ML16089A239

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301 Draft SRO Written Exam
ML16089A239
Person / Time
Site: Surry  Dominion icon.png
Issue date: 03/22/2016
From:
NRC/RGN-II
To:
Virginia Electric & Power Co (VEPCO)
References
Download: ML16089A239 (122)


Text

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 004G2.2.22, Chemical and Volume Control / 1 & 2, Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and safety limits, (CFR: 41.5 / 43.2 / 45.2)

Level: SRO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4 IR-SRO: 4.7 Proposed Question:

Current Unit Conditions:

  • Units 1 and 2 are operating at 100% power.
  • CVCS is in a NORMAL configuration.
  • Valve number 1-CH-83, Unit 1 Boric Acid Filter Outlet Valve, is found to be plugged with boron.

The Maintenance Department has estimated a repair time of eight (8) hours to cut out and replace 1-CH-83. Tagout has been hung and verified.

Which ONE of the following is correct concerning:

1) The operability of the Boron inject flowpaths as a result of the tagout.
2) The actions required to exit the applicable LCO.

(Reference Provided)

A. 1) One inoperable.

2) Bypass the Boric Acid Filter.

B. 1) Two inoperable.

2) Bypass the Boric Acid Filter.

C. 1) One inoperable.

2) Ensure two flowpaths are operable within the required time, or place the unit in HSD within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

D. 1) Two inoperable.

2) Ensure two flowpaths are operable within the required time, or place the unit in HSD within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

Proposed Answer: C. 1) One inoperable. 2) Ensure two flowpaths are operable within the required time, or place the unit in HSD within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

Explanation: With this valve (1-CH-83) plugged, 1 boric acid flow for Unit 1 has been lost (from BAST to CH pump suction) and the flowpath from the BASTs to the blender. Under these conditions given, one (1) flowpath remains operable from the RWST to the CH pump suction. In order to replace the valve, the piping section containing 1-CH-83 must be tagged out, which also removes the ability to bypass the piping section.

Technical

Reference:

TS 3.2.C and TS 3.2.B.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: Yes, Drawing For LTS00068.TIF, (11448-FM-88A, SH 1 of 4)

Learning Objective: ND-88.3-LP-2, D, Describe the Technical Specifications associated with the CVCS System, including for SRO candidates, the basis behind these specifications.

Question Source: Modified Bank (LTS00068. Modified)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.2 / 45.2): 10 CFR 55.43 (b) (2)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Incorrect - Part 1 is correct, part 2 is incorrect. Candidate misconception of tagout requirements for 1-CH-83. In order to cut out and replace valve, the piping section containing 1-CH-83 must be tagged out, which also removes the ability to bypass the piping section.

B. 1) Incorrect - Both Part 1 and part 2 is incorrect. Candidate misconception of what constitutes an operable Boric acid flowpath. There is only 1 inoperable flow path as the RWST is still available.

Also, candidate misconception of tagout requirements for 1-CH-83. In order to cut out and replace valve, the piping section containing 1-CH-83 must be tagged out, which also removes the ability to bypass the piping section.

C. 1) Correct - One of two required boric acid flowpaths is inoperable. Restoration of this flowpath will require tagout of valve and bypass line.

D. 1) Incorrect - Part 1 is incorrect, part 2 is correct. Candidate misconception of what constitutes an operable Boric acid flowpath. There is only 1 inoperable flow path as the RWST is still available.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 10 CFR 55.43 (b) (2)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 009EA2.39, Small Break LOCA / 3, Ability to determine or interpret the following as they apply to a small break LOCA: (CFR 43.5 / 45.13) Adequate core cooling Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.3 IR-SRO: 4.7 Proposed Question:

Initial Unit 1 Conditions:

  • A small break LOCA has occurred.
  • RCS Pressure is 770 psig and stable.
  • Wide Range T-Cold indication is 446°F and slowly lowering.
  • Average 5 high CETC temperatures indication is 452°F and slowly lowering.
  • Containment Pressure is 21.4 psia and slowly rising.
  • Containment Radiation level by CHRRMS (1-RM-RMS-127/128) indicate 1R/Hr, and are unchanged from time of event initiation.

In accordance with the above conditions, which one of the following states:

1) The status of RCP Trip criteria.
2) The required procedural flow path is E-0 (Reactor Trip or SI), E-1 (Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant), and ________.

A. 1) RCP Trip criteria is met.

2) ES-1.1, SI Termination.

B. 1) RCP Trip criteria is NOT met.

2) ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization.

C. 1) RCP Trip criteria is met.

2) ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization.

D. 1) RCP Trip criteria is NOT met.

2) ES-1.1, SI Termination.

Proposed Answer: C. 1) RCP Trip criteria is met. 2) ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization.

Explanation: Calculated subcooling based on parameters given is 64°F (Tsat for 770 psig is 516 °F, 516 °F - 452 °F = 64 °F); the Containment is adverse therefore RCP Trip criteria is subcooling < 85 oF.

The required procedural flowpath is E-0 Reactor Trip, E-1 Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, and ES-1.2 Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization. E-1, step 20 directs entry into ES-1.2 if RCS pressure is greater than 250 psig [400 psig].

Technical

Reference:

1-ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization, Revision 43. Step 22, Page 14.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-9, ES-1.2; Objective B, Given a copy of ES-1.2, Post-LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization, explain the basis of each procedural step.

Question Source: Modified Bank , Surry, 2004, Question 78 Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 43.5 / 45.13) 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - RCP trip criteria is met (correct). ES-1.1 (incorrect). ES-1.1 is SI Termination and is not correct for these conditions. This is plausible because if non-adverse subcooling numbers are used (30 oF) then ES-1.1 would be correct per step 6 of 1-E-1.

B. Incorrect - RCP trip criteria is NOT met (incorrect). This is plausible because if non-adverse subcooling is used then RCP trip criteria would not be met. ES-1.2 (correct).

C. Correct - RCP trip criteria is met (correct), and E-0, E-1, ES-1.2 (correct).

D. Inorrect - RCP trip criteria is NOT met (incorrect). This is plausible because if non-adverse subcooling is used then RCP trip criteria would not be met. ES-1.1 is SI Termination and is not correct for these conditions. This is plausible because if non-adverse subcooling numbers are used (30 oF) then ES-1.1 would be correct per step 6 of 1-E-1.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 1) correct answer:

References for part 2) correct answer:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for incorrect answers:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 013A2.03, Engineered Safety Features Actuation / 2, Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the ESFAS; and (b) based Ability on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations;,

(CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13) Rapid depressurization Level: SRO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.4 IR-SRO: 4.7 Proposed Question:

Unit 1 was operating at 100% power when the following events occur:

  • Seismic activity 10 miles northwest of Richmond causes multiple Power Station trips, grid instability and loss of offsite power.
  • Both Units automatically trip, and #3 EDG starts and trips on differential current.
  • When Containment pressure exceeds 23 psia, Hi-Hi CLS alarms are received. 1-CS-P-1A fails to start due to mechanical damage.
  • The Team has just reached E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, Step 11, Check RCS intact inside Containment.

Based on the above conditions:

1) Which ONE of the following states the correct procedural implementation?
2) Classify the event using the Emergency Plan.

(Reference Provided)

A. 1) Immediately Transition to FR-Z.1, Response to Containment High Pressure.

2) Alert FA1.1.

B. 1) Transition to FR-Z.1 on Transition to 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant.

2) SAE FS1.1.

C. 1) Immediately Transition FR-Z.1, Response to Containment High Pressure.

2) SAE FS1.1.

D. 1) Transition to FR-Z.1 on Transition to 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant.

2) Alert FA1.1.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation: FR-Z.1, Response to Containment High Pressure, will be indicated when the Containment Status Tree becomes ORANGE; this occurs when CTMT pressure is >23 psia and NO CTMT Spray pumps are operating. With the loss of 1J 4160 V bus (B CS pump has no power), the failure of 1-CS-P-1A to start on Hi-Hi CLS (23 psia in CTMT), and CTMT pressure >23 psia, FR-Z.1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet ORANGE path is indicated. Immediate transition to FR-Z.1 does not comply with the rules of usage; FR procedures do not apply until E-0 has been exited. The classification of SAE is correct due to 1)

LOCA inside CTMT (Loss of RCS Barrier), and 2) CTMT pressure is not responding as expected (Loss of Containment Barrier) for LOCA condition.

Technical

Reference:

1-FR-Z.1, Response to Containment High Pressure. Surry EAL Table, Revision 4.

Reference Provided to Applicant: Yes Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-48, FR-Z.1, Objective C, Given a copy of FR-Z.1, Response to Containment High Pressure, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition. ND-95.5-LP-2, SEM, Objective C, Using EPIP-1.01, Emergency Manager Controlling Procedure, assess/classify plant situations by accessing the EAL charts (both HOT and COLD conditions).

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13) 10 CFR 55.43 (b) (5)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - 1) Transition to FR-Z.1 at Step 11 of E-0 does not comply with Rules of Usage; the transition is made upon exit from E-0 to E-1. Step 14 of E-0 is the step that would allow direct transfer to FR-Z.1. 2) Classification of Alert is not complete, the Candidate must assess that the Unit is experiencing a LOCA, and CTMT pressure > 23 psia with no CS pump running.

B. Correct - The transition to FR-Z.1 is appropriate once E-0 has been exited, and the SAE classification is appropriate for the conditions existent.

C. Incorrect - 1) Transition to FR-Z.1 at Step 11 of E-0 does not comply with Rules of Usage; the transition is made upon exit from E-0 to E-1. Step 14 of E-0 is the step that would allow direct transfer to FR-Z.1. 2) Classification is correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet D. Incorrect - 1) Transition is appropriate. 2) Classification of Alert is not complete, the Candidate must assess that the Unit is experiencing a LOCA, and CTMT pressure > 23 psia with no CS pump running.

References for correct answer: OP-AP-104, Emergency and Abnormal Operating Procedures

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 10 CFR 55.43 (b) (5)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 017G2.4.47, in-core Temperature Monitor / 7, Ability to diagnose and recognize trends in an accurate and timely manner utilizing the appropriate control room reference material., (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12). (NRC Reviewed)

Level: SRO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 4.2 IR-SRO: 4.2 Proposed Question:

Given the following:

  • Unit 1 is currently at 371 °F and is heating up to HSD following a refueling outage.

The following is the current Quadrant II CETC indications for Train A and Train B:

CETCs Train A CETC Train B B10 2300°F, stable A09 40°F, stable C08 40°F, stable C12 40°F, stable E11 40°F, stable D10 368°F, rising slowly F09 370°F, rising slowly F11 783°F, rising 1°/30 seconds F13 40°F, stable G09 815°F, rising 1°F/15 seconds H11 369°F, rising slowly G14 2300°F, Stable Which ONE of the following identifies

1) The number of FAILED CETCs in Train A and Train B. AND
2) The Tech Spec clock in effect.

(Reference Provided)

A. 1) Train A: 4; Train B: 5.

2) 7 day clock.

B. 1) Train A: 3; Train B 2.

2) 7 day clock.

C. 1) Train A: 4; Train B: 5.

2) 30 day clock.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet D. 1) Train A: 3; Train B 2.

2) 30 day clock.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation: Tech Spec 3.7.E and TS Table 3.7-6, Accident Instrumentation, require at least 2 CETC per quadrant operable per train to consider the train operable. A CETC indication of 40 °F indicates that the CETC has been disabled by I&C department. CETC F11 and G09 are considerably above current RCS temperature and rising at a rate greater that RCS temperature. By count of disabled and failing CETCs in Quadrant 2: A train has 4 failed CETCs (B10, C08, E11, and F13); B Train has 5 failed CETCs (A09, C12, F11, G09, and G14). B CETC Train has fewer than 2 CETC operable in this Quadrant therefore B train is inoperable.

Technical

Reference:

TS 3.7.E and Table 3.7-6.

Reference Provided to Applicant: Yes (TS 3.7.E)

A. Learning Objective: ND-93.4-LP-3, Objective A, Describe the operation of the Inadequate Core Cooling Monitor (ICCM) System, including the following: CETC inputs and outputs.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12) 10 CFR 55.43 (b)(2)

Comments:

A. Incorrect - 1) CETC at 40 °F have been disabled and the CETS at 2300 have also failed therefore, Train A =4 (correct). Train B has 2 CETCs at 40 °F, 1 CETC at 2300 °F and 2 CETCs that are 783 °F and 815 °F and rising rapidly. Therefore Train B =5 (correct). 2)

With the indication provided, train B has fewer than 2 Operable CETCs, Train A has a sufficient number of Operable CETCs to call the Train Operable. TS 3.7.E 30 day clock would be in effect vice a 7 day clock (incorrect).

B. Incorrect - 1) Train A has 4 failed CETCs (not 3). Plausible if the operator doesnt include the CETC indicating 2300 °F which once disabled by I&C will indicate 40 °F (incorrect). Also B train has 5 failed CETCs not 32. 2) TS 3.7.E 7 day clock would in effect if Both Trains had less than the required number of Operable CETCs (2). Part 2 is also incorrect.

C. Correct - 1) CETCs at 40 °F have been disabled, and the CETS at 2300 °F has also failed.

Train A =4, and Train B =5 (correct). 2) IAW TS 3.7.E, Train B has less than 2 Operable CETCs, thus a 30 day clock is in effect (correct).

D. Incorrect - 1) Train A has 4 failed CETCs (not 3). Plausible if the operator doesnt include the CETC indicating 2300 °F which once disabled by I&C will indicate 40 °F (incorrect). Also

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet B train has 5 failed CETCs not 2. 2) With the B Train having less than 2 CETCs Operable, a 30 day clock is in effect (correct).

References for Student:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 022AA2. 01, Loss of Rx Coolant Makeup I 2, Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup: (CFR 43.5/ 45.13) Whether charging line leak exists.

Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.8 Proposed Question:

Unit 1 is operating at 100% when the following alarms and/or indications are noted:

  • Pressurizer level is 53% and lowering slowly.
  • 1-RM-RR-131A, Vent Stack #2 RM, is in Alert.
  • CHG Line Flow, 1-CH-FI-1122, indicates 110 gpm and rising.
  • REGEN HX CHG Outlet Temp, 1-CH-TI-1123, indicates 458 °F and rising.
  • Letdown Line Flow, 1-CH-FI-1150, oscillating between 90 and 110 gpm.
  • Seal Injection flow to A, B, and C RCPs indicate 7.5 gpm and slowly lowering.
  • Containment Sump Level indicates 23% and stable.

Answer the following questions:

1) Where is the location of the leak in the Chemical and Volume Control System?
2) Make an immediate determination of operability of the High Head Safety Injection system in accordance with OP-AA-102, Operability Determination.

A. 1) Downstream of 1-CH-FCV-1122, Charging flow control valve.

2) Operable.

B. 1) Downstream of 1-CH-HCV-1186, Seal Injection flow control valve.

2) Operable.

C. 1) Downstream of 1-CH-FCV-1122, Charging flow control valve.

2) Inoperable.

D. 1) Downstream 1-CH-HCV-1186, Seal injection flow control valve.

2) Inoperable.

Proposed Answer: A 1) Downstream of 1-CH-FCV-1122, Charging flow control valve. 2) Operable Explanation: OP-AA-102 directs the Shift Manager (SRO) to make an immediate determination of operability if enough information exists. This determination is made in a controlled manner (OP-AA-102, step 3.2.2). Based on indications, the heat sink for the RHX has been lost (Normal Charging), leading to increased temperatures and flashing of letdown. Change in seal injection flows are insufficient to cause the magnitude of indication changes seen. High Head SI is operable as the leak location is

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet downstream of the HHSI flow path and is automatically isolated on a Safety Injectiion. Therefore the HHSI flow path is not affected.

Technical

Reference:

1-OP-CH-006, Shifting or Increasing/Decreasing Letdown Flow. OP-AA-102, Operability Determination.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-88.3-LP-2, Charging and Letdown, Objective B, Using a one-line diagram drawn from memory, describe the charging and letdown system flowpaths including all interconnections with other systems.

Question Source: Modified Bank (McGuire, 2005)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 43.5/ 45.13) 10CFR55.43(b)(5)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - based on indications, the leak must be downstream of FCV-1122 to see the magnitude of the changes. High Head SI is operable because the flow path is not affected.

B. Incorrect- A change of 1.5 gpm (total) in seal injection will not cause the changes seen. The second part, High Head SI is operable is correct.

C. Incorrect - The location of the leak is correct but HHSI is not inoperable.

D. Incorrect - A change of 1.5 gpm (total) in seal injection will not cause the changes seen.

The second part, High Head SI is inoperable is also incorrect.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

References:

As can be seen by drawing of SI System; a leak downstream of Normal Charging line does not affect the SI Flow path therefore HHSI is operable.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 024AG2.1.23, Emergency Boration/I 1, Ability to perform specific system and integrated plant procedures during all modes of plant operation.(CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.6)

Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 4.3 IR-SRO: 4.4 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions for Unit 1:

  • Unit 1 at 100% power.
  • Delta Flux is at -2.4% with a target of -1%.
  • Spurious Turbine Runback occurs causing Tave to increase rapidly.

Current Conditions:

  • Reactor Power is 91% and stable.
  • Delta Flux is at -16%.
  • Tave is 571.5 oF, Tref is 571.0 oF.

The SRO directs Emergency Boration to be performed per 1-AP-3.00, Emergency Boration. When the RO attempted to open 1-CH-MOV-1350, Emergency Borate MOV; the MOV immediately thermalled.

Based on the current conditions, which ONE of the following states:

1) The next actions to be taken to start Emergency Boration in accordance with 1-AP-3.00.
2) The most restrictive LCO, and basis for this CONDITION?

A. 1) Manually open 1-CH-FCV-1113A, and locally open 1-CH-228.

2) Insertion limits to ensure adequate shutdown margin on reactor trip.

B. 1) Manually align Charging pump suction to the RWST.

2) Insertion limits to minimize the effects of Xenon redistribution during load-follow maneuvers.

C. 1) Manually open 1-CH-FCV-1113A, and locally open 1-CH-228.

2) Delta flux to minimize the effects of Xenon redistribution during load-follow maneuvers.

D. 1) Manually align Charging pump suction to the RWST.

2) Delta flux to ensure adequate shutdown margin on reactor trip.

Proposed Answer: C. 1) Manually open 1-CH-FCV-1113A, and locally open 1-CH-228. 2) Minimize the effects of Xenon redistribution during load-follow maneuvers.

Explanation: 1) 1-AP-3.00 specifies manually opening 1-CH-FCV-1113A and 1-CH-228 if 1-CH-MOV-1350 does not open. If neither valve can be open then the procedure directs aligning charging pump

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet suction to the RWST. 2) The Delta Flux LCO is not met with Delta flux at -9.0. With power above 90%

the requirement is to restore axial flux to the band within 15 minutes or be below 90%. The basis for the Delta Flux LCO is to minimize the effects of xenon redistribution on the axial power distribution during load-follow maneuvers.

Technical

Reference:

1-AP-3.00, Emergency Boration, Tech Specs 3.12.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.2-LP-4, Power Range Nuclear Instruments, Objective D, Explain the meaning of the "Delta Flux" indication, including the limitations imposed upon it by Technical Specifications.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.6)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect -. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect. Ensure adequate Shutdown Margin is the basis for Control Rod Insertion limits. This is plausible because the conditions given do imply Control Bank is below the insertion limit but this LCO has a 1-hour time limit to verify shutdown margin and a 2-hour limit to restore control banks to within limits. The SRO candidate must prioritize the situation, and determine the most limiting LCO and basis for that LCO. The Delta Flux LCO has a 15 minute limit therefore it is the most limiting LCO.

B. Incorrect -. Part 1 is incorrect because 1-AP-3.00 states that 1-CH-FCV-1113A and 1-CH-228 should be open next. This path is a redundant path that uses the same source for Boric Acid as 1-CH-MOV-1350. The RWST path is only used if neither path is available. This is plausible because this is a viable path in the procedure but the question is asking for the NEXT action. Part 2 is incorrect. Insertion limits to minimize the effects of Xenon redistribution during load-follow maneuvers. This is the wrong LCO and the Basis is also not the basis for Insertion limits. This is plausible because the conditions given do imply Control Bank is below the insertion limit but this LCO has a 1-hour time limit to verify shutdown margin and a 2-hour limit to restore control banks to within limits. The SRO candidate must prioritize the situation, and determine the most

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet limiting LCO and basis for that LCO. The Delta Flux LCO has a 15 minute limit therefore it is the most limiting LCO.

