ML16334A390

Examination Report No. 50-297/OL-17-01, North Carolina State University

ML16334A390
Person / Time
Site:	North Carolina State University
Issue date:	12/21/2016
From:	Anthony Mendiola Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch
To:	Hawari A North Carolina State University
Phillip Young
Shared Package
ML16301A021	List: ML16301A023 ML16334A390
References
50-297/OL-17
Download: ML16334A390 (20)

Text

December 21, 2016 Dr. Ayman I. Hawari, Director Nuclear Reactor Program Department of Nuclear Engineering North Carolina State University Campus Box 7909 2500 Stinson Drive Raleigh, NC 27695-7909

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-297/OL-17-01, NORTH CAROLINA STATE UNIVERSITY

Dear Dr. Hawari:

During the week of November 7, 2016, the NRC administered operator licensing examinations at your North Carolina State University Pulstar reactor. The examinations were conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.

In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Mr. Phillip T. Young at (301) 415-4094 or via e-mail at phillip.young@nrc.gov.

Sincerely,

/RA/

Anthony J. Mendiola, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Policy and Rule Making Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No. 50-297

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-297/OL-17-01

2. Facility comments on the written examination

3. Written examination cc w/o enclosures: See next page

Dr. Ayman I. Hawari, Director December 21, 2016 Nuclear Reactor Program Department of Nuclear Engineering North Carolina State University Campus Box 7909 2500 Stinson Drive Raleigh, NC 27695-7909

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-297/OL-17-01, NORTH CAROLINA STATE UNIVERSITY

Dear Dr. Hawari:

During the week of November 7, 2016, the NRC administered operator licensing examinations at your North Carolina State University Pulstar reactor. The examinations were conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.

In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Mr. Phillip T. Young at (301) 415-4094 or via e-mail at phillip.young@nrc.gov.

Sincerely,

/RA/

Anthony J. Mendiola, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Policy and Rule Making Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No. 50-297

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-297/OL-17-01

2. Facility comments on the written examination

3. Written examination cc w/o enclosures: See next page DISTRIBUTION PUBLIC AMendiola JEads AAdams ADAMS ACCESSION #: ML16334A390 NRR-074 OFFICE NRR/DPR/PROB/CE NRR/DPR/PROB/OLA NRR/DPRPROB:BC NAME PYoung CRevelle AMendiola DATE 11/29/2016 11/29/2016 12/21/2016 OFFICIAL RECORD COPY

North Carolina State University Docket No. 50-297 cc:

Office of Intergovernmental Relations 116 West Jones Street Raleigh, NC 27603 Dr. Kostadin Ivanov, Head Department of Nuclear Engineering North Carolina State University Campus Box 7909 Raleigh, NC 27695-7909 W. Lee Cox, Section Chief Department of Health and Human Services Division of Health Service Regulation Radiation Protection Section 1645 Mail Service Center Raleigh, NC 27699-1645 Dr. Louis Martin-Vega, Dean College of Engineering North Carolina State University 113 Page Hall Campus Box 7901 Raleigh, NC 27695-7901 Test, Research, and Training Reactor Newsletter University of Florida 202 Nuclear Sciences Center Gainesville, FL 32611 Andrew T. Cook Manager of Engineering and Operations Nuclear Reactor Program Department of Nuclear Engineering North Carolina State University Campus Box 7909 2500 Stinson Drive Raleigh, NC 27695-7909

U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT REPORT NO.: 50-297/OL-17-01 FACILITY DOCKET NO.: 50-297 FACILITY LICENSE NO.: R-120 FACILITY: North Carolina State University EXAMINATION DATES: November 7, 2016 SUBMITTED BY: _____/RA/ ____________ ___12/19/2016__

Phillip T. Young, Chief Examiner Date

SUMMARY

During the week of November 7, 2016 the NRC administered licensing examinations to one Reactor Operator (RO) applicant. The applicant passed all portions of the examination.

REPORT DETAILS

1. Examiner: Phillip T. Young, Chief Examiner, NRC

2. Results:

RO PASS/FAIL SRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAIL Written 1/0 0/0 1/0 Operating Tests 1/0 0/0 1/0 Overall 1/0 0/0 1/0

3. Exit Meeting:

Phillip T. Young Andrew T. Cook, NCSU, Manager of Engineering and Operations Greg Gibson, NCSU, Senior Reactor Operator The examiner thanked the facility for their assistance ensuring the exam administration went smoothly and for their feedback on the written examination.

ENCLOSURE 1

Facility Comments with NRC Resolution.

Question B.15 (1.0 points) {15.0}

Per the North Carolina State University Radiation Protection Program (HP 1), as an Adult Radiation Worker your TEDE yearly limit is 5 Rem. Your Admin and ALARA Goal limits for TEDE are

a. 20% (1000 mrem) and 20% (1000 mrem) of this limit.

b. 15% (750 mrem) and 15% (750 mrem) of this limit.

c. 10% (500 mrem) and 10% (500 mrem) of this limit.

d. 5% (250 mrem) and 5% (250 mrem) of this limit.

