ML23143A312

Examination Report Letter No. 50-243/OL-23-01, Oregon State University

ML23143A312
Person / Time
Site:	Oregon State University
Issue date:	07/10/2023
From:	Travis Tate NRC/NRR/DANU/UNPO
To:	Reese S Oregon State University, Oregon State University, TRIGA Reactor
References
50-243/OL-23-01 OL-23-01
Download: ML23143A312 (35)

Text

July 10, 2023 Dr. Steven R. Reese, Director Oregon State University 100 Radiation Center Corvallis, OR 97337-5903

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-243/OL-23-01, OREGON STATE UNIVERSITY

Dear Dr. Reese:

During the week of June 19, 2023, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered an operator licensing examination at your Oregon State University research reactor. The examinations were conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.

In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC website at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Dan V. Hoang at (301) 415-3052 or via email at Dan.Hoang@nrc.gov.

Sincerely, Signed by Tate, Travis on 07/10/23 Travis L. Tate, Chief Non-Power Production and Utilization Facility Oversight Branch Division of Advanced Reactors and Non-Power Production and Utilization Facilities Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No. 50-243

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-243/OL-23-01

2. Written examination cc: w/ enclosures to GovDelivery Subscribers

ML23143A312 NRR-079 OFFICE NRR/DANU/UNPO/CE NRR/DANU/UNPO/OLA NRR/DANU/UNPO/BC NAME DHoang NJones TTate DATE 7/6/2023 7/10/2023 7/10/2023 U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT REPORT NO.: 50-243/OL-23-01 FACILITY DOCKET NO.: 50-243 FACILITY LICENSE NO.: R-160 FACILITY: TRIGA EXAMINATION DATES: June 19 - June 23, 2023 SUBMITTED BY ____Danvhoang____________ _6/26/2023__

Dan V. Hoang, Chief Examiner Date

SUMMARY

During the weeks of June 19, 2023, the NRC administered operator licensing examinations to five Reactor Operators (RO) candidates. The candidates passed all applicable portions of the examinations.

REPORT DETAILS

1. Examiner: Dan V. Hoang, Chief Examiner, NRC

2. Results:

RO PASS/FAIL SRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAIL Written 5/0 N/A 5/0 Operating Tests 5/0 N/A 5/0 Overall 5/0 N/A 5/0

3. Exit Meeting:

Celia Oney, Reactor Supervisor, OSU Chris Kulah, Senior Reactor Operator, OSU Dan V. Hoang, Chief Examiner, NRC Facility comments were accepted prior to the administration of the written examination.

Upon completion of an operator licensing examination, the NRC examiner met with facility staff representatives to discuss the results. At the conclusion of the meeting, the NRC examiner thanked the facility for their support in the administration of the examination.

Enclosure 1

U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY: Oregon State University REACTOR TYPE: TRIGA.

DATE ADMINISTERED: 06/21/2023.

CANDIDATE: _______________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:

Answers are to be written on the Answer sheet provided. Attach all Answer sheets to the examination. Point values are indicated in parentheses for each question. A 70% in each category is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.

% OF CATEGORY % OF CANDIDATE'S CATEGORY VALUE TOTAL SCORE VALUE CATEGORY 20.00 33.3 A. REACTOR THEORY, THERMODYNAMICS AND FACILITY OPERATING CHARACTERISTICS 20.00 33.3 B. NORMAL AND EMERGENCY OPERATING PROCEDURES AND RADIOLOGICAL CONTROLS 20.00 33.3 C. FACILITY AND RADIATION MONITORING SYSTEMS 60.00  % TOTALS FINAL GRADE All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Candidate's Signature Enclosure 2

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, & Facility Operating Characteristics ANSWER SHEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

A01 a b c d ___

A02 a b c d ___

A03 a b c d ___

A04 a b c d ___

A05 a b c d ___

A06 a b c d ___

A07 a b c d ___

A08 a b c d ___

A09 a b c d ___

A10 a b c d ___

A11 a b c d ___

A12 a b c d ___

A13 a b c d ___

A14 a b c d ____

A15 a b c d ___

A16 a b c d ___

A17 a b c d ___

A18 a b c d ___

A19 a b c d ___

A20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls ANSWER SHEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