C. Correct.

D. Incorrect: - Part 1 is incorrect because 1-AP-3.00 states that 1-CH-FCV-1113A and 1-CH-228 should be open next. This path is a redundant path that uses the same source for Boric Acid as 1-CH-MOV-1350. The RWST path is only used if neither path is available. This is plausible because this is a viable path in the procedure but the question is asking for the NEXT action. Part 2 is also incorrect because the LCO Basis is not the correct Basis for Delta flux.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for Part 1. Figure below shows flowpath for Emergency Boration. AP-3.00 shows if 1-CH-MOV-1350 cannot be opened then next step is to open 1-CH-FCV-1113A, and 1-CH-228. If neither valve can be opened then align charging pump suction to RWST.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 2, Tech spec basis for Delta Flux (Tech Specs page 3.12-18).

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 2, distractor; Tech Spec basis for Control Bank insertion limit.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 027AA2.10, Pressurizer Pressure Control System Malfunction / 3, Ability to determine and Interpret the following as they apply to the Pressurizer Pressure Control Malfunctions:, (CFR: 43.5 /

45.13) PZR heater energized/de-energized condition Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.3 IR-SRO: 3.6 Proposed Question:

Unit 1 is operating at 100% Power and Normal Operating Pressure.

C and D pressurizer heater banks control switches are in ON; A, B, and E pressurizer heater control switches are in AUTO with the Green breaker open indicating light LIT.

The Master Pressure Controller malfunctions, causing a step change in the setpoint to 2310 psig which causes the Master Pressure Controller output to decrease to 0%.

The response of the A, B, and E pressurizer heater to this event is to ____(1)___. During power operation at least 125 KW of heaters must be supplied electrical power from an emergency bus in order to provide assurance that these heaters will remain energized _____(2)_____.

A. 1) energize

2) to ensure the Reactor Coolant System will not be solid when criticality is achieved B. 1) energize
2) during a loss of offsite power to maintain natural circulation at HOT SHUTDOWN C. 1) remain deenergized
2) during a loss of offsite power to maintain natural circulation at HOT SHUTDOWN D. 1) remain deenergized
2) to ensure the Reactor Coolant System will not be solid when criticality is achieved Proposed Answer: B Explanation: When controller setpoint changes to 2310 psig, Master Pressure Controller output will decrease to 0%. This causes A/B/E pressurizer heater banks which are in AUTO to energize, and the C heater bank to go to maximum output. Per TS 3.1.A.5 basis, the requirement for 125 KW of operable heaters powered from the emergency bus it to provide assurance that these heaters will remain energized during a loss of offsite power to maintain natural circulation at HOT SHUTDOWN. The A, and E heaters are powered from emergency buses (J, H). The requirement for a bubble in the pressurizer with pressurizer heaters and spray available is to ensure the reactor is not critical with the pressurizer solid.

Technical

Reference:

TS 3.1.A basis.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-5, PZR Press Control, Objective B, Using a one-line diagram, drawn from memory, describe all design characteristics of the Pressurizer Pressure Control System, including setpoints, controls, interlocks, inputs, and outputs. ND-88.1-LP-9, Tech Specs, Objective H, Describe the RCS Tech Specs, including for the SRO candidate, the basis behind each specification.

Question Source: Modified Bank , PPC00017 Surry Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13) 10 CFR 55.43(b)(2)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Correct, A/B/E heaters will energize because they are in AUTO.

2) Incorrect - Response linked to TS-3.1.A basis regarding requirement to maintain reactor subcritical by 1% until a steam bubble is established. This basis relates to pressurizer heaters in general and this distractor is plausible if the operator confuses the basis for maintaining a bubble with requirement for 125 KW.

B. 1) Correct

2) Correct - Linked to TS-3.1.A basis C. 1) Incorrect - All Pzr heaters will energize. Common misconception when Pressure setpoint is confused with actual pressure. Plausible because if operator confuses actual pressure with pressure setpoint then it is true that A/B/E pressurizer heaters will de-energize.
2) Correct - linked to TS 3.1.A basis D. 1) Incorrect - All Pzr heaters will energize. Common misconception when Pressure setpoint is confused with actual pressure. Plausible because if operator confuses actual pressure with pressure setpoint then it is true that C pressurizer heaters will go to minimum.
2) Incorrect - Response linked to TS-3.1.A basis regarding requirement to maintain reactor subcritical by 1% until a steam bubble is established. This basis relates to pressurizer heaters in general and this distractor is plausible if the operator confuses the basis for maintaining a bubble with requirement for 125 KW.

References for correct answer: If setpoint fails high then output will go low causing Proportional heaters to be full ON and Backup heaters (A,B,E) to be ON.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 033AG2.2.44, Loss of Intermediate Range NI / 7, Ability to interpret control room indications to verify the status and operation of a system, and understand how operator actions and directives affect plant and system conditions, (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.12)

Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 4.2 IR-SRO: 4.4 Proposed Question:

Given the following:

  • Unit 1 is performing a plant startup in accordance with 1-GOP-1.5, Unit Startup, 2% Reactor Power to Max Allowable Power.
  • The Main Generator has been placed on line.
  • Reactor power is 13% and rising.
  • Permissive status light B2, P-7 NIS PWR RGE and TURB PWR < 10%, is NOT lit.
  • Permissive status light B1, NIS INT RNG RX TRIP and ROD STOP BLOCKED is lit.
  • Permissive status light C1, NIS PWR RNG LO SP TRIP BLOCKED is lit.
  • Reactor Operator reports that N-36 has failed HIGH.
  • The SRO enters 1-AP-4.00 Nuclear Instrument Malfunction.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The actions required to be taken for this event in accordance with 1-AP-4.00.
2) Determine Tech Spec actions (if any).

A. 1) Place N36 Level Trip Switch in the Bypass position, remove Control Power Fuses.

2) The LCO is not met. Verify by permissive status light, that the interlock is in required state within one hour.

B. 1) Place N36 Level Trip Switch in the Bypass position

2) The LCO is not met. Verify by permissive status light, that the interlock is in required state within one hour.

C. 1) Place N36 Level Trip Switch in the Bypass position, remove Control Power Fuses.

2) The LCO is met.

D. 1) Place N36 Level Trip Switch in the Bypass position.

2) The LCO is met.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation: 1) With the indications provided, N36 channel is Inoperable. AP-4.00 would be initiated and the Level Trip Bypass Switch placed in Bypass, and TS Table 3.7-1, items 3 and 13 referenced.

Pulling the fuses is performed in AP-4.00 for a Power Range Channel Failure, not an IR channel failure.

Table 3.7-1 item 3, Intermediate Range Hi Flux is met as indications given provide an acceptable bypass operation, however Table 3.7-1 item 20, Reactor Trip System interlocks are not met until the

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet interlocks are verified. This requires a detailed SRO knowledge as to what functions are required in Table 3.7-1 and what actions need to be taken.

Technical

Reference:

TS Table 3.7-1, Item 3, and item 20. Operator Action 3 and 13. 1-AP-4.00, Step 10-14, and Attachment 2.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.2-LP-3, Objective D, Explain the operation of the Intermediate Range detection system during both normal and abnormal operating conditions. ND-93.2-ST-3.1, Objective C, Given the loss of one or both IR channels above or below P-10, describe the use of AP-4.00 to address the failure(s).

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.12) 10 CFR 55.43 (b)(2)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - 1) Incorrect, Power range requires fuses removed, not Intermediate Range.

2) Correct.

B. Correct (see explanation)

C. Incorrect - 1) Incorrect, Power range requires fuses removed, not Intermediate Range.

2) Incorrect because Table 3.7-1, item 20 Reactor Trip Interlocks require action 13 which specifies checking interlocks in required state within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />. This is plausible because item 3 is satisfied by the P-10 bypass conditions being met.

D. Incorrect - 1) Correct. 2) Incorrect because Table 3.7-1, item 20 Reactor Trip Interlocks require action 13 which specifies checking interlocks in required state within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />. This is plausible because item 3 is satisfied by the P-10 bypass conditions being met.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 1)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 2. Item 3 is met therefore distractors LCO is met Is plausible

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 014A2.05, Rod Position Indication / 1, Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the RPIS; and (b) based on those on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Reactor trip (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13)

Level: SRO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.9 IR-SRO: 4.1 Proposed Question:

Unit 1 was tripped due to the loss of the A MFP at 100% power.

  • The Team has withdrawn the Shutdown Banks IAW 1-OP-RX-005, Rod Control System Withdrawal of the Shutdown Banks.
  • The Team is preparing to withdraw Control Banks in accordance with 1-OP-RX-006, Withdrawal of the Control Banks to Critical Conditions, when the RO notes that D Bank Group Step Counters Indicate 14 on Group 1, and 0 on Group 2.
  • The Team has entered 0-AP-1.00, Rod Control Malfunction, for the D Bank Group Step Counter.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The maximum deviation between the Group Step Counters in accordance with Tech Specs.
2) The basis for Rod Position Indication.

A. 1) +/- 2 Steps.

2) Core peaking factors.

B. 1) +/- 12 Steps.

2) Core power distribution and Shutdown Margin.

C. 1) +/- 2 Steps.

2) Core power distribution and Shutdown Margin.

D. 1) +/- 12 Steps.

2) Core peaking factors.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation: 1) Per TS 3.12.E.c; from movement of control banks to achieve criticality and Reactor Critical, the Bank Demand Position Indication System shall be operable and capable of determining group demand position to within 2 steps. 2) TS Basis states: The requirements on the rod position indicators and the group step demand counters are only applicable from the movement of control banks to achieve criticality and with the REACTOR CRITICAL, because these are the only conditions in which

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet the rods can affect core power distribution and in which the rods are relied upon to provide required shutdown margin. (TS Basis page TS 3.12-14)

Technical

Reference:

Technical Specifications Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: None Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.3)

Comments:

A. 1) +/- 2 Steps. This is correct.

2) Core peaking factors. This is incorrect and plausible if operator confuses basis for Rod position and Bank demand with Basis for Rod insertion limits which states that the Rod insertion limits provide a limit on maximum inserted rod worth in event of rod ejection and provide for acceptable peaking factors.

B. 1) +/- 12 Steps. This is incorrect. If power is > 50% Rod Position Indication System shall be capable of determining rod position with 12 steps of bank demand. This is plausible if operator confuses requirement for moving rods to criticality with requirement for power >

50%.

2) Core power distribution and Shutdown Margin. This is correct.

C. 1) +/- 2 Steps. This is correct (see explanation).

2) Core power distribution and Shutdown Margin. This is correct (see explanation).

D. 1) +/- 12 Steps. This is incorrect. If power is > 50% Rod Position Indication System shall be capable of determining rod position with 12 steps of bank demand. This is plausible if operator confuses requirement for moving rods to criticality with requirement for power >

50%.

2) Core peaking factors. This is incorrect and plausible if operator confuses basis for Rod position and Bank demand with Basis for Rod insertion limits which states that the Rod insertion limits provide a limit on maximum inserted rod worth in event of rod ejection and provide for acceptable peaking factors.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

References:

For correct answer.

References for distractors:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 057AG2.1.28, Loss of Vital AC Inst. Bus/ 6, Knowledge of the purpose and function of major system components and controls. (CFR: 41.7)

Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.1 IR-SRO: 4.1 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions (0700):

  • Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
  • UPS 1A1 Regulating Line Conditioner (RLC) is tagged out for maintenance and is scheduled to be returned to service at 1900.

Current Conditions (0720):

  • Fault occurs during maintenance on UPS 1A1 inverter resulting in the following indications:

o Annunciator 1K-A7, BATT SYSTEM 1A TROUBLE is lit.

o Annunciator 1K-B8, UPS SYSTEM 1A TROUBLE is lit.

o Annunciator 1K-G7, 480V BUS MCC BKR TRIP is lit.

o Vital Bus I volts indicate 0.0 volts.

o Operator reports that UPS 1A1 Inverter Output breaker has tripped.

  • Operator reports that Breaker 14H13, MCC 1H1-2 Supply breaker has tripped open and has an overcurrent flag.
  • Operator reports that Alternate Source Supplying load light is lit on the Static Switch Section for UPS 1A2.
  • Crew has entered 1-AP-10.01, Loss of Vital Bus I.

Based on the conditions given, answer the following questions.

1) With the conditions given Vital Bus III is powered from the UPS 1A2 ___________?
2) What is the latest time Vital bus I must be re-energized, in order to comply with 1-AP-10.01?

A. 1) Battery Charger.

2) 1320.

B. 1) Battery Charger.

2) 0920.

C. 1) RLC.

2) 1320.

D. 1) RLC.

2) 0920.

Proposed Answer: D 1) RLC. 2) 0920.

Explanation: 1) With the Indications reported, Vital Bus I is de-energized and Vital Bus III has lost the power supply from its Battery Charger (1H1-2). Therefore the 1A2 Inverter that is normally supplied

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet from Battery Charger will shift to the RLC. 2) Per 1-AP-10.01 Note prior to Step 15: A de-energized AC Vital Bus shall be re-energized within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> OR the unit must be placed in Hot Shutdown within the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />. This requirement is not a Technical Specification (even though it sounds like one), but a commitment. (Ref: NRC GL 91-11)

Technical

Reference:

ARP 2K-A8, UPS System 1A Trouble. Step 4, Caution and RNO. 1-AP-10.01, Loss of Vital Bus I. Step 15 Note.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-90.3-PP-5, Objective B, Describe the components and indications associated with an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS). SOER 83-03, Recommendation 11; and Objective E, Given a loss of a Vital or Semi-Vital bus, describe the actions taken IAW AP-10.01, 10.02, 10.03, 10.04, and/or 10.05 to address this loss. SOER 83-03, Recommendation 11 and SOER 81-02, Recommendation 5.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7) 10 CFR 55.43 (b)(5)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - 1) Incorrect. The Alternate Source is supplying the Static Switch as indicated by the Alternate Source to Load light being lit, making the power source incorrect. 2) Incorrect. The GL 91-11 clock to restore power to the Vital Bus should be 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> (0920).

B. Incorrect - 1) Incorrect. The Alternate Source is supplying the Static Switch as indicated by the Alternate Source to Load light being lit, making the power source incorrect. 2) Correct. 2 Hour GL 91-11 clock is correct.

C. Incorrect - 1) Power for the Vital Bus is correct. 2) Incorrect. The GL 91-11 clock to restore power to the Vital Bus should be 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> (0920).

D. Incorrect - 1) Power source listed is correct. 2) Correct. 2 Hour GL 91-11 clock is correct.

10 CFR 55.43 (b)(5)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 1. MCC 1H1-2 is lost therefore Alternate source will supply Vital Buss through static switch.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 2.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 10 CFR 55.43 (b)(5)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 059A2.01, Main Feedwater / 4S, Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the MFW; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:, (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 /

45.13) Feedwater actuation of AFW system Level: SRO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.4 IR-SRO: 3.6 Proposed Question:

Unit 1 is currently at 61% power following a ramp down from 100% power so that 1-FW-P-1B, B Main Feed Pump can be secured for maintenance.

Per 1-OP-FW-004, Main Feedwater System Operation; 1-FW-MOV-150B, 1-FW-P-1B Discharge MOV, has just been closed.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The Tech Spec Clock Duration that is entered when 1-FW-MOV-150B is closed.
2) The reason for the Tech Spec. clock.

A. 1) 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />.

2) The TD AFW pump will not auto start if 1-FW-P-1A tripped under this condition.

B. 1) 48 Hours.

2) The TD AFW pump will not auto start if 1-FW-P-1A tripped under this condition.

C. 1) 72 Hours.

2) The MD AFW pumps will not auto start if 1-FW-P-1A tripped under this condition.

D. 1) 48 Hours.

2) The MD AFW pumps will not auto start if 1-FW-P-1A tripped under this condition.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation: When the discharge MOV on a running MFP is closed, the MFP supplying feed flow to the SGs could trip and the auto start matrix for the MD AFW pumps (1/2 breakers on 2/2/ MFPs) would not make up. The Unit would experience a loss of feed event with no AFW auto initiation signal -

operator action would be required. 1-OP-FW-004 procedurally requires 48 hour5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> TS clock prior to closing discharge valve of a Main Feed Pump (1-OP-FW-004, step 5.8.5).

Technical

Reference:

Technical Specification Table 3.7-2, Engineered Safeguards Action, Item 3.e, Action 24.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Learning Objective: ND-94-SP-1, Objective A, Given a condition where Tech Spec requires, make notifications and commence a Unit shutdown IAW GOP-2.1, Unit Shutdown, Power Decrease from Max Allowable Power to less than 30% Reactor Power.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13) 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis A. Incorrect - 1) Plausible if operator confuses AFW pump start criteria with FRV criteria. 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> would relate to FRV on Jack admin requirement per Table 3.7-3. 2) TDAFW auto start not impacted by MFP trip. Plausible if operator confuses TDAFW pump start with MDAFW pumps start.

B. Incorrect - 1) 48 hour5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> clock correct. 2) TDAFW pump start incorrect. Plausible if operator confuses TDAFW pump start with MDAFW pumps start.

C. Incorrect - 1) Plausible if operator confuses AFW pump start criteria with FRV criteria. 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> would relate to FRV on Jack admin requirement per Table 3.7-3.

D. Correct - Both 48 hour5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> clock requirement and auto start of MDAFW pump correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

References:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 061G2.4.47, Auxiliary/Emergency Feedwater, Ability to diagnose and recognize trends in an accurate and timely manner utilizing the appropriate control room reference material., (CFR: 41.10 /

43.5 / 45.12)

Level: SRO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.4 IR-SRO: 3.7 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions:

  • Unit 1 was at 100% when a Seismic event occurred.
  • Security reports a large volume of steam coming from U1 Safeguards louvers.
  • A Loss of offsite Power has occurred, with a failure of EDG-3 to start.
  • Efforts are in progress to close Main Steam Trip Valve/Non-Return isolation valve.

Current Conditions (10 minutes later):

  • RCS Pressure 1200 psig and lowering.
  • RCS Tave 510 °F and lowering in all 3 loops.
  • SG Pressure: S/GA - 480 psig/ lowering, S/GB - 541 psig/ rising, S/GC - 490 psig/ lowering.
  • AFW Flow: S/GA - 170 gpm, S/GB - 120 gpm, S/GC - 160 gpm.
  • SG Levels are: S/G A - 44% WR/lowering, S/GB - 38% WR/rising, S/GC - 43%

WR/lowering.

  • Containment Pressure is 10.5 psia and steady.
  • Crew is just starting step 2 in ECA 2.1, Uncontrolled Depressurization of all S/Gs; Control FF to minimize RCS cooldown.

Given the above information determine:

1) The correct procedural sequence. AND
2) Feed Flow directions the SRO is required to give.

A. 1) Continue in ECA-2.1, transition to FR-H.1 (Loss of Sec Heat Sink), then back to ECA-2.1.

2) Maintain a minimum of 60 gpm to each S/G.

B. 1) Continue in ECA-2.1, transition to FR-H.1 (Loss of Sec Heat Sink), then back to ECA-2.1.

2) Isolate FW to S/G A and S/G C, maintain minimum of 350 gpm to S/G B.

C. 1) Go to E-2 (Faulted S/G Isolation), then transition to E-1 (Loss of Rx. or Sec. Coolant), and then to ES-1.1 (Si Term.).

2) Maintain a minimum of 60 gpm to each S/G.

D. 1) Go to E-2 (Faulted S/G Isolation), then transition to E-1 (Loss of Rx. or Sec. Coolant), and then to ES-1.1 (Si Term.).

2) Isolate FW to S/G A and S/G C, maintain minimum of 350 gpm to S/G B.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Proposed Answer: D. 1) Go to E-2, then transition to E-1, and then to ES-1.1.

2) Isolate FW to S/G A and S/G C, maintain minimum of 350 gpm to S/G B.

Explanation: With conditions given, S/G B has been isolated. E-2 Transition Criteria (Continuous action no. 3) in ECA-2.1 states the following Go to E-2, Faulted Steam Generator Isolation, if any S/G Pressure increases at any time except while performing SI Termination in Steps 13 to 23. The SRO should decide to go to E-2 immediately because there is now an intact S/G. After performing E-2 to isolate S/G A and S/G C the crew will transition to E-1 to stabilize the plant and then ES-1.1 to reduce Safety Injection Flow. The SRO should decide to feed S/G B at best available rate to fully establish S/G B as a heat sink.

Technical

Reference:

1-ECA-2.1, 1-E-2.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-2, ECA-2.1, Objective B, Given a copy of ECA-2.1, Uncontrolled Depressurization of All Steam Generators, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12) 10 CFR 55.43 (b)(5)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - E-2 Transition criteria is met therefore E-2 is the correct procedure to go to.