COMMENTS: The answer key has b as the answer however, the correct answer is c. 10% (500 mrem) and 10% (500 mrem) of this limit.

REFERENCE:

HP-1 4.3.4 NRC RESOLUTION:

Accepted answer c. as the correct answer.

Question C.09 (1.0 points) {9.0}

Which ONE of the following statements describes the reactor instrumentation and protection channels response to a high failure of the regulator supplying the flow measuring channel?

a. Low flow indication and low flow scram at 475 gpm if greater than 150 kw.

b. High flow indication and low flow scram signal.

c. High reactor coolant flow indication

d. No effect.

COMMENT: While the candidate managed to get the same answer as provided in the answer key (a) this question refers to a system that was changed during the reactor power upgrade of 2013. For the previous system a high failure of the regulator supplying the flow measuring channel resulted in b. High flow indication and a low flow scram signal. The current flow measuring channel does not receive a supply of air. Information for the flow measuring channel and its SCRAMs are found in SAR section 7.4.4.1 Flow Measuring Channel.

REFERENCE:

SAR section 7 NRC RESOLUTION:

Deleted the question from the examination.

U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER REACTOR INITIAL LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY: NORTH CAROLINA STATE UNIVERSITY REACTOR TYPE: PULSTAR DATE ADMINISTERED: 11/8/2016 CANDIDATE: ___________________________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:

Answers are to be written on the answer sheet provided. Attach the answer sheets to the examination.

Points for each question are indicated in parentheses for each question. A 70% overall is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.

% OF CATEGORY  % OF CANDIDATES CATEGORY CATEGORY VALUE TOTAL SCORE VALUE A. REACTOR THEORY, 20.00 33.3 _______ _______ THERMODYNAMICS, AND FACILITY OPERATING CHARACTISTICS B. NORMAL AND EMERGENCY 20.00 33.3 _______ _______ OPERATING PROCEDURES AND RADIOLOGICAL CONTROLS 19.00 C. FACILITY AND RADIATION 20.00 33.3 _______ _______

MONITORING SYSTEMS 59.0

___________ TOTALS 60.00 FINAL GRADE ALL THE WORK DONE ON THIS EXAMINATION IS MY OWN. I HAVE NEITHER GIVEN NOR RECEIVED AID.

CANDIDATE'S SIGNATURE

NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.

2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have not received or given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.

3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.

4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.

5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet.

6. Fill in the date on the cover sheet of the examination (if necessary).

7. Print your name in the upper right-hand corner of the first page of each section of your answer sheets.

8. The point value for each question is indicated in parentheses after the question.

9. Partial credit will NOT be given.

10. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.

11. When you are done and have turned in your examination, leave the examination area as defined by the examiner.

EQUATION SHEET

( 2 )2 = (1 )2 eff = 0.1sec 1 Q&= m&cP T = m&H =UAT Peak2 Peak1 t

P = P0 e S S SCR = * =1x104 sec 1 K eff eff + &

SUR = 26 .06

( )

CR1 1 K eff1 CR

= CR1 (

(

2 1 1 ) = CR

)

K eff 2 2 ( 2 )

(1 ) M=

1

= 2 CR P = P0 10SUR(t )

P= P0 1 K eff CR1 1 K eff1 1 K eff

• M= SDM = =

1 K eff 2 K eff

• 0.693 K eff 2 K eff1

+ T1 =

eff + & 2 K eff1 K eff 2 K eff 1

= DR = DR0 e t 2 DR1 d1 = DR2 d 2 2

K eff

=

6 Ci E (n)

DR = =

R2 DR - Rem/hr, Ci - curies, E - Mev, R - feet 1 Curie = 3.7 x 1010 dis/sec 1 kg = 2.211lbm inch=2.54 cm 1 Horsepower = 2.54 x 103 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41 x 106 BTU/hr 1 BTU = 778 ft-lbf °F = 9/5 °C + 32 1 gal (H2O) 8 lbm °C = 5/9 (°F - 32) cP = 1.0 BTU/hr/lbm/°F cp = 1 cal/sec/gm/°C

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics Question A.01 (1.0 points) {1.0}

In a subcritical reactor, Keff is increased from 0.861 to 0.946. Which one of the following is the amount of reactivity that was added to the core?

a. 0.086 delta K/K

b. 0.104 delta K/K

c. 0.125 delta K/K

d. 0.220 delta K/K Answer: A.01 b.

Reference:

DPC Fundamentals of Nuclear Reactor Engineering p. 121 NUS, Vol. 3, p. 6.1-3 Question A.02 (1.0 points) {2.0}

Given the following Primary System Parameters.