B01 a b c d ___

B02 a b c d ___

B03 a b c d ___

B04 a b c d ___

B05 a b c d ___

B06 a b c d ___

B07 a b c d ___

B08 a b c d ___

B09 a b c d ___

B10 a b c d ___

B11 a b c d ___

B12 a b c d ___

B13 a b c d ___

B14 a b c d ___

B15 a b c d ___

B16 a b c d ___

B17 a b c d ___

B18 a b c d ___

B19 a b c d ___

B20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)

Category C: Plant and Radiation Monitoring Systems ANSWER SHEET Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

C01 a b c d ___

C02 a b c d ___

C03 a b c d ___

C04 a b c d ___

C05 a b c d ___

C06 a b c d ___

C07 a b c d ___

C08 a b c d ___

C09 a b c d ___

C10 a b c d ___

C11 a b c d ___

C12 a b c d ___

C13 a b c d ___

C14 a b c d ___

C15 a b c d ___

C16 a b c d ___

C17 a b c d ___

C18 a b c d ___

C19 a b c d ___

C20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)

(********** END OF EXAMINATION **********)

NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.

2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.

3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.

4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.

5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each Answer sheet.

6. Mark your Answers on the Answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.

7. The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.

8. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.

9. When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and Answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.

10. Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your Answer is on your Answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.

11. To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.

12. There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.

EQUATION SHEET

2 Q m c P T m H UAT Pmax eff 0.1sec 1 2

t P P0 e S S SCR

• 110 4 sec 1 K eff CR1 1 CR2 2 eff SUR 26 .06 CR1 1 K eff1 CR2 1 K eff 2 1 M 1 CR 2

P P0 1 K eff CR1 P P0 10 SUR (t )

1 K eff1 1 K eff

• M SDM 1 K eff 2 K eff

= + 0.693 T1 K eff 2 K eff1 2

K eff1 K eff 2 K eff 1 DR DR0 e t 2 2 K eff DR1 d1 DR2 d 2 6 Ci E n 2 2 1 2 DR R2 Peak2 Peak1 DR - Rem, Ci - curies, E - Mev, R - feet 1 Curie = 3.7 x 1010 dis/sec 1 kg = 2.21 lb 1 Horsepower = 2.54 x 103 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41 x 106 BTU/hr 1 BTU = 778 ft-lb °F = 9/5 °C + 32 1 gal (H2O) 8 lb °C = 5/9 (°F - 32) cP = 1.0 BTU/hr/lb/°F cp = 1 cal/sec/gm/°C

OREGON STATE UNIVERSITY Operator Licensing Examination Week of June 19, 2023

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.01 [1.0 point]

The effective neutron multiplication factor, Keff, is defined as:

a. Absorption / (Production + Leakage).

b. (Production + Leakage)/Absorption.

c. (Absorption + Leakage)/Production.

d. Production / (Absorption + Leakage).

QUESTION A.02 [1.0 point]

The reactor supervisor tells you that the Keff for the reactor is 0.955. How much reactivity must you add to the reactor to reach criticality?

a. +0.0471.

b. +0.0450.

c. -0.0471.

d. -0.0450.

QUESTION A.03 [1.0 point]

Shown below is a trace of reactor period as a function of time. Between points A and B reactor power is:

a. Continually increasing.

Point B

b. Continually decreasing.

Point A

c. Increasing, then decreasing. Positive

d. Constant.

Negativ e

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.04 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following describes the factors that have the greatest effect on the fast fission factor ()?

a. Enrichment of the fuel and temperature of the moderator.

b. Arrangement of the fuel and temperature of the moderator.

c. Enrichment and concentration of the fuel and the moderator.

d. Arrangement and concentrations of the fuel and the moderator.

QUESTION A.05 [1.0 point]

For higher neutron energies - What is the region of the absorption cross section steadily decreases as the energy of the neutron increases called

a. Slow neutron region.

b. Fast neutron region.

c. Increases the mass of the target region.

d. Destruction the mass of the target region.

QUESTION A.06 [1.0 point]

In an elastic scattering reaction between a neutron and a target nucleus, there is _____ into nuclear excitation.

a. Energy absorbing.

b. No energy transferred.

c. The nucleus emitting a gamma ray.

d. The nucleus recoil with a higher total kinetic energy.