Plausible because if the SRO doesnt perform E-2 the procedure sequence will be as written with the sequence in and out of FR-H.1 after throttling to 60 gpm. 60 gpm is the correct flow rate based on cooldown rate from conditions given (approx. 40 oF/10min equates to > 200 o

F/hr.).

B. Incorrect - E-2 Transition criteria is met therefore E-2 is the correct procedure to go to. Also Feed Flow rate incorrect if staying in ECA-2.1. Plausible because after step 2 is performed total Aux Feed will be < 350 gpm which would satisfy FR.H.1 criteria.

C. Incorrect - E-2 Transition criteria is correct. The flow rate is out of step 2 of ECA-2.1 which is incorrect. Plausible if operator confuses ECA-2.1 flow requirements with E-2 flow requirements.

D. Correct - The SRO should decide to go to E-2 immediately since E-2 transition criteria is met. After performing E-2 to isolate S/G A and S/G C the crew will transition to E-1 to stabilize the plant and then ES-1.1 to reduce Safety Injection Flow. Feed Flow should be maintained at best available rate to S/G B.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Attachment 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for correct answer: ECA-2.1 Continuous Action directs going to E-2.

References for distractor A and B: If SRO decides not to transition to E-2 then ECA-2.1 step 2 is next step.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet After ECA-2.1 step 2 performed then FR-H.1 will be met. (No SG > 12% and Feed Flow <350 gpm)

References for Distractor C: If SRO throttles flow to 60 gpm before transitioning to E-2. Procedure usage dictates going to E-2 first.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 075G2.2.44, Circulating Water / 8, Ability to interpret control room indications to verify the status and operation of a system, and understand how operator actions and directives affect plant and system conditions, (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.12)

Level: SRO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 4.2 IR-SRO: 4.4 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions:

  • Unit 1 and 2 are operating at 100% power.
  • #3 EDG fails to start.

Current Conditions:

  • Intake Canal Level is decreasing.

Which ONE of the following identifies

1) The appropriate procedure flowpath to regain control of Intake Canal level.
2) The minimum intake canal level required per TS 3.14 (Circulating and SW) Bases to provide adequate design flow through RS SW heat exchangers.

A. 1) E-0, 1(2)-AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1(2) Power, 0-AP-12.01, Loss of Intake Canal Level.

2) 17.2 feet.

B. 1) E-0, 0-AP-12.01, Loss of Intake Canal Level, 1(2)-AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1(2) Power.

2) 23.5 feet.

C. 1) E-0, 1(2)-AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1(2) Power. 0-AP-12.01, Loss of Intake Canal Level.

2) 23.5 feet.

D. 1) E-0, 0-AP-12.01, Loss of Intake Canal Level, 1(2)-AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1(2) Power.

2) 17.2 feet.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation: As described in Stem, AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1(2) Power is initiated from Step 3 of E-0, RNO. AP-10.07 directs response to the loss of power event in order of priority to control the plant and restore power. AP-12.01, Loss of Intake Canal level would be initiated FROM AP-10.07. Candidate may assess Intake Canal Level decreasing rapidly as requiring a higher level priority than responding to the loss of power. Canal Level minimum level described in TS 3.14, Circulating and Service Water Systems Basis.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

1(2)-AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1(2) power.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-90.3-LP-7, SS and Emer Dist and Control, Objective G, Given copies of AP-10.07, Loss of Power, and AP-10.08 Station Power Restoration, explain the steps necessary to operate the station following a total or partial loss of power.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.12)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - AP-10.07 would have the highest priority in responding to the event, with AP-12.01 initiated from this procedure. 17.2 feet is derived from TS-3.14 basis for providing adequate flow through RSHXs during a Design Basis Event.

B. Incorrect - Reverse sequence of priority in Abnormal Procedure implementation. 23.5 feet derives from same paragraph of TS-3.14 Basis.

C. Incorrect - Sequence of procedure usage (correct). Incorrect Canal level value from TS-3.14 basis.

D. Incorrect - Reverse Sequence of procedure usage. Canal level value is correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 078A2.01, Instrument Air /, Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the IAS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:, (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13) Air dryer and filter malfunctions Level: SRO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.4 IR-SRO: 2.9 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions (Time 0200):

Unit 1 is at cold Shutdown, with RCS temperature at 195 °F.

  • RCS is in solid plant pressure control.
  • The A RHR pump and A RHR Heat Exchanger are in service.
  • 1-RC-P-1C, is running.

Time 0205:

  • Station Instrument Air pressure is 75 psig and lowering rapidly.

TIME 0210:

  • Local report of both Instrument Air dryer towers blowing down.
  • RCS temperature is 205 °F and rising.
  • Operators are currently working on Instrument Air restoration.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The impact of the loss of Instrument Air to the RHR system.
2) The EAL used to classify this event.

(REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A. 1) 1-RH-HCV-1758, RHR HXS Flow Fails Close.

2) NOUE CU3.1.

B. 1) 1-RH-HCV-1758, RHR HXS Flow Fails Close.

2) Alert CA3.1.

C. 1) 1-CC-TV-109A/B, RHR H/X Trip Valves Fail Close.

2) NOUE CU3.1.

D. 1) 1-CC-TV-109A/B, RHR H/X Trip Valves Fail Close.

2) Alert CA3.1.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Proposed Answer: C Explanation: In this event a loss of decay heat removal would be caused by the loss of instrument air.

The loss of Instrument Air will cause a loss of RHR cooling due to 1-CC-TV-109A/B failing close. CU3.1 classification is appropriate since a loss of decay heat removal has occurred. Upgrade to alert, CA 3.1, is required if the Unit temperature has exceeded 200 °F, and by Table C the duration exceeds 60 minutes. This allows time to respond to the event, and restore the capability to remove decay heat.

Technical

Reference:

0-AP-40.00, Loss of Station Instrument Air.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.1-LP-9, Loss of Instrument Air, Objective A, Describe the operator actions associated with the annunciator responses procedure for Service Air, Instrument Air, and Containment IA Alarms. And, Objective B, Given a copy of AP-40.00, Non-Recoverable Loss of Instrument Air, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13) 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis A. Incorrect - 1) 1-RH-HCV-1758 does NOT fail closed. This is plausible if Operator confuses fail position with 1-RH-FCV-1605, RHR HXS Bypass Flow which does fail close. 2) Per Surry EAL Table, Classification of CU 3.1 is correct. CA 3.1, would not apply unless the event duration would be expected to exceed 60 minutes.

B. Incorrect - 1) ) 1-RH-HCV-1758 does NOT fail closed. This is plausible if Operator confuses fail position with 1-RH-FCV-1605, RHR HXS Bypass Flow which does fail close. 2) Per Surry EAL Table, Classification of CU 3.1 is correct. CA 3.1, would not apply unless the event duration would be expected to exceed 60 minutes.

C. Correct - 1) 1-CC-TV-109A/B does fail close. This will cause loss of RHR cooling and subsequent RCS temperature rise. 2) Per Surry EAL Table, Classification of CU 3.1 is correct D. Incorrect - 1) 1-CC-TV-109A/B does fail close. This will cause loss of RHR cooling and subsequent RCS temperature rise. 2) CA 3.1, would not apply unless the event duration would be expected to exceed 60 minutes.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References from 0-AP-40.0, Attachment 1 that show fail positions for 1-CC-TV-109A/B, 1-RH-HCV-1758, and 1-RH-FCV-1605.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.1.25, Conduct of operations, Ability to interpret reference materials such as graphs, monographs and tables which contain performance data., (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12)

Level: SRO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.9 IR-SRO: 4.2 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions:

  • Unit 1 is at Cold Shutdown.
  • 1-OPT-SI-014, Cold Shutdown Test of SI Check Valves to RCS Cold Legs, is currently in progress.
  • Previous Leak Rate data has been provided by Engineering.
  • Current Leak Rate data has just been determined.

Mark Number Previous Test Current Results A 1-SI-79 3.50 gpm 4.30 gpm B 1-SI-82 0.5 gpm 0.9 gpm C 1-SI-85 1.25 gpm 3.0 gpm D 1-SI-241 4.8 gpm 5.2 gpm E 1-SI-242 0.9 gpm 0.8 gpm F 1-SI-243 0.5 gpm 2.8 gpm Which one of the following lists ALL the Check Valves that are Inoperable in accordance with Technical Specifications section 3.1.C.5.a, Primary Coolant System Pressure Isolation Valves?

A. 1-SI-241.

B. 1-SI-79, 1-SI-243.

C. 1-SI-79, 1-SI-241, 1-SI-243.

D. 1-SI-79, 1-SI-85, 1-SI-241, 1-SI-243.

Proposed Answer: C. 1-SI-79, 1-SI-241, 1-SI-243 Explanation: Question requires the SRO Candidate to interpret the Table and determine which Pressure Isolation valves are inoperable per TS 3.1.C.5.a. The Table used is similar to the Table that is used in 1-OPT-SI-014. Engineering provides the previous leakage data, and the SRO evaluates Current leakage against Previous leakage to determine operability. The Tech Spec Criteria is as follows:

  • Leakage must be < 5.0 gpm.
  • Leakage < 1.0 gpm is acceptable.
  • Leakage rates greater than 1.0 gpm but less than or equal to 5.0 gpm are considered

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet acceptable if the latest measured rate has not exceeded the rate determined by the previous test by an amount that reduces the margin between measured leakage rate and the maximum permissible rate of 5.0 gpm by 50% or greater. Based on this a formula can be devised for acceptable leakage: (5.0 - Current leakage) / (5.0 - Previous leakage) > 0.5.

Based on this criteria the SI Check Valve results are as follows:

Mark Number Previous Test Current Results Operable/Inoperable A 1-SI-79 3.50 gpm 4.30 gpm Inop: 0.7/1.5 = .46 B 1-SI-82 0.5 gpm 0.9 gpm Operable: 4.1/4.5 =.91 C 1-SI-85 1.25 gpm 3.0 gpm Operable: 2.0/3.75=.53 D 1-SI-241 4.8 gpm 5.2 gpm Inop: > 5.0 gpm E 1-SI-242 0.9 gpm 0.8 gpm Operable: 4.2/4.1=1.02 F 1-SI-243 0.5 gpm 2.8 gpm Inop: 2.2/4.5 = .48 Technical

Reference:

Tech Specs. 3.1.C.5a Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective:

Question Source: Modified TS00078 Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12) 10 CFR 55.43 (b)(5)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1-SI-241. Incorrect because 1-SI-79, and 1-SI-243 are also inoperable because of margin.

This is plausible If SRO candidate only applies criteria for greater than 5.0 gpm. 1-SI-241 is inoperable because it is greater than 5.0 gpm but it is not the only inoperable check valve.

B. 1-SI-79, 1-SI-243. Incorrect because 1-SI-241 is also inoperable. This is plausible if SRO candidate only applies criteria for margin to 5.0 gpm criteria.

C. 1-SI-79, 1-SI-241, 1-SI-243 (correct answer)

D. 1-SI-79, 1-SI-85, 1-SI-241, 1-SI-243. Incorrect because of these 1-SI-85, is operable. This is Plausible if SRO confuses acceptance criteria and believes < 1.0 gpm is only acceptance criteria as all these are > 1.0 gpm.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference from Tech Specs 3.1.C.5.a

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.1.32, Conduct of operations, Ability to explain and apply all system limits and precautions, (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.12)

Level: SRO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.8 IR-SRO: 4 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions:

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.

  • Control Rod E-11, Shutdown Bank B, Group 1, has dropped and indicates zero (0) Steps.
  • Indications and alarms received confirm that E-11 has dropped.
  • The Team initiates 0-AP-1.00, Rod Control System Malfunction.
  • The STA completes 0-AP-1.00 Attachment 6, Calculation of Excore Quadrant Power Tilt Ratios, and reports that the Upper channel tilt is 16%, and the Lower channel tilt is 13.5%.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) The reactor power level and time requirement in effect.
2) The most limiting basis for the power level requirement.

A. 1) Reduce Reactor Power to < 75% Rated Power in one (1) hour.

2) To maintain the minimum DNBR greater than design limits.

B. 1) Reduce Reactor Power to < 75% Rated Power in thirty (30) minutes.

2) To prevent core power distribution from exceeding design limits.

C. 1) Reduce Reactor Power to < 68% Rated Power in one (1) hour

2) To maintain the minimum DNBR greater than design limits.

D. 1) Reduce Reactor Power to < 68% Rated Power in thirty (30) minutes.

2) To prevent core power distribution from exceeding design limits.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation: TS 3.12.B.6 describes the limitations on Quadrant Power Tilt to prevent exceeding core power distribution limits. With a calculated QPTR of >10%, Reactor Power must be reduced 2% for each percent of tilt within 30 minutes. With a dropped rod, the rod is mis-aligned from its bank > +/-12 Steps, thus it is considered INOPERABLE. With an Inoperable rod, Reactor Power must be reduced to

<75% within one hour. Maintenance of DNBR, per TS 3.12 Basis, relates to maintaining DNBR parameters within limits to ensure the Minimum DNBR > design limits. Candidate must assess the dropped rod condition and the QPTR calculation to correctly apply Tech Specs to this event. The location of the dropped rod causes a 20% reduction in N42 indication due to rod shadowing, resulting in the significant impact on calculated QPTR.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

Tech Spec 3.12.B.6, a. through c. TS 3.12.C. TS 3.12 Basis.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective:

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.12)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect -1) Per TS 3.12 The calculated QPTR has a greater effect on the amount of power reduction from rated power and a greater urgency to effect these changes than a dropped rod which is the basis for power reduction to <75%. Time allowed for the reduction for this case is 30 minutes, vice 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />. 2) The reason given in the distractor relates to control of DNBR parameters which the Candidate could confuse with core power distribution concerns.

B. Incorrect -1) The magnitude of the power reduction correlates to an inoperable rod, not to the calculated QPTR; the time for the reduction is correct. 2) The basis for the power reduction is correct.

C. Incorrect -1) the magnitude of the power reduction is correct, the allowed time is incorrect.

2) The reason given in the distractor relates to control of DNBR parameters which the Candidate could confuse with core power distribution concerns.

D. Correct-1) Magnitude of power reduction and time limit are correct. 2) The reason for the power reduction is also correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Choice D (Correct Answer)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Distractor Reference

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.2.13, Equipment Control, Knowledge of tagging and clearance procedures. (CFR:

41.10 / 45.13)

Level: SRO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 4.1 IR-SRO: 4.3 Proposed Question:

Which ONE of the following examples represents an INVALID waiver of Tag removal verification by Shift Supervision?

A. Tags for 1-SI-MOV-1890A, 1-SI-MOV-1890B (LHSI to Hot Legs) and 1-SI-MOV-1890C (LHSI to Cold Legs) during Team response to a LOCA outside of Containment in accordance with 1-ECA-1.2, LOCA outside Containment.

B. Tags for 1-SI-MOV-1869A and 1-SI-MOV-1869B (HHSI to Hot Legs) when cold leg SI flow cannot be established during a SBLOCA with a loss of subcooling on Unit 1.

C. Tags in an area with a Dose Rate of 1 R/hr.

D. Tags from a Transformer disconnect being worked by substation personnel during Switchyard restoration following a tornado because of a shortage of personnel.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation: OP-AA-200, Equipment Clearance allows Shift Supervision (i.e., SRO assigned to the Shift or the Shift Manager) to waive verification of Tag removal for Plant Emergencies, High Radiation Areas, or Personnel Safety. Only Operations personnel are authorized to place or remove Tags.

Technical

Reference:

OP-AA-200, Equipment Clearance, Page 5, Step 3.1.12.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective:

Question Source: Modified Bank Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 45.13)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A) Incorrect - Shift Supervision may waive verification of Tag Removal during Plant Emergencies.

B) Incorrect - Shift Supervision may waive verification of Tag Removal during Plant Emergencies.

C) Incorrect - Shift Supervision may waive verification of Tag Removal due to high radiation areas.

D) Correct - The System Operator is required to approve the hanging or clearing of tags in the switchyard.

Link Question to 10 CFR 55.43 (b)(3). Tag removal and verification is a Plant Configuration control item; by guidance in reference procedure, only Shift Supervision may waive verification of Tag removal

- thus question examines SRO level of knowledge of Equipment Clearance procedure.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.2.18, Equipment Control, Knowledge of the process for managing maintenance activities during shutdown operations. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13)

Level: SRO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 2.6 IR-SRO: 3.8 Proposed Question:

Unit 1 is in Cold Shutdown and in the process of starting up the plant following a Refueling outage with the following conditions:

  • The RCS is solid
  • Pressurizer pressure is being maintained 85-125 psig
  • RCS temperature band is 90-98 oF You have just been notified that Post Maintenance Tests (PMTs) 1-IPT-FT-RC-P-403/458, Reactor Coolant System Pressure Functional Test, have not been completed for Pressurizer PORVs; 1-RC-PCV-1455C, and 1-RC-PCV-1456. The PMTs should have been completed 16 hours1.851852e-4 days <br />0.00444 hours <br />2.645503e-5 weeks <br />6.088e-6 months <br /> earlier.

What is the Operability status of the Pressurizer PORVs?

A. PORV Operability is not required for the present plant conditions given.

B. Declare both PORVs inoperable from the time the PMT should have been completed.

C. Declare both PORVs inoperable from the time of discovery.

D. Delay declaring both PORVs inoperable for up to 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> to allow the PMTs to be completed.

Proposed Answer: C. Declare both PORVs inoperable from the time of discovery Explanation: OP-AA-102, Operability Determination; 3.2.2 states that an immediate determination of operability is to be made without delay in a controlled manner. Note below that step states that there is no regulatory guidance defining a specific time frame to complete an immediate determination of operability. General industry practice is within several hours.

Technical

Reference:

OP-AA-102, Operability Determination. Surry Technical Specifications Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: SRO-UTP, For a Tier 2 procedure discuss the requirements for Operations personnel.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Cognitive Level: Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13)

Comments:

A. PORV Operability is not required for the present plant conditions given. This is incorrect because Tech Specs 3.1.G requires that both PORVs shall be Operable when RCS temperature is < 350 oF and the vessel head is bolted.

B. Declare both PORVs inoperable from the time the PMT should have been completed. This is incorrect because OP-AA-102 states that the impact on Tech Spec equipment should be made from the time of discovery. This is plausible because part of returning a component to service is to perform PMT and return component to service prior to declaring component operable (Ref:

WM-AA-100, Maintenance process, step 3.13.4). This should have been done 16 hours1.851852e-4 days <br />0.00444 hours <br />2.645503e-5 weeks <br />6.088e-6 months <br /> earlier before therefore this is a plausible distractor.

C. Declare both PORVs inoperable from the time of discovery. OP-AA-102, step 3.2.1 states that the Shift Manager should determine the impact on TS operability upon discovery.

D. Delay declaring both PORVs inoperable for up to 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> to allow the PMTs to be completed.

This is incorrect because there is no requirement to allow a 24-hour delay on declaring a component inoperable following a missed PMT. There is an allowance to allow a 24-hour delay for a missed Surveillance test which is entirely different (Ref: OP-AA-102, 3.6.1). This makes this a plausible distractor.

Reference for correct answer, OP-AA-102, 3.2.1.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference for Distractor A from TS3.1-23.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference for distractor B from WM-AA-100 3.13.4

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference for Distractor D.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.3.11, Radiation Control, Ability to control radiation releases, (CFR: 41.11 / 43.4 /

45.10 Level: SRO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.8 IR-SRO: 4.3 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions:

  • A WGDT is in service (lined up).
  • B WGDT release is in progress in accordance with OP-23.2.4, Release of Waste Gas Decay Tank 1B.
  • Annunciator 0-RMA-C6, Process Vent Part Alert /Hi is received.
  • The BOP has verified 1-GW-RM-130A, Rad Monitor Process Vent Particulate is valid and is reading greater than the HI alarm setpoint.

Which ONE of the following completes the statement:

1) __________ will automatically isolate to STOP the WGDT release flow path. AND
2) The quantity of radioactive material in each gas storage tank shall be limited to < 24,600 curies of noble gases in order to provide assurance that in the event of an uncontrolled release of the tanks contents, the dose to an individual standing at the exclusion area boundary will not exceed _________________.

A. 1) 1-GW-FCV-101, Process Vnt WGDT Effluent Flow Controller.

2) 0.5 rem TEDE over a 2 hour2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> period.

B. 1) 1-GW-FCV-160, Ctmt Vac Pump Disch Hdr Isol.

2) 25 rem to the thyroid from iodine exposure over a 2 hour2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> period.

C. 1) 1-GW-FCV-160, Ctmt Vac Pump Disch Hdr Isol.

2) 0.5 rem TEDE over a 2 hour2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> period.