Reactor Pool Volume 14,250 gals Reactor Pool Temperature 104º F Reactor Power Level 1 MW Which one of the following is the amount of time that is available before the reactor has to be scrammed, at 118 °F pool temperature, when primary coolant flow is lost?

a. 15 minutes

b. 22 minutes

c. 29 minutes

d. 36 minutes Answer: A.02 c.

Reference:

Nuclear Energy Training, Module 4, Plant Performance Section 2 Question A.03 (1.0 points) {3.0}

Which ONE of the following IS CORRECT with regard to criticality?

a. Critical rod height does NOT depend on how fast control rods are withdrawn.

b. Critical rod height dictates the reactor power level when criticality is first achieved.

c. The reactivity of the reactor increases towards infinity during the approach to criticality.

d. The slower the approach to criticality, the lower the reactor power level will be when reaching criticality.

Answer: A.03 a.

Reference:

Pulstar Reactor Trainee Notebook, Chapter 1, 1.5.3, p. 19.

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics Question A.04 (1.0 points) {4.0}

The delayed neutron fraction () for U-235 is 0.0065. However, you note that while performing various calculations at the reactor, the value for the effective delayed neutron fraction ( ) has a value of 0.007. Which of the following is most likely the reason for why is larger than ?

a. Delayed Neutrons are born at higher energies than prompt neutrons resulting in a greater worth for the neutrons.

b. Delayed Neutrons are born at lower energies than prompt neutrons resulting in less leakage during slowdown to thermal energies.

c. The fuel also contains U-238 which has a relatively cross section of absorption during fast fission.

d. U-238 in the core becomes Pu-239 (by neutron absorption), which has a higher beta for fission.

Answer: A.04 b.

Reference:

Reactor Theory (Neutron Characteristics) DOE-HDBK-1019/1-93 PROMPT AND DELAYED NEUTRONS Question A.05 (1.0 points) {5.0}

The effective neutron multiplication factor, Keff, is defined as:

a. absorption/(production + leakage)

b. (production + leakage)/absorption

c. (absorption + leakage)/production

d. production/(absorption + leakage)

Answer: A.05 d.

Reference:

Pulstar Reactor Trainee Notebook, Section 1.5.2.

Question A.06 (1.0 points) {6.0}

Several processes occur that may increase or decrease the available number of neutrons.

SELECT from the following the six-factor formula term that describes an INCREASE in the number of neutrons during the cycle.

a. Thermal utilization factor (f).

b. Resonance escape probability (p).

c. Fast non-leakage probability (f).

d. Fast Fission factor ().

Answer: A.06 d.

Reference:

Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, page 3-15.

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics Question A.07 (1.0 points) {7.0}

Which ONE of the following correctly describes the SIX- FACTOR FORMULA?

a. K = Keff

• the reproduction factor

b. K = Keff

• the total leakage probability

c. Keff = K

• the total non-leakage probability

d. Keff = K * (the resonance escape probability

• the reproduction factor)

Answer: A.07 c.

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction of Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, Sec 3.3 Question A.08 (1.0 points) {8.0}

The following graph for U-235 depicts

a. neutron energy distribution in the moderator.

b. axial flux distribution in the core.

c. radial flux distribution in the core.

d. fission product yield distribution.

Answer: A.08 d.

Reference:

DOE Manual Vol. 1, pg. 57 Question A.09 (1.0 points) {9.0}

Which statement illustrates a characteristic of Subcritical Multiplication?

a. As Keff approaches unity (1), for the same increase in Keff, a greater increase in neutron population occurs.

b. The number of neutrons gained per generation gets larger for each succeeding generation.

c. The number of fission neutrons remains constant for each generation.

d. The number of source neutrons decreases for each generation.

Answer: A.09 a.

Reference:

Nuclear Training Manual

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics Question A.10 (1.0 points) {10.0}

Which ONE of the following is an example of beta decay?

a. 35Br 87 33As83

b. 35Br 87 35Br86

c. 35Br 87 34Se86

d. 35Br 87 36Kr87 Answer: A.10 d.

Reference:

DOE-HDBK-1019/1 MODES OF RADIOACTIVE DECAY Question A.11 (1.0 points) {11.0}

Given the following diagram, which of the following most correctly describe the condition of the reactor?

a. The prompt jump occurs because the production rate of delayed neutrons abruptly changes as reactivity is added.

b. At T=15s, the reactor is considered prompt critical.

c. After the prompt jump, the rate of change of power cannot increase any more rapidly than the built-in time delay the neutron precursor half-lives allow.

d. Shortly after T=0s, the reactor power is immediately turned due to the rise in moderator temperature.