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.07 [1.0 point]

Xenon-135 is formed directly by decay of __________?

a. Antimony-135.

b. Cesium -135.

c. Iodine-135.

d. Tellurium-135.

QUESTION A.08 [1.0 point]

Reactor power is rising on a 10 second period. Approximately how long will it take for power to quadruple?

a. 14 seconds.

b. 29 seconds.

c. 55 seconds.

d. 72 seconds.

QUESTION A.09 [1.0 point]

A reactor is slightly supercritical with the following values for each of the factors in the six-factor formula:

Fast Fission Factor = 1.03 Fast non-leakage probability = 0.84 Resonance Escape Probability = 0.96 Thermal non-leakage probability = 0.88 Thermal Utilization Factor = 0.70 Reproduction Factor = 1.96 A control rod is inserted to bring the reactor back to critical. Assuming all other factors remain unchanged, the new value for the Thermal Utilization Factor is:

a. 0.698.

b. 0.702.

c. 0.704.

d. 0.708.

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.10 [1.0 point]

Which one of the following is the correct reason that delayed neutrons allow the reactor operator control of the reactor?

a. Delayed neutrons increase the mean neutron lifetime.

b. More delayed neutrons are produced than prompt neutrons.

c. Delayed neutrons take longer to thermalize than prompt neutrons.

d. Delayed neutrons are born at higher energies than prompt neutrons.

QUESTION A.11 [1.0 point]

Which term is described by the following?

The time from birth of a neutron to absorption and is the sum of slowing down time and diffusion time.

a. Reactor period.

b. Neutron lifetime.

c. Multiplication time.

d. Delayed generation Time.

QUESTION A.12 [1.0 point]

You're increasing reactor power on a steady +52 second period. How long will it take to increase power by a factor of 10?

a. 2 minutes.

b. 5 minutes.

c. 10 minutes.

d. 20 minutes.

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.13 [1.0 point]

The Prompt Neutron generation time is approximately:

a. 5 X 10-5 seconds.

b. 1 X 10-2 seconds.

c. 5 seconds.

d. 1 second.

QUESTION A.14 [1.0 point]

A reactor is changing from the criticality to prompt criticality. Which ONE of the following best describes the values of Keff and during the change?

a. Keff = 1 and = 1.

b. Keff = 1 and = -eff.

c. Keff > 1 and 0 < < -eff.

d. Keff > 1 and -eff < < 1.

QUESTION A.15 [1.0 point]

Reactivity is defined as the:

a. Fractional change in neutron population per generation.

b. Number of neutrons by which neutron population changes per generation.

c. Rate of change of reactor power in neutron per second.

d. Change in the number of neutrons per second that causes a fission event.

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.16 [1.0 point]

The reactor is at 5 watts, when someone inserts an experiment which causes a 10 second positive period. If the scram delay time is 1 second and the lowest scram setpoint is 9.7 watts, which ONE of the following is the MAXIMUM power the reactor will reach prior to scramming?

a. 9.1 watts.

b. 10.7 watts.

c. 15.5 watts.

d. 20.7 watts.

QUESTION A.17 [1.0 point]

The reaction 93Np239 94Pu239 + is an example of:

a. Alpha Decay.

b. Beta Decay.

c. Gamma Emission.

d. Electron Capture.

QUESTION A.18 [1.0 point]

Some neutrons do not come directly from fission, but from fission product decay. These neutrons are called:

a. Thermal neutrons.

b. Delayed neutrons.

c. Neutron Production.

d. Fission neutrons.

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.19 [1.0 point]

INELASTIC SCATTERING is the process by which a neutron collides with a nucleus and

a. Is absorbed, with the nucleus emitting a gamma ray.

b. Recoils with the same kinetic energy it had prior to the collision.

c. Is absorbed, with the nucleus emitting a gamma ray, and the neutron with a lower kinetic energy.

d. Recoils with a higher kinetic energy than it had prior to the collision with the nucleus emitting a gamma ray.

QUESTION A.20 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the principal source of heat in the reactor after a shutdown from an extended 100kW operation?

a. Decay of fission fragments.

b. Production of delayed neutrons.

c. Spontaneous fission of Uranium - 238.

d. Subcritical reaction of photo neutrons.