D. 1) 1-GW-FCV-101, Process Vnt WGDT Effluent Flow Controller.

2) 25 rem to the thyroid from iodine exposure over a 2 hour2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> period.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation: 1) The automatic actions for HI alarm on 1-GW-RM-130A is to automatically isolate 1-GW-FCV-101 and 1-GW-FCV-160. Only 1-GW-FCV-101 will stop the release as 1-GW-FCV-160 is an input to the system (see attached figure). 2) TS 3.11, Radioactive Gas Storage; Specification B, Gas Storage Tanks; states the quantity of radioactivity contained in each storage tank shall be limited to 24, 600 curies of noble gases (considered as Xe-133). The Basis for this requirement states that; the quantity of radioactivity is less than the quantity which provides assurance that in the event of an

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet uncontrolled release of the tanks contents, the resulting total body exposure to an individual at the nearest exclusion area boundary will not exceed 0.5 rem in an event of 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.

Technical

Reference:

Tech Specs 3.11.B Basis, Waste Gas Storage; ND-81.2-LP-5, Tech Spec and 10 CFR 100; ARP 0-RMA-C6, Process Vent Particulate ALERT/HI.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-92.4-LP-1, GW and LW, Objective B, Describe the operation of the Gaseous Waste System.

ND-95.2-LP-1, Radioactive release, Objective B, Describe the Radioactive Gas Release Accidents as presented in Chapter 14 of the Updated Final Safety Analysis Report. Waste Gas Decay Tank.

ND-81.2-LP-5, 10CFR and Tech Spec, Objective C, State the purpose of 10CFR100.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.11 / 43.4 / 45.10 Comments:

Distractor Analysis A. Correct.

B. Incorrect - 1) Incorrect. 1-GW-FCV-160 will NOT isolate the release. Plausible because this is one of the automatic actions that will occur. 2) Incorrect. TS 3.11 Basis states that quantity will limit dose to .5 Rem over 2-hour period. Plausible because 25 Rem is whole body limit for the exclusion area design basis for postulated fission product release. Actual thyroid limit is 300 Rem but 25 Rem used to ensure there is no basis for claiming this is correct.(ND-81.2-LP-5).

C. Incorrect - 1) Incorrect. 1-GW-FCV-160 will NOT isolate the release. Plausible because this is one of the automatic actions that will occur. 2) Correct.

D. Incorrect - 1) Correct. 2) Incorrect. TS 3.11 Basis states that quantity will limit dose to .5 Rem over 2-hour period. Plausible because 25 Rem is whole body limit for the exclusion area design basis for postulated fission product release. Actual thyroid limit is 300 Rem but 25 Rem used to ensure there is no basis for claiming this is correct.(ND-81.2-LP-5).

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 1. Both 1-GW-FCV-101 and 1-GW-FCV-160 will isolate, but only GW-FCV-101 will stop the release.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 2.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference for distractor (B) and (D). Wrong because wrong basis and thyroid value incorrect.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.3.12, Radiation Control, Knowledge of radiological safety principles pertaining to licensed operator duties, such as containment entry requirements, fuel handling responsibilities, access to locked high-radiation areas, aligning filters, etc. (CFR: 41.12 / 45.9 / 45.10)

Level: SRO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.7 Proposed Question:

Unit 2 is currently in a Refueling Shutdown with Reactor Head Lift in progress when the following occurs:

  • Reactor Head dropped three (3) feet during movement to the head stand in the containment basement.
  • A Supplemental employee is pinned beneath the Reactor Head lift rigging.
  • Emergency Plan has been implemented based on HU6.1, Judgment, following consultation with the Operations Manager.
  • The initial Emergency Medical Technicians (EMTs) have reported that the individual is alive, but contaminated and will require an ambulance.
  • Additional EMTs have been dispatched in order to rescue the injured person.
  • Dominion will be issuing a Press Release.
  • The general dose rates in the area of the injured person is 1.5 R/hr.

Based on current conditions:

1) What is the maximum allowable dose (TEDE) that can be authorized by the SEM to rescue the individual?
2) What is the time requirement to report this event to the NRC.

(REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A. 1) 10 REM.

2) 8 Hours.

B. 1) 10 REM.

2) 24 Hours.

C. 1) 25 REM.

2) 1 Hour.

D. 1) 25 REM.

2) 4 Hours.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation: 1) EPIP-4.04 authorizes a maximum of 25 REM for search and rescue, first aid, and removal of injured personnel where there is reasonable expectation that the individual is alive within the affected area. 2) VPAP-2802, Section 6.3 Note 1: Notifications for events that exceed an Emergency

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Action Level, as specified in EPIP-1.01, Emergency Manager Controlling Procedure, are controlled by EPIP-2.01, Notification of State and Local Governments and EPIP-2.02, Notification of NRC. See also Steps 6.3.5 and 6.3.7. [10 CFR 50.72(a)(3), 10 CFR 50.72(c)(1), 10 CFR 50.72(c)(2)]. With the Emergency Plan in effect, the NRC notifications will be driven by EPIP-2.02, Notification of NRC.

Technical

Reference:

VPAP-2802, Notifications and Reports. EPIP-4.04, Emergency Personnel Radiation Exposure, Attachment 1, Emergency Exposure Limits.

Reference Provided to Applicant: YES, VPAP -2802 pages 78 - 89. This pertains to 1-hour, 4-hour, 8-hour, and 24-hour reporting requirements.

Learning Objective: ND-81.2-LP-3, External Exposure. Objective C: Explain the federal exposure limits for Total Effective Dose Equivalent, extremity, skin, and Lens of the Eye doses including necessary requirements and limitations for extensions. SROU-02, Admin Procedures. Tier 2. VPAP-2802 Notifications and Reports (SRO.) (Ensure memorization of 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> or less notifications.)

Question Source: NEW Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.12 / 45.9 / 45.10) 10 CFR 55.43(b)(4)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis A. 1) 10 REM. Incorrect, EPIP 4.04 allows 25 REM (not 10) for lifesaving activities. This is plausible if SRO candidate confuses limit for lifesaving with limit for protecting equipment.

2) 8 Hours. Incorrect - VPAP-2802 transport of a contaminated injured personnel is an 8-hour report; however the report of the event and subsequent notification of transport of a contaminated individual will be controlled by EPIP-2.02, Notification of NRC.

B. 1) 10 REM. Incorrect, EPIP 4.04 allows 25 REM (not 10) for lifesaving activities. This is plausible if SRO candidate confuses limit for lifesaving with limit for protecting equipment.

2) 24 Hours. Incorrect, per VPAP-2802 transport of a contaminated injured personnel is an 8-hour report. Plausible because a 24-hour notification is required for an event involving licensed material that causes or threatens to cause an individual to receive a TEDE exceeding 5 REM.

C. 1) 25 REM. Correct per EPIP 4.04, Attachment 1.

2) 1 Hours. Correct per VPAP-2802, Note 1 of Section 6.3.

D. 1) 25 REM. Correct per EPIP 4.04.

2) 4 Hours. Incorrect, per VPAP-2802 transport of a contaminated injured personnel is an 8-hour report. Plausible because a 4 hour4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> report is required IAW VPAP-2802 Media

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Significant or Newsworthy as stated in Note prior to item 5. Stated in Stem that Dominion will make a Press Release.

References for part 1 correct answer and distractor.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 2 correct answer. (VPAP 2802 page 84)

References for part 2 distractors.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.4.28, Emergency Procedures/Plans, Knowledge of procedures relating to emergency response to sabotage., (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13)

Level: SRO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 4.1 Proposed Question:

Unit 1 and 2 are operating at 100% with all systems and cross-ties OPERABLE.

  • A Hostile Force has landed at the Low Level Intake Structure.
  • The Outside Watch has been taken hostage, and the Operations vehicle has been used to breach the protected area fence from the construction side into the plant.
  • Security Supervisor reports that they are currently engaging the hostile force in the Polishing Building. All personnel should remain clear of the Polishing Building. No other areas are affected at this time.
  • Explosions were heard from the vicinity of the Polishing Building.

Which ONE of the following states the classification for this event?

(REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A. HG4.1, General Emergency.

B. HA2.1, Alert.

C. HA4.1, Alert.

D. HS4.1, Site Area Emergency.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation:

Technical

Reference:

Surry EAL Matrix, Surry Power Station Emergency Action Level Technical Basis Document.

Reference Provided to Applicant: Yes, EAL Matrix.

Learning Objective:

Question Source: New

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13) 10CFR 55.43(b)(5)

Comments: Question is SRO-only due to EAL Classification.

Distractor Analysis A. Incorrect - Hostile Action within the Protected Area is occurring however there is no report of loss of the ability to operate equipment needed to maintain safety functions.

B. Incorrect - EAL does apply, but is not the highest classification.

C. Incorrect - EAL does apply, but is not the highest classification.

D. Correct - EAL does apply, and is the highest classification. There is a hostile force that is occurring within the protected area.

Reference for correct answer D and distractor A.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference for Distractor B.

Reference for Distractor C

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE11EG2.1.32, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirc. /4, Ability to explain and apply all system limits and precautions. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.12)

Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.8 IR-SRO: 4 Proposed Question:

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.

Unit 2 has experienced a Loss of Offsite power and a LBLOCA:

  • EDG 3 failed to start.
  • Containment Pressure is 44 psia and slowly rising.
  • All RCPs have secured.
  • RCS pressure is 50 psig and steady.
  • Core Exit Thermocouple temperature: 610 oF and slowly rising.
  • The Team has just established Cold Leg Recirculation in accordance with 2-ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation, (step 5 completed).
  • Oscillating Pump Amps and Discharge Pressure indication on the following: LHSI pump, 2-SI-P-1A; Inside Recirc Spray pump, 2-RS-P-1A; Outside Recirc Spray Pump, 2-RS-P-2A.

Which ONE of the following identifies the procedure that should be performed for the NEXT step?

A. Continue in ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation.

B. Go to FR-C.2, Response to Degraded Cooling.

C. Go to ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

D. Go to FR-Z.1, Response to Containment High Pressure.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation: With indications given, a loss of Sump suction has occurred (oscillating pump amps and discharge pressure indication). With only one train of equipment available (due to loss of J bus) there is a complete loss of sump suction. Note before step 1, and Attachment 1 step 1.e in ES-1.3 states that if there is a complete loss of sump suction capability then GO TO ECA-1.1.

Technical

Reference:

1-ECA-1.1, 1(2)-OP-CS-004.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Learning Objective:.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.12)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - If there were two trains of LHSI available then this would be correct as the team would first secure one LHSI pump to attempt to relieve the sump blockage. Plausible because efforts to free sump blockage are first performed in ES-1.3.

B. Incorrect - With indications of Sump Blockage, priority is to relieve sump blockage Conditions. Plausible because entry conditions for FR-C.2 (Low Subcooling, RCPs secured, RVLIS < 46%) are met. SRO must prioritize most important action.

C. Correct - With a Total Loss of Sump suction capability, ECA-1.1 is required.

D. Incorrect - With indications of Sump Blockage, priority is to relieve sump blockage Conditions. Plausible because entry conditions for FR-Z.1 are met (Containment pressure >

23 psia, no Containment Spray pumps running). SRO must prioritize most important action.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for correct answer:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE12EG2.4.4, Steam Line Rupture - Excessive Heat Transfer /4, Ability to recognize abnormal indications for system operating parameters which are entry-level conditions for emergency and abnormal operating procedures., (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.6)

Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.5 IR-SRO: 4.7 (linked to WE E12, Uncontrolled Depressurization of all SGs).

Proposed Question:

Unit 2 is stable at approximately 2% reactor Power following a Refueling Shutdown.

  • Steam Dumps are in AUTO with 4% demand indicated.
  • The BOP is performing 2-OPT-FW-003, Turbine Driven Auxiliary Pump 2-FW-P-2, full flow test.

The following indications are noted:

  • 2-FW-P-2 Feed Pressure light goes out.
  • S/G A/B/C Pressure: 400 psig and decreasing rapidly.
  • S/G Level: S/G A - 58% (WR), S/G B - 55% (WR), S/G C - 50% (WR), (All are lowering).
  • Containment Pressure: 10.5 psia and steady.

Which ONE of the following identifies the required sequence of procedure transitions implemented in response to this event?

A. E-2 Faulted SG Isolation, E-1 Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, ES-1.1 SI Termination.

B. FR-H.1 Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, E-2 Faulted SG Isolation, ECA-2.1 Uncontrolled Depressurization of all SGs.

C. E-2 Faulted SG Isolation, FR-H.1 Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

D. E-2 Faulted SG Isolation, ECA-2.1 Uncontrolled Depressurization of all SGs.

Proposed Answer: D. E-2 (Faulted SG Isolation), ECA-2.1 (Uncontrolled Depressurization of all SGs).

Explanation: For indications and initial condition, all 3 SGs will be faulted with a leak path upstream of the MSTVs but outside containment. Containment is not adverse therefore AFW flow > 350 gpm meets requirement, therefore FR-H.1 is not applicable.

Technical

Reference:

ECA-2.1, Uncontrolled depressurization of All Steam Generators.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-22, ECA-2.1, Objective B, Given a copy of ECA-2.1, Uncontrolled Depressurization of All Steam Generators, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.6) 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5)

Comments:

Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect - procedural progression would occur as stated IF the candidate assumes steam isolation in E-2. E-2 step 2 requires at least one intact SG.

B. Incorrect - Per FR-H.1 Entry would only occur IF candidate assumes all three SGs AFW flow is isolated in E-2 or Adverse Containment.

C. Incorrect - FR-H.1 Entry would only occur IF candidate assumes all three SGs AFW flow is isolated in E-2.

D. Correct - Based on the event in progress, ECA-2.1 would be entered. Team would not throttle

<350 gpm until step 2 of ECA-2.1.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE16EA2.2, High Containment Radiation / 9, Adherence to appropriate procedures and operation within the limitations in the facilitys license and amendments, (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)

Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3 IR-SRO: 3.3 Proposed Question:

A LBLOCA occurred on Unit 1, followed by fuel failure. A Category 4 Hurricane has caused power lines to drop on numerous roadways, and tornadoes have been seen throughout Surry and James City County.

  • At 0400: A General Emergency has just been declared on FG1.1.
  • At 0410: State and Local authorities are notified in accordance with EPIP-2.01, Notification of State and Local Governments.
  • HP reports the following dose assessment data based on the release in progress:
  • Projected TEDE dose is 0.8 Rem at 2 miles.
  • Projected Thyroid CDE dose is 7.0 Rem at 2 miles.
  • Projected Thyroid CDE dose is 5.2 Rem at the Site Boundary.
  • The primary downwind sector is "C" with "B" and "D" as buffer sectors.

Which one of the following correctly answers the following questions:

1) What is the correct Protective Action Recommendation?
2) What is the latest time that the PAR must be made to the State?

(REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A. 1) Shelter-in-place: 2 Mile radius and 5 Miles downwind. 2) 0415.

B. 1) Expanded PAR: Derive from EPIP-4.07. 2) 0415.

C. 1) Shelter-in-place: 2 Mile radius and 5 Miles downwind. 2) 0425.

D. 1) Expanded PAR: Derive from EPIP-4.07. 2) 0425.

Proposed Answer: A 1) PAR A Shelter-in-place: 2 Mile radius and 5 Miles downwind. 2) 0415 Explanation: 1) EPIP-1.06, Attachment 2 first checks for any known impediments. Known impediments are defined as any severe weather such as hurricanes, tornados, flooding or blizzards; and any traffic issues such as dropped power lines. Given information provides Hurricane, numerous tornadoes, and dropped power lines. This meets the first the criteria for known impediments that make evacuation dangerous. Therefore in accordance with EPIP-1.06 Attachment 2 PAR A; Shelter in place 2 mile radius and 5 miles downwind is the appropriate PAR. 2) EPIP-2.01, Notification of State and

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Local requires PARs be made within 15 minutes of General Emergency Declaration therefore PARs must be communicated to the State no later than 0415.

Technical

Reference:

EPIP-1.06, / Recommendations. EPIP-2.01, Notification to State and Local Governments.

Reference Provided to Applicant: Yes (EPIP-1.06 )

Learning Objective: ND-95.5-LP-2, SEM, Objective D, Describe the corrective actions required by a classified plant emergency.

Question Source: BANK (LORP, CEP 275, LEPIP060)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct: 1) PAR A Shelter-in-place: 2) 0415 is the correct time.

B. Incorrect. 1) PAR C Expanded PAR is incorrect because of impediments that make evacuation dangerous. This is plausible because dose at 2 miles is greater than allowed making PAR C the correct PAR if there would be no known impediments. 2) 0415 is the correct time.

C. Incorrect. 1) PAR A Shelter-in-place is the correct PAR. 2) 0425 is incorrect because the requirement is to make PARs within 15 minutes of GE declaration. Plausible because a common misconception is to make PARS within 15 minutes of Notification, and normal practice is to make PARs after the Notification.

D. Incorrect. 1) PAR C Expanded PAR is incorrect because of impediments that make evacuation dangerous. This is plausible because dose at 2 miles is greater than allowed making PAR C the correct PAR if there would be no known impediments. 2) 0425 is incorrect because the requirement is to make PARs within 15 minutes of GE declaration.

Plausible because a common misconception is to make PARS within 15 minutes of Notification, and normal practice is to make PARs after the Notification.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for Part 1 from EPIP-1.06.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 1 from EPIP-1.06 shows correct answer (red) and distractor (green).

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for Part 2 from EPIP-2.01.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE01EA2.1, Rediagnosis / 3, Facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during abnormal and emergency operations. (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)

Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 4 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions:

  • Unit 1 reactor has been tripped from 100% due to a LOCA.
  • The Team has just transitioned to ES-1.2, POST LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization.

Current Conditions:

  • Subcooling: 25oF and lowering.
  • AFW flow: 140 gpm to each S/G.
  • SG level: S/G A/B 70% WR and steady. S/G C 10% NR and rising.
  • Annunciator 1-RM-G8, CNDSR AIR EJCTR ALERT/FAILURE has just alarmed.
  • BOP confirms that 1-SV-RM-111 is at the Alert setpoint and rising.
  • The Team became concerned about conflicting indications and transitioned to ES-0.0, Rediagnosis.

Which ONE of the following describes the correct procedural flowpath from ES-0.0?

A. Go directly to E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture; then to ECA-3.1, SGTR with Loss of Reactor Coolant Subcooled Recovery.

B. Return to ES-1.2, POST LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization until SI signals have been blocked; then go to E-3, SGTR; then ECA-3.1, SGTR with Subcooled Recovery.

C. Return to ES-1.2, POST LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization until SI signals have been blocked; then go to E-3, SGTR; then ES-3.1, Post SGTR Cooldown using Backfill.

D. Go directly to E-3, SGTR; then go to ES-3.1, Post SGTR Cooldown using Backfill.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation: Indications given provide the SRO with a LOCA outside containment followe3d by a SGTR. There is no transition from ECA-1.2 to E-3, therefore ES-0.0 will provide a procedural mechanism to deal with the rupture. After entering ES-0.0 step 3 asks if there is a SGTR. If so ES-0.0

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet states than an E-3 or ECA-3 procedure is in effect. The SRO will then enter E-3, and due to a low subcooling the SRO will then enter ECA-3.1 when directed in E-3.

Technical

Reference:

ES-0.0, Rediagnosis.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-3, E-3; Objective A, Given the major action categories associated with E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture, explain the purpose of E-3, the transition criteria for entering and exiting E-3 and the types of operator actions that will occur within each category.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct, ES-0.0 directs entry into E-3 first. Once in E-3, then entry into ECA-3.1 will occur due to low subcooling.

B. Incorrect, because once in ES-0.0, a SGTR will have a higher priority then an E-1 or ES 1.2 procedure. Also SRO needs to understand entry and exit transitions; ES-1.2 is only entered from E-1 or ES-1.1 for small break LOCAs. Additionally ES-1.2 has an exit transition requirement for SGTR. Plausible because leak may not be isolated and SRO may confuse priority of ES-0.0.

C. Incorrect, because once in ES-0.0, a SGTR will have a higher priority then an E-1 or ES-1.2 procedure. Plausible if SRO takes wrong path in ES-0.0 step 3 and goes to ES-1.2 first, instead of E-3. Also if SRO went to E-1 first then Continuous Action would direct entry into E-3.