Answer: A.11 c

Reference:

PSBR Training Manual, Chapter 2.22 REACTOR KINETICS

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics DOE-HDBK-1019/2-93 Reactor Theory (Reactor Operations)

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics Question A.12 (1.0 points) {12.0}

Refer to the associated figure which includes drawings for three 1/M plots labeled A, B, and C Plot B shows an ideal approach to criticality. Therefore, the least conservative approach to criticality is represented by plot _____ and could possibly be the result of recording count rates at ________ time intervals after incremental fuel loading steps compared to the situations represented by the other plots.

a. A; shorter

b. A; longer

c. C; shorter

d. C; longer Answer: A.12 c.

Reference:

PSU Training Manual, Section 2.7 Critical Mass Experiment &

SUBCRITICAL MULTIPLICATION -

DOE-HDBK-1019/2-93 Reactor Theory (Reactor Operations)

Question A.13 (1.0 points) {13.0}

Why does the fuel temperature (Doppler) coefficient become less negative at higher fuel temperatures?

a. As reactor power increases, the rate of increase in the fuel temperature diminishes.

b. Neutrons penetrate deeper into the fuel, resulting in an increase in the fast fission factor.

c. The amount of self-shielding increases, resulting in less neutron absorption by the inner fuel.

d. The broadening of the resonance peaks diminishes the per degree change in fuel temperature.

Answer: A.13 d.

Reference:

FNRE pg. 146, 149 / Nuc. Trng. Man. pg. RX 6-8 Question A.14 (1.0 points) {14.0}

Which ONE of the following conditions describes a critical reactor?

a. Keff = 1; k/k () = 1

b. Keff = 1; k/k () = 0

c. Keff = 0; k/k () = 1

d. Keff = 0; k/k () = 0 Answer: A.14 b.

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, §

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics Question A.15 (1.0 points) {15.0}

Reactor is increasing power from 100 W to 10 kW in steady state mode. Which ONE of the following best describes the values of K eff and during the power increment?

a. Keff = 1 and = 0

b. Keff = 1 and = 1

c. Keff > 1 and 0 < < -eff

d. Keff > 1 and -eff < < 1 Answer: A.15 c.

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction of Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, Sec 4.2 Question A.16 (1.0 points) {16.0}

During a xenon-free reactor startup, critical data was inadvertently taken two decades below the required intermediate range (IR) level. The critical data was taken again at the proper IR level with the same reactor coolant temperatures.

The critical rod (CEA) position taken at the proper IR level ________ the critical rod position taken two decades below the proper IR level.

a. is less than

b. is the same as

c. is greater than

d. cannot be compared to Answer: A.16 b.

Reference:

Fundamentals of Nuclear Reactor Engineering pg. 87, 117, 150 Question A.17 (1.0 points) {17.0}

Two different neutron sources were used during two reactor startups. The source used in the first startup emits ten times as many neutrons as the source used in the second startup. Assume all other factors are the same for the second startup. Which ONE of the following states the expected result at criticality?

a. Neutron flux will be higher for the first startup.

b. Neutron flux will be higher for the second startup.

c. The first startup will result in a higher rod position (rods further out of the core).

d. The second startup will result in a higher rod position (rods further out of the core).

Answer: A. 17 a.

Reference:

Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Pages 5-14 thru 5-19.

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics Question A.18 (1.0 points) {18.0}

Given the associated graph, which of the following answers best describe the neutron behavior within Region II?

a. The neutron cross section is inversely proportional to the neutron velocity (1/V)

b. The neutron cross section decreases steadily with increasing neutron energy (1/E).

c. Neutrons of specific energy levels (e.g., 50 ev, 100 kev) have a greater potential for leakage from the reactor core

d. Neutrons of specific energy levels (e.g., 50 ev, 100 kev) are more likely to be readily absorbed than neutrons at other energy levels.

Answer: A.18 d.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Vol. 2

Section A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Fac. Operating Characteristics Question A.19 (1.0 points) {19.0}

Using the associated graph which of the following best describes what happens to the concentration of Xenon (Xe)-135 from point A to B?

a. The concentration of Iodine-135 was at a higher equilibrium level at 100% power and is therefore producing Xe-135 at a higher rate until it reaches a maximum value 7-8 hours later.

b. The concentration of Xe-135 reaches a maximum value 40 hours4.62963e-4 days <br />0.0111 hours <br />6.613757e-5 weeks <br />1.522e-5 months <br /> after the down power transient and will decrease to a new, higher equilibrium value until it reaches a maximum value equilibrium

c. The insertion of control rods displaces the axial reactor flux causing an increased production rate of xenon gas until it reaches a maximum value 7-8 hours after the down power transient.

d. The decay rate of fission product, Cesium-135 increases due to the down power transient which increases the concentration of Xe-135 to a maximum value 40 hours4.62963e-4 days <br />0.0111 hours <br />6.613757e-5 weeks <br />1.522e-5 months <br /> later.

Answer: A.19 a.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Vol. 2 Question A.20 (1.0 points) {20.0}

You are increasing reactor power on a steady +26 second period. How long does it take to increase power by a factor of 1000?

a. 60 seconds (1 minute)

b. 180 seconds (3 minutes)

c. 300 seconds (5 minutes)

d. 480 seconds (8 minutes)

Answer: A.20 b.

