 1480 gpm.

d.

Coolant Inlet or Outlet Gates closed.

QUESTION C.03

[1.0 point]

In order to test the Watchdog Scram, you should:

a.

Disconnect the building internet server that supports the internet for the RINSC computers.

b.

Withdraw the Regulating blades at full out position and hold the manual scram for 10 seconds.

c.

Turn the Watchdog Scram Test and the Master Switches to TEST simultaneously.

d.

Turn the Watchdog Scram Test Switch to TEST.

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.04

[1.0 point]

The confinement system is required to be operable to minimize the potential for release of airborne radioactive material to the environment. Which ONE of the following activities does NOT require confinement to be operable?

a.

The reactor is operating.

b.

New fuel handling is in progress.

c.

Work on the core that could cause a change in reactivity of more than 0.60 %k/k.

d.

Experiment movement that could cause a change in reactivity of more than 0.60 %k/k.

QUESTION C.05

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements concerning the RINSC reactor fuel is TRUE?

a.

Each fuel element shall contain 22 plates.

b.

Each fuel element shall contain uranium oxide fuel.

c.

Each fuel element shall contain uranium enriched to less than 20% in the isotope U-238.

d.

Each fuel element shall contain no more than 238 grams of U-235.

QUESTION C.06

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is TRUE about the facility ventilation system?

a.

In normal mode, all of the air is exhausted through a series of charcoal and HEPA filters before going out through the stack.

b.

In normal mode, the off-gas and rabbit system blowers are secured.

c.

In emergency mode, the inlet damper remains in the OPEN position while the exhaust damper goes to the CLOSED position.

d.

In emergency mode, the dilution blower remains in operation.

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.07

[1.0 point]

During emergency conditions, the MAIN purpose of the activated charcoal section in the filter bank is to remove 99% of any airborne radioactive___________present in the reactor room air a.

Argon-41.

b.

Nitrogen-16.

c.

Iodine.

d.

Xenon.

QUESTION C.08

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following materials is the regulating blade made of?

a.

Aluminum.

b.

Boron.

c.

Cadmium.

d.

Stainless Steel.

QUESTION C.09

[2.0 point, 0.5 each]

Match the following actions used in Column A with their respective definitions in Column B:

COLUMN A COLUMN B

a. You compare readings of Safety Channel 1. Channel Check with Linear Channel during reactor operations.
2. Channel Test b.

During startup, you verify the reactor scram at 115% power.

3. Channel Calibration c.

During startup, you verify the reactor scram due to a loss of Watchdog communication d.

You adjust a safety channel reading after conducting a thermal power calibration

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.10

[1.0 point]

To ensure the integrity of the fuel cladding is NOT damaged due to overheating, The Temperature of the reactor fuel cladding shall be:

a.

Less than 5300C.

b.

More than 5300C.

c.

Less than 5300F.

d.

More than 5300F.

QUESTION C.11

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements concerning the RINSC reactor fuel is TRUE?

a.

Each fuel element shall contain 22 plates.

b.

Each fuel element shall contain uranium oxide fuel.

c.

Each fuel element shall contain uranium enriched to less than 20% in the isotope U-238.

d.

Each fuel element shall contain no more than 238 grams of U-235.

QUESTION C.12

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following provides a reactor scram in any mode of operations?

a.

Pool Temperature = 122 °F.

b.

Seismic Disturbance.

c.

No Flow Thermal Column.

d.

Primary Coolant Flow Rate = 1600 gpm.

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.13

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes how the Compensated Ion Chamber (CIC) is constructed?

a.

The CIC has two chambers, one is coated with U-235 for fission reaction and the other is coated with Boron-10 for (n,a) reaction.

b.

The CIC has only one chamber coated with U-235 for fission reaction.

c.

The CIC has two chambers, both can sense gamma rays but only one is coated with Boron-10 for (n,a) reaction.

d.

The CIC has only one chamber coated with Boron-10 for (n,a) reaction.

QUESTION C.14

[1.0 point]

During a reactor operation, you discover the Stack Particulate Monitor (SPM) pump has been turned OFF since yesterday. Which ONE of the following actions should you take?

a.

Immediately secure reactor. This event is a Technical Specification (TS) violation.

b.

Immediately secure reactor, but this event is NOT a TS violation because the SPM is still operable.

c.

Continue with reactor operation. Up to 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> is allowed to run reactor before replacing the Stack Particulate Monitor.

d.

Continue with reactor operation. The Technical Specifications require only RAMs and Stack Gas monitors during reactor operation.

QUESTION C.15

[1.0 point]

RINSC TP-03 lists four methods that can be used to determine control rod reactivity worth.

Which one is NOT the one of them.

a.

The Positive Period Method.

b.

The Rod Drop Method.

c.

The Subcritical Multiplication Method.

d.

The Neutron Multiplication Method.

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.16

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is NOT required to be determined for core shutdown margin?

a.

Annually surveillance is required.

b.

Core reflection is changed.

c.

Following control blade is changed.

d.

The reactivity worth of experiments is changed.

QUESTION C.17

[1.0 point]

The Main purpose for setting a conductivity limit of the pool water is to:

a.

Maintain the departure of nucleate boiling ratio (DNBR) greater than the unity.

b.

Minimize the possibility of corrosion of the cladding on the fuel elements.

c.

Extend integrity of resin bed on the demineralizer.

d.

Minimize Ar-41 released to the public.

QUESTION C.18

[1.0 point]

RINSC Technical Specifications requires all dry new fuel storage facilities shall have a configuration where keff is less than ______ under water flooded conditions.

a.

0.6 b.

0.7 c.

0.8

d.

0.9

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.19

[1.0 point]

The design basis for the thermal column is to provide:

a.

the biological shield from the reactor core.

b.

a fast neutron flux for experiments.

c.

a thermal neutron flux for experiments.

d.

a shield of fast neutrons entered to the experiments.

(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)

((***** END OF EXAM *****))

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics A.01 Answer:

b

Reference:

Glasstone, Nuclear Reactor Engineering, Section 1.47 & Burns, Section 3.2.1, page 3-5 A.02 Answer:

b

Reference:

Chart of the Nuclides.

A.03 Answer:

d

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction of Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, Sec 3.3.1, page 3-16.

A.04 Answer:

b Reference :

CR = S/(1-K) CR = 1000/(1 - 0.8) = 5000 N/sec A.05 Answer:

c

Reference:

P = P et/T --> T= t/Ln(P/ P0 ); T= 120/Ln(100 ); T = 26 sec.

A.06 Answer:

c

Reference:

Keff1=1/1-1; Keff1 =1/(1-(-. 5)) -->Keff1= 0.952, Count1*(1-Keff1) = Count2*(1-Keff2) ; Count1*(1-0.952) = Count2*(1-Keff2) 1000*(1-0.952) = 4000(1-Keff2); Keff2 = 0.988 A.07 Answer:

a

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction of Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, Sec 2.4.5, page 2-29.

A.08 Answer c

Reference:

Reactivity added = 0.156 %k/k = 0.00156 k/k

= (-)/eff = (0.0073 - 0.00156)/ ((0.1)*(0.00156)) = 37 seconds A.09 Answer:

a

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, Section 5.1, Subcritical Multiplication A.10 Answer:

b

Reference:

DOE Handbook Vol. 2 Module 4 A.11 Answer:

b

Reference:

DOE Handbook Vol. 1 Module 2, Section 3.0

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics A.12 Answer:

d

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction of Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, Sec 3.3.4 A.13 Answer:

a

Reference:

Standard NRC question A.14 Answer:

b

Reference:

Standard NRC question A.15 Answer:

d

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction of Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, Sec 4.2, page 4-1 A.16 Answer:

c

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, Section 3.2, Table 3.1, page 3-3 A.17 Answer:

d

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals of Nuclear Engineering, Chapter 3, page 61 A.18 Answer:

b

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction of Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, Sec 3.3.3, page 3-37 A.19 Answer:

c

Reference:

NRC Standard Question A.20 Answer:

d

Reference:

Keff = 1.05*0.80*0.90*0.92*1.86*X X= 1/1.294 = 0.773

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls B.01 Answer:

b

Reference:

10CFR20.1201(a)(1) [5000 mR ÷ (100mR X 8 hrs) = 6.25 days B.02 Answer:

c

Reference:

RINSC TS Definition 1.43.3 B.03 Answer:

b

Reference:

RINSC TS 3.1.1.2 B.04 Answer:

a

Reference:

RINSC SP-o1 B.05 Answer:

c

Reference:

RINSC TS 1.31 B.06 Answer:

d

Reference:

10 CFR 55.59(a)(1)

B.07 Answer:

b

Reference:

RINSC TS 3.3.1.1 B.08 Answer:

a(1) b(2) c(3) d(1)

(0.25 each)

Reference:

EP 4.1, EP 4.2, and EP 4.3 B.09 Answer:

d

Reference:

TS 1.18 B.10 Answer:

c

Reference:

10 CFR 20.1301(1)

B.11 Answer:

a

Reference:

10 CFR 20.1004

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls B.12 Answer:

b

Reference:

6CEN = R/hr @ 1 ft. -> 6 x 2 x.8 x.5 = 4.8 R/hr at 1ft.

B.13 Answer:

a

Reference:

RINSC TS 3.2.3 B.14 Answer:

a

Reference:

RINSC TS 6.1.2.7 B.15 Answer:

d

Reference:

RINSC TS 4.1.1.3.2 B.16 Answer:

d

Reference:

RINSC TS 4.5.5.1 B.17 Answer:

c

Reference:

10 CFR 20.1004, Table 1004(b).1 B.18 Answer:

c

Reference:

RINSC EP 7.5.1 B.19 Answer:

a

Reference:

RINSC EP 8.3 B.20 Answer:

a,3 b,1 c,2 d,4

Reference:

RINSC TS 3.1.1 C.01 Answer:

b

Reference:

RINSC TP-03 C.02 Answer:

c

Reference:

RINSC TS Table 3.1 C.03 Answer:

d

Reference:

RINSC OP-02, page 12 C.04 Answer:

b

Reference:

RINSC TS 3.4 C.05 Answer:

a

Reference:

RINSC TS 5.2 C.06 Answer:

d

Reference:

RINSC SAR 9.2.2 C.07 Answer:

c

Reference:

RINSC SOP, MP-02 C.08 Answer:

d

Reference:

RINSC SAR 3.5.1 C.09 Answer:

a (1) b (2) c (2) d (3)

(0.5 each)

Reference:

RINSC TS 1.2, 1.3, and 1.4 C.10 Answer:

a

Reference:

RINSC TS 2.1 C.11 Answer:

a

Reference:

RINSC TS 5.2 C.12 Answer:

b

Reference:

RINSC TS 3.2, Table 3.1.1 C.13 Answer:

c

Reference:

Standard NRC question

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls C.14 Answer:

a

Reference:

RINSC TS 3.7.1.2.2 C.15 Answer:

d

Reference:

RINSC TP-03 C.16 Answer:

d

Reference:

RINSC TS 4.1.1.1.1 C.17 Answer:

b

Reference:

RINSC TS 4.3.1.1 C.18 Answer:

c

Reference:

RINSC TS 5.3.1 C.19 Answer:

c

Reference:

RINSC SAR 10.2.4