D. Incorrect. E-3 is correct procedure to go to first. ES-3.1 is not correct because of low subcooling. Plausible because ES-3.1 is desired procedure due to less release to general public.(Ref: ND-95.3-LP-14)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for ES-0.0; E-3 correct transition, E-1 is not.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for E-3; ECA-3.1 correct transition, ES-3.1 is NOT.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 004G2.2.22, Chemical and Volume Control / 1 & 2, Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and safety limits, (CFR: 41.5 / 43.2 / 45.2)

Level: SRO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4 IR-SRO: 4.7 Proposed Question:

Current Unit Conditions:

  • Units 1 and 2 are operating at 100% power.
  • CVCS is in a NORMAL configuration.
  • Valve number 1-CH-83, Unit 1 Boric Acid Filter Outlet Valve, is found to be plugged with boron.

The Maintenance Department has estimated a repair time of eight (8) hours to cut out and replace 1-CH-83. Tagout has been hung and verified.

Which ONE of the following is correct concerning:

1) The operability of the Boron inject flowpaths as a result of the tagout.
2) The actions required to exit the applicable LCO.

(Reference Provided)

A. 1) One inoperable.

2) Bypass the Boric Acid Filter.

B. 1) Two inoperable.

2) Bypass the Boric Acid Filter.

C. 1) One inoperable.

2) Ensure two flowpaths are operable within the required time, or place the unit in HSD within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

D. 1) Two inoperable.

2) Ensure two flowpaths are operable within the required time, or place the unit in HSD within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

Proposed Answer: C. 1) One inoperable. 2) Ensure two flowpaths are operable within the required time, or place the unit in HSD within 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

Explanation: With this valve (1-CH-83) plugged, 1 boric acid flow for Unit 1 has been lost (from BAST to CH pump suction) and the flowpath from the BASTs to the blender. Under these conditions given, one (1) flowpath remains operable from the RWST to the CH pump suction. In order to replace the valve, the piping section containing 1-CH-83 must be tagged out, which also removes the ability to bypass the piping section.

Technical

Reference:

TS 3.2.C and TS 3.2.B.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: Yes, Drawing For LTS00068.TIF, (11448-FM-88A, SH 1 of 4)

Learning Objective: ND-88.3-LP-2, D, Describe the Technical Specifications associated with the CVCS System, including for SRO candidates, the basis behind these specifications.

Question Source: Modified Bank (LTS00068. Modified)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.2 / 45.2): 10 CFR 55.43 (b) (2)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Incorrect - Part 1 is correct, part 2 is incorrect. Candidate misconception of tagout requirements for 1-CH-83. In order to cut out and replace valve, the piping section containing 1-CH-83 must be tagged out, which also removes the ability to bypass the piping section.

B. 1) Incorrect - Both Part 1 and part 2 is incorrect. Candidate misconception of what constitutes an operable Boric acid flowpath. There is only 1 inoperable flow path as the RWST is still available.

Also, candidate misconception of tagout requirements for 1-CH-83. In order to cut out and replace valve, the piping section containing 1-CH-83 must be tagged out, which also removes the ability to bypass the piping section.

C. 1) Correct - One of two required boric acid flowpaths is inoperable. Restoration of this flowpath will require tagout of valve and bypass line.

D. 1) Incorrect - Part 1 is incorrect, part 2 is correct. Candidate misconception of what constitutes an operable Boric acid flowpath. There is only 1 inoperable flow path as the RWST is still available.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 10 CFR 55.43 (b) (2)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 009EA2.39, Small Break LOCA / 3, Ability to determine or interpret the following as they apply to a small break LOCA: (CFR 43.5 / 45.13) Adequate core cooling Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.3 IR-SRO: 4.7 Proposed Question:

Initial Unit 1 Conditions:

  • A small break LOCA has occurred.
  • RCS Pressure is 770 psig and stable.
  • Wide Range T-Cold indication is 446°F and slowly lowering.
  • Average 5 high CETC temperatures indication is 452°F and slowly lowering.
  • Containment Pressure is 21.4 psia and slowly rising.
  • Containment Radiation level by CHRRMS (1-RM-RMS-127/128) indicate 1R/Hr, and are unchanged from time of event initiation.

In accordance with the above conditions, which one of the following states:

1) The status of RCP Trip criteria.
2) The required procedural flow path is E-0 (Reactor Trip or SI), E-1 (Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant), and ________.

A. 1) RCP Trip criteria is met.

2) ES-1.1, SI Termination.

B. 1) RCP Trip criteria is NOT met.

2) ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization.

C. 1) RCP Trip criteria is met.

2) ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization.

D. 1) RCP Trip criteria is NOT met.

2) ES-1.1, SI Termination.

Proposed Answer: C. 1) RCP Trip criteria is met. 2) ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization.

Explanation: Calculated subcooling based on parameters given is 64°F (Tsat for 770 psig is 516 °F, 516 °F - 452 °F = 64 °F); the Containment is adverse therefore RCP Trip criteria is subcooling < 85 oF.

The required procedural flowpath is E-0 Reactor Trip, E-1 Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, and ES-1.2 Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization. E-1, step 20 directs entry into ES-1.2 if RCS pressure is greater than 250 psig [400 psig].

Technical

Reference:

1-ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization, Revision 43. Step 22, Page 14.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-9, ES-1.2; Objective B, Given a copy of ES-1.2, Post-LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization, explain the basis of each procedural step.

Question Source: Modified Bank , Surry, 2004, Question 78 Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 43.5 / 45.13) 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - RCP trip criteria is met (correct). ES-1.1 (incorrect). ES-1.1 is SI Termination and is not correct for these conditions. This is plausible because if non-adverse subcooling numbers are used (30 oF) then ES-1.1 would be correct per step 6 of 1-E-1.

B. Incorrect - RCP trip criteria is NOT met (incorrect). This is plausible because if non-adverse subcooling is used then RCP trip criteria would not be met. ES-1.2 (correct).

C. Correct - RCP trip criteria is met (correct), and E-0, E-1, ES-1.2 (correct).

D. Inorrect - RCP trip criteria is NOT met (incorrect). This is plausible because if non-adverse subcooling is used then RCP trip criteria would not be met. ES-1.1 is SI Termination and is not correct for these conditions. This is plausible because if non-adverse subcooling numbers are used (30 oF) then ES-1.1 would be correct per step 6 of 1-E-1.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 1) correct answer:

References for part 2) correct answer:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for incorrect answers:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 013A2.03, Engineered Safety Features Actuation / 2, Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the ESFAS; and (b) based Ability on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations;,

(CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13) Rapid depressurization Level: SRO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.4 IR-SRO: 4.7 Proposed Question:

Unit 1 was operating at 100% power when the following events occur:

  • Seismic activity 10 miles northwest of Richmond causes multiple Power Station trips, grid instability and loss of offsite power.
  • Both Units automatically trip, and #3 EDG starts and trips on differential current.
  • When Containment pressure exceeds 23 psia, Hi-Hi CLS alarms are received. 1-CS-P-1A fails to start due to mechanical damage.
  • The Team has just reached E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, Step 11, Check RCS intact inside Containment.

Based on the above conditions:

1) Which ONE of the following states the correct procedural implementation?
2) Classify the event using the Emergency Plan.

(Reference Provided)

A. 1) Immediately Transition to FR-Z.1, Response to Containment High Pressure.

2) Alert FA1.1.

B. 1) Transition to FR-Z.1 on Transition to 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant.

2) SAE FS1.1.

C. 1) Immediately Transition FR-Z.1, Response to Containment High Pressure.

2) SAE FS1.1.

D. 1) Transition to FR-Z.1 on Transition to 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant.

2) Alert FA1.1.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation: FR-Z.1, Response to Containment High Pressure, will be indicated when the Containment Status Tree becomes ORANGE; this occurs when CTMT pressure is >23 psia and NO CTMT Spray pumps are operating. With the loss of 1J 4160 V bus (B CS pump has no power), the failure of 1-CS-P-1A to start on Hi-Hi CLS (23 psia in CTMT), and CTMT pressure >23 psia, FR-Z.1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet ORANGE path is indicated. Immediate transition to FR-Z.1 does not comply with the rules of usage; FR procedures do not apply until E-0 has been exited. The classification of SAE is correct due to 1)

LOCA inside CTMT (Loss of RCS Barrier), and 2) CTMT pressure is not responding as expected (Loss of Containment Barrier) for LOCA condition.

Technical

Reference:

1-FR-Z.1, Response to Containment High Pressure. Surry EAL Table, Revision 4.

Reference Provided to Applicant: Yes Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-48, FR-Z.1, Objective C, Given a copy of FR-Z.1, Response to Containment High Pressure, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition. ND-95.5-LP-2, SEM, Objective C, Using EPIP-1.01, Emergency Manager Controlling Procedure, assess/classify plant situations by accessing the EAL charts (both HOT and COLD conditions).

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13) 10 CFR 55.43 (b) (5)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - 1) Transition to FR-Z.1 at Step 11 of E-0 does not comply with Rules of Usage; the transition is made upon exit from E-0 to E-1. Step 14 of E-0 is the step that would allow direct transfer to FR-Z.1. 2) Classification of Alert is not complete, the Candidate must assess that the Unit is experiencing a LOCA, and CTMT pressure > 23 psia with no CS pump running.

B. Correct - The transition to FR-Z.1 is appropriate once E-0 has been exited, and the SAE classification is appropriate for the conditions existent.

C. Incorrect - 1) Transition to FR-Z.1 at Step 11 of E-0 does not comply with Rules of Usage; the transition is made upon exit from E-0 to E-1. Step 14 of E-0 is the step that would allow direct transfer to FR-Z.1. 2) Classification is correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet D. Incorrect - 1) Transition is appropriate. 2) Classification of Alert is not complete, the Candidate must assess that the Unit is experiencing a LOCA, and CTMT pressure > 23 psia with no CS pump running.

References for correct answer: OP-AP-104, Emergency and Abnormal Operating Procedures

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 10 CFR 55.43 (b) (5)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 017G2.4.47, in-core Temperature Monitor / 7, Ability to diagnose and recognize trends in an accurate and timely manner utilizing the appropriate control room reference material., (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12). (NRC Reviewed)

Level: SRO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 4.2 IR-SRO: 4.2 Proposed Question:

Given the following:

  • Unit 1 is currently at 371 °F and is heating up to HSD following a refueling outage.

The following is the current Quadrant II CETC indications for Train A and Train B:

CETCs Train A CETC Train B B10 2300°F, stable A09 40°F, stable C08 40°F, stable C12 40°F, stable E11 40°F, stable D10 368°F, rising slowly F09 370°F, rising slowly F11 783°F, rising 1°/30 seconds F13 40°F, stable G09 815°F, rising 1°F/15 seconds H11 369°F, rising slowly G14 2300°F, Stable Which ONE of the following identifies

1) The number of FAILED CETCs in Train A and Train B. AND
2) The Tech Spec clock in effect.

(Reference Provided)

A. 1) Train A: 4; Train B: 5.

2) 7 day clock.

B. 1) Train A: 3; Train B 2.

2) 7 day clock.

C. 1) Train A: 4; Train B: 5.

2) 30 day clock.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet D. 1) Train A: 3; Train B 2.

2) 30 day clock.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation: Tech Spec 3.7.E and TS Table 3.7-6, Accident Instrumentation, require at least 2 CETC per quadrant operable per train to consider the train operable. A CETC indication of 40 °F indicates that the CETC has been disabled by I&C department. CETC F11 and G09 are considerably above current RCS temperature and rising at a rate greater that RCS temperature. By count of disabled and failing CETCs in Quadrant 2: A train has 4 failed CETCs (B10, C08, E11, and F13); B Train has 5 failed CETCs (A09, C12, F11, G09, and G14). B CETC Train has fewer than 2 CETC operable in this Quadrant therefore B train is inoperable.

Technical

Reference:

TS 3.7.E and Table 3.7-6.

Reference Provided to Applicant: Yes (TS 3.7.E)

A. Learning Objective: ND-93.4-LP-3, Objective A, Describe the operation of the Inadequate Core Cooling Monitor (ICCM) System, including the following: CETC inputs and outputs.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12) 10 CFR 55.43 (b)(2)

Comments:

A. Incorrect - 1) CETC at 40 °F have been disabled and the CETS at 2300 have also failed therefore, Train A =4 (correct). Train B has 2 CETCs at 40 °F, 1 CETC at 2300 °F and 2 CETCs that are 783 °F and 815 °F and rising rapidly. Therefore Train B =5 (correct). 2)

With the indication provided, train B has fewer than 2 Operable CETCs, Train A has a sufficient number of Operable CETCs to call the Train Operable. TS 3.7.E 30 day clock would be in effect vice a 7 day clock (incorrect).

B. Incorrect - 1) Train A has 4 failed CETCs (not 3). Plausible if the operator doesnt include the CETC indicating 2300 °F which once disabled by I&C will indicate 40 °F (incorrect). Also B train has 5 failed CETCs not 32. 2) TS 3.7.E 7 day clock would in effect if Both Trains had less than the required number of Operable CETCs (2). Part 2 is also incorrect.

C. Correct - 1) CETCs at 40 °F have been disabled, and the CETS at 2300 °F has also failed.

Train A =4, and Train B =5 (correct). 2) IAW TS 3.7.E, Train B has less than 2 Operable CETCs, thus a 30 day clock is in effect (correct).

D. Incorrect - 1) Train A has 4 failed CETCs (not 3). Plausible if the operator doesnt include the CETC indicating 2300 °F which once disabled by I&C will indicate 40 °F (incorrect). Also

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet B train has 5 failed CETCs not 2. 2) With the B Train having less than 2 CETCs Operable, a 30 day clock is in effect (correct).

References for Student:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 022AA2. 01, Loss of Rx Coolant Makeup I 2, Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup: (CFR 43.5/ 45.13) Whether charging line leak exists.

Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.8 Proposed Question:

Unit 1 is operating at 100% when the following alarms and/or indications are noted:

  • Pressurizer level is 53% and lowering slowly.
  • 1-RM-RR-131A, Vent Stack #2 RM, is in Alert.
  • CHG Line Flow, 1-CH-FI-1122, indicates 110 gpm and rising.
  • REGEN HX CHG Outlet Temp, 1-CH-TI-1123, indicates 458 °F and rising.
  • Letdown Line Flow, 1-CH-FI-1150, oscillating between 90 and 110 gpm.
  • Seal Injection flow to A, B, and C RCPs indicate 7.5 gpm and slowly lowering.
  • Containment Sump Level indicates 23% and stable.

Answer the following questions:

1) Where is the location of the leak in the Chemical and Volume Control System?
2) Make an immediate determination of operability of the High Head Safety Injection system in accordance with OP-AA-102, Operability Determination.

A. 1) Downstream of 1-CH-FCV-1122, Charging flow control valve.

2) Operable.

B. 1) Downstream of 1-CH-HCV-1186, Seal Injection flow control valve.

2) Operable.

C. 1) Downstream of 1-CH-FCV-1122, Charging flow control valve.

2) Inoperable.

D. 1) Downstream 1-CH-HCV-1186, Seal injection flow control valve.

2) Inoperable.

Proposed Answer: A 1) Downstream of 1-CH-FCV-1122, Charging flow control valve. 2) Operable Explanation: OP-AA-102 directs the Shift Manager (SRO) to make an immediate determination of operability if enough information exists. This determination is made in a controlled manner (OP-AA-102, step 3.2.2). Based on indications, the heat sink for the RHX has been lost (Normal Charging), leading to increased temperatures and flashing of letdown. Change in seal injection flows are insufficient to cause the magnitude of indication changes seen. High Head SI is operable as the leak location is

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet downstream of the HHSI flow path and is automatically isolated on a Safety Injectiion. Therefore the HHSI flow path is not affected.

Technical

Reference:

1-OP-CH-006, Shifting or Increasing/Decreasing Letdown Flow. OP-AA-102, Operability Determination.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-88.3-LP-2, Charging and Letdown, Objective B, Using a one-line diagram drawn from memory, describe the charging and letdown system flowpaths including all interconnections with other systems.

Question Source: Modified Bank (McGuire, 2005)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 43.5/ 45.13) 10CFR55.43(b)(5)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - based on indications, the leak must be downstream of FCV-1122 to see the magnitude of the changes. High Head SI is operable because the flow path is not affected.

B. Incorrect- A change of 1.5 gpm (total) in seal injection will not cause the changes seen. The second part, High Head SI is operable is correct.

C. Incorrect - The location of the leak is correct but HHSI is not inoperable.

D. Incorrect - A change of 1.5 gpm (total) in seal injection will not cause the changes seen.

The second part, High Head SI is inoperable is also incorrect.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

References:

As can be seen by drawing of SI System; a leak downstream of Normal Charging line does not affect the SI Flow path therefore HHSI is operable.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 024AG2.1.23, Emergency Boration/I 1, Ability to perform specific system and integrated plant procedures during all modes of plant operation.(CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.6)

Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 4.3 IR-SRO: 4.4 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions for Unit 1:

  • Unit 1 at 100% power.
  • Delta Flux is at -2.4% with a target of -1%.
  • Spurious Turbine Runback occurs causing Tave to increase rapidly.

Current Conditions:

  • Reactor Power is 91% and stable.
  • Delta Flux is at -16%.
  • Tave is 571.5 oF, Tref is 571.0 oF.

The SRO directs Emergency Boration to be performed per 1-AP-3.00, Emergency Boration. When the RO attempted to open 1-CH-MOV-1350, Emergency Borate MOV; the MOV immediately thermalled.

Based on the current conditions, which ONE of the following states:

1) The next actions to be taken to start Emergency Boration in accordance with 1-AP-3.00.
2) The most restrictive LCO, and basis for this CONDITION?

A. 1) Manually open 1-CH-FCV-1113A, and locally open 1-CH-228.

2) Insertion limits to ensure adequate shutdown margin on reactor trip.

B. 1) Manually align Charging pump suction to the RWST.

2) Insertion limits to minimize the effects of Xenon redistribution during load-follow maneuvers.

C. 1) Manually open 1-CH-FCV-1113A, and locally open 1-CH-228.

2) Delta flux to minimize the effects of Xenon redistribution during load-follow maneuvers.

D. 1) Manually align Charging pump suction to the RWST.

2) Delta flux to ensure adequate shutdown margin on reactor trip.

Proposed Answer: C. 1) Manually open 1-CH-FCV-1113A, and locally open 1-CH-228. 2) Minimize the effects of Xenon redistribution during load-follow maneuvers.

Explanation: 1) 1-AP-3.00 specifies manually opening 1-CH-FCV-1113A and 1-CH-228 if 1-CH-MOV-1350 does not open. If neither valve can be open then the procedure directs aligning charging pump

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet suction to the RWST. 2) The Delta Flux LCO is not met with Delta flux at -9.0. With power above 90%

the requirement is to restore axial flux to the band within 15 minutes or be below 90%. The basis for the Delta Flux LCO is to minimize the effects of xenon redistribution on the axial power distribution during load-follow maneuvers.

Technical

Reference:

1-AP-3.00, Emergency Boration, Tech Specs 3.12.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.2-LP-4, Power Range Nuclear Instruments, Objective D, Explain the meaning of the "Delta Flux" indication, including the limitations imposed upon it by Technical Specifications.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.6)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect -. Part 1 is correct. Part 2 is incorrect. Ensure adequate Shutdown Margin is the basis for Control Rod Insertion limits. This is plausible because the conditions given do imply Control Bank is below the insertion limit but this LCO has a 1-hour time limit to verify shutdown margin and a 2-hour limit to restore control banks to within limits. The SRO candidate must prioritize the situation, and determine the most limiting LCO and basis for that LCO. The Delta Flux LCO has a 15 minute limit therefore it is the most limiting LCO.

B. Incorrect -. Part 1 is incorrect because 1-AP-3.00 states that 1-CH-FCV-1113A and 1-CH-228 should be open next. This path is a redundant path that uses the same source for Boric Acid as 1-CH-MOV-1350. The RWST path is only used if neither path is available. This is plausible because this is a viable path in the procedure but the question is asking for the NEXT action. Part 2 is incorrect. Insertion limits to minimize the effects of Xenon redistribution during load-follow maneuvers. This is the wrong LCO and the Basis is also not the basis for Insertion limits. This is plausible because the conditions given do imply Control Bank is below the insertion limit but this LCO has a 1-hour time limit to verify shutdown margin and a 2-hour limit to restore control banks to within limits. The SRO candidate must prioritize the situation, and determine the most

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet limiting LCO and basis for that LCO. The Delta Flux LCO has a 15 minute limit therefore it is the most limiting LCO.