Reference:

ln (P/P0) x period = time, ln(1000) x 26 = 6.908 x 26 = 179.6 180 seconds

(*** End of Section A ***)

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question B.01 (1.0 points) {1.0}

Two centimeters of lead placed at a certain location in a beam of gamma rays reduced the gamma radiation level from 400 mR/hr to 200 mR/hr. Which one of the following is the amount of additional lead if placed in this beam would reduce the gamma radiation level to 25 mR/hr?

a. 2 cm

b. 4 cm

c. 6 cm

d. 8 cm Answer: B.01 c.

Reference:

NET Module 5 Section 3.3 Protection Technique: Shielding

Reference:

DR = DR*e -X Find  : 250 = 1000* e -*60 ; = 0.0231 If insertion of an HVL (thickness of lead), the original intensity will be reduced by half.

Find X: 1 = 2* e -0.0231*X ; X= 30 mm Find HVL by shortcut:

400mR- 200 mR is the 1st HVL 200 mR - 100 mR is the 2nd HVL 100 mR - 50 mR is the 3nd HVL 50 mR - 25 mR is the 4nd HVL Question B.02 (1.0 points) {2.0}

Which one of the following are the actions required by the fuel handling crew in the event of an evacuation signal during fuel movement, before the fuel handling crew evacuates the Reactor Bay?

The fuel assembly in transit shall be:

a. secured in its present location and the bridge crane de-energized.

b. stored in a recorded location and the fuel handling tool disconnected from the fuel.

c. placed in its designated move location and bridge crane movement controls locked.

d. lowered to the bottom of the pool at its present location and the fuel handling tool tied in place.

Answer: B.02 b.

Reference:

NRP-OP-301, Reactor Fuel Handling - Section 2. Precautions and Limitations

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question B.03 (1.0 points) {3.0}

The statement from the Emergency Plan, Events are in progress or have occurred, which involve actual or likely major failures of reactor functions needed for protection of emergency personnel and the public.. best describes which Emergency Classification?

a. Notice of Unusual Event (NOUE)

b. Alert

c. Site Area Emergency

d. General Emergency Answer: B.03 c

Reference:

PULSTAR Emergency Procedure 4 Revision 6 - Emergency Classification 5.1 Emergency Classification Criteria Question B.04 (1.0 points) {4.0}

Which of the following conditions meets the Technical Specification definition for Reactor Secured at the NC State Pulstar reactor?

a. An experiment with a reactivity of 750 pcm is being installed in the reactor with all control rods fully inserted, Keyswitch is in OFF, and the console key is removed.

b. All control rods are fully inserted and the Reactor Keyswitch in OFF, console key is not removed.

c. One control rod drive is removed for inspection; the rod is decoupled and is fully inserted into the core, all other rods are fully inserted with the Reactor Keyswitch in OFF and console key is removed.

d. All control rods are fully inserted, the Reactor Keyswitch in OFF, console key is not removed, and fuel is being rearranged in the fuel storage racks.

Answer: B.04 c.

Reference:

NC State TS 1.2.22b(iii) states as a requirement for the reactor to be secured, No work is in progress involving core fuel, core structure, installed control rods, or control rod drives unless they are physically decoupled from the control rods.

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question B.05 (1.0 points) {5.0}

Which ONE of the following events does NOT require the direct presence (i.e., supervision) of a Senior Reactor Operator?

a. Recovery from an unplanned significant power reduction.

b. Movement of fuel within the reactor pool.

c. Reactor power calibration.

d. Control rod removal.

Answer: B.05 c.

Reference:

Pulstar Technical Specifications, section 6.1.3.

Question B.06 (1.0 points) {6.0}

The minimum number of personnel required during movement of fuel into and from the core is:

a. a DSRO and a fuel handler.

b. a DSRO and a licensed operator at the reactor console.

c. a DSRO, a licensed operator at the reactor console and a fuel handler.

d. a DSRO at the reactor console and at least two Reactor Operator Assistants.

Answer: B.06 c.

Reference:

NRP-OP-301 Reactor Fuel Handling Question B.07 (1.0 points) {7.0}

Complete the following statement.

The ___________ is responsible for assessment and response actions involving licensed radioactive materials and PULSTAR reactor operations throughout the emergency and recovery which affect areas inside the PULSTAR Operations Boundary.

a. PULSTAR Emergency Organization (PEO)

b. Radiation Safety Officer (RSO)

c. Incident Command System (ICS)

d. NCSU Campus Police Answer: B.07 a.

Reference:

PULSTAR E-Plan, Rev. 9 Section 3.0

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question B.08 (1.0 points) {8.0}

What is the limit of radiation exposure for a member of the public (e.g., Boy/Girl Scout on a reactor tour)?

a. 5 Rem

b. 2 Rem

c. 100 mrem

d. 500 mrem Answer: B.08 c.