(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.01 [1.0 point]

What is the exposure rate at a distance of 4 meters, if the initial exposure rate for a point source is 400 mR/hr at a distance of 2 meters?

a. 75 mR/hr.

b. 100 mR/hr.

c. 125 mR/hr.

d. 45 mR/hr.

QUESTION B.02 [1.0 point]

In accordance with the OSTR Emergency Plan, who can terminate an emergency and initiate recovery operations?

a. Emergency Coordinator.

b. Senior Health Physicist.

c. Dean of Faculty.

d. Licensed Reactor Operator.

QUESTION B.03 [1.0 point]

Per OSTR Emergency Plan, for live-saving situations, a total effective dose equivalent of up to ________ is permitted, with proper authorization.

a. 1 Rem

b. 2.5 Rem

c. 25 Rem

d. 250 Rem

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.04 [1.0 point]

Two-point sources have the same Curie strength. Source As gammas have an energy of 1 Mev, while Source Bs gammas have an energy of 2 Mev. You obtain a reading from the same GM tube 10 feet from each source. Concerning the two readings, which ONE of the following statements is true?

a. The reading from Source B is four times that of Source A.

b. The reading from Source B is twice that of Source A.

c. The reading from Source B is the same as Source A.

d. The reading from Source B. is half that of Source A.

QUESTION B.05 [1.0 point]

According to the OSTR Emergency Plan, which ONE of the following is NOT a Class 0 emergency?

a. Personnel medical emergency.

b. Personnel contamination event.

c. Radiation levels in the reactor building sufficient to cause a reactor trip.

d. Receipt of bomb threat.

QUESTION B.06 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following records shall be retained for the life of the (OSU) reactor facility?

a. Drawings of the facility.

b. Principal maintenance operations.

c. Experiments performed with the reactor.

d. Fuel inventories, receipts, and shipments.

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.07 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is an annual surveillance requirement?

a. Shutdown margin determination.

b. Control rod and control rod drive visual inspection.

c. Determination of core excess reactivity.

d. Transient rod drive cylinder and associated air supply cleaning and inspection.

QUESTION B.08 [1.0 point]

According to the OSTR Emergency Plan defines the Emergency Planning Zone as which ONE of the following.

a. Within the walls of the reactor bay.

b. Within the walls of the Reactor Building.

c. Within the walls of the Radiation Center.

d. Within a 100-meter radius of the center of the reactor core.

QUESTION B.09 [1.0 point]

The reactivity to be inserted for pulse mode or square-wave mode operation shall be determined and limited by a mechanical block and electrical interlock on the transient rod, shall not exceed ______.

a. $2.30.

b. $2.50.

c. $2.60.

d. $3.00

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.10 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following radioisotopes is produced from the irradiation of water?

a. Xe135

b. Ar41

c. N16

d. Sm149 QUESTION B.11 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following scram is associated with a Beam Port 3 abnormal operations?

a. Safety scram.

b. External scram.

c. High Voltage scram.

d. Experiment scram.

QUESTION B.12 [1.0 point]

The total effective dose equivalent (TEDE) to individual members of the public from the licensed operation per year is:

a. 50 mrem.

b. 100 mrem.

c. 500 mrem.

d. 1000 mrem.

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.13 [1.0 points]

10 CFR 50.54 allows the licensee (ISU) to depart from a license condition or a Technical Specifications. What is the minimum level of authorization could be performed this task?

a. Reactor Operations Committee.

b. Reactor Director.

c. Licensed SRO.

d. Licensed RO.

QUESTION B.14 [1.0 point]

You bring a radiation monitor into the pump room during reactor operation. If you were to open the window on the detector you would expect the meter reading to? (Assume no piping leaks.)

a. Increases, because you would now be receiving signal due to H3 and O16 betas.

b. Remains the same because the Quality Factors for and are the same.

c. Increases, because the Quality Factor for betas is greater than for gammas.

d. Remains the same because you still would not be detecting beta radiation.

QUESTION B.15 [1.0 point]

To prevent damage to the reactor and to minimize excessive release of radioactive materials in the event of an experiment failure. What shall you do with an experiment containing corrosive materials?

a. Doubly encapsulated them.

b. Limited to less than 10 grams.

c. Not be inserted into the reactor or stored at the facility.

d. Has a TEDE of less than 500 mrem over two hours from the beginning of the release.

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.16 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the listed radioisotopes produces the highest ionizing energy gamma?

a. 3H.

b. 16N.

c. 41Ar.

d. 235U.

QUESTION B.17 [1.0 points]

In accordance with the OSTR Technical Specifications, ________ has the authority to make temporary deviations from procedures to deal with special or unusual circumstances or conditions.

a. Responsible Senior Reactor Operator.

a. Any licensed Reactor Operator.

b. Reactor Operations Committee, Chair (or designee).

c. Emergency Director.

QUESTION B.18 [1.0 point]

The reactor operator licensing candidates require submitting an NRC Form 398, Personal Qualification Statement-License, as part of their applications. This requirement could be found in:

a. 10 CFR Part 19.

b. 10 CFR Part 20.

c. 10 CFR Part 50.

d. 10 CFR Part 55.

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.19 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the definition for "Deep Dose Equivalent"?

a. The dose equivalent at a tissue depth of 1cm.

b. The portion of the dose equivalent received from radiative material taken into the body.

c. The portion of the dose equivalent received from radiation sources outside the body.

d. The concentration of a radionuclide in air which, if inhaled by an adult worker for a year, results in a total effective dose equivalent of 100 mrem.

QUESTION B.20 [1.0 point]

The dose rate from a mixed beta-gamma point source is 100 mrem/hr at one foot and is 0.1 mrem/hr at ten feet. What percentage of the source consists of beta radiation?

a. 25%

b. 45%

c. 70%

d. 90%

(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.01 [1.0 point]

How often does the control rod scram times shall be measured?

a. Quarterly.

b. Annually.

c. Semiannually.

d. Biannually QUESTION C.02 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following radionuclides presences in the secondary system would indicate a possible fuel leak from the primary system?

a. Nitrogen-16

b. Argon-41

c. Calcium-40

d. Cesium-135 QUESTION C.03 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following scram indications is required in all effective modes?

a. Power level.

b. Fuel element temperature.

c. Preset timer.

d. High voltage.

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.04 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is NOT normally checked on the CAM during a routine start-up check list?

a. Oil level.

b. Flow rate.

c. Filter paper.

d. Background reading.

QUESTION C.05 [1.0 point]

WHICH ONE of the following is the gas used in the rabbit tube assembly?

a. Air.

b. Helium.

c. Nitrogen.

d. Carbon Dioxide.

QUESTION C.06 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following correctly describes the characteristic of the TRIGA Fuel Elements used at the OSTR?

a. The uranium content is a nominal 30 wt%, enriched to less than 20% U-235.

b. The hydrogen to zirconium atom ratio (in the ZrHx) shall be between 1.5 to 1.8.

c. The natural erbium content (homogenously distributed): nominal 1.5 wt%.

d. Cladding: 304 stainless steel, normal 0.025 inches thick; and top pieces of the fuel elements will have characteristic markings to allow visual identification.

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.07 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following systems provide power to the transient rod?

a. Pneumatic.

b. Rack and Pinion.

c. Centrifugal gears.

d. Bearing and ball.

QUESTION C.08 [1.0 point]

A sample of the reactor coolant shall be collected and analyzed for conductivity at least

________ during periods of reactor operation.

a. Daily.

b. Weekly.

c. Monthly.

d. Quarterly.

QUESTION C.09 [1.0 point]

The reactor shall not be operated unless the control rods are operable. Control rods shall not be considered operable if the scram time exceeds:

a. 1.0 second.

b. 1.1 second.

c. 1.5 second.

d. 2.0 seconds.

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.10 [1.0 point]

Approximately how much did the water level increase if you added 41.5 gallons to the reactor tank?

a. 2.0 in

b. 2.5 in

c. 3.0 in

d. 3.5 in QUESTION C.11 [1.0 point]

A neutron flux will activate isotopes in air. The primary isotope we worry about when irradiating the air during routine reactor operations:

a. N16

b. Kr80

c. Ar41

d. H2 QUESTION C.12 [1.0 point]

WHICH ONE of the following detectors is used primarily to measure N16 release to the environment?

a. Stack Continuous Air Monitor.

b. Reactor Top Continuous Air Monitor.

c. Area Radiation Monitor.

d. None of the above, N16 has too short a half-life to require environmental monitoring.

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.13 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes what happens if the safety limit is exceeded?

a. Loss of integrity of the fuel elements due to increased thermal expansion.

b. Loss of integrity of the fuel elements due to decreased cooling flow around the elements.

c. Loss of the integrity of the fuel element cladding due to build-up of excessive pressure between the fuel/moderator and the cladding.

d. Loss of the integrity of the fuel elements due to increasing voids between the fuel elements as a result of increasing moderator temperature.

QUESTION C.14 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following reactor power indicator monitors operates off the uncompensated ion chamber?

a. Period Channel.

b. Linear Channel.

c. Log-N Channel.

d. Safety Channel.

QUESTION C.15 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following control rods uses a stepper motor driven chain-and-sprocket drive?

a. Regulating Rod.

b. Shim Rod.

c. Safety Rod.

d. Transient Control Rod.

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.16 [1.0 point]

The total exhaust effluent of the OSTR is __

a. 6,000 cfm.

b. 12,000 cfm.

c. 10,000 cfm.

d. 3,000 cfm.

QUESTION C.17 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following provides physical protection against water loss due to pipe leakage?

a. Backflow preventer valves on the primary water system.

b. Higher flow rate on the secondary system than the primary system.

c. Siphon break holes in the in-tank system piping at 22 inches below normal tank level.

d. In-tank alarms which notify the operator to take action to secure the primary water system.

QUESTION C.18 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following electrical power supplies are considered part of the emergency electrical power system?

a. 4160 VAC substation.

b. 112.5 KVA transformer.

c. 500 KVA transformer.

d. 3.1 KVA uninterruptable power supply.

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.19 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following prevents simultaneous manual control rod movement?

a. Rod Withdrawal Prohibit.

b. Regulating Rod Drive Servo Demand Limit.

c. Control Rod Withdrawal Interlock.

d. Pulse Mode Interlock.

QUESTION C.20 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following will first detect an increase in airborne radioactivity due to fission products?

a. Stack Monitor.

b. Reactor Top Area Radiation Monitor.

c. Primary Water System High Activity Monitor.

d. Continuous Air Particulate Radiation Monitor.

(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)

((***** END OF EXAM *****))

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics A.01 Answer: d

Reference:

DOE Handbook, Volume 2, Module 3, page 8.

A.02 Answer: a

Reference:

= (Keff1 - Keff2) ÷ (Keff1

• Keff2)

= (0.9550 - 1.0000) ÷ (0.9550

• 1.0000)

= -0.0450 ÷ 0.9550 = +0.0471 A.03 Answer: a

Reference:

Standard NRC Question.

A.04 Answer: d

Reference:

DOE Handbook, Volume 2, Module 3, 2nd sentence of the 2nd paragraph, page 3.

A.05 Answer: b

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Volume 1, Module 2, 3rd paragraph, page 10.

A.06 Answer: b

Reference:

DOE, Vol. 1, Module 1, Elastic Scattering, page 43.

A.07 Answer: c

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction of Nuclear Reactor Operations, Figure 8.1, page 8-6.

A.08 Answer: a

Reference:

P = P0 et/T --> ln(4) = time ÷ 10 seconds -> time = ln (4) x 10 sec. 1.386 x 10 13.8 sec.

A.09 Answer: a

Reference:

1.03 x 0.96 x 0.84 x 0.88 x 1.96 x 0.70 = 1.00 1 / (1.03 x 0.96 x 0.84 x 0.88 x 1.96) = 0.698 A.10 Answer: a

Reference:

Standard NRC Question.

A.11 Answer: b

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction of Nuclear Reactor Operations, Sec 3.3.5, page 3-23 A.12 Answer: a

Reference:

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics A.13 Answer: a

Reference:

DOE Handbook, Volume 1, NP-02, page 32.

A.14 Answer d

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction of Nuclear Reactor Operations, Sec 4.2 A.15 Answer: a

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction of Nuclear Reactor Operations, Sec 1.3.1, page 1-5.

A.16 Answer: b

Reference:

P = P0.et/ = 9.7 x e1/10 = 9.7 x 1.1052 = 10.72.

A.17 Answer: b

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Vol-01, pg. 24.

A.18 Answer: b

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, Section 3.2. 2.

A.19 Answer: c

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, Page 2-28.

A.20 Answer: a

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Vol-01, Module 1, EO 4.9, page 61.

(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls B.01 Answer: b

Reference:

l2 = l1D12/d22; l2 = (400 mR/hr)(2m)2 / (4m)2; l2 = 100 mR/hr B.02 Answer: a

Reference:

OSTR Emergency Plan, Section 3.3.2, page 3-5 B.03 Answer: c

Reference:

OSTR Emergency Plan, Section 7.4.1, page 7-13 B.04 Answer: c

Reference:

GM tubes cannot distinguish between energies.

B.05 Answer: d

Reference:

OSTR Emergency Plan Table 5.1, page 5-2 B.06 Answer: a

Reference:

OSTR Technical Specifications, 6.8.3, page 47.

B.07 Answer: c

Reference:

OSTR Technical Specifications, 4.1.d, page 28 B.08 Answer: b

Reference:

OSTR Emergency Plan, Section 6.0, page 6-1.

B.09 Answer: a

Reference:

OSTR Technical Specifications, 3.4.1, page 14.

B.10 Answer: c

Reference:

Standard NRC question.

B.11 Answer: b

Reference:

OSTR SAR Section 7.4.1, page 11 B.12 Answer: b

Reference:

10 CFR 20.1301(a)(1).

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls B.13 Answer: c

Reference:

10 CFR 50.54(y).

B.14 Answer: d

Reference:

BASIC Radiological Concept (Betas don't make it through piping).

B.15 Answer: a

Reference:

OSTR Technical Specifications, 3.8.2.b, page 23.

B.16 Answer: b

Reference:

Chart of the Nuclides B.17 Answer: a

Reference:

OSTR Technical Specifications, 6.4 Procedures, page 43.

B.18 Answer: d

Reference:

10 CFR 55.31(a)(1)

B.19 Answer: a

Reference:

10 CFR 20.1003, Definitions B.20 Answer: d

Reference:

(DR1)(d1)2 = (DR2)(d2)2; 10 CFR20, no Beta radiation at ten ft; Calculate gamma at one ft: (0.1)(10)2 = (DR2)(1)2 = 10 mrem/hr 100 mrem/hr - 10 mrem/hr = 90 mrem/hr or 90%

(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)

C.01 Answer: b

Reference:

OSTR Technical Specifications, 4.2.b, page 28.

C.02 Answer: d

Reference:

Chart of nuclides, Fission products C.03 Answer: d

Reference:

OSTR Technical Specifications, 3.2.3, Table 2, page 17.

C.04 Answer: a

Reference:

OSTR OP-2,Section I.b., page 6.

C.05 Answer: a

Reference:

OSTR Training Manual Vol.1, page 27.

C.06 Answer: a

Reference:

OSTR Technical Specification Section 5.3.3, page 36.

C.07 Answer: a

Reference:

OSTR SAR Section 3.5.1, page 4.

C.08 Answer: c

Reference:

OSTR Technical Specification, Section 4.3.e, page 29.

C.09 Answer: d

Reference:

OSTR Technical Specification, Section 3.2.1.b, page 15.

C.10 Answer: a

Reference:

OSTR OP 7,Section I.a, page 4, (41.5 gallons / 20.7 gallons/in = 2.0 in.).

C.11 Answer: c

Reference:

OSTR SAR Section11.1.1.1.1, page 1.

C.12 Answer: d

Reference:

OSTR SAR, Section 11.1.1.1.4, page 6.

C.13 Answer: c

Reference:

OSTR Technical Specification Section 2.1, page 11.

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls C.14 Answer: d

Reference:

OSTR Training Manual Volume 2, Chapter 5, Section 5.4, page 19.

C.15 Answer: a

Reference:

OSTR Training Manual, Volume 1, Section 3.9.3, Page 18.

C.16 Answer: b

Reference:

OSTR Training Manual Volume 1, Chapter 8, Sect 8.1.2, page 59.

C.17 Answer: c

Reference:

OSTR SAR Section 5.2, Page 1 C.18 Answer: d

Reference:

OSTR SAR, Section 8.2, Page 1 C.19 Answer: c

Reference:

OSTR Training Manual Volume 2, Section 3.1.1, page 12 C.20 Answer: d

Reference:

OSTR OP1, Section D-4. Corrective Action, page 32.

(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)