C. Correct.

D. Incorrect: - Part 1 is incorrect because 1-AP-3.00 states that 1-CH-FCV-1113A and 1-CH-228 should be open next. This path is a redundant path that uses the same source for Boric Acid as 1-CH-MOV-1350. The RWST path is only used if neither path is available. This is plausible because this is a viable path in the procedure but the question is asking for the NEXT action. Part 2 is also incorrect because the LCO Basis is not the correct Basis for Delta flux.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for Part 1. Figure below shows flowpath for Emergency Boration. AP-3.00 shows if 1-CH-MOV-1350 cannot be opened then next step is to open 1-CH-FCV-1113A, and 1-CH-228. If neither valve can be opened then align charging pump suction to RWST.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 2, Tech spec basis for Delta Flux (Tech Specs page 3.12-18).

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 2, distractor; Tech Spec basis for Control Bank insertion limit.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 027AA2.10, Pressurizer Pressure Control System Malfunction / 3, Ability to determine and Interpret the following as they apply to the Pressurizer Pressure Control Malfunctions:, (CFR: 43.5 /

45.13) PZR heater energized/de-energized condition Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.3 IR-SRO: 3.6 Proposed Question:

Unit 1 is operating at 100% Power and Normal Operating Pressure.

C and D pressurizer heater banks control switches are in ON; A, B, and E pressurizer heater control switches are in AUTO with the Green breaker open indicating light LIT.

The Master Pressure Controller malfunctions, causing a step change in the setpoint to 2310 psig which causes the Master Pressure Controller output to decrease to 0%.

The response of the A, B, and E pressurizer heater to this event is to ____(1)___. During power operation at least 125 KW of heaters must be supplied electrical power from an emergency bus in order to provide assurance that these heaters will remain energized _____(2)_____.

A. 1) energize

2) to ensure the Reactor Coolant System will not be solid when criticality is achieved B. 1) energize
2) during a loss of offsite power to maintain natural circulation at HOT SHUTDOWN C. 1) remain deenergized
2) during a loss of offsite power to maintain natural circulation at HOT SHUTDOWN D. 1) remain deenergized
2) to ensure the Reactor Coolant System will not be solid when criticality is achieved Proposed Answer: B Explanation: When controller setpoint changes to 2310 psig, Master Pressure Controller output will decrease to 0%. This causes A/B/E pressurizer heater banks which are in AUTO to energize, and the C heater bank to go to maximum output. Per TS 3.1.A.5 basis, the requirement for 125 KW of operable heaters powered from the emergency bus it to provide assurance that these heaters will remain energized during a loss of offsite power to maintain natural circulation at HOT SHUTDOWN. The A, and E heaters are powered from emergency buses (J, H). The requirement for a bubble in the pressurizer with pressurizer heaters and spray available is to ensure the reactor is not critical with the pressurizer solid.

Technical

Reference:

TS 3.1.A basis.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-5, PZR Press Control, Objective B, Using a one-line diagram, drawn from memory, describe all design characteristics of the Pressurizer Pressure Control System, including setpoints, controls, interlocks, inputs, and outputs. ND-88.1-LP-9, Tech Specs, Objective H, Describe the RCS Tech Specs, including for the SRO candidate, the basis behind each specification.

Question Source: Modified Bank , PPC00017 Surry Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13) 10 CFR 55.43(b)(2)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Correct, A/B/E heaters will energize because they are in AUTO.

2) Incorrect - Response linked to TS-3.1.A basis regarding requirement to maintain reactor subcritical by 1% until a steam bubble is established. This basis relates to pressurizer heaters in general and this distractor is plausible if the operator confuses the basis for maintaining a bubble with requirement for 125 KW.

B. 1) Correct

2) Correct - Linked to TS-3.1.A basis C. 1) Incorrect - All Pzr heaters will energize. Common misconception when Pressure setpoint is confused with actual pressure. Plausible because if operator confuses actual pressure with pressure setpoint then it is true that A/B/E pressurizer heaters will de-energize.
2) Correct - linked to TS 3.1.A basis D. 1) Incorrect - All Pzr heaters will energize. Common misconception when Pressure setpoint is confused with actual pressure. Plausible because if operator confuses actual pressure with pressure setpoint then it is true that C pressurizer heaters will go to minimum.
2) Incorrect - Response linked to TS-3.1.A basis regarding requirement to maintain reactor subcritical by 1% until a steam bubble is established. This basis relates to pressurizer heaters in general and this distractor is plausible if the operator confuses the basis for maintaining a bubble with requirement for 125 KW.

References for correct answer: If setpoint fails high then output will go low causing Proportional heaters to be full ON and Backup heaters (A,B,E) to be ON.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 033AG2.2.44, Loss of Intermediate Range NI / 7, Ability to interpret control room indications to verify the status and operation of a system, and understand how operator actions and directives affect plant and system conditions, (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.12)

Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 4.2 IR-SRO: 4.4 Proposed Question:

Given the following:

  • Unit 1 is performing a plant startup in accordance with 1-GOP-1.5, Unit Startup, 2% Reactor Power to Max Allowable Power.
  • The Main Generator has been placed on line.
  • Reactor power is 13% and rising.
  • Permissive status light B2, P-7 NIS PWR RGE and TURB PWR < 10%, is NOT lit.
  • Permissive status light B1, NIS INT RNG RX TRIP and ROD STOP BLOCKED is lit.
  • Permissive status light C1, NIS PWR RNG LO SP TRIP BLOCKED is lit.
  • Reactor Operator reports that N-36 has failed HIGH.
  • The SRO enters 1-AP-4.00 Nuclear Instrument Malfunction.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The actions required to be taken for this event in accordance with 1-AP-4.00.
2) Determine Tech Spec actions (if any).

A. 1) Place N36 Level Trip Switch in the Bypass position, remove Control Power Fuses.

2) The LCO is not met. Verify by permissive status light, that the interlock is in required state within one hour.

B. 1) Place N36 Level Trip Switch in the Bypass position

2) The LCO is not met. Verify by permissive status light, that the interlock is in required state within one hour.

C. 1) Place N36 Level Trip Switch in the Bypass position, remove Control Power Fuses.

2) The LCO is met.

D. 1) Place N36 Level Trip Switch in the Bypass position.

2) The LCO is met.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation: 1) With the indications provided, N36 channel is Inoperable. AP-4.00 would be initiated and the Level Trip Bypass Switch placed in Bypass, and TS Table 3.7-1, items 3 and 13 referenced.

Pulling the fuses is performed in AP-4.00 for a Power Range Channel Failure, not an IR channel failure.

Table 3.7-1 item 3, Intermediate Range Hi Flux is met as indications given provide an acceptable bypass operation, however Table 3.7-1 item 20, Reactor Trip System interlocks are not met until the

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet interlocks are verified. This requires a detailed SRO knowledge as to what functions are required in Table 3.7-1 and what actions need to be taken.

Technical

Reference:

TS Table 3.7-1, Item 3, and item 20. Operator Action 3 and 13. 1-AP-4.00, Step 10-14, and Attachment 2.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.2-LP-3, Objective D, Explain the operation of the Intermediate Range detection system during both normal and abnormal operating conditions. ND-93.2-ST-3.1, Objective C, Given the loss of one or both IR channels above or below P-10, describe the use of AP-4.00 to address the failure(s).

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.12) 10 CFR 55.43 (b)(2)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - 1) Incorrect, Power range requires fuses removed, not Intermediate Range.

2) Correct.

B. Correct (see explanation)

C. Incorrect - 1) Incorrect, Power range requires fuses removed, not Intermediate Range.

2) Incorrect because Table 3.7-1, item 20 Reactor Trip Interlocks require action 13 which specifies checking interlocks in required state within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />. This is plausible because item 3 is satisfied by the P-10 bypass conditions being met.

D. Incorrect - 1) Correct. 2) Incorrect because Table 3.7-1, item 20 Reactor Trip Interlocks require action 13 which specifies checking interlocks in required state within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />. This is plausible because item 3 is satisfied by the P-10 bypass conditions being met.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 1)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 2. Item 3 is met therefore distractors LCO is met Is plausible

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 014A2.05, Rod Position Indication / 1, Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the RPIS; and (b) based on those on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Reactor trip (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13)

Level: SRO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.9 IR-SRO: 4.1 Proposed Question:

Unit 1 was tripped due to the loss of the A MFP at 100% power.

  • The Team has withdrawn the Shutdown Banks IAW 1-OP-RX-005, Rod Control System Withdrawal of the Shutdown Banks.
  • The Team is preparing to withdraw Control Banks in accordance with 1-OP-RX-006, Withdrawal of the Control Banks to Critical Conditions, when the RO notes that D Bank Group Step Counters Indicate 14 on Group 1, and 0 on Group 2.
  • The Team has entered 0-AP-1.00, Rod Control Malfunction, for the D Bank Group Step Counter.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The maximum deviation between the Group Step Counters in accordance with Tech Specs.
2) The basis for Rod Position Indication.

A. 1) +/- 2 Steps.

2) Core peaking factors.

B. 1) +/- 12 Steps.

2) Core power distribution and Shutdown Margin.

C. 1) +/- 2 Steps.

2) Core power distribution and Shutdown Margin.

D. 1) +/- 12 Steps.

2) Core peaking factors.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation: 1) Per TS 3.12.E.c; from movement of control banks to achieve criticality and Reactor Critical, the Bank Demand Position Indication System shall be operable and capable of determining group demand position to within 2 steps. 2) TS Basis states: The requirements on the rod position indicators and the group step demand counters are only applicable from the movement of control banks to achieve criticality and with the REACTOR CRITICAL, because these are the only conditions in which

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet the rods can affect core power distribution and in which the rods are relied upon to provide required shutdown margin. (TS Basis page TS 3.12-14)

Technical

Reference:

Technical Specifications Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: None Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.3)

Comments:

A. 1) +/- 2 Steps. This is correct.

2) Core peaking factors. This is incorrect and plausible if operator confuses basis for Rod position and Bank demand with Basis for Rod insertion limits which states that the Rod insertion limits provide a limit on maximum inserted rod worth in event of rod ejection and provide for acceptable peaking factors.

B. 1) +/- 12 Steps. This is incorrect. If power is > 50% Rod Position Indication System shall be capable of determining rod position with 12 steps of bank demand. This is plausible if operator confuses requirement for moving rods to criticality with requirement for power >

50%.

2) Core power distribution and Shutdown Margin. This is correct.

C. 1) +/- 2 Steps. This is correct (see explanation).

2) Core power distribution and Shutdown Margin. This is correct (see explanation).

D. 1) +/- 12 Steps. This is incorrect. If power is > 50% Rod Position Indication System shall be capable of determining rod position with 12 steps of bank demand. This is plausible if operator confuses requirement for moving rods to criticality with requirement for power >

50%.

2) Core peaking factors. This is incorrect and plausible if operator confuses basis for Rod position and Bank demand with Basis for Rod insertion limits which states that the Rod insertion limits provide a limit on maximum inserted rod worth in event of rod ejection and provide for acceptable peaking factors.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

References:

For correct answer.

References for distractors:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 057AG2.1.28, Loss of Vital AC Inst. Bus/ 6, Knowledge of the purpose and function of major system components and controls. (CFR: 41.7)

Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.1 IR-SRO: 4.1 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions (0700):

  • Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
  • UPS 1A1 Regulating Line Conditioner (RLC) is tagged out for maintenance and is scheduled to be returned to service at 1900.

Current Conditions (0720):

  • Fault occurs during maintenance on UPS 1A1 inverter resulting in the following indications:

o Annunciator 1K-A7, BATT SYSTEM 1A TROUBLE is lit.

o Annunciator 1K-B8, UPS SYSTEM 1A TROUBLE is lit.

o Annunciator 1K-G7, 480V BUS MCC BKR TRIP is lit.

o Vital Bus I volts indicate 0.0 volts.

o Operator reports that UPS 1A1 Inverter Output breaker has tripped.

  • Operator reports that Breaker 14H13, MCC 1H1-2 Supply breaker has tripped open and has an overcurrent flag.
  • Operator reports that Alternate Source Supplying load light is lit on the Static Switch Section for UPS 1A2.
  • Crew has entered 1-AP-10.01, Loss of Vital Bus I.

Based on the conditions given, answer the following questions.

1) With the conditions given Vital Bus III is powered from the UPS 1A2 ___________?
2) What is the latest time Vital bus I must be re-energized, in order to comply with 1-AP-10.01?

A. 1) Battery Charger.

2) 1320.

B. 1) Battery Charger.

2) 0920.

C. 1) RLC.

2) 1320.

D. 1) RLC.

2) 0920.

Proposed Answer: D 1) RLC. 2) 0920.

Explanation: 1) With the Indications reported, Vital Bus I is de-energized and Vital Bus III has lost the power supply from its Battery Charger (1H1-2). Therefore the 1A2 Inverter that is normally supplied

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet from Battery Charger will shift to the RLC. 2) Per 1-AP-10.01 Note prior to Step 15: A de-energized AC Vital Bus shall be re-energized within 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> OR the unit must be placed in Hot Shutdown within the next 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />. This requirement is not a Technical Specification (even though it sounds like one), but a commitment. (Ref: NRC GL 91-11)

Technical

Reference:

ARP 2K-A8, UPS System 1A Trouble. Step 4, Caution and RNO. 1-AP-10.01, Loss of Vital Bus I. Step 15 Note.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-90.3-PP-5, Objective B, Describe the components and indications associated with an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS). SOER 83-03, Recommendation 11; and Objective E, Given a loss of a Vital or Semi-Vital bus, describe the actions taken IAW AP-10.01, 10.02, 10.03, 10.04, and/or 10.05 to address this loss. SOER 83-03, Recommendation 11 and SOER 81-02, Recommendation 5.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7) 10 CFR 55.43 (b)(5)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - 1) Incorrect. The Alternate Source is supplying the Static Switch as indicated by the Alternate Source to Load light being lit, making the power source incorrect. 2) Incorrect. The GL 91-11 clock to restore power to the Vital Bus should be 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> (0920).

B. Incorrect - 1) Incorrect. The Alternate Source is supplying the Static Switch as indicated by the Alternate Source to Load light being lit, making the power source incorrect. 2) Correct. 2 Hour GL 91-11 clock is correct.

C. Incorrect - 1) Power for the Vital Bus is correct. 2) Incorrect. The GL 91-11 clock to restore power to the Vital Bus should be 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> (0920).

D. Incorrect - 1) Power source listed is correct. 2) Correct. 2 Hour GL 91-11 clock is correct.

10 CFR 55.43 (b)(5)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 1. MCC 1H1-2 is lost therefore Alternate source will supply Vital Buss through static switch.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 2.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 10 CFR 55.43 (b)(5)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 059A2.01, Main Feedwater / 4S, Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the MFW; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:, (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 /

45.13) Feedwater actuation of AFW system Level: SRO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.4 IR-SRO: 3.6 Proposed Question:

Unit 1 is currently at 61% power following a ramp down from 100% power so that 1-FW-P-1B, B Main Feed Pump can be secured for maintenance.

Per 1-OP-FW-004, Main Feedwater System Operation; 1-FW-MOV-150B, 1-FW-P-1B Discharge MOV, has just been closed.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The Tech Spec Clock Duration that is entered when 1-FW-MOV-150B is closed.
2) The reason for the Tech Spec. clock.

A. 1) 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />.

2) The TD AFW pump will not auto start if 1-FW-P-1A tripped under this condition.

B. 1) 48 Hours.

2) The TD AFW pump will not auto start if 1-FW-P-1A tripped under this condition.

C. 1) 72 Hours.

2) The MD AFW pumps will not auto start if 1-FW-P-1A tripped under this condition.

D. 1) 48 Hours.

2) The MD AFW pumps will not auto start if 1-FW-P-1A tripped under this condition.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation: When the discharge MOV on a running MFP is closed, the MFP supplying feed flow to the SGs could trip and the auto start matrix for the MD AFW pumps (1/2 breakers on 2/2/ MFPs) would not make up. The Unit would experience a loss of feed event with no AFW auto initiation signal -

operator action would be required. 1-OP-FW-004 procedurally requires 48 hour5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> TS clock prior to closing discharge valve of a Main Feed Pump (1-OP-FW-004, step 5.8.5).

Technical

Reference:

Technical Specification Table 3.7-2, Engineered Safeguards Action, Item 3.e, Action 24.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Learning Objective: ND-94-SP-1, Objective A, Given a condition where Tech Spec requires, make notifications and commence a Unit shutdown IAW GOP-2.1, Unit Shutdown, Power Decrease from Max Allowable Power to less than 30% Reactor Power.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13) 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis A. Incorrect - 1) Plausible if operator confuses AFW pump start criteria with FRV criteria. 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> would relate to FRV on Jack admin requirement per Table 3.7-3. 2) TDAFW auto start not impacted by MFP trip. Plausible if operator confuses TDAFW pump start with MDAFW pumps start.

B. Incorrect - 1) 48 hour5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> clock correct. 2) TDAFW pump start incorrect. Plausible if operator confuses TDAFW pump start with MDAFW pumps start.

C. Incorrect - 1) Plausible if operator confuses AFW pump start criteria with FRV criteria. 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br /> would relate to FRV on Jack admin requirement per Table 3.7-3.

D. Correct - Both 48 hour5.555556e-4 days <br />0.0133 hours <br />7.936508e-5 weeks <br />1.8264e-5 months <br /> clock requirement and auto start of MDAFW pump correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

References:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 061G2.4.47, Auxiliary/Emergency Feedwater, Ability to diagnose and recognize trends in an accurate and timely manner utilizing the appropriate control room reference material., (CFR: 41.10 /

43.5 / 45.12)

Level: SRO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.4 IR-SRO: 3.7 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions:

  • Unit 1 was at 100% when a Seismic event occurred.
  • Security reports a large volume of steam coming from U1 Safeguards louvers.
  • A Loss of offsite Power has occurred, with a failure of EDG-3 to start.
  • Efforts are in progress to close Main Steam Trip Valve/Non-Return isolation valve.

Current Conditions (10 minutes later):

  • RCS Pressure 1200 psig and lowering.
  • RCS Tave 510 °F and lowering in all 3 loops.
  • SG Pressure: S/GA - 480 psig/ lowering, S/GB - 541 psig/ rising, S/GC - 490 psig/ lowering.
  • AFW Flow: S/GA - 170 gpm, S/GB - 120 gpm, S/GC - 160 gpm.
  • SG Levels are: S/G A - 44% WR/lowering, S/GB - 38% WR/rising, S/GC - 43%

WR/lowering.

  • Containment Pressure is 10.5 psia and steady.
  • Crew is just starting step 2 in ECA 2.1, Uncontrolled Depressurization of all S/Gs; Control FF to minimize RCS cooldown.

Given the above information determine:

1) The correct procedural sequence. AND
2) Feed Flow directions the SRO is required to give.

A. 1) Continue in ECA-2.1, transition to FR-H.1 (Loss of Sec Heat Sink), then back to ECA-2.1.

2) Maintain a minimum of 60 gpm to each S/G.

B. 1) Continue in ECA-2.1, transition to FR-H.1 (Loss of Sec Heat Sink), then back to ECA-2.1.

2) Isolate FW to S/G A and S/G C, maintain minimum of 350 gpm to S/G B.

C. 1) Go to E-2 (Faulted S/G Isolation), then transition to E-1 (Loss of Rx. or Sec. Coolant), and then to ES-1.1 (Si Term.).

2) Maintain a minimum of 60 gpm to each S/G.

D. 1) Go to E-2 (Faulted S/G Isolation), then transition to E-1 (Loss of Rx. or Sec. Coolant), and then to ES-1.1 (Si Term.).

2) Isolate FW to S/G A and S/G C, maintain minimum of 350 gpm to S/G B.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Proposed Answer: D. 1) Go to E-2, then transition to E-1, and then to ES-1.1.

2) Isolate FW to S/G A and S/G C, maintain minimum of 350 gpm to S/G B.

Explanation: With conditions given, S/G B has been isolated. E-2 Transition Criteria (Continuous action no. 3) in ECA-2.1 states the following Go to E-2, Faulted Steam Generator Isolation, if any S/G Pressure increases at any time except while performing SI Termination in Steps 13 to 23. The SRO should decide to go to E-2 immediately because there is now an intact S/G. After performing E-2 to isolate S/G A and S/G C the crew will transition to E-1 to stabilize the plant and then ES-1.1 to reduce Safety Injection Flow. The SRO should decide to feed S/G B at best available rate to fully establish S/G B as a heat sink.

Technical

Reference:

1-ECA-2.1, 1-E-2.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-2, ECA-2.1, Objective B, Given a copy of ECA-2.1, Uncontrolled Depressurization of All Steam Generators, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12) 10 CFR 55.43 (b)(5)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - E-2 Transition criteria is met therefore E-2 is the correct procedure to go to.

Plausible because if the SRO doesnt perform E-2 the procedure sequence will be as written with the sequence in and out of FR-H.1 after throttling to 60 gpm. 60 gpm is the correct flow rate based on cooldown rate from conditions given (approx. 40 oF/10min equates to > 200 o

F/hr.).