Reference:

10 CFR 20 Question B.09 (1.0 points) {9.0}

With regard to "Response to Abnormal Reactivity Changes?" An unanticipated reactivity change of  ?

or more is considered a significant change.

a. 50 pcm

b. 100 pcm

c. 150 pcm

d. 200 pcm Answer: B.09 b.

Reference:

NRP-OP-105 Rev 8 Question B.10 (1.0 points) {10.0}

Which of the following radiation detector types, does not have an output intensity (current or pulse height) proportional to the incident radiation energy; i.e., if the incident energy increases, will the out-put intensity increase?

a. Ion Chamber

b. GM

c. Proportional Counter

d. Scintillation Answer: B.10 b.

Reference:

NRC standard HP question

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question B.11 (1.0 points) {11.0}

In accordance with the Technical Specifications, which ONE condition below is NOT permissible when the reactor is operating?

a. Pool water temperature = 112 degrees F.

b. The Over-the-Pool monitor bypassed for 10 minutes.

c. Reactivity worth of a single non-secured experiment = 0.4% k/k (400 pcm).

d. Operation with a fueled experiment with the ventilation system in the confinement mode.

Answer: B.11 b.

Reference:

Pulstar Technical Specifications, section 3.3.

Question B.12 (1.0 points) {12.0}

One of the immediate action steps following a reactor scram is the ensure Reverse action of control rod position indicators. Which ONE of the following is the action to be taken if the reverse action fails to occur?

a. Move the Ganged Insert switch to the In position.

b. Inform the Designated Senior Reactor Operator.

c. Turn the Reactor Keyswitch off.

d. Initiate a Manual SCRAM.

Answer: B.12 a.

Reference:

NRP-OP-105 Response to SCRAMS, Alarms & Abnormal Conditions Rev. 8 Question B.13 (1.0 points) {13.0}

You are performing a periodic radiation survey when you find a streaming source of radiation which the detector display reads as 50 mr/hr on contact from a cabinet that is not posted for radiological safety.

How would this area be posted in accordance with the requirements of 10 CFR 20?

a. High Radiation Area @ 30 cm from the source

b. High Radiation Area on contact w/ the cabinet

c. Radiation Area @ 30 cm from the source

d. Radiation Area on contact w/ the cabinet Answer: B.13 c.

Reference:

10 CFR 20

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question B.14 (1.0 points) {14.0}

By technical specifications, above which power level is the N-16 Power Measuring Channel required?

a. 100 W

b. 100 kW

c. 500 kW

d. 750 kW Answer: B.14 c.

Reference:

TS Section 3.4 Question B.15 (1.0 points) {15.0}

Per the North Carolina State University Radiation Protection Program (HP 1), as an Adult Radiation Worker your TEDE yearly limit is 5 Rem. Your Admin and ALARA Goal limits for TEDE are

a. 20% (1000 mrem) and 20% (1000 mrem) of this limit.

b. 15% (750 mrem) and 15% (750 mrem) of this limit.

c. 10% (500 mrem) and 10% (500 mrem) of this limit.

d. 5% (250 mrem) and 5% (250 mrem) of this limit.

Answer: B.15 b. Accepted c. as the correct answer as the correct answer per facility comment.

Reference:

HP-1 Radiation Protection Program, Rev. 8 Question B.16 (1 point, 0.25 points each) {16.0}

10 CFR 55 contains requirements associated with your operator or senior operator license. Match each of the requirements listed in column A with its appropriate time period in column B. (Note: Periods from column B may be used more than once or not at all.)

Column A (Requirements) Column B (Years)

a. License Expires 1

b. Pass a Requalification Written Examination 2

c. Pass a Requalification Operating Test 4

d. Medical Examination Required 6 Answer: B.16 a. = 6; b. = 2; c. = 1; d. = 2

Reference:

10CFR55

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question B.17 (1 point, 0.25 points each) {17.0}

Identify each of the following surveillances as a channel check (CHECK), a channel test (TEST), or a channel calibration (CAL).

a. During performance of the Daily Checklist, you press a SCRAM button to verify a scram on the safety system channel.

b. During performance of the Daily Checklist, you compare the readings of Radiation Area Monitor 1 and Radiation Area Monitor 2.

c. You expose a 2 mCi check source to the continuous air monitor (CAM) detector to verify that its output is operable.

d. Adjustment of the wide range linear channel in accordance with recent data collected during a reactor power calibration.

Answer: B.17 a = TEST; b = CHECK; c = TEST; d = CAL

Reference:

PULSTAR Technical specifications Question B.18 (1.0 points) {18.0}

Which of the following is the term for a parameter or criteria used as a basis for emergency classification?

a. Emergency Action Level (EAL)

b. Protection Action Guideline (PAG)

c. Alert Limit (AL)

d. Reportable Occurrence Answer: B.18 a.