B. Incorrect - E-2 Transition criteria is met therefore E-2 is the correct procedure to go to. Also Feed Flow rate incorrect if staying in ECA-2.1. Plausible because after step 2 is performed total Aux Feed will be < 350 gpm which would satisfy FR.H.1 criteria.

C. Incorrect - E-2 Transition criteria is correct. The flow rate is out of step 2 of ECA-2.1 which is incorrect. Plausible if operator confuses ECA-2.1 flow requirements with E-2 flow requirements.

D. Correct - The SRO should decide to go to E-2 immediately since E-2 transition criteria is met. After performing E-2 to isolate S/G A and S/G C the crew will transition to E-1 to stabilize the plant and then ES-1.1 to reduce Safety Injection Flow. Feed Flow should be maintained at best available rate to S/G B.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Attachment 1

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for correct answer: ECA-2.1 Continuous Action directs going to E-2.

References for distractor A and B: If SRO decides not to transition to E-2 then ECA-2.1 step 2 is next step.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet After ECA-2.1 step 2 performed then FR-H.1 will be met. (No SG > 12% and Feed Flow <350 gpm)

References for Distractor C: If SRO throttles flow to 60 gpm before transitioning to E-2. Procedure usage dictates going to E-2 first.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 075G2.2.44, Circulating Water / 8, Ability to interpret control room indications to verify the status and operation of a system, and understand how operator actions and directives affect plant and system conditions, (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.12)

Level: SRO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 4.2 IR-SRO: 4.4 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions:

  • Unit 1 and 2 are operating at 100% power.
  • #3 EDG fails to start.

Current Conditions:

  • Intake Canal Level is decreasing.

Which ONE of the following identifies

1) The appropriate procedure flowpath to regain control of Intake Canal level.
2) The minimum intake canal level required per TS 3.14 (Circulating and SW) Bases to provide adequate design flow through RS SW heat exchangers.

A. 1) E-0, 1(2)-AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1(2) Power, 0-AP-12.01, Loss of Intake Canal Level.

2) 17.2 feet.

B. 1) E-0, 0-AP-12.01, Loss of Intake Canal Level, 1(2)-AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1(2) Power.

2) 23.5 feet.

C. 1) E-0, 1(2)-AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1(2) Power. 0-AP-12.01, Loss of Intake Canal Level.

2) 23.5 feet.

D. 1) E-0, 0-AP-12.01, Loss of Intake Canal Level, 1(2)-AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1(2) Power.

2) 17.2 feet.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation: As described in Stem, AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1(2) Power is initiated from Step 3 of E-0, RNO. AP-10.07 directs response to the loss of power event in order of priority to control the plant and restore power. AP-12.01, Loss of Intake Canal level would be initiated FROM AP-10.07. Candidate may assess Intake Canal Level decreasing rapidly as requiring a higher level priority than responding to the loss of power. Canal Level minimum level described in TS 3.14, Circulating and Service Water Systems Basis.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

1(2)-AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1(2) power.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-90.3-LP-7, SS and Emer Dist and Control, Objective G, Given copies of AP-10.07, Loss of Power, and AP-10.08 Station Power Restoration, explain the steps necessary to operate the station following a total or partial loss of power.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.12)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - AP-10.07 would have the highest priority in responding to the event, with AP-12.01 initiated from this procedure. 17.2 feet is derived from TS-3.14 basis for providing adequate flow through RSHXs during a Design Basis Event.

B. Incorrect - Reverse sequence of priority in Abnormal Procedure implementation. 23.5 feet derives from same paragraph of TS-3.14 Basis.

C. Incorrect - Sequence of procedure usage (correct). Incorrect Canal level value from TS-3.14 basis.

D. Incorrect - Reverse Sequence of procedure usage. Canal level value is correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 078A2.01, Instrument Air /, Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the IAS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:, (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13) Air dryer and filter malfunctions Level: SRO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.4 IR-SRO: 2.9 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions (Time 0200):

Unit 1 is at cold Shutdown, with RCS temperature at 195 °F.

  • RCS is in solid plant pressure control.
  • The A RHR pump and A RHR Heat Exchanger are in service.
  • 1-RC-P-1C, is running.

Time 0205:

  • Station Instrument Air pressure is 75 psig and lowering rapidly.

TIME 0210:

  • Local report of both Instrument Air dryer towers blowing down.
  • RCS temperature is 205 °F and rising.
  • Operators are currently working on Instrument Air restoration.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The impact of the loss of Instrument Air to the RHR system.
2) The EAL used to classify this event.

(REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A. 1) 1-RH-HCV-1758, RHR HXS Flow Fails Close.

2) NOUE CU3.1.

B. 1) 1-RH-HCV-1758, RHR HXS Flow Fails Close.

2) Alert CA3.1.

C. 1) 1-CC-TV-109A/B, RHR H/X Trip Valves Fail Close.

2) NOUE CU3.1.

D. 1) 1-CC-TV-109A/B, RHR H/X Trip Valves Fail Close.

2) Alert CA3.1.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Proposed Answer: C Explanation: In this event a loss of decay heat removal would be caused by the loss of instrument air.

The loss of Instrument Air will cause a loss of RHR cooling due to 1-CC-TV-109A/B failing close. CU3.1 classification is appropriate since a loss of decay heat removal has occurred. Upgrade to alert, CA 3.1, is required if the Unit temperature has exceeded 200 °F, and by Table C the duration exceeds 60 minutes. This allows time to respond to the event, and restore the capability to remove decay heat.

Technical

Reference:

0-AP-40.00, Loss of Station Instrument Air.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.1-LP-9, Loss of Instrument Air, Objective A, Describe the operator actions associated with the annunciator responses procedure for Service Air, Instrument Air, and Containment IA Alarms. And, Objective B, Given a copy of AP-40.00, Non-Recoverable Loss of Instrument Air, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13) 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis A. Incorrect - 1) 1-RH-HCV-1758 does NOT fail closed. This is plausible if Operator confuses fail position with 1-RH-FCV-1605, RHR HXS Bypass Flow which does fail close. 2) Per Surry EAL Table, Classification of CU 3.1 is correct. CA 3.1, would not apply unless the event duration would be expected to exceed 60 minutes.

B. Incorrect - 1) ) 1-RH-HCV-1758 does NOT fail closed. This is plausible if Operator confuses fail position with 1-RH-FCV-1605, RHR HXS Bypass Flow which does fail close. 2) Per Surry EAL Table, Classification of CU 3.1 is correct. CA 3.1, would not apply unless the event duration would be expected to exceed 60 minutes.

C. Correct - 1) 1-CC-TV-109A/B does fail close. This will cause loss of RHR cooling and subsequent RCS temperature rise. 2) Per Surry EAL Table, Classification of CU 3.1 is correct D. Incorrect - 1) 1-CC-TV-109A/B does fail close. This will cause loss of RHR cooling and subsequent RCS temperature rise. 2) CA 3.1, would not apply unless the event duration would be expected to exceed 60 minutes.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References from 0-AP-40.0, Attachment 1 that show fail positions for 1-CC-TV-109A/B, 1-RH-HCV-1758, and 1-RH-FCV-1605.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.1.25, Conduct of operations, Ability to interpret reference materials such as graphs, monographs and tables which contain performance data., (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12)

Level: SRO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.9 IR-SRO: 4.2 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions:

  • Unit 1 is at Cold Shutdown.
  • 1-OPT-SI-014, Cold Shutdown Test of SI Check Valves to RCS Cold Legs, is currently in progress.
  • Previous Leak Rate data has been provided by Engineering.
  • Current Leak Rate data has just been determined.

Mark Number Previous Test Current Results A 1-SI-79 3.50 gpm 4.30 gpm B 1-SI-82 0.5 gpm 0.9 gpm C 1-SI-85 1.25 gpm 3.0 gpm D 1-SI-241 4.8 gpm 5.2 gpm E 1-SI-242 0.9 gpm 0.8 gpm F 1-SI-243 0.5 gpm 2.8 gpm Which one of the following lists ALL the Check Valves that are Inoperable in accordance with Technical Specifications section 3.1.C.5.a, Primary Coolant System Pressure Isolation Valves?

A. 1-SI-241.

B. 1-SI-79, 1-SI-243.

C. 1-SI-79, 1-SI-241, 1-SI-243.

D. 1-SI-79, 1-SI-85, 1-SI-241, 1-SI-243.

Proposed Answer: C. 1-SI-79, 1-SI-241, 1-SI-243 Explanation: Question requires the SRO Candidate to interpret the Table and determine which Pressure Isolation valves are inoperable per TS 3.1.C.5.a. The Table used is similar to the Table that is used in 1-OPT-SI-014. Engineering provides the previous leakage data, and the SRO evaluates Current leakage against Previous leakage to determine operability. The Tech Spec Criteria is as follows:

  • Leakage must be < 5.0 gpm.
  • Leakage < 1.0 gpm is acceptable.
  • Leakage rates greater than 1.0 gpm but less than or equal to 5.0 gpm are considered

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet acceptable if the latest measured rate has not exceeded the rate determined by the previous test by an amount that reduces the margin between measured leakage rate and the maximum permissible rate of 5.0 gpm by 50% or greater. Based on this a formula can be devised for acceptable leakage: (5.0 - Current leakage) / (5.0 - Previous leakage) > 0.5.

Based on this criteria the SI Check Valve results are as follows:

Mark Number Previous Test Current Results Operable/Inoperable A 1-SI-79 3.50 gpm 4.30 gpm Inop: 0.7/1.5 = .46 B 1-SI-82 0.5 gpm 0.9 gpm Operable: 4.1/4.5 =.91 C 1-SI-85 1.25 gpm 3.0 gpm Operable: 2.0/3.75=.53 D 1-SI-241 4.8 gpm 5.2 gpm Inop: > 5.0 gpm E 1-SI-242 0.9 gpm 0.8 gpm Operable: 4.2/4.1=1.02 F 1-SI-243 0.5 gpm 2.8 gpm Inop: 2.2/4.5 = .48 Technical

Reference:

Tech Specs. 3.1.C.5a Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective:

Question Source: Modified TS00078 Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12) 10 CFR 55.43 (b)(5)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1-SI-241. Incorrect because 1-SI-79, and 1-SI-243 are also inoperable because of margin.

This is plausible If SRO candidate only applies criteria for greater than 5.0 gpm. 1-SI-241 is inoperable because it is greater than 5.0 gpm but it is not the only inoperable check valve.

B. 1-SI-79, 1-SI-243. Incorrect because 1-SI-241 is also inoperable. This is plausible if SRO candidate only applies criteria for margin to 5.0 gpm criteria.

C. 1-SI-79, 1-SI-241, 1-SI-243 (correct answer)

D. 1-SI-79, 1-SI-85, 1-SI-241, 1-SI-243. Incorrect because of these 1-SI-85, is operable. This is Plausible if SRO confuses acceptance criteria and believes < 1.0 gpm is only acceptance criteria as all these are > 1.0 gpm.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference from Tech Specs 3.1.C.5.a

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.1.32, Conduct of operations, Ability to explain and apply all system limits and precautions, (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.12)

Level: SRO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.8 IR-SRO: 4 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions:

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.

  • Control Rod E-11, Shutdown Bank B, Group 1, has dropped and indicates zero (0) Steps.
  • Indications and alarms received confirm that E-11 has dropped.
  • The Team initiates 0-AP-1.00, Rod Control System Malfunction.
  • The STA completes 0-AP-1.00 Attachment 6, Calculation of Excore Quadrant Power Tilt Ratios, and reports that the Upper channel tilt is 16%, and the Lower channel tilt is 13.5%.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) The reactor power level and time requirement in effect.
2) The most limiting basis for the power level requirement.

A. 1) Reduce Reactor Power to < 75% Rated Power in one (1) hour.

2) To maintain the minimum DNBR greater than design limits.

B. 1) Reduce Reactor Power to < 75% Rated Power in thirty (30) minutes.

2) To prevent core power distribution from exceeding design limits.

C. 1) Reduce Reactor Power to < 68% Rated Power in one (1) hour

2) To maintain the minimum DNBR greater than design limits.

D. 1) Reduce Reactor Power to < 68% Rated Power in thirty (30) minutes.

2) To prevent core power distribution from exceeding design limits.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation: TS 3.12.B.6 describes the limitations on Quadrant Power Tilt to prevent exceeding core power distribution limits. With a calculated QPTR of >10%, Reactor Power must be reduced 2% for each percent of tilt within 30 minutes. With a dropped rod, the rod is mis-aligned from its bank > +/-12 Steps, thus it is considered INOPERABLE. With an Inoperable rod, Reactor Power must be reduced to

<75% within one hour. Maintenance of DNBR, per TS 3.12 Basis, relates to maintaining DNBR parameters within limits to ensure the Minimum DNBR > design limits. Candidate must assess the dropped rod condition and the QPTR calculation to correctly apply Tech Specs to this event. The location of the dropped rod causes a 20% reduction in N42 indication due to rod shadowing, resulting in the significant impact on calculated QPTR.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

Tech Spec 3.12.B.6, a. through c. TS 3.12.C. TS 3.12 Basis.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective:

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.12)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect -1) Per TS 3.12 The calculated QPTR has a greater effect on the amount of power reduction from rated power and a greater urgency to effect these changes than a dropped rod which is the basis for power reduction to <75%. Time allowed for the reduction for this case is 30 minutes, vice 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />. 2) The reason given in the distractor relates to control of DNBR parameters which the Candidate could confuse with core power distribution concerns.

B. Incorrect -1) The magnitude of the power reduction correlates to an inoperable rod, not to the calculated QPTR; the time for the reduction is correct. 2) The basis for the power reduction is correct.

C. Incorrect -1) the magnitude of the power reduction is correct, the allowed time is incorrect.

2) The reason given in the distractor relates to control of DNBR parameters which the Candidate could confuse with core power distribution concerns.

D. Correct-1) Magnitude of power reduction and time limit are correct. 2) The reason for the power reduction is also correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Choice D (Correct Answer)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Distractor Reference

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.2.13, Equipment Control, Knowledge of tagging and clearance procedures. (CFR:

41.10 / 45.13)

Level: SRO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 4.1 IR-SRO: 4.3 Proposed Question:

Which ONE of the following examples represents an INVALID waiver of Tag removal verification by Shift Supervision?

A. Tags for 1-SI-MOV-1890A, 1-SI-MOV-1890B (LHSI to Hot Legs) and 1-SI-MOV-1890C (LHSI to Cold Legs) during Team response to a LOCA outside of Containment in accordance with 1-ECA-1.2, LOCA outside Containment.

B. Tags for 1-SI-MOV-1869A and 1-SI-MOV-1869B (HHSI to Hot Legs) when cold leg SI flow cannot be established during a SBLOCA with a loss of subcooling on Unit 1.

C. Tags in an area with a Dose Rate of 1 R/hr.

D. Tags from a Transformer disconnect being worked by substation personnel during Switchyard restoration following a tornado because of a shortage of personnel.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation: OP-AA-200, Equipment Clearance allows Shift Supervision (i.e., SRO assigned to the Shift or the Shift Manager) to waive verification of Tag removal for Plant Emergencies, High Radiation Areas, or Personnel Safety. Only Operations personnel are authorized to place or remove Tags.

Technical

Reference:

OP-AA-200, Equipment Clearance, Page 5, Step 3.1.12.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective:

Question Source: Modified Bank Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 45.13)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A) Incorrect - Shift Supervision may waive verification of Tag Removal during Plant Emergencies.

B) Incorrect - Shift Supervision may waive verification of Tag Removal during Plant Emergencies.

C) Incorrect - Shift Supervision may waive verification of Tag Removal due to high radiation areas.

D) Correct - The System Operator is required to approve the hanging or clearing of tags in the switchyard.

Link Question to 10 CFR 55.43 (b)(3). Tag removal and verification is a Plant Configuration control item; by guidance in reference procedure, only Shift Supervision may waive verification of Tag removal

- thus question examines SRO level of knowledge of Equipment Clearance procedure.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.2.18, Equipment Control, Knowledge of the process for managing maintenance activities during shutdown operations. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13)

Level: SRO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 2.6 IR-SRO: 3.8 Proposed Question:

Unit 1 is in Cold Shutdown and in the process of starting up the plant following a Refueling outage with the following conditions:

  • The RCS is solid
  • Pressurizer pressure is being maintained 85-125 psig
  • RCS temperature band is 90-98 oF You have just been notified that Post Maintenance Tests (PMTs) 1-IPT-FT-RC-P-403/458, Reactor Coolant System Pressure Functional Test, have not been completed for Pressurizer PORVs; 1-RC-PCV-1455C, and 1-RC-PCV-1456. The PMTs should have been completed 16 hours1.851852e-4 days <br />0.00444 hours <br />2.645503e-5 weeks <br />6.088e-6 months <br /> earlier.

What is the Operability status of the Pressurizer PORVs?

A. PORV Operability is not required for the present plant conditions given.

B. Declare both PORVs inoperable from the time the PMT should have been completed.

C. Declare both PORVs inoperable from the time of discovery.

D. Delay declaring both PORVs inoperable for up to 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> to allow the PMTs to be completed.

Proposed Answer: C. Declare both PORVs inoperable from the time of discovery Explanation: OP-AA-102, Operability Determination; 3.2.2 states that an immediate determination of operability is to be made without delay in a controlled manner. Note below that step states that there is no regulatory guidance defining a specific time frame to complete an immediate determination of operability. General industry practice is within several hours.

Technical

Reference:

OP-AA-102, Operability Determination. Surry Technical Specifications Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: SRO-UTP, For a Tier 2 procedure discuss the requirements for Operations personnel.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Cognitive Level: Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13)

Comments:

A. PORV Operability is not required for the present plant conditions given. This is incorrect because Tech Specs 3.1.G requires that both PORVs shall be Operable when RCS temperature is < 350 oF and the vessel head is bolted.

B. Declare both PORVs inoperable from the time the PMT should have been completed. This is incorrect because OP-AA-102 states that the impact on Tech Spec equipment should be made from the time of discovery. This is plausible because part of returning a component to service is to perform PMT and return component to service prior to declaring component operable (Ref:

WM-AA-100, Maintenance process, step 3.13.4). This should have been done 16 hours1.851852e-4 days <br />0.00444 hours <br />2.645503e-5 weeks <br />6.088e-6 months <br /> earlier before therefore this is a plausible distractor.

C. Declare both PORVs inoperable from the time of discovery. OP-AA-102, step 3.2.1 states that the Shift Manager should determine the impact on TS operability upon discovery.

D. Delay declaring both PORVs inoperable for up to 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> to allow the PMTs to be completed.

This is incorrect because there is no requirement to allow a 24-hour delay on declaring a component inoperable following a missed PMT. There is an allowance to allow a 24-hour delay for a missed Surveillance test which is entirely different (Ref: OP-AA-102, 3.6.1). This makes this a plausible distractor.

Reference for correct answer, OP-AA-102, 3.2.1.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference for Distractor A from TS3.1-23.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference for distractor B from WM-AA-100 3.13.4

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference for Distractor D.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.3.11, Radiation Control, Ability to control radiation releases, (CFR: 41.11 / 43.4 /

45.10 Level: SRO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.8 IR-SRO: 4.3 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions:

  • A WGDT is in service (lined up).
  • B WGDT release is in progress in accordance with OP-23.2.4, Release of Waste Gas Decay Tank 1B.
  • Annunciator 0-RMA-C6, Process Vent Part Alert /Hi is received.
  • The BOP has verified 1-GW-RM-130A, Rad Monitor Process Vent Particulate is valid and is reading greater than the HI alarm setpoint.

Which ONE of the following completes the statement:

1) __________ will automatically isolate to STOP the WGDT release flow path. AND
2) The quantity of radioactive material in each gas storage tank shall be limited to < 24,600 curies of noble gases in order to provide assurance that in the event of an uncontrolled release of the tanks contents, the dose to an individual standing at the exclusion area boundary will not exceed _________________.

A. 1) 1-GW-FCV-101, Process Vnt WGDT Effluent Flow Controller.

2) 0.5 rem TEDE over a 2 hour2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> period.

B. 1) 1-GW-FCV-160, Ctmt Vac Pump Disch Hdr Isol.

2) 25 rem to the thyroid from iodine exposure over a 2 hour2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> period.

C. 1) 1-GW-FCV-160, Ctmt Vac Pump Disch Hdr Isol.

2) 0.5 rem TEDE over a 2 hour2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> period.