Reference:

PULSTAR Emergency Plan, Rev. 9, Section 4.2 Question B.19 (1.0 points) {19.0}

Which ONE of the listed radio-isotopes produces the highest ionizing energy gamma?

a. H3

b. N16

c. Ar41

d. U235 Answer: B.19 b.

Reference:

Chart of the Nuclides

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question B.20 (1.0 points) {20.0}

The Emergency Director (ED) must approve all emergency exposures in excess of

a. 1 Rem

b. 5 Rem

c. 10 Rem

d. 25 Rem Answer: B.20 b.

Reference:

Emergency Procedure 1, Rev 18 -

Emergency Plan Activation, Response, and Actions, Section 5.4

(*** End of Section B ***)

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question C.01 (1.0 points) {1.0}

Which ONE of the following describes a fuel pin?

Cladding Weight% U-235 Fuel Length

a. Stainless Steel 6.0 15 inches

b. Zircaloy 4.0 24 inches

c. Zircaloy 6.0 15 inches

d. Stainless Steel 4.0 24 inches Answer: C.01 b.

Reference:

SAR, TABLE 1-1 COMPARISON OF PULSTAR REACTORS Question C.02 (1.0 points) {2.0}

The auxiliary generator emergency latch relay will open if either oil pressure is

a. low or water temperature is low

b. low or water temperature is high

c. high or water temperature is low

d. high or water temperature is high Answer: C.02 b.

Reference:

SAR, 8.3.3. Auxiliary Generator Control Panel Question C.03 (1.0 points) {3.0}

The reactor has been secured for a week. You startup the reactor and raise power to 1 Megawatt thermal. You depress the AUTO button but the rod control system fails to go into AUTO. Which ONE of the following is the most likely reasons the rod control system would not go into Automatic control?

a. Regulating rod is at 11.5 inches

b. Servo deviation is -0.35% of scale

c. Mode selector switch is in "steady State"

d. The ganged drive switch is not being operated Answer: C.03 a.

Reference:

NRP-OP-103 - Reactor Operation, Rev 3; Page 10

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.04 (1.0 points) {4.0}

Match the purification system functions in column A with the purification component listed in column B Column A Column B

a. remove dissolved impurities 1. Demineralizer (Ion Exchanger)

b. remove suspended solids 2. Filters

c. maintain pH 3. Wye Strainer

d. Protect Purification Pump Impeller Answer: C.04 a. = 1; b. = 2; c. = 1; d. = 3

Reference:

Standard NRC Purification System Question Question C.05 (1.0 points) {5.0}

Which one of the following combination of Air Monitoring systems constitutes an off-line isokinetic sampling system?

a. Stack Gas Monitor & Particulate monitor

b. Auxiliary GM monitor & Reactor Bay Cam

c. Recirculation GM monitor & Reactor Bay Cam

d. Over the Pool monitor & Stack Particulate monitor Answer: C.05 a.

Reference:

SAR, 6.2.1. Confinement System Question C.06 (1.0 points) {6.0}

Identify whether the Reactor Air System supplies air to the listed process instrumentation (YES) or not (NO).

a. Pool Level Measuring Channel

b. Flow Measuring Channel

c. Flow Monitoring Channel

d. Temperature Measuring Channel Answer: C.06 a. = YES; b. = NO; c. = NO; d. = NO

Reference:

SAR § 9.7.1

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question C.07 (1.0 points) {7.0}

If a complete loss of pool water were to occur with the reactor having been operating at 1 MWt power, which of the following would be the primary hazard or concern.

a. Keeping the reactor shutdown.

b. Core meltdown due to loss of cooling.

c. Clean up of the highly radioactive coolant water.

d. Vertical beam of radiation from the uncovered core.

Answer: C.07 d.

Reference:

SAR, 13.2.3. Loss of Pool Water Question C.08 (1.0 points) {8.0}

Which of the following describes how secondary system inventory is maintained?

a. Makeup is automatically initiated by cooling tower basin level.

b. Makeup is manually initiated on a low cooling tower basin level.

c. Makeup is automatically initiated by secondary pump suction pressure.

d. Chief of Reactor Maintenance (CRM) manually adds makeup on a predetermined schedule.

Answer: C.08 a.

Reference:

SAR, 5.3 Secondary Coolant System Question C.09 (1.0 points) {9.0}

Deleted per facility comment Which ONE of the following statements describes the reactor instrumentation and protection channels response to a high failure of the regulator supplying the flow measuring channel?

a. Low flow indication and low flow scram at 475 gpm if greater than 150 kw.

b. High flow indication and low flow scram signal.

c. High reactor coolant flow indication

d. No effect.

Answer: C.09 a.

Reference:

SAR 7.4.4. Non-Nuclear Instrumentation NRP-OP-105, Response to SCRAMS, Alarms and Abnormal Conditions

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.10 (1.0 points) {10.0}

To satisfy the Control Rod Drives Interlocks, which ONE of the following inputs requires that the reactor key switch be "ON"?

a. Individual Magnet power

b. Ganged up-drive power bus

c. Ganged down-drive power bus

d. Individual Drive Motor power line Answer: C.10 a.

Reference:

SAR 7.3.3. Interlocks and Protective Actions Question C.11 (1.0 points) {11.0}

Which ONE of the following rods has the highest worth?

a. Safety #1

b. Safety #2

c. Regulating

d. Pulse Answer: C.11 c.

Reference:

SAR 4.5.3.1.1 Excess Reactivity and Shutdown Margin Question C.12 (1.0 points) {12.0}

Which of the following statements best characterizes Natural Circulation?

a. It needs a pump to get started.

b. The elevation of the heat source must be above that of the heat sink.

c. The driving force is a difference in density.

d. Heat transfer is more efficient if steam is mixed with water.

Answer: C.12 c.

Reference:

General Physics, HT&FF, pp. 355 - 358

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question C.13 (1.0 points) {13.0}

Technical Specifications allow operation without the required differential pressure during investigation of the loss of the differential pressure for a period of time not to exceed..

a. 20 minutes

b. 30 minutes

c. 45 minutes

d. 60 minutes Answer: C.13 b.

Reference:

T.S. 3.6 Confinement and Main HVAC Systems Question C.14 (1.0 points) {14.0}

Match the core materials listed in column A with their primary purpose in column B.

Column A Column B

a. Zircaloy 1. Reflector

b. Beryllium 2. Cladding

c. silver-indium-cadmium alloy 3. Poison

d. Graphite Answer: C.1 4 a. = 2; b. = 1; c. = 3; d. = 1

Reference:

SAR Table 1-1; 1.3.3. Reactor Building Structure; 4.2.2.1.

Safety and Regulating Rods Question C.15 (1.0 points) {15.0}

The flow rate through the Purification system is controlled by:

a. adjusting the speed of the centrifugal pump.

b. adjusting the position of a valve at the inlet to the pump.

c. adjusting the position of a valve at the inlet to the demineralizer.

d. adjusting the position of a valve prior to return to the primary system.

Answer: C.15 d.

Reference:

NRP-OP-201, Primary Demineralizer - throttle valve PD-15 to obtain a 20 gpm flow rate

Section C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.16 (1.0 points) {16.0}

Typically for a fuel leak within the pool, some isotopes are not detected by the air radiation monitors.

Which ONE of the following would NOT be detected by the air monitors and why.

a. I131, because it is soluble, and will never make it out of the pool (except in the demineralizer).

b. Cs131, because it is a daughter product of a noble gas and will dissipate.

c. Kr88, because it is a noble gas which cannot be detected.

d. Xe131, because it has too short a half-life.

Answer: C.16 a.

Reference:

SAR 13.2.1.Maximum Hypothetical Accident Question C.17 (1.0 points) {17.0}

A facility Evacuation signal will also cause an automatic confinement initiation. In Confinement, the Heating and Ventilation fans

a. must be manually secured, but the confinement fans start automatically.

b. automatically secure, but the confinement fans must be started manually.

c. automatically secure, and Confinement Fan #1 automatically starts immediately.

d. automatically secure, and BOTH of the confinement fans automatically start immediately.

Answer: C.17 c.

Reference:

SAR 6.2.1. Confinement System POM § 8.2.5.

Question C.18 (1.0 points) {18.0}

Which one of the following monitors, when in an ALARM condition, DOES NOT cause an Evacuation?

a. West Reactor Bay Wall Monitor

b. Primary Deminerilizer Monitor

c. Control Room Area Monitor

d. Auxiliary GM Answer: C.18 b.

Reference:

SAR - 6.2.1. Confinement System

Section B: Normal/Emergency Procedures & Radiological Controls Question C.19 (1.0 points) {19.0}

The confinement fan damper lights on the Radiation-Monitoring Panel indicate which one of the following conditions?

a. power is available to the controlled dampers

b. negative air pressure in the Reactor Building is achieved

c. the damper for the confinement fan is fully open

d. the damper for the confinement fan is partially open Answer: C.19 c.

Reference:

Examiners previous operating test at the facility Question C.20 (1.0 points) {20.0}

Which one of the following correctly describes how a Resistance Temperature Detector (RTD) failure would be indicated? If an RTD should fail,

a. because of a short, the temperature indication will go offscale in the low value direction.

b. because of a short, the temperature indication will go to the midpoint of the temperature scale.

c. in the open position, the temperature indication will go offscale in the low value direction.

d. in the open position, the temperature indication will go to the midpoint of the temperature scale.

Answer: C.20 a.

Reference:

Generic Instrumentation Question

(*** End of Examination ***)