D. 1) 1-GW-FCV-101, Process Vnt WGDT Effluent Flow Controller.

2) 25 rem to the thyroid from iodine exposure over a 2 hour2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> period.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation: 1) The automatic actions for HI alarm on 1-GW-RM-130A is to automatically isolate 1-GW-FCV-101 and 1-GW-FCV-160. Only 1-GW-FCV-101 will stop the release as 1-GW-FCV-160 is an input to the system (see attached figure). 2) TS 3.11, Radioactive Gas Storage; Specification B, Gas Storage Tanks; states the quantity of radioactivity contained in each storage tank shall be limited to 24, 600 curies of noble gases (considered as Xe-133). The Basis for this requirement states that; the quantity of radioactivity is less than the quantity which provides assurance that in the event of an

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet uncontrolled release of the tanks contents, the resulting total body exposure to an individual at the nearest exclusion area boundary will not exceed 0.5 rem in an event of 2 hours2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br />.

Technical

Reference:

Tech Specs 3.11.B Basis, Waste Gas Storage; ND-81.2-LP-5, Tech Spec and 10 CFR 100; ARP 0-RMA-C6, Process Vent Particulate ALERT/HI.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-92.4-LP-1, GW and LW, Objective B, Describe the operation of the Gaseous Waste System.

ND-95.2-LP-1, Radioactive release, Objective B, Describe the Radioactive Gas Release Accidents as presented in Chapter 14 of the Updated Final Safety Analysis Report. Waste Gas Decay Tank.

ND-81.2-LP-5, 10CFR and Tech Spec, Objective C, State the purpose of 10CFR100.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.11 / 43.4 / 45.10 Comments:

Distractor Analysis A. Correct.

B. Incorrect - 1) Incorrect. 1-GW-FCV-160 will NOT isolate the release. Plausible because this is one of the automatic actions that will occur. 2) Incorrect. TS 3.11 Basis states that quantity will limit dose to .5 Rem over 2-hour period. Plausible because 25 Rem is whole body limit for the exclusion area design basis for postulated fission product release. Actual thyroid limit is 300 Rem but 25 Rem used to ensure there is no basis for claiming this is correct.(ND-81.2-LP-5).

C. Incorrect - 1) Incorrect. 1-GW-FCV-160 will NOT isolate the release. Plausible because this is one of the automatic actions that will occur. 2) Correct.

D. Incorrect - 1) Correct. 2) Incorrect. TS 3.11 Basis states that quantity will limit dose to .5 Rem over 2-hour period. Plausible because 25 Rem is whole body limit for the exclusion area design basis for postulated fission product release. Actual thyroid limit is 300 Rem but 25 Rem used to ensure there is no basis for claiming this is correct.(ND-81.2-LP-5).

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 1. Both 1-GW-FCV-101 and 1-GW-FCV-160 will isolate, but only GW-FCV-101 will stop the release.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 2.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference for distractor (B) and (D). Wrong because wrong basis and thyroid value incorrect.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.3.12, Radiation Control, Knowledge of radiological safety principles pertaining to licensed operator duties, such as containment entry requirements, fuel handling responsibilities, access to locked high-radiation areas, aligning filters, etc. (CFR: 41.12 / 45.9 / 45.10)

Level: SRO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.7 Proposed Question:

Unit 2 is currently in a Refueling Shutdown with Reactor Head Lift in progress when the following occurs:

  • Reactor Head dropped three (3) feet during movement to the head stand in the containment basement.
  • A Supplemental employee is pinned beneath the Reactor Head lift rigging.
  • Emergency Plan has been implemented based on HU6.1, Judgment, following consultation with the Operations Manager.
  • The initial Emergency Medical Technicians (EMTs) have reported that the individual is alive, but contaminated and will require an ambulance.
  • Additional EMTs have been dispatched in order to rescue the injured person.
  • Dominion will be issuing a Press Release.
  • The general dose rates in the area of the injured person is 1.5 R/hr.

Based on current conditions:

1) What is the maximum allowable dose (TEDE) that can be authorized by the SEM to rescue the individual?
2) What is the time requirement to report this event to the NRC.

(REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A. 1) 10 REM.

2) 8 Hours.

B. 1) 10 REM.

2) 24 Hours.

C. 1) 25 REM.

2) 1 Hour.

D. 1) 25 REM.

2) 4 Hours.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation: 1) EPIP-4.04 authorizes a maximum of 25 REM for search and rescue, first aid, and removal of injured personnel where there is reasonable expectation that the individual is alive within the affected area. 2) VPAP-2802, Section 6.3 Note 1: Notifications for events that exceed an Emergency

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Action Level, as specified in EPIP-1.01, Emergency Manager Controlling Procedure, are controlled by EPIP-2.01, Notification of State and Local Governments and EPIP-2.02, Notification of NRC. See also Steps 6.3.5 and 6.3.7. [10 CFR 50.72(a)(3), 10 CFR 50.72(c)(1), 10 CFR 50.72(c)(2)]. With the Emergency Plan in effect, the NRC notifications will be driven by EPIP-2.02, Notification of NRC.

Technical

Reference:

VPAP-2802, Notifications and Reports. EPIP-4.04, Emergency Personnel Radiation Exposure, Attachment 1, Emergency Exposure Limits.

Reference Provided to Applicant: YES, VPAP -2802 pages 78 - 89. This pertains to 1-hour, 4-hour, 8-hour, and 24-hour reporting requirements.

Learning Objective: ND-81.2-LP-3, External Exposure. Objective C: Explain the federal exposure limits for Total Effective Dose Equivalent, extremity, skin, and Lens of the Eye doses including necessary requirements and limitations for extensions. SROU-02, Admin Procedures. Tier 2. VPAP-2802 Notifications and Reports (SRO.) (Ensure memorization of 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> or less notifications.)

Question Source: NEW Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.12 / 45.9 / 45.10) 10 CFR 55.43(b)(4)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis A. 1) 10 REM. Incorrect, EPIP 4.04 allows 25 REM (not 10) for lifesaving activities. This is plausible if SRO candidate confuses limit for lifesaving with limit for protecting equipment.

2) 8 Hours. Incorrect - VPAP-2802 transport of a contaminated injured personnel is an 8-hour report; however the report of the event and subsequent notification of transport of a contaminated individual will be controlled by EPIP-2.02, Notification of NRC.

B. 1) 10 REM. Incorrect, EPIP 4.04 allows 25 REM (not 10) for lifesaving activities. This is plausible if SRO candidate confuses limit for lifesaving with limit for protecting equipment.

2) 24 Hours. Incorrect, per VPAP-2802 transport of a contaminated injured personnel is an 8-hour report. Plausible because a 24-hour notification is required for an event involving licensed material that causes or threatens to cause an individual to receive a TEDE exceeding 5 REM.

C. 1) 25 REM. Correct per EPIP 4.04, Attachment 1.

2) 1 Hours. Correct per VPAP-2802, Note 1 of Section 6.3.

D. 1) 25 REM. Correct per EPIP 4.04.

2) 4 Hours. Incorrect, per VPAP-2802 transport of a contaminated injured personnel is an 8-hour report. Plausible because a 4 hour4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> report is required IAW VPAP-2802 Media

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Significant or Newsworthy as stated in Note prior to item 5. Stated in Stem that Dominion will make a Press Release.

References for part 1 correct answer and distractor.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 2 correct answer. (VPAP 2802 page 84)

References for part 2 distractors.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.4.28, Emergency Procedures/Plans, Knowledge of procedures relating to emergency response to sabotage., (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13)

Level: SRO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 4.1 Proposed Question:

Unit 1 and 2 are operating at 100% with all systems and cross-ties OPERABLE.

  • A Hostile Force has landed at the Low Level Intake Structure.
  • The Outside Watch has been taken hostage, and the Operations vehicle has been used to breach the protected area fence from the construction side into the plant.
  • Security Supervisor reports that they are currently engaging the hostile force in the Polishing Building. All personnel should remain clear of the Polishing Building. No other areas are affected at this time.
  • Explosions were heard from the vicinity of the Polishing Building.

Which ONE of the following states the classification for this event?

(REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A. HG4.1, General Emergency.

B. HA2.1, Alert.

C. HA4.1, Alert.

D. HS4.1, Site Area Emergency.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation:

Technical

Reference:

Surry EAL Matrix, Surry Power Station Emergency Action Level Technical Basis Document.

Reference Provided to Applicant: Yes, EAL Matrix.

Learning Objective:

Question Source: New

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13) 10CFR 55.43(b)(5)

Comments: Question is SRO-only due to EAL Classification.

Distractor Analysis A. Incorrect - Hostile Action within the Protected Area is occurring however there is no report of loss of the ability to operate equipment needed to maintain safety functions.

B. Incorrect - EAL does apply, but is not the highest classification.

C. Incorrect - EAL does apply, but is not the highest classification.

D. Correct - EAL does apply, and is the highest classification. There is a hostile force that is occurring within the protected area.

Reference for correct answer D and distractor A.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference for Distractor B.

Reference for Distractor C

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE11EG2.1.32, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirc. /4, Ability to explain and apply all system limits and precautions. (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.12)

Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.8 IR-SRO: 4 Proposed Question:

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.

Unit 2 has experienced a Loss of Offsite power and a LBLOCA:

  • EDG 3 failed to start.
  • Containment Pressure is 44 psia and slowly rising.
  • All RCPs have secured.
  • RCS pressure is 50 psig and steady.
  • Core Exit Thermocouple temperature: 610 oF and slowly rising.
  • The Team has just established Cold Leg Recirculation in accordance with 2-ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation, (step 5 completed).
  • Oscillating Pump Amps and Discharge Pressure indication on the following: LHSI pump, 2-SI-P-1A; Inside Recirc Spray pump, 2-RS-P-1A; Outside Recirc Spray Pump, 2-RS-P-2A.

Which ONE of the following identifies the procedure that should be performed for the NEXT step?

A. Continue in ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation.

B. Go to FR-C.2, Response to Degraded Cooling.

C. Go to ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

D. Go to FR-Z.1, Response to Containment High Pressure.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation: With indications given, a loss of Sump suction has occurred (oscillating pump amps and discharge pressure indication). With only one train of equipment available (due to loss of J bus) there is a complete loss of sump suction. Note before step 1, and Attachment 1 step 1.e in ES-1.3 states that if there is a complete loss of sump suction capability then GO TO ECA-1.1.

Technical

Reference:

1-ECA-1.1, 1(2)-OP-CS-004.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Learning Objective:.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.12)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - If there were two trains of LHSI available then this would be correct as the team would first secure one LHSI pump to attempt to relieve the sump blockage. Plausible because efforts to free sump blockage are first performed in ES-1.3.

B. Incorrect - With indications of Sump Blockage, priority is to relieve sump blockage Conditions. Plausible because entry conditions for FR-C.2 (Low Subcooling, RCPs secured, RVLIS < 46%) are met. SRO must prioritize most important action.

C. Correct - With a Total Loss of Sump suction capability, ECA-1.1 is required.

D. Incorrect - With indications of Sump Blockage, priority is to relieve sump blockage Conditions. Plausible because entry conditions for FR-Z.1 are met (Containment pressure >

23 psia, no Containment Spray pumps running). SRO must prioritize most important action.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for correct answer:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE12EG2.4.4, Steam Line Rupture - Excessive Heat Transfer /4, Ability to recognize abnormal indications for system operating parameters which are entry-level conditions for emergency and abnormal operating procedures., (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.6)

Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.5 IR-SRO: 4.7 (linked to WE E12, Uncontrolled Depressurization of all SGs).

Proposed Question:

Unit 2 is stable at approximately 2% reactor Power following a Refueling Shutdown.

  • Steam Dumps are in AUTO with 4% demand indicated.
  • The BOP is performing 2-OPT-FW-003, Turbine Driven Auxiliary Pump 2-FW-P-2, full flow test.

The following indications are noted:

  • 2-FW-P-2 Feed Pressure light goes out.
  • S/G A/B/C Pressure: 400 psig and decreasing rapidly.
  • S/G Level: S/G A - 58% (WR), S/G B - 55% (WR), S/G C - 50% (WR), (All are lowering).
  • Containment Pressure: 10.5 psia and steady.

Which ONE of the following identifies the required sequence of procedure transitions implemented in response to this event?

A. E-2 Faulted SG Isolation, E-1 Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, ES-1.1 SI Termination.

B. FR-H.1 Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, E-2 Faulted SG Isolation, ECA-2.1 Uncontrolled Depressurization of all SGs.

C. E-2 Faulted SG Isolation, FR-H.1 Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

D. E-2 Faulted SG Isolation, ECA-2.1 Uncontrolled Depressurization of all SGs.

Proposed Answer: D. E-2 (Faulted SG Isolation), ECA-2.1 (Uncontrolled Depressurization of all SGs).

Explanation: For indications and initial condition, all 3 SGs will be faulted with a leak path upstream of the MSTVs but outside containment. Containment is not adverse therefore AFW flow > 350 gpm meets requirement, therefore FR-H.1 is not applicable.

Technical

Reference:

ECA-2.1, Uncontrolled depressurization of All Steam Generators.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-22, ECA-2.1, Objective B, Given a copy of ECA-2.1, Uncontrolled Depressurization of All Steam Generators, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.6) 10 CFR 55.43(b)(5)

Comments:

Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect - procedural progression would occur as stated IF the candidate assumes steam isolation in E-2. E-2 step 2 requires at least one intact SG.

B. Incorrect - Per FR-H.1 Entry would only occur IF candidate assumes all three SGs AFW flow is isolated in E-2 or Adverse Containment.

C. Incorrect - FR-H.1 Entry would only occur IF candidate assumes all three SGs AFW flow is isolated in E-2.

D. Correct - Based on the event in progress, ECA-2.1 would be entered. Team would not throttle

<350 gpm until step 2 of ECA-2.1.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE16EA2.2, High Containment Radiation / 9, Adherence to appropriate procedures and operation within the limitations in the facilitys license and amendments, (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)

Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3 IR-SRO: 3.3 Proposed Question:

A LBLOCA occurred on Unit 1, followed by fuel failure. A Category 4 Hurricane has caused power lines to drop on numerous roadways, and tornadoes have been seen throughout Surry and James City County.

  • At 0400: A General Emergency has just been declared on FG1.1.
  • At 0410: State and Local authorities are notified in accordance with EPIP-2.01, Notification of State and Local Governments.
  • HP reports the following dose assessment data based on the release in progress:
  • Projected TEDE dose is 0.8 Rem at 2 miles.
  • Projected Thyroid CDE dose is 7.0 Rem at 2 miles.
  • Projected Thyroid CDE dose is 5.2 Rem at the Site Boundary.
  • The primary downwind sector is "C" with "B" and "D" as buffer sectors.

Which one of the following correctly answers the following questions:

1) What is the correct Protective Action Recommendation?
2) What is the latest time that the PAR must be made to the State?

(REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A. 1) Shelter-in-place: 2 Mile radius and 5 Miles downwind. 2) 0415.

B. 1) Expanded PAR: Derive from EPIP-4.07. 2) 0415.

C. 1) Shelter-in-place: 2 Mile radius and 5 Miles downwind. 2) 0425.

D. 1) Expanded PAR: Derive from EPIP-4.07. 2) 0425.

Proposed Answer: A 1) PAR A Shelter-in-place: 2 Mile radius and 5 Miles downwind. 2) 0415 Explanation: 1) EPIP-1.06, Attachment 2 first checks for any known impediments. Known impediments are defined as any severe weather such as hurricanes, tornados, flooding or blizzards; and any traffic issues such as dropped power lines. Given information provides Hurricane, numerous tornadoes, and dropped power lines. This meets the first the criteria for known impediments that make evacuation dangerous. Therefore in accordance with EPIP-1.06 Attachment 2 PAR A; Shelter in place 2 mile radius and 5 miles downwind is the appropriate PAR. 2) EPIP-2.01, Notification of State and

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Local requires PARs be made within 15 minutes of General Emergency Declaration therefore PARs must be communicated to the State no later than 0415.

Technical

Reference:

EPIP-1.06, / Recommendations. EPIP-2.01, Notification to State and Local Governments.

Reference Provided to Applicant: Yes (EPIP-1.06 )

Learning Objective: ND-95.5-LP-2, SEM, Objective D, Describe the corrective actions required by a classified plant emergency.

Question Source: BANK (LORP, CEP 275, LEPIP060)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct: 1) PAR A Shelter-in-place: 2) 0415 is the correct time.

B. Incorrect. 1) PAR C Expanded PAR is incorrect because of impediments that make evacuation dangerous. This is plausible because dose at 2 miles is greater than allowed making PAR C the correct PAR if there would be no known impediments. 2) 0415 is the correct time.

C. Incorrect. 1) PAR A Shelter-in-place is the correct PAR. 2) 0425 is incorrect because the requirement is to make PARs within 15 minutes of GE declaration. Plausible because a common misconception is to make PARS within 15 minutes of Notification, and normal practice is to make PARs after the Notification.

D. Incorrect. 1) PAR C Expanded PAR is incorrect because of impediments that make evacuation dangerous. This is plausible because dose at 2 miles is greater than allowed making PAR C the correct PAR if there would be no known impediments. 2) 0425 is incorrect because the requirement is to make PARs within 15 minutes of GE declaration.

Plausible because a common misconception is to make PARS within 15 minutes of Notification, and normal practice is to make PARs after the Notification.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for Part 1 from EPIP-1.06.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for part 1 from EPIP-1.06 shows correct answer (red) and distractor (green).

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for Part 2 from EPIP-2.01.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE01EA2.1, Rediagnosis / 3, Facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during abnormal and emergency operations. (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)

Level: SRO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 4 Proposed Question:

Initial Conditions:

  • Unit 1 reactor has been tripped from 100% due to a LOCA.
  • The Team has just transitioned to ES-1.2, POST LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization.

Current Conditions:

  • Subcooling: 25oF and lowering.
  • AFW flow: 140 gpm to each S/G.
  • SG level: S/G A/B 70% WR and steady. S/G C 10% NR and rising.
  • Annunciator 1-RM-G8, CNDSR AIR EJCTR ALERT/FAILURE has just alarmed.
  • BOP confirms that 1-SV-RM-111 is at the Alert setpoint and rising.
  • The Team became concerned about conflicting indications and transitioned to ES-0.0, Rediagnosis.

Which ONE of the following describes the correct procedural flowpath from ES-0.0?

A. Go directly to E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture; then to ECA-3.1, SGTR with Loss of Reactor Coolant Subcooled Recovery.

B. Return to ES-1.2, POST LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization until SI signals have been blocked; then go to E-3, SGTR; then ECA-3.1, SGTR with Subcooled Recovery.

C. Return to ES-1.2, POST LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization until SI signals have been blocked; then go to E-3, SGTR; then ES-3.1, Post SGTR Cooldown using Backfill.

D. Go directly to E-3, SGTR; then go to ES-3.1, Post SGTR Cooldown using Backfill.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation: Indications given provide the SRO with a LOCA outside containment followe3d by a SGTR. There is no transition from ECA-1.2 to E-3, therefore ES-0.0 will provide a procedural mechanism to deal with the rupture. After entering ES-0.0 step 3 asks if there is a SGTR. If so ES-0.0

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet states than an E-3 or ECA-3 procedure is in effect. The SRO will then enter E-3, and due to a low subcooling the SRO will then enter ECA-3.1 when directed in E-3.

Technical

Reference:

ES-0.0, Rediagnosis.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-3, E-3; Objective A, Given the major action categories associated with E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture, explain the purpose of E-3, the transition criteria for entering and exiting E-3 and the types of operator actions that will occur within each category.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)

Comments:

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct, ES-0.0 directs entry into E-3 first. Once in E-3, then entry into ECA-3.1 will occur due to low subcooling.

B. Incorrect, because once in ES-0.0, a SGTR will have a higher priority then an E-1 or ES 1.2 procedure. Also SRO needs to understand entry and exit transitions; ES-1.2 is only entered from E-1 or ES-1.1 for small break LOCAs. Additionally ES-1.2 has an exit transition requirement for SGTR. Plausible because leak may not be isolated and SRO may confuse priority of ES-0.0.

C. Incorrect, because once in ES-0.0, a SGTR will have a higher priority then an E-1 or ES-1.2 procedure. Plausible if SRO takes wrong path in ES-0.0 step 3 and goes to ES-1.2 first, instead of E-3. Also if SRO went to E-1 first then Continuous Action would direct entry into E-3.

D. Incorrect. E-3 is correct procedure to go to first. ES-3.1 is not correct because of low subcooling. Plausible because ES-3.1 is desired procedure due to less release to general public.(Ref: ND-95.3-LP-14)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for ES-0.0; E-3 correct transition, E-1 is not.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet References for E-3; ECA-3.1 correct transition, ES-3.1 is NOT.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet