ML16007A438

301 Draft RO Written Examination

ML16007A438
Person / Time
Site:	Surry
Issue date:	01/07/2016
From:	Division of Reactor Safety II
To:	Virginia Electric & Power Co (VEPCO)
References
Download: ML16007A438 (158)

Text

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 001AA1.02, Continuous Rod Withdrawal / 1, Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Continuous Rod Withdrawal : Rod in-out-hold switch Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.6 IR-SRO: 3.4 Proposed Question: !1 Initial Conditions:

• Reactor at 50% with a ramp to 100% in progress.

• Median Tave fails such that Tave is 4.0 °F lower than Tref.

• Rod Control is placed in manual 30 seconds after the failure occurs.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) The direction of rod motion before the rods were placed in manual.

2) The number of steps the control rods must be moved to restore the control rods to their ORIGINAL rod height during failure recovery.

A. 1) Out.

2) 16.

B. 1) Out.

2) 20.

C. 1) In.

2) 16.

D. 1) In.

2) 20.

Proposed Answer: B.

Explanation: Part 1) With Tave < Tref by at least 1.5 °F, control rods will move OUT. Part 2) from 1.5

°F to 3 °F Tave/Tref deviation, rod motion is 8 steps per minute. From 3 °F to 5 °F, rod motion is 32 Steps/minute for each degree of deviation PLUS the original motion of 8 steps/minute. 8 + 1.0(32 SPM/°F) x .5 minutes = 20 steps. If 8 Steps per minute is excluded from calculation, the result is 16 steps.

Technical

Reference:

ND-93.3-LP-3, Rod Control System, Objective B, Reproducing a simplified one-line diagram from memory, explain the operation, including interrelationships, of the following Automatic Tavg Control Unit components: Rod Speed & Direction Controller. Slide 13.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-3, Rod Control System, Objective B, Reproducing a simplified one-line diagram from memory, explain the operation, including interrelationships, of the following Automatic Tavg Control Unit components: Rod Speed & Direction Controller. Slide 13.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches the K/A in that the trainee must determine the direction and magnitude of rod motion to return the control rods to their original height using the in-hold-out switch.

Distractor Analysis:

a. 1) Correct - Rods moved OUT in auto during the failure.

2) Incorrect - Rods moved a total of 20 steps by calculation. Plausible if Candidate excludes 8 SPM from calculation.

b. 1) Correct - Rods moved OUT in auto during the failure.

2) Correct - Rods moved a total of 20 steps by calculation.

c. 1) Incorrect - Rods have moved OUT in auto during the failure. Plausible if Candidate confuses direction of rod motion during the failure.

2) Incorrect - Rods moved a total of 20 steps by calculation. Plausible if Candidate excludes 8 SPM from calculation.

d. 1) Incorrect - Rods moved OUT in auto during the failure. Plausible if Candidate confuses direction of rod motion during the failure.

2) Correct - Rods moved a total of 20 steps by calculation.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 001K6.03, Control Rod Drive / 1, Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following CRDS components: Reactor trip breakers, including controls Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.7 IR-SRO: 4.2 PRINT ON WHITE.

Proposed Question: !2 Initial plant conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100% power.

• Currently performing a test of Reactor Trip breaker A per 1-PT-8.1, Rx. Protection Logic testing.

• An automatic reactor trip signal occurs, but only the B RPS train actuates.

• Reactor Trip and Reactor Trip Bypass breaker position following the Trip are shown below.

• No operator actions have been taken.

Which ONE of the following correctly completes the following statements:

1) The Reactor trip and Bypass breakers _________operate correctly.

2) As a backup to the UV coil, the Trip Coil is ___________ upon receipt of a reactor trip signal.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet A. 1) did not

2) energized B. 1) did not

2) de-energized C. 1) did

2) energized D. 1) did

2) de-energized Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: 1) When testing the Reactor Trip breakers its corresponding bypass breaker is closed.

This allows testing of the train reactor protection logic without causing an actual reactor trip. Protection is provided by the opposite logic train which will open its reactor trip breaker and the opposite train bypass breaker. In this case the A Reactor trip breaker was being tested and the A Reactor trip bypass breaker was closed. An automatic reactor trip was received which should have caused the A Reactor trip bypass breaker to open (from the B RPS train), but didnt. 2) DC power to the UV coil and automatic shunt relay (STA) will be interrupted to the B Reactor Trip Breaker and the A Reactor trip bypass breaker by the reactor trip signal. This in turn will cause the UV coil to de-energize and trip the breaker. De-energizing the STA relay causes the STA relay contact to close allowing DC power to energize the Trip coil (TC) to trip the breaker as a backup to tripping the breaker by de-energizing the UV coil.

Technical

Reference:

1-PT-8.1, Revision 40 Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-10, Objective B, Analyze the operation of the Reactor Trip Breakers in response to a manual or automatic trip signal.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7/45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: The question matches the K/A because question tests the knowledge of the effects of a Reactor trip bypass breaker failure which directly matches the K/A.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) No. This is correct.

2) Energize. This is correct.

B. 1) No. This is correct.

2) De-energize. This is incorrect as the Trip Coil is energized as a backup to de-energizing the UV coils. Plausible if candidate confuses operation of the UV and Shunt Trip relays (both de-energize) with operation of the Trip Coil (energizes).

C. 1) Yes. This is incorrect, the B RPS reactor trip will trip the B reactor trip breaker and the A bypass breaker. Plausible as part of the action is correct, and if the student confuses which bypass breaker should operate then this choice could be made.

2) Energize. This is correct.

D. 1) Yes. This is incorrect, the B RPS reactor trip will trip the B reactor trip breaker and the A bypass breaker. Plausible as part of the action is correct, and if the student confuses which bypass breaker should operate then this choice could be made.

2) De-energize. This is incorrect as the Trip Coil is energized as a backup to de-energizing the UV coils. Plausible if candidate confuses operation of the UV and Shunt Trip relays (both de-energize) with operation of the Trip Coil (energizes)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 003K4.04, Reactor Coolant Pump / 4, Knowledge of RCPS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: Adequate cooling of RCP motor and seals Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.8 IR-SRO: 3.1 NRC APPROVED.

Proposed Question: !3 Initial Conditions:

• The Unit is in Cold Shutdown with the Team preparing to start the first RCP in accordance with 1-OP-RC-001, Starting and Running Any Reactor Coolant Pump.

• Vacuum assist was unavailable during RCS Loop fill.

The following sequence of events occur:

• 0900, C RCP started for RCS Vent.

• 0902, C RCP secured due to low seal Differential Pressure.

• 0933, C RCP started for RCS Vent.

• 0938, C RCP secured due to low seal Differential Pressure.

• 1012, C RCP started for RCS Vent.

• 1027, C RCP secured due to the loss of both seal injection and thermal barrier flow.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) What is the earliest time the fourth start of the C RCP may be attempted, in accordance with 1-OP-RC-001?

2) When restoring seal injection and thermal barrier cooling to an RCP seal, which is restored first?

A. 1) 1128.

2) Thermal Barrier.

B. 1) 1128.

2) Seal Injection.

C. 1) 1058.

2) Thermal Barrier.

D. 1) 1058.

2) Seal Injection.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: In accordance with 1(2)-OP-RC-001, Precaution and Limitation 4.6, within any two hour period the number of starts should be limited to a maximum of three, with an idle period of 30 minutes before each restart. When three starts or attempted starts have been made within a two-hour period, then a FOURTH start should NOT be made until the motor has been allowed to cool by standing idle for

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet at least one hour. In accordance with 1(2)-OP-RC-001, Precaution and Limitation 4.2, upon loss of CC Water and Seal Injection flow to an RCP, CC water flow to the Thermal Barrier must be restored before restarting seal injection flow since Thermal barrier flow provides a more even Cooldown of the seal area.

Technical

Reference:

OP-RC-001.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-88.1-ST-6.1, Objective B, Given the initial condition of the Unit on RHR and a startup in progress, start the first RCP IAW OP-RC-001.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: The K/A is met, the Candidate must recall RCP start limitations and seal cooling restoration from memory, and apply these concepts to RCP Motor and Seal cooling.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Both parts 1) and 2) are correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect, establishing seal injection flow first runs has a higher probability of warping the shaft since injection enters the seal in one location; the thermal barrier encircles the pump shaft so a more uniform cooling of the seals occurs.

Plausible in that the Candidate incorrectly recall the differences between the design of seal injection and thermal barrier flow in the RCP seal area.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, before the fourth start attempt is made, the RCP must remain idle for 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> to ensure adequate time for the RCP motor stator to cool. Part 2) is correct.

Plausible since the Candidate can confuse the total number of starts in the P&L with the number of starts allowed in a two hour period.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, before the fourth start attempt is made, the RCP must remain idle for 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> to ensure adequate time for the RCP motor stator to cool. Part 2) is incorrect, establishing seal injection flow first runs has a higher probability of warping the shaft since injection enters the seal in one location; the thermal barrier encircles the pump shaft so a more uniform cooling of the seals occurs. Plausible since the Candidate can confuse the total number of starts in the P&L with the number of starts allowed in a two hour period and incorrectly recall the differences between the design of seal injection and thermal barrier flow in the RCP seal area.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 004K4.03, Chemical and Volume Control / 2, Knowledge of CVCS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: Protection of ion exchangers (high letdown temperature will isolate ion exchangers)

Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.8 IR-SRO: 2.9 Proposed Question: !4 Unit 1 was operating at 100% operation when a failure occurred causing Letdown temperature to rise.

Which of the following describes:

1) At what temperature will the Letdown divert valve, 1-CH-TCV-1143 divert to the VCT?

2) What is the reason for this action?

A. 1) 145 oF.

2) Protect Ion Exchanger resin from damage due to high Letdown line temp.

B. 1) 145 oF.

2) Mitigate positive reactivity caused by boron absorption from Demins.

C. 1) 130 oF.

2) Protect Ion Exchanger resin from damage due to high Letdown line temp.

D. 1) 130 oF.

2) Mitigate positive reactivity caused by boron absorption from Demins.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation: Letdown Line temperatures and VCT temperatures are rising slowly. Once Letdown line temperature reaches 145 oF, 1-CH-TCV-1143 will divert to the VCT which bypasses the Demins. The reason for this is to protect the Ion exchangers from high temperatures. 130 oF is the high temperature alarm setpoint for the VCT.

Technical

Reference:

ND-88.3-LP-2 Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-88.3-LP-2, Charging and Letdown, Objective C; Assess the function and operation of each charging and letdown system component including instrumentation and control.

Question Source: New

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of CVCS design feature for providing protection of ion exchangers from high temperatures. This matches the K/A Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) 145 oF. Correct.

2) Protect Ion Exchanger resin from damage due to high Letdown line temp. Correct.

B. 1) 145 oF. Correct.

2) Mitigate positive reactivity caused by boron absorption from Demins.

Incorrect, TCV 1143 provides protection to the Demins. Plausible because letdown temperature changes will cause a change to boron.

In this case Letdown temperatures are rising which would tend to release boron adding negative reactivity which is the opposite effect.

C. 1) 130 oF. Incorrect, because the divert valve diverts at 145 oF.

Plausible because this is the setpoint for ARP 1D-F1, VCT Hi temp, therefore this choice could be selected if candidate confused between VCT hi temp and Letdown Hi temp/divert setpoint.

2) Protect Ion Exchanger resin from damage due to high Letdown line temp. This is correct.

D. 1) 130 oF. Incorrect, because the divert valve diverts at 145 oF.

Plausible because this is the setpoint for ARP 1D-F1, VCT Hi temp, therefore this choice could be selected if candidate confused between VCT hi temp and Letdown Hi temp/divert setpoint

2) Mitigate positive reactivity caused by boron absorption from Demins.

Incorrect, TCV 1143 provides protection to the Demins. Plausible because letdown temperature changes will cause a change to boron.

In this case Letdown temperatures are rising which would tend to release boron adding negative reactivity which is the opposite effect.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 005K2.03, Residual Heat Removal / 4, Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following:

RCS pressure boundary motor-operated valves Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.7 IR-SRO: 2.8 Proposed Question: !5 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 is being cooled down to Cold Shutdown, with RHR in service.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) The power supply to 1-RH-MOV-1700, RHR Inlet MOV.

2) The pressure transmitter that supplies the signal for the 460 psig open interlock.

A. 1) 1H1-2S-8C.

2) 1-RC-PT-1444, PRZR Press Control.

B. 1) 1H1-2S-8C.

2) 1-RC-PT-1403, RCS Pressure Narrow Range.

C. 1) 1A1-1E-4B.

2) 1-RC-PT-1444, PRZR Press Control.

D. 1) 1A1-1E-4B.

2) 1-RC-PT-1403, RCS Pressure Narrow Range.

Proposed Answer: B.

Explanation: RHR inlet MOVs are powered from an emergency bus supply, 1H or 1J. The RHR MOV inlet open interlock setpoint is 460 psig. 1-RC-PT-1444 range is 1700 to 2500 psig which is above the low limit for this transmitter. 1-RC-PT-1403 has a range of 0 to 1000 psig.

Technical

Reference:

1-OP-RH-001, RHR Operations, Section 5.1.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-88.2-LP-1, RHR System, Objective B, Using a one-line diagram of the RHR system drawn from memory, describe the system flowpaths including all interconnections with other systems. ND-88.2-LP-1, RHR System, Objective C, System Components and Operation.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must be able to identify power source and transmitter used for the open interlock.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) correct, RH-MOV-1700 P/S is 1H11-2S-8C. Part 2) Incorrect, RC-PT-1444 is used for Pzr Pressure Control Input when > 1700 psig RCS pressure. Plausible since the Candidate must differentiate between PT used for interlock at Low RCS pressure and PT used when >1700 psig.

B. Correct -Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

C. Incorrect -Part 1) is incorrect, P/S for MOV is from an Emergency bus. Plausible since power source listed is on an MCC in the upper cable vault where other CTMT penetration MOVs and other MOVs located in CTMT are powered. Part 2) is incorrect, RC-PT-1444 is used for Pzr pressure control input when RCS pressure is > 1700 psig. Plausible since the Candidate must differentiate between PT used for interlock at Low RCS pressure and the PT used >1700 psig.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, P/S for MOV is from H Emergency bus. Plausible since power source listed is on an MCC in the upper cable vault where other CTMT penetration MOVs and other MOVs located in CTMT are powered. Part 2) is correct, RC-PT-1403 is used for interlock at low RCS pressure.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 005K6.03, Residual Heat Removal / 4, Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following will have on the RHRS: RHR heat exchanger Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.5 IR-SRO: 2.6 Proposed Question: !6 Given the following conditions:

• RCS temperature is 175°F.

• RCS pressure is 305 psig.

• The PRZR is solid.

• Charging flow control is in manual.

• RHR is in service, with the "A" RHR heat exchanger and 1-RH-P-1A in service.

• 1-RH-FCV-1605, RHR H/X bypass, is in AUTO.

The "A" RHR heat exchanger suddenly develops a 150 gpm tube leak.

With NO Operator actions, which ONE of the following identifies the effect of this malfunction on:

1) Flow through the RHR pump.

2) RCS pressure.

A. 1) Flow remains the same.

2) Pressure lowers.

B. 1) Flow remains the same.

2) Pressure rises.

C. 1) Flow rises.

2) Pressure rises.

D. 1) Flow rises.

2) Pressure lowers.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation: A 150 gpm tube leak in the A RHR heat exchanger leak into the component cooling system because the RHR pressure is much greater than CC. This 150 gpm leakage flow will cause total flow to initially drop by 150 gpm. This will be sensed by FT-1605 and will cause FCV-1605 to open to allow an additional 150 gpm to flow through FCV-1605 because it is in AUTO. The net result is that RHR pump flow will increase by approximately 150 gpm. RCS pressure will decrease because the 150 gpm tube leak is leaving the RCS, and with Charging flow in MANUAL there is no system that will automatically respond to the RCS leak.

Technical

Reference:

ND-88.2-LP-1, RHR System Description

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-88.2-LP-1, Objective C. Assess the function and operation of each RHR system component.

Question Source: Bank (RHR0066)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: The question deals with a malfunction of the A RHR heat exchanger caused by a tube leak. The student must be knowledgeable of the system operation, flowpath and component operation to evaluate the effect on the RHRS of this malfunction.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) RHR pump flow remains the same (incorrect). RHR pump flow will rise because of the break flow and the effect of 1-RH-FCV-1605 opening farther. Plausible if student doesnt understand leak effect on FT-1605. If leak is downstream of FT-1605 instead of upstream then FT-1605 would cause FCV-1605 to throttle down keeping RHR pump flow the same. Or if FT-1605 measured pump flow instead of RHR system flow then RHR pump flow would remain the same.

2) RCS pressure lowers (correct).

B. 1) RHR pump flow remains the same (incorrect). RHR pump flow will rise because of the break flow and the effect of 1-RH-FCV-1605 opening farther. Plausible if student doesnt understand leak effect on FT-1605. If leak is downstream of FT-1605 instead of upstream then FT-1605 would cause FCV-1605 to throttle down keeping RHR pump flow the same. Or if FT-1605 measured pump flow instead of RHR system flow then RHR pump flow would remain the same.

2) RCS pressure rises (incorrect). RCS pressure will lower because 150 gpm is leaving the system and not being replaced. Plausible if student fails to take into account that Charging is in MANUAL, and fails to take into account that the leak is out of the RHR system and not into the RHR system. Additionally initial flow through HCV-1142 would decrease, which by itself would cause RCS pressure to rise.

C. RHR pump flow increases (correct).

2) RCS pressure rises (incorrect). RCS pressure will lower because 150 gpm is leaving the system and not being replaced. Plausible if student fails to take into account that Charging is in MANUAL, and fails to take into account that the leak is out of the RHR system and not into the RHR system. . Additionally initial flow through HCV-1142 would decrease, which by itself would cause RCS pressure to rise.

D. Correct answer.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 006A2.05, Emergency Core Cooling / 2, Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the ECCS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Improper amperage to the pump motor Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.4 IR-SRO: 3.5 Proposed Question: !7 Initial Conditions:

• A Small Break LOCA is in progress.

• SI re-initiated two (2) minutes ago.

• SI has been reset.

• The Team is performing 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, and has reached Step 19, Establish Charging Pump Redundant Flowpaths.

Current Conditions:

• 1-CH-P-1A indicates 60 amps.

• 1-CH-P-1B indicates 62 amps.

• 1-CH-P-1C indicates 30 amps.

Which ONE of the following describes the condition of C CH pump when Step 19 is complete?

1) The control switch is in ________.

2) Aligned to the ________.

A. 1) Pull-to-lock

2) Alternate header B. 1) Auto-after-start

2) Alternate header C. 1) Pull-to-lock

2) Normal header D. 1) Auto-after-start

2) Normal header Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Note Prior to Step 19 of 1-E-1 states that CH pump order of priority is C, B, A. And the highest priority CH pump should be aligned to the Normal Header. With the Amp indications provided,

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet the C CH pump should be identified as degraded. To meet the requirements of the Notes and Step 19, the C CH pump should be aligned to the Alternate Header, with the control switch in Pull-to-Lock.

Technical

Reference:

1-E-1, Revision 43.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-7, 1-E-1, Objective B, Given a copy of E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition. Pages 26/27.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.5)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question meets K/A. Candidate must assess the indications provided for the CH pumps, determine that the C CH pump is degraded, and assess the alignment of the CH pumps to the Normal and Alternate Headers based upon knowledge of the Notes prior to Step 19 of 1-E-1.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct. Alignment at the end of Step 19 of 1-E-1 should match this configuration.

B. Incorrect - Part 1 is incorrect. Part 2) is correct. The CH pump that is secured in Step 19 is maintained in PTL. Plausible since this is a possible configuration of the control switch if Candidates fails to apply step 19 correctly.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, Part 2) is incorrect, C CH should be aligned to the Alternate header based on the Notes prior to Step 19. Plausible since this is a possible configuration if Candidates fails to apply Notes correctly.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, the CH pump that is secured in Step 19 is maintained in PTL.

Plausible since this is a possible configuration of the control switch if Candidates fails to apply step 19 correctly. Part 2) is incorrect, C CH should be aligned to the Alternate header based on the Notes prior to Step 19. Plausible since this is a possible configuration if Candidates fails to apply Notes correctly.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 006K3.01, Emergency Core Cooling / 2, Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the ECCS will have on the following: RCS Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.1 IR-SRO: 4.2 Proposed Question: !8 Given the following:

• Unit 1 operating at 100%.

• Spurious Safety Injection signal has been initiated.

• Following the SI the Charging pump suction valves have the following positions:

o 1-CH-MOV-1115B, CHG pump suction from RWST; CLOSED o 1-CH-MOV-1115C, CHG pump suction from VCT; OPEN.

o 1-CH-MOV-1115D, CHG pump suction from RWST; OPEN.

o 1-CH-MOV-1115E, CHG pump suction from VCT; CLOSED.

• All other auto SI actions occur as designed.

Assuming no operator action occurs, which of the following describes the effect on HHSI injection into the RCS?

A. HHSI injection flow from the VCT only.

B. HHSI injection flow from the RWST only.

C. HHSI injection flow from the VCT and RWST.

D. No HHSI injection flow.

Proposed Answer: B. HHSI injection flow from the RWST only Explanation: VCT will be isolated from Charging pumps once 1-CH-MOV-1115E goes closed because both MOV-1115 C and E are series valves. Both of these valves are supposed to stroke closed once an SI occurs and either MOV-1115B or D opens. Flow from the RWST will occur once MOV-1115D opens.

Both MOV-1115B and D will stroke open once SI occurs.

Technical

Reference:

ND-88.3-LP-2, Charging and Letdown.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-88.3-LP-2, Charging and Letdown, Objective C; Assess the function and operation of each charging and letdown system component including instrumentation and control.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.6)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question poses a failure of the SI system, specifically the auto initiate logic therefore the failure mechanism matches the loss or failure of ECCS. The question specifically asks for the effect of this failure on flow into the RCS. The question matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. HHSI injection flow from the VCT only. Incorrect because VCT is isolated. Plausible if operator confuses VCT suction configuration (MOV-1115C/E in series) with the RWST (MOV-1115B/D in parallel).

B. HHSI injection flow from the RWST only. Correct.

C. HHSI injection flow from the VCT and RWST. Incorrect because VCT is isolated. Plausible if operator confuses VCT suction configuration (MOV-1115C/E in series) with the RWST (MOV-1115B/D in parallel), or confuses isolation logic and believes 1115B must be opened before 1115C will go closed.

D. No HHSI injection flow. Incorrect because VCT is isolated and RWST is aligned. Plausible if operator confuses VCT suction configuration (MOV-1115C/E in series) with the RWST (MOV-1115B/D in parallel).

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 007A2.02, Pressurizer Relief/Quench Tank / 5, Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the P S; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Abnormal pressure in the PRT Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.6 IR-SRO: 3.2 Proposed Question: !9 Initial Conditions:

• 1-RC-PT-1445, PRZR PRESS CNTRL, failed high.

• The Team has completed the Immediate Actions of 0-AP-53.00, Loss of Vital Instrumentation/Controls.

Current Conditions: (7 minutes later):

• The STA notes that PRT Pressure, Level, and Temperature all have a rising trend.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The PRZR PORV block valve that must be closed.

2) The procedure that directs this action.

A. 1) Close 1-RC-MOV-1536, PRZR PORV block valve to isolate 1-RC-PCV-1455C.

2) 1-AP-16.00, Excessive RCS Leakage.

B. 1) Close 1-RC-MOV-1535, PRZR PORV block valve to isolate 1-RC-PCV-1456.

2) 1-AP-31.00, Increasing or Decreasing RCS Pressure.

C. 1) Close 1-RC-MOV-1536, PRZR PORV block valve to isolate 1-RC-PCV-1455C.

2) 1-AP-31.00, Increasing or Decreasing RCS Pressure.

D. 1) Close 1-RC-MOV-1535, PRZR PORV block valve to isolate 1-RC-PCV-1456.

2) 1-AP-16.00, Excessive RCS Leakage.

Proposed Answer: B.

Explanation: Failure of 1-RC-PT-1445 will cause 1-RC-PCV-1456 to open. The first Step of AP-31.00 is an Immediate Action Step that will have the Team close the Block Valve for a PORV that has not closed after lifting. Rising indications on the PRT indicate that the PORV that has lifted did not fully reseat and is leaking.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

1-AP-31.00, Rev. 19. Increasing or Decreasing RCS Pressure.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No.

Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-5, PZR Press Control, Objective C, In accordance with 1-AP-31.00, relate the operator actions necessary during abnormal functioning of the Pressurizer Pressure Control System.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches the K/A. The Candidate must assess the effect of the Pressure transmitter failure on the PZR PORVs, identify which block must be isolated to stop PORV leakage, and identify which procedural guidance is used to take this action.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, PORV is operated from the master pressure controller.

Plausible in that the Candidate may confuse which block valve used to isolate the PORV that has lifted. Part 2) is incorrect, 0-AP-53.00 would transition the Team to AP-31.00 to address the abnormal condition when the pressure transmitter failed. AP-31.00 actions would be in effect at the Current Conditions time (7 minutes later) as stated in the Stem.

Plausible in that the Candidate may confuse which procedure would be in effect at the time of Current Conditions, and Step 20 of AP-16.00 directs the Team to check PRT inleakage Normal, then try to identify source on inleakage using Attachment 1 - but does not direct closure of block to isolate leakage.

B. Correct - Part 1) is correct, the correct MOV is closed to isolate the leak. Part 2) is correct in that this is the AP in effect at the time of Current Conditions.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, wrong block valve to close to isolate suspected leaking PZR PORV. Plausible in that the Candidate may confuse which block valve used to isolate the PORV that has lifted. Part 2) is correct.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, this block valve is used to isolate leaking PORV. Part 2) is incorrect, 0-AP-53.00 would have been exited to AP-31.00 at time of Current Conditions.

Plausible since the Candidate could select the incorrect AP supplying reference to close block valve at current conditions, Step 20 of AP-16.00 directs the Team to check PRT inleakage Normal, then try to identify source on inleakage using Attachment 1 - but does not direct closure of block to isolate leakage.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 008AA1.04, Pressurizer Vapor Space Accident / 3, Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Pressurizer Vapor Space Accident: Feedwater pumps Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.8 IR-SRO: 2.5 Proposed Question: !10 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100%.

• Pressurizer Safety Valve 1-RC-SV-1551A inadvertently fails partially open.

• S/G B NR level channel, 1-FW-LI-1484, fails high immediately following the Reactor trip.

• 30 seconds later SI automatically actuates.

Current Conditions (10 minutes later)

• Plant is stabilized with Tave at 552 oF and RCS pressure at 1910 psig.

• Pressurizer vapor space temperature is steady at 630 oF.

• Main Feedwater pumps have tripped, all Feed Reg valves are closed, and all Feed Reg Bypass valves are closed.

Which of the following describes:

1) The Main Feed pumps trip after the_______.

2) The Feed Regulating Bypass valves closed due to the _______.

A. 1) reactor trip, but before the safety injection.

2) reactor trip coincident with low Tave.

B. 1) reactor trip, but before the safety injection.

2) safety injection.

C. 1) safety injection.

2) reactor trip coincident with low Tave.

D. 1) safety injection.

2) safety injection.

Proposed Answer: D. 1) safety injection. 2) safety injection.

Explanation: Feed pumps automatically tripped because of the SI and the Feedwater isolation (FWI) occurred because of the SI. Reactor trip coincident with low Tave does cause a FWI but the SI occurred first therefore it is what caused the FWI.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

ND-88.1-LP-3, Pressurizer and Pressure relief. ND-89.3-LP-3, Main Feedwater System Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-89.3-LP-3, Main Feedwater System, objective B; Describe the major main feedwater system components including, if applicable, their functions, power supply and operation.

Question Source: Modified Bank (CPSES 2005, question 1: modified stem and distractors)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question tests knowledge related to Feedwater pumps following a Pressurizer vapor space accident. This directly matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) After the reactor trip, but before the Safety Injection. Incorrect, one S/G level channel will not auto trip Feed pumps. Plausible if student confuses Hi level Feed pump trip coincidence, or confuses auto actions that occur on Rx Trip with Feedwater trips such as Turbine Trip. Turbine trip does not cause a Feed pump trip but a Feed pump trip does cause a Turbine trip. 2) reactor trip coincident with low Tave. Incorrect because, the Feed Reg Bypass valve does not have any isolation associated with Rx Trip and low Tave. Plausible because this is a Feedwater Isolation to the Feed Reg valves.

B. 1) After the reactor trip, but before the Safety Injection. Incorrect, one S/G level channel will not auto trip Feed pumps. Plausible if student confuses Hi level Feed pump trip coincidence, or confuses auto actions that occur on Rx Trip with Feedwater trips such as Turbine Trip. Turbine trip does not cause a Feed pump trip but a Feed pump trip does cause a Turbine trip. 2) Safety Injection. This is correct.

C. 1) After the Safety Injection. This is correct. 2) reactor trip coincident with low Tave. Incorrect because the SI occurred first. Also, the Feed Reg Bypass valve does not have any isolation associated with Rx Trip and low Tave. Plausible because this is a Feedwater Isolation to the Feed Reg valves.

D. 1) After the Safety Injection. This is correct. 2) Safety Injection. This is correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 008K1.01, Component Cooling Water / 8, Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the CCWS and the following systems: SWS Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.1 IR-SRO: 3.1 Proposed Question: !11

• Unit 1 reactor operating at 100% power.

• A tube leak develops in 1-CC-E-1A, A CCHX.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) The effect on CC Surge Tank level.

2) The CW lines that supply SW to the CCHXs.

A. 1) Rise.

2) 1A/C.

B. 1) Lower.

2) 1B/D.

C. 1) Rise.

2) 1B/D.

D. 1) Lower.

2) 1A/C.

Proposed Answer: B.

Explanation: Component Cooling is at a higher pressure than SW, causing CC to leak into SW, thus CC Surge tank level would lower. The 1B and 1D CW lines supply SW to through 1-SW-MOV-102A/B.

Technical

Reference:

VSP-D7, CC Surge TK HI-LO-LVL, Revision 3 Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-88.5-LP-1, Component Cooling Presentation, Objective A, Describe the major system components including their function and power supply (if applicable), including: CC Surge Tank, Radiation Monitors, CC Pumps, Chemical Addition, CC Heat Exchangers.

ND-89.5-LP-2, Service Water, Objective C, State in general the flowpath of service water from the high level intake to the discharge tunnel for the systems served by service water.

Question Source: New

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.9)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must determine effect on CC Surge Tank level given a CC HX leak, and which CW line supplies the CCHXs.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - 1) is incorrect, CC is at a higher pressure than SW, the leak will cause CC Surge Tank level to drop. Plausible should Candidate confuse which system is at the higher pressure thus direction of flow. 2) Incorrect - CW supply for the SW cooling the CC system is from the 1B/D lines. Plausible should Candidate confuse CW lines that supply CC and the BC systems.

B. Correct - 1) Correct, CC Surge tank level will drop. 2) Correct - SW to the CCHXs is supplied from the 1B/D CW lines.

C. Incorrect - 1) Incorrect, CC is at a higher pressure than SW, the leak will cause CC Surge Tank level to drop. Plausible if Candidate confuse which system is at the higher pressure thus direction of flow. 2) Correct, SW to the CCHXs is supplied from the 1B/D CW lines.

D. Correct - 1) CC Surge tank level will drop. 2) Incorrect - CW supply for the SW cooling the CC system is from the 1B/D lines. Plausible should Candidate confuse CW lines that supply CC and the BC systems.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 009EK3.11, Small Break LOCA / 3, Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as the apply to the small break LOCA: Dangers associated with inadequate core cooling Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.4 IR-SRO: 4.5 Proposed Question: !12 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 and Unit 2 operating at 100%.

• LOCA on Unit 1 causing Reactor trip and SI.

• Charging pump, 1-CH-P-1B started then tripped on lockout, 1-CH-P-1A and C are running.

• Containment pressure is 16.2 psia and slowly rising.

Current conditions:

• RO reports loss of 1H 4160 V bus. EDG 1 did not start.

• RCS pressure is 1082 psig and slowly lowering.

• CETC is 528 oF and stable.

Which of the following states:

1) RCP Trip criteria is _____.

2) The reason RCPs are tripped.

A. 1) Met.

2) Prevent excessive depletion of RCS inventory.

B. 1) Not met.

2) Minimize heat input.

C. 1) Not met.

2) Prevent excessive depletion of RCS inventory.

D. 1) Met.

2) Minimize heat input.

Proposed Answer: C. 1) not met. 2) prevent excessive depletion of RCS inventory.

Explanation: 1) After the loss of 1H bus the remaining Charging pumps 1-CH-P-1A, and 1-CH-P-1C were lost therefore no HHSI pumps are running. The RCP Trip criteria requires tripping all RCPs if BOTH of the following conditions are met: 1) Charging pumps at least one running and flowing to RCS.

AND 2) RCS Subcooling < 30 oF [85 oF]. Calculated Subcooling is 556 oF (Tsat for 1097 psia) minus

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 528 oF = 28 oF subcooling. The second condition is met but the first one is not because there are no charging pumps. Therefore RCP trip criteria is NOT met.

2) The reason for tripping the RCPs is to prevent excessive depletion of RCS water inventory through a small break in the RCS which might lead to severe core uncovery if the RCPs were tripped for some reason later in the accident.

Technical

Reference:

1-E-1, Rev. 43, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant. 1-ES-1.2, Rev. 47, Post Loca Cooldown and Depressurization.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-7, Objective B, Given a copy of E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.5 / 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: RCP trip criteria needs to be done to ensure RCS depletion doesnt lead to inadequate core cooling later if RCPs are tripped. Question poses a SBLOCA problem whereby candidate must determine if RCP trip criteria is met, and also the basis for tripping RCPs therefore the question meets the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet A. 1) met. Incorrect. RCP trip criteria is NOT met because there are no Charging pumps running. Plausible because the Subcooling criteria is met.

2) prevent excessive depletion of RCS inventory. Correct.

B. 1) not met. Correct.

2) minimize heat input. Incorrect RCP trip criteria prevents excessive depletion through a small break in the RCS which might lead to severe core uncovery if RCPs were tripped later in the accident. Plausible if candidate confuses RCP Trip criteria for small break LOCA with other EOP steps requiring tripping of RCPs. For example a small break LOCA 1-ES-1.2, (small break LOCA) step 15 requires tripping all but one RCP to minimize heat input. Also, 1-FR-H.1 step 2 requires stopping all RCPs if Bleed and Feed is required inn order to minimize heat input.

C. 1) not met. Correct.

2) prevent excessive depletion of RCS inventory. Correct.

D. 1) met. Incorrect. RCP trip criteria is NOT met because there are no Charging pumps running. Plausible because the Subcooling criteria is met.

2) minimize heat input. Incorrect RCP trip criteria prevents excessive depletion through a small break in the RCS which might lead to severe core uncovery if RCPs were tripped later in the accident. Plausible if candidate confuses RCP Trip criteria for small break LOCA with other EOP steps requiring tripping of RCPs. For example a small break LOCA 1-ES-1.2, (small break LOCA) step 15 requires tripping all but one RCP to minimize heat input. Also, 1-FR-H.1 step 2 requires stopping all RCPs if Bleed and Feed is required inn order to minimize heat input.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 010K6.02, Pressurizer Pressure Control / 3, Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the PZR PCS: PZR Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.5 Proposed Question: !13 A ground has developed on DC Panel 1-2, causing 1-RC-SOV-101B-1 and 1-RC-SOV-101B-2, PRZR Vent Valves, to fail open.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) The Master Pressure controller output will _______?

2) The PRZR Vent Valves discharge to the ___________?

A. 1) rise

2) Primary Vent Pot B. 1) rise

2) Reactor Cavity C. 1) lower

2) Primary Vent Pot D. 1) lower

2) Reactor Cavity Proposed Answer: D Explanation: Opening of the PRZR vent valves will cause PRZR pressure to lower. The Master pressure controller responds by lowering output to close the PRZR spray valves and cause PRZR heaters to energize to raise PRZR pressure. When 1-RC-SOV-101B-1 / 2 fail open, they vent the top of the PRZR to the reactor cavity.

Technical

Reference:

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-93.4-LP-4, Post Accident Monitoring, Objective A, Describe the flowpath, controls, and interrelationships of the following major components on the Post-Accident Monitoring Control (PAMC) Panel: Pressurizer Head Vent Subsystem. ND-92.4-LP-1, GW and LW, Objective C, Determine the operation of the Vents and Drains System.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must determine effect of vapor space leak on pressurizer cause by the opening of the PRZR Vent Valves and the Effect on the PZR PCS. Also the Candidate must recall the location of the discharge of these valves.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, the Master pressure controller output will lower to energize all PRZR heaters and close the spray valves to return RCS pressure to NOP. Part 2) incorrect, the valves discharge to the Reactor Cavity in order to allow the H2 Recombiner to catalyze the H2 released from the PRZR. Plausible since the Candidate can confuse operation of the PRZR PCS and changes in Master Pressure controller output to adjust RCS pressure, and Primary Vent Pot can be used to capture vents from PRZR Relief Line Vent on the discharge side of the C PRZR SV.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, the Master pressure controller output will lower to energize all PRZR heaters and close the spray valves to return RCS pressure to NOP. Part 2) is correct. Plausible since the Candidate can confuse operation of the PRZR PCS and changes in Master Pressure controller output to adjust RCS pressure C. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, master pressure controller will lower to energize PRZR heaters and close spray valves to return RCS pressure to NOP. Part 2) is incorrect, plausible since the Primary Vent Pot can be used to capture vents from PRZR Relief Line Vent on the discharge side of the C PRZR SV.

D. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 011EK2.02, Large Break LOCA / 3, Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as the apply to the Large Break LOCA: Pumps Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.6 IR-SRO: 2.7 Proposed Question: !14 Initial conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100% power.

• The breaker for 1-SI-MOV-1885C, LHSI Pump "A" Recirc Valve, was found open, and could not be reclosed.

• A Large Break LOCA occurs.

Current conditions:

• The RWST level is 12.5%.

• The Team is currently at 1-ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation; step 5, Align SI System for Recirc.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) Which LHSI pump(s) will automatically align to the RMT mode?

2) Which LHSI pump will normally supply the suction to the HHSI Alternate Header?

A. 1) Both LHSI pumps.

2) B LHSI pump.

B. 1) ONLY the "B" LHSI pump.

2) A LHSI pump.

C. 1) Both LHSI pumps.

2) A LHSI pump.

D. 1) ONLY the "B" LHSI pump.

2) B LHSI pump.

Proposed Answer: C. 1) Both LHSI pumps will align to Recirc Mode 2) A LHSI pump.

Explanation: 1) Recirc Mode Transfer will initiate automatically once RWST is at 13.5% (2/4 coincidence). The first phase of RMT is the automatic opening of the LHSI pump discharge to the HHSI pumps. While the LHSI pump discharge MOVs are opening the LHSI pump recirc valves (MOVs 1885A, 1885B, 1885C, and 1885D) all will attempt to auto-CLOSE. MOV-1885C will not CLOSE because it has a failed breaker, this will not matter as there are two recirc lines and two MOVs per recirc line. MOV-1885B will close and will isolate the recirc line that MOV-1885C is on. RMT will continue as designed and both LHSI pumps will align to the Recirc. Mode. 2) Normally the A LHSI pump will supply the HHSI Alternate Header.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

ND-91-LP-3 Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-91-LP-3, objective E; Explain the operation of the Safety Injection system in response to a RMT initiation signal, including RMT signal setpoint, coincidence, and purpose.

Question Source: Bank (SI00075)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.5 / 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question poses a scenario involving the ability for the LHSI and HHSI pumps to transfer to RMT. The student must have knowledge related to RMT and pump operation in order to determine which pump will shift to the Recirc mode.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Both LHSI pumps. Correct. 2) B LHSI pump. Incorrect, because the A LHSI pump normally supplies Alternate header, while the B LHSI pump supplies the Normal HHSI header. Plausible because candidate could very easily confuse the A and B LHSI pump flow paths.

B. 1) ONLY the "B" LHSI pump. Incorrect, this failure will not significantly affect the Recirc alignment due to the multiple lines that are cross-tied.

Plausible because many pumps have dedicated recirc lines with only one MOV that controls flow path. An example of this would be the High Head SI system (Charging). 2) A LHSI pump. This is correct.

C. 1) Both LHSI pumps. This is correct. 2) A LHSI pump. This is correct.

D. 1) ONLY the "B" LHSI pump. Incorrect, this failure will not significantly affect the Recirc alignment due to the multiple lines that are cross-tied.

Plausible because many pumps have dedicated recirc lines with only one MOV that controls flow path. An example of this would be the High Head SI system (Charging). 2) B LHSI pump. Incorrect, because the A LHSI pump normally supplies Alternate header, while the B LHSI pump supplies the Normal HHSI header. Plausible because candidate could very easily confuse the A and B LHSI pump flow paths.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 011K2.02, Pressurizer Level Control / 2, Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: PZR heaters Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.1 IR-SRO: 3.2 Proposed Question: !15 A loss of off-site power has resulted in the trip of both Units.

• 120 seconds have elapsed since the reactor trip.

Which ONE of the following identifies the Pressurizer heaters energized on Unit 1?

A. None.

B. E Group.

C. E and A Groups.

D. A Group.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Following the loss of an emergency bus, the EDGs will receive an auto start signal. At the time of bus repower, a 180 second time delay is started by the Load Sequencing circuit. Since #3 EDG is designed to align to Unit 2; Unit 1 will have only the H bus energized by #1 EDG, (this bus powers the E Group heaters. Since 2 minutes have elapsed since the reactor trip, the E group have approximately 1 minute remaining before the Load Sequence timer elapses. The B, C, and D Pressurizer heaters are powered from the Station Service buses - these buses are lost on the loss of off-site power.

Technical

Reference:

ND-90.3-LP-7, SS and Emergency Dist Prot and Control, Objective D, Analyze the purpose and effects of Load Sequencing on Emergency Distribution loads.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-90.3-LP-7, SS and Emergency Dist Prot and Control, Objective D, Analyze the purpose and effects of Load Sequencing on Emergency Distribution loads.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must analyze emergency distribution and load sequencing effects to determine which pressurizer heater group on Unit 1 will re-energize after load sequence timers have elapsed.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Load sequencing will lock-out the E group heaters until 180 seconds have elapsed following the re-power of the H bus. Only 120 seconds have elapsed. Unit 1 J 4160V/480V buses remain de-energized since #3 EDG preferentially loads to Unit 2 J bus on loss of off-site power.

B. Incorrect - Load sequencing will lock-out the E group heaters until 180 seconds have elapsed following the re-power of the H bus. Only 120 seconds have elapsed; E group heaters will remain de-energized for an additional 60 seconds.

C. Incorrect - Load sequencing will lock-out the E group heaters until 180 seconds have elapsed following the re-power of the H bus. Only 120 seconds have elapsed. Unit 1 J 4160V/480V buses remain de-energized since #3 EDG preferentially loads to Unit 2 J bus on a loss of off-site power.

D. Incorrect - Unit 1 J 4160V/480V buses remain de-energized since #3 EDG preferentially loads to Unit 2 J bus on a loss of off-site power. A group przr heaters are powered from 1J bus.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 012K5.02, Reactor Protection / 7, Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as the apply to the RPS: Power density Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.1 IR-SRO: 3.3 Proposed Question: !16 Given the following:

• Unit 1 is at a hold point following a refueling outage.

• 1-GOP-1.5, Unit Startup, 2% to Max Allowable power is in progress and all steps are completed for current conditions.

• Control Rods are in Manual with Tave and Tref matched.

• Power Range NIs indicate as follows:

o N-41 37%

o N-42 36%

o N-43 33%

o N-44 36%

• Power Range NI N-44 then fails low.

Which one of the choices below completes the following statements?

1) The current status of the RCS single loop low flow trip (P-8) is ___(1)___.

2) The Reactor Protection System function currently protecting the core against a positive reactivity excursion is the ___(2)___ trip.

A. 1) not blocked

2) Intermediate Range High Flux B. 1) not blocked

2) Power Range High Flux High Setpoint C. 1) blocked

2) Intermediate Range High Flux D. 1) blocked

2) Power Range High Flux High Setpoint Proposed Answer: B. 1) not blocked. 2) Power Range High Flux High Setpoint Explanation: Status light A2, NIS PWR RGE <35% is LIT when 3-of-4 NI channels; N-41 (42,43,44) falls below P-8, 35% power. For the given conditions, only 2/4 Power Range detectors are less than 35%

(N-41, N-44), therefore the expected status light response is NOT LIT. Power Range High Flux High Setpoint is currently protecting core from a reactivity excursion. The intermediate Range High Flux is bypassed at 10% power.

Technical

Reference:

1-GOP-1.5, Rev. 71, Unit Startup, 2% to Max Allowable power.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective:

• ND-93.3-LP-16, Permissive Bypass Trip Status lights, Objective A, When given the permissive number (i.e., P-1, P-2), explain the function of the permissive including the setpoints, and coinci-dence.

• ND-93.3-LP-10, Rx. Protection, Objective C, Explain all RPS reactor trip signals, including setpoints, coincidences, and purpose.

Question Source: Modified Bank: North Anna 2014 Q 39 (modified stem and setpoints to match our plant).

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: A positive reactivity excursion that is unchecked would create an elevated power density somewhere in the core. Therefore the question matches the K/A Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) not blocked. This is correct for part 1.

2) Intermediate Range High Flux. Incorrect because this reactor trip is blocked at this time. Plausible if the student confuses the blocked point with the setpoint because the setpoint is approximately 35%.

B. 1) not blocked. Correct.

2) Power Range High Flux High Setpoint. Correct.

C. 1) blocked. This is incorrect as coincidence is 3 of 4. Plausible if student confuses block with not blocked coincidence.

2) Intermediate Range High Flux. Incorrect because this reactor trip is blocked at this time. Plausible if the student confuses the blocked point with the setpoint because the setpoint is approximately 35%.

D. 1) blocked. This is incorrect as coincidence is 3 of 4. Plausible if student confuses block with not blocked coincidence.

2) Power Range High Flux High Setpoint. This is correct for part 2.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 013G2.2.36, Engineered Safety Features Actuation / 2, Ability to analyze the effect of maintenance activities, such as degraded power sources, on the status of limiting conditions of operations Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.1 IR-SRO: 4.2 Proposed Question: !17 Both Units are operating at 100% power.

• 1615 1-SI-P-1B, B LHSI pump, tagged out for Seal Head Tank repair.

• 2130 #1 EDG Load Limit knob on the UG-8 governor found in position 1 vice greater than 10 position during log rounds.

• 2145 The SRO declares Tech Spec 3.02 in effect, which requires the Unit be placed in at least Hot Shutdown in 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> and in Cold Shutdown in the following 30 hours3.472222e-4 days <br />0.00833 hours <br />4.960317e-5 weeks <br />1.1415e-5 months <br />.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The Tech Spec definition of Cold Shutdown.

2) Is this the correct application of Tech Spec 3.02 for the current plant conditions?

A. 1) The reactor is subcritical by at least 1% k/k and Tavg is 200°F.

2) Yes.

B. 1) The reactor is subcritical by at least 1% k/k and Tavg is 200°F.

2) No.

C. 1) The reactor is subcritical by at least 1.77% k/k and Tavg is 140°F.

2) Yes.

D. 1) The reactor is subcritical by at least 1.77% k/k and Tavg is 140°F.

2) No.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: The Tech Spec Definition of CSD is RCS Tave 200 °F and Reactor Shutdown by at least 1% k/k. A Shutdown Margin of 1.77% k/k is associated with the Administrative Limit which is procedurally driven. The 140 °F RCS Temperature is associated with Refueling Shutdown definition.

With the Load Limit knob on the UG-8 governor in a position other than >10, the EDG cannot be assumed to be able to accept rated load since the Load Limit restricts the movement of the fuel rack lever. With the #1 EDG inoperable, the Emergency power Supply for 1-SI-P-1A has been lost. TS 3.02 allows 1-SI-P-1A to be considered operable if the Normal or Emergency power source is Operable, and

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet the redundant component, 1-SI-P-1B, is also Operable. With 1-SI-P-1B tagged out, the requirements of TS-3.02 cannot be met, thus a TS-3.02 6/30 hour clock is in effect.

Technical

Reference:

Tech Spec 3.02, Rev. 44.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-90.3-LP-1, EDG, Objective M, Describe the Tech Spec requirements for the EDG and support systems, including for SRO candidates, the basis for these requirements.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must apply Tech Specs and system knowledge to determine that EDG cannot be assumed capable of performing its TS related function due to its degraded ability and would be considered degraded.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - part 1) is correct, this statement matches the definition of CSD per TS Section 2.

Part 2) is correct, Per TS 3.02, the A LHSI pump cannot be considered Operable since its emergency power source is inoperable, and its redundant component, B LHSI pump is Inoperable due to being tagged out.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect, TS-3.02 would apply. Plausible if the Candidate does not consider the #1 EDG degraded in assessment of TS-3.02 applicability.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, SDM margin requirement per TS definition of CSD is 1% k/k with RCS Tave 200 °F. Plausible if Candidate confuses Administrative Limit for SDM (1.77%) with TS requirement (1%) and the RCS Tave limit of the CSD Definition (200 °F) with the Refueling SD limit for Tave (140 °F). Part 2) is correct, TS 3.02 is correct for the plant condition given.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, SDM margin requirement per TS definition of CSD is 1% k/k with RCS Tave 200 °F. Plausible if Candidate confuses Administrative Limit for SDM (1.77%) with TS requirement (1%) and the RCS Tave limit of the CSD Definition (200 °F) with the Refueling SD limit for Tave (140 °F). Part 2) is incorrect. Plausible if the Candidate does not consider the #1 EDG degraded in assessment of TS-3.02 applicability.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 013K4.10, Engineered Safety Features Actuation / 2, Knowledge of ESFAS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: Safeguards equipment control reset Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.3 IR-SRO: 3.7 Proposed Question: !18 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100% power when a large break LOCA occurs.

• Containment pressure peaks at 45 psia.

Current Conditions:

• The crew is at 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, step 17 and is attempting to open 1-IA-TV-100.

• The RO reports that Containment pressure is slowly lowering and is as follows:

o 1-LM-PI-100A 15 psia.

o 1-LM-PI-100B 15 psia.

o 1-LM-PI-100C 14 psia.

o 1-LM-PI-100D 15 psia.

• The operator has depressed both CLS Train A (B) RESET buttons.

• SI has been reset.

Which one of the following correctly completes the statements below:

1) After depressing both CLS RESET buttons CLS is _____.

2) When the operator attempts to open 1-IA-TV-100 the valve will ___________.

A. 1) reset 2) remain closed B. 1) not reset 2) open C. 1) not reset 2) remain closed D. 1) reset 2) open Proposed Answer: C Explanation: 1) The CLS reset circuit is made up when 2/4 Containment pressure transmitters sense containment pressure < 14.2 psia AND both CLS RESET buttons are depressed. In this case 1/4 Containment pressure transmitters are < 14.2 psia therefore CLS cannot be reset. 2) 1-IA-TV-100 is part of the phase III isolation and cannot be opened until CLS is reset therefore 1-IA-TV-100 will remain closed.

Technical

Reference:

ARP 1B-D4, Rev. 0. 1-E-1, Rev. 43, CLS TR A RESET PERM. NCRODP 67-S, Containment Isolation.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-92.1-LP-1, Station AIR, Objective D, Describe the flowpaths and components associated with the Containment Instrument Air System.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A because question requires detailed knowledge of CLS reset.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) reset. Incorrect. CLS cannot be reset until the CLS permissive is reached which is when 2/4 Containment pressure transmitters sense containment pressure < 14.2. psia. Plausible if candidate confuses reset coincidence of 2/4 with 1/4. 2) remain closed. This is correct.

B. 1) Not reset. Correct. 2) stroke open. This is incorrect, 1-IA-TV-100 is part of the phase III isolation and cannot be opened until CLS is reset. Plausible if candidate confuses 1-IA-TV-100 with a phase I valve which only requires SI to be reset in order to operate. SI was reset in attachment 1 of E-0 and again in an earlier step of E-1, and is part of initial conditions.

C. 1) Not reset. Correct 2) remain closed. This is correct.

D. 1) reset. Incorrect. CLS cannot be reset until the CLS permissive is reached which is when 2/4 Containment pressure transmitters sense containment pressure < 14.2. psia. Plausible if candidate confuses reset coincidence of 2/4 with 1/4. 2) stroke open. This is incorrect, 1-IA-TV-100 is part of the phase III isolation and cannot be opened until CLS is reset. Plausible if candidate confuses 1-IA-TV-100 with a phase I valve which only requires SI to be reset in order to operate. SI was reset in attachment 1 of E-0 and again in an earlier step of E-1, and is part of initial conditions.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 014K5.01, Rod Position Indication / 1, Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the RPIS: Reasons for differences between RPIS and step counter Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 2.7 IR-SRO: 3.0 Proposed Question: !19 The reactor is operating at 100% power when the following sequence of events occur:

• Initial D Bank rod height 225 Steps.

• The RO is performing 1-OPT-RX-005, Control Rod Assembly partial Movement, for D Control Bank.

• Annunciator G-A6, Rod Cont Sys Urgent Failure is received when Control Bank D begins to move inward.

• Rod Control In-Hold-Out switch placed in Hold.

The following indications are noted by the RO:

• Control Bank D, Group 1 Step counter indicates 224 Steps.

• Control Bank D, Group 2 Step counter indicates 222 Steps.

• Control Bank D, CERPI Group 1 indicates 224 Steps.

• Control Bank D, CERPI Group 2 indicates 222 Steps.

Which ONE of the following identifies the:

1) Power Cabinet affected by the Urgent Failure.

2) The source of the signal for the Individual Rod Position Indicator.

A. 1) Power Cabinet 1BD

2) CRDM LVDT B. 1) Power Cabinet 1BD

2) Slave Cycler C. 1) Power Cabinet 2BD

2) CRDM LVDT D. 1) Power Cabinet 2BD

2) Slave Cycler Proposed Answer: A Explanation: When an Urgent Failure is received in a Power Cabinet, the Stationary and Movable gripper coils both energize at low current to hold the affected rods in position. Cabinet 1 BD operates

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Group 1 Rods in Banks B and D. Cabinet 2 BD operates Group 2 rods in Banks B and D.

Cabinet 1 BD has the Urgent Failure since this group indicates 2 steps higher than Group 2; Group 2 rods continued to move until in-hold-out switch placed in hold position. A Linear variable differential transformer mounted on the CRDM is used to develop a signal to the IRPI; the pulse to analog converter sends a signal to the group step counters to increment/decrement the indication.

Technical

Reference:

ND-93.3-LP-3, Rod Control, Objective F, Explain the resulting actions from an "Urgent Failure" or "Non-urgent Failure" alarm, including the meaning of the alarm and the necessary recovery tasks.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-3, Rod Control, Objective F, Explain the resulting actions from an "Urgent Failure" or "Non-urgent Failure" alarm, including the meaning of the alarm and the necessary recovery tasks. ND-93.3-LP-4, CERPI Sys, Objective B, Using the block diagram provided, examine the following CERPI components: Individual Rod Position Indicators (IRPI).

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must assess differences between CERPI and Group Step Indications to determine cabinet affected by Urgent Failure alarm.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Part 1) Correct. Part 2) Correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) Correct. Part 2) - incorrect, Slave cycler sends a signal to increment the group step counters. Plausible since Rod Control diagram shows the Slave cycler output going to the group step counters, P/A converter (CERPI), and the PCS computer; Candidate can confuse function of outputs to subsystems related to Rod Control.

C. Incorrect -Part 1) - incorrect, by indications given, group 2 rods of Bank D continued to move following receipt of Urgent Failure Alarm, thus could not have been the source of the Urgent Failure alarm. Plausible if Candidate confuses nomenclature designating which power cabinet controls group 1 and group 2 rods of the Bank D. Part 2) is correct.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) - incorrect, by indications given, group 2 rods of Bank D continued to move following receipt of Urgent Failure Alarm, thus could not have been the source of the Urgent Failure alarm. Plausible if Candidate confuses nomenclature designating which power cabinet controls group 1 and group 2 rods of the Bank. Part 2) - incorrect, Slave cycler sends a signal to increment the group step counters. Plausible since Rod Control diagram shows the Slave cycler output going to the group step counters, P/A converter (CERPI), and the PCS computer; Candidate can confuse function of outputs to subsystems related to Rod Control.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 015AK2.10, RCP Malfunctions / 4, Knowledge of the interrelations between the Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunctions (Loss of RC Flow) and the following: RCP indicators and controls Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.8 IR-SRO: 2.8 Proposed Question: !20 With Unit 1 at 100% power, an inadvertent phase III containment isolation occurs. Approximately 15 minutes later, the following RCP temperatures exist:

"A" RCP

• Upper Motor radial bearing 185°F

• RCP lower bearing Seal Water Temp 215°F

• Stator winding 285°F "C" RCP

• Upper Motor radial bearing 180°F

• RCP lower bearing Seal Water Temp 210°F

• Stator winding 305°F In order to mitigate these plant conditions, the crew will monitor RCP temperatures using

_____(1)_______, then initiate 1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, trip the reactor, and stop

_____(2)_______.

A. 1) 1-AP-15.00, Loss of Component Cooling.

2) "C" RCP.

B. 1) 1-AP-15.00, Loss of Component Cooling.

2) "A" RCP.

C. 1) 1-AP-9.00, RCP Abnormal Conditions.

2) "A" RCP.

D. 1) 1-AP-9.00, RCP Abnormal Conditions.

2) "C" RCP.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation: 1-AP-9.00, RCP Abnormal Conditions is required due to elevated RCP temperatures. 1-AP-15.00, Loss of Component Cooling is only required if there is a complete loss of Component Cooling and efforts to restore CC have failed. The C RCP is the only RCP that is required to be tripped because action levels have been reached.

Technical

Reference:

1-AP-9.00, Rev. 35. RCP Abnormal Conditions.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-88.1-LP-6G, Rx. Coolant Pumps; Summarize the content of Abnormal Procedures 9 and 16, and Annunciator Procedures for RCP CC Return Low Flow, RCP Vibrations, and RCS Low Flow, and the EP Continuous Actions Page which require stopping the RCPs.

Question Source: Bank (AOP0249)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.7 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: The question requires knowledge of RCP indications, specifically temperature indications that correlate to requirements for tripping the RCP. Therefore the question matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) 1-AP-15, Loss of Component Cooling. Not correct, because AP-15.00 is used for a total loss of CC. In this case there is only a loss of CC to the RCPs. Plausible because CC is in fact lost to the RCPs due to closure of 1-CC-TV-105B.

2) "C" RCP. This is correct.

B. 1) 1-AP-15, Loss of Component Cooling. Not correct, because AP-15.00 is used for a total loss of CC. In this case there is only a loss of CC to the RCPs. Plausible because CC is in fact lost to the RCPs due to closure of 1-CC-TV-105A.

2) "A" RCP. Incorrect because 1-AP-9.00 Attachment 1 states that the limit for the most limiting parameter (upper motor radial bearing) is 195°F. Plausible because this parameter does have an Action level requirement.

C. 1) 1-AP-9.0, RCP Abnormal Conditions. This is correct.

2) "A" RCP. Incorrect because 1-AP-9.00 Attachment 1 states that the limit for the most limiting parameter (upper motor radial bearing) is 195°F. Plausible because this parameter does have an Action level requirement.

D. 1) 1-AP-9.0, RCP Abnormal Conditions. This is correct

2) "C" RCP. This is correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 017A1.01, In-core Temperature Monitor / 7, Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the ITM system controls including: Core exit temperature Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.7 IR-SRO: 3.9 Proposed Question: !21 Unit 2 initially operating at 100% power, when the following occurs:

• A LOCA outside of CTMT.

• The Reactor is tripped and Safety Injection actuated.

• The RCPs have been tripped due to low RCS subcooling.

• RVLIS Full Range Indicates 42% and stable.

• RCS THOT indicates 650 °F and stable.

• CETCs indicate 660 °F and rising.

Which ONE of the following describes:

1) The temperature indication used on the Core Cooling Status tree.

2) The status of the Core Cooling Status Tree.

A. CETC temperature.

Orange.

B. CETC temperature.

Red.

C. THOT.

Orange.

D. THOT.

Red.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Per the F-2, Core Cooling Status Tree, CETC is used in determining the status of the Core Cooling Status Tree. Under these conditions, the Tree would indicate an Orange Condition.

Technical

Reference:

F-2, Rev. 1A, Core Cooling Status Tree.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-38, FR-C.1, Objective A, Given a simulated plant condition requiring the use of the Critical Safety Function Status Trees, transition through the core cooling status tree denoting, in accordance with the rules of priority, any applicable Function Restoration Procedure needing implementation.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall from memory the setpoint, indications used, and flowpath through the F-2 Status Tree.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1 is correct, CETC temperature is used in the status tree. Part 2) is incorrect, an ORANGE Path would be indicated with the indications provided, Plausible since Candidate must recall and apply the limits of this flowchart to arrive at the correct answer.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, CETC indication is used. Plausible in the Candidate can confuse an indication used in other EOPs (THOT) with the indications used in the status tree (CETC). Part 2) is correct, an ORANGE Path would be indicated.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, CETC indication is used. Plausible in the Candidate can confuse an indication used in other EOPs (THOT) with the indications used in the status tree (CETC). Part 2) is incorrect, with the indications provided, an Orange Path would be indicated. Plausible since Candidate must recall and apply the limits of this flowchart to arrive at the correct answer.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 022A4.03, Containment Cooling /5, Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Dampers in the CCS Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.2 Proposed Question: !22 Unit 2 is performing a Reactor Startup following a forced outage. Shutdown banks are fully withdrawn.

During the outage, a substantial amount of work had been performed in the Pressurizer Cubicle in Containment.

Given the following data:

Initial Condition Parameter Condition 1 Day later PRT Level 78% 78%

PRT Pressure 6 psig 6 psig PRT Temperature 82°F 84°F Weighted AVG CTMT Temperature 97.2°F 101.5°F A PRZR SV Temperature 129°F 152°F B PRZR SV Temperature 140°F 160°F C PRZR SV Temperature 121°F 149°F PRZR PORV Temperature 121°F 148°F Shutdown bank CERPI Indication No change in CERPI Which ONE of the following states the cause for the changes noted between the Initial Conditions and the Conditions found 1 Day later?

A. Cubicle Ventilation Damper position change.

B. CRDM Fan Trips.

C. B PRZR SV Leaking.

D. PRZR PORV leaking.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Based upon past occurrence, the PRZR SV temperatures can elevate after reaching HSD after a maintenance outage approximately 9-11°F per day until temperature stabilizes. With the Ventilation damper re-positioned during work activities, these temperatures can change to a greater magnitude in a shorter time frame. (Data used from Unit 2 Spring outage, 2014; 5/19/2014 @2300 Unit 2 reached HSD).

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective:

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall previous incidents of damper position changes and the effect on containment area temperatures, Also, data provided in the Stem must be analyzed to determine the probable cause for the data changes noted.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct.

B. Incorrect - A loss of CRDM Fan cooling will cause abnormal readings of CERPI indications.

Initial conditions given indicate that CERPI indications are not changing. Plausible if Candidate confuses cause for PRT temperature change with loss of containment air cooling caused by a loss of CRDM fans.

C. Incorrect - B SV temperature has changed; the Candidate should assess this change as related to temperature equalizing at the valve after RCS pressure/temperature change to reach HSD. Plausible if Candidate bases choice on temperature change only.

D. Incorrect - C SV and PORV discharge are located in a relatively close proximity and the same piping. If one or the other was leaking one would be indicating a higher temperature but be close to each other in magnitude. Plausible if Candidate assess choice based on temperature change only.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 022AK1.04, Loss of Rx Coolant Makeup / 2, Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup: Reason for changing from manual to automatic control of charging flow valve controller Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.9 IR-SRO: 3.0 Proposed Question: !23 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 at 50% power and ramping up to 100% in accordance with GOP-1.5, Unit Startup, 2% to Max Allowable Power.

• Rod Control in manual due to hunting in automatic.

Current Conditions:

• Median Tave fails to a stable indication of 550 °F.

• No Operator Actions have been taken.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) The Pressurizer level control setpoint is _______.

2) The automatic charging low flow limit is _______.

A. 1) 24.8%

2) 30 gpm B. 1) 25.8%

2) 30 gpm C. 1) 24.8%

2) 25 gpm D. 1) 25.8%

2) 25 gpm Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation: Median Tave failure affects rod control and the pressurizer level control setpoint. With Rod Control in manual-only pressurizer level setpoint is affected. The failure of Median Tave to an indicated 550 °F, changes the pressurizer level setpoint to 25.8%, and the pressurizer level control system limits minimum CH flow to 25 gpm to reduce the probability of Letdown flashing. 30 gpm is the CH flow low flow alarm setpoint. PRZR level setpoint changes linearly based on Median Tave. Tave is programmed to change from 547 ° to 573° from 0% to 100% power. PRZR level changes from 22.2%

at 547° to 53.7% at 573°. Tave change = 26°; PRZR level change = 31.5%. Ratio: 31.5%/26° =

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 1.21%/°F. 550°-547° = 3°. 3° X 1.21%/°F = 3.63%. 3.63% + 22.2% = 25.8% (Setpoint at 550°). If Candidate inverts the ratio, (3° X 0.825) + 22.2% = 24.8% (distractor setpoint).

Technical

Reference:

ARP 1D-E5, Rev. 4, CHG PP TO REGEN HX HI-LO FLOW.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-7, Press Level Ctrl Sys, Objective B, Reproducing a one-line diagram from memory, explain the operation, including interrelationships, of the Pressurizer Level Control circuitry components.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.8 / 41.10 / 45.3)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must evaluate the effect of Median Tave Failure on Pzr level control system, apply Pzr level control setpoint and effect on CH flow limits. Inherent in this analysis is application of knowledge that CH flow is limited by design while in automatic control mode.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, level setpoint if ratio inverted. Plausible since Candidate could make math error in calculation. Part 2) is the Low Flow alarm setpoint for CH flow.

Plausible in that the Candidate could confuse alarm setpoint with low flow limit.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect, 30 gpm is the low flow alarm setpoint.

Plausible in that the Candidate confuses alarm setpoint with low flow limit.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, level setpoint if ratio inverted. Plausible since Candidate could make math error in calculation. Part 2) - correct, low flow limit for automatic CH flow control.

D. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 022K1.02, Containment Cooling / 5, Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between the CCS and the following systems: SEC / remote monitoring systems Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.7 IR-SRO: 3.5 Proposed Question: !24 Unit 2 is operating at 100% power with Chilled CC in service to containment.

• An operator is verifying the Plant Computer System displays and indications are functioning properly using the laptop computer at the Auxiliary Shutdown Panel.

• 2-CD-REF-1, Unit 2 Turbine Building Chiller trips.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) Containment partial pressure will _______.

2) Containment saturation temperature is sensed at the_______.

A. 1) lower

2) Containment air recirculation fan discharge B. 1) rise

2) Containment air recirculation fan discharge C. 1) rise

2) Containment dome D. 1) lower

2) Containment dome Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Containment partial pressure is derived by subtracting calculated saturation pressure inside containment from Total pressure. The saturation air temperature is determined by an RTD in the discharge of the containment air recirculation fan. On loss of Chilled CC, the temperature will rise, causing the calculated saturation pressure to rise. This results in Indicated Partial Air Pressure to lower. Actual air pressure in containment will rise since the loss of cooling causes higher temperature in containment.

Technical

Reference:

2B-A6, Rev. 9, CTMT Part Press -0.1 PSI CH 1 Reference Provided to Applicant: No

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Learning Objective:

Question Source: Modified Bank (CC00046) Added PCS laptop to stem.

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Cause/effect relationship between cooling and indicated pressure tested. Beaver Valley/March/2005/13 and North Anna/2006/19 questions linked loss of cooling to CTMT recirc fans to effect on CTMT pressure/other means to accomplish function.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Correct - Indicated Partial pressure will lower due to method of calculation. 2) Correct, the saturation air temperature is determined by an RTD in the discharge of the containment air recirculation fan B. 1) Incorrect - Partial pressure calculated will lower, not rise. Inverse of actual effect on partial pressure seen. Plausible if Candidate confuses the method used to calculate partial pressure and the method of determining temperature. 2) Correct, the saturation air temperature is determined by an RTD in the discharge of the containment air recirculation fan.

C. 1) Incorrect - Partial pressure calculated will lower, not rise. Inverse of actual effect on partial pressure seen. Plausible if Candidate confuses the method used to calculate partial pressure and the method of determining temperature. 2) Incorrect, the saturation air temperature is determined by an RTD in the discharge of the containment air recirculation fan. Plausible since there are Containment RTDs throughout containment including the dome that are used to determine Containment temperature. Additionally, the Containment dome would be the hottest place, therefore using this temperature would be conservative.

D. Correct - Indicated Partial pressure will lower due to method of calculation. 2) Incorrect, the saturation air temperature is determined by an RTD in the discharge of the containment air recirculation fan. Plausible since there are Containment RTDs throughout containment including the dome that are used to determine Containment temperature. Additionally, the Containment dome would be the hottest place, therefore using this temperature would be conservative.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 025AA1.04, Loss of RHR System / 4, Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of Residual Heat Removal System: Closed cooling water pumps Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.8 IR-SRO: 2.6 Proposed Question: !25 Initial Conditions

• Unit 1 is in Cold Shutdown, at 190 °F, on RHR, preparing to take the pressurizer solid.

• A RHR pump is running with the A RHR HX in service.

• A CC pump running on Unit 1; D CC pump running on Unit 2. CC is cross-tied.

Current Conditions

• C RSST trips and locks out.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) The status of A RHR pump.

2) The _______ CC pump is running on Unit 1, and the ______ CC pump is running on Unit 2.

A. 1) Running.

2) A; D B. 1) Tripped.

2) B; C C. 1) Running.

2) B; C D. 1) Tripped.

2) A; D Proposed Answer: B.

Explanation: With the lockout of C RSST, the Unit 1 H and Unit 2 J emergency buses will be lost and regained by #1 and #3 EDGs, respectively. Since the RHR and CC pumps are supplied by the Emergency Bus stub bus, the supply breaker to the emergency bus stub bus will trip on the loss of the emergency bus and must be locally closed to restore power to the emergency bus stub bus. A RHR pump, A CC pump, and D CC pump will all trip. B and C CC pumps will receive an auto start signal.

Technical

Reference:

VSP-F6, RES STA SERV XFMR C LOCKOUT, Rev 3.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-90.3-LP-7, SS and Emergency Dist Prot and Control, Objective B, Fault Relays and Interlocks for 4160v and 480v Breakers. ND-88.5-LP-1, Component Cooling Presentation, Objective A, Describe the major system components including their function and power supply (if applicable), including CC Pumps.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must determine status of A RHR pump and Unit 1 and 2 CC pumps following a C RSST trip.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1 is incorrect, A RHR will trip on loss of power. Plausible if Candidate confuses which bus is lost on C RSST lockout. Part 2) is incorrect A and D CC pumps will be lost also on the lockout of C RSST. Plausible if candidate confuses loads affected by C RSST lockout.

B. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, A RHR will trip on loss of power. Plausible if Candidate confuses which bus(es) is lost on C RSST lockout. Part 2) is correct, B and C CC pumps will auto start on low header pressure.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect, incorrect A and D CC pumps will be lost also on the lockout of C RSST. Plausible if candidate confuses loads affected by C RSST lockout.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 026A3.02, Containment Spray / 5, Ability to monitor automatic operation of the CSS, including: Verification that cooling water is supplied to the containment spray heat exchanger Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.9 IR-SRO: 4.2 Proposed Question: !26 Given the following:

• A Large Break LOCA has occurred on unit 1.

• An operator has been assigned to perform 1-E-0, Reactor Trip or SI; Attachment 4, CLS Component verification.

• When checking the valve lineup the operator notices that the red and green light bulbs for 1-SW-MOV-104A, RSHX A SW INLET are NOT lit.

Which one of the following indications does 1-E-0, Attachment 4 direct the operator use to verify that there is adequate flow through the heat exchanger?

A. 1-SW-MOV-103A, RS HX A&D SW SUPPLY; and 1-SW-MOV-105A, RSHX A SW OUTLET red lights LIT.

B. Annunciator 1A-D6, RS HX 1A RAD MON PP NO FLOW is NOT LIT.

C. Flow indication on 1-SW-FI-106A, RS HX A SW Outlet Flow.

D. 1-SW-P-5A, RS SW Radiation Monitor Sample pump red light is LIT.

Proposed Answer: C. Flow indication on 1-SW-FI-106A, RS HX A SW Outlet Flow.

Explanation: There is an indication of SW flow through the heat exchanger outlet on the Vertical section. Attachment 4 of 1-E-0 also checks that there is 6,000 - 12,000 gpm flow through each heat exchanger.

Technical

Reference:

1-E-0, Attachment 4, Rev. 71.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-91-LP-6, Recirc Spray, Objective D; Using a simplified one-line diagram showing the system flow paths and cross-connects, explain the operation of the major Service Water System components serving the Recirculation Spray Heat Exchangers.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: Modified Bank, (North Anna 2004, Q 27), Modified distractors to conform to Surry plant configuration.

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of proper indication of SW flow through the Recirc Spray heat exchangers. With Surrys design Recirc spray is required to operate in conjunction with Containment spray to maintain Containment integrity. Therefore since containment spray does not have a heat exchanger and Recirc spray does and is required to act this matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1-SW-MOV-103A, RS HX A&D SW SUPPLY; and 1-SW-MOV-105A, RSHX A SW OUTLET red lights LIT. Incorrect because 1-SW-MOV-103A is the upstream supply for RX HX A and D, 1-SW-MOV-104A still has to be open to supply flow through RS HX A. Plausible because this could be chosen by the candidate who is unfamiliar with the flow supply through RS HX A.

B. Annunciator 1A-D6, RS HX 1A RAD MON PP NO FLOW is NOT Lit. Incorrect, because this annunciator will be Lit when flow switch senses no flow through Rad monitor. This annunciator being lit or unlit will not verify whether there is adequate flow through the RS heat exchanger.

This answer could be chosen by a candidate who mistakenly believes that this annunciator is associated with SW flow through the heat exchanger.

C. Flow indication on 1-SW-FI-106A, RS HX A SW Outlet Flow. Correct.

D. 1-SW-P-5A red lights LIT. Incorrect, because these lights indicate whether there is a rad monitor pump running on the respective Heat Exchanger. Plausible because this pump will start on a HI-HI CLS shortly after the RS SW HX MOVs open and is a normal indication following flow thru HX. Therefore this choice may be chosen by the candidate who is unfamiliar with the sequence of actions and flow paths in this system.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 027A4.01, Containment Iodine Removal / 5, Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: CIRS Controls Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.3 IR-SRO: 3.3 Proposed Question: !27 Unit 1 is operating at 100% with the following conditions:

• 1-OPT-RC-10. 0, Computer leak Rate Program has trended a rise in Unidentified leakage of 0.1 gpm.

• A Containment entry has been performed and the leak has been identified on the A SG Primary manway.

• HP has requested the Unit 1 Iodine filter fans, 1-VS-F-3A and 3B, be started.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The control switch positions for the Iodine Filter Fans.

2) The location of the controls for the fans.

A. 1) Off / Auto / On.

2) Unit 1 Ventilation Panel.

B. 1) Off / Auto / On.

2) Post Accident Monitoring Panel.

C. 1) Off / On.

2) Post Accident Monitoring Panel.

D. 1) Off / On.

2) Unit 1 Ventilation Panel.

Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation: The Iodine filter fans are normally secured and started only as necessary.

Technical

Reference:

1-RM-Q7, Rev. 5, CTMT Alert/Failure ARP.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-6, Containment Ventilation, Objective C, Describe the purpose and operation of the iodine filtration system.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must correctly choose location of controls for these fans.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, the fans have an Off / On switch. Plausible since Candidate can confuse these switches with the control switch for the Heat Tracing located on the adjacent panel. Fans are controlled from the Unit 1 Vent Panel in MCR. Part 2) is correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, the fans have an Off / On switch. Plausible since Candidate can confuse these switches with the control switch for the Heat Tracing located on the adjacent panel. Part 2) is incorrect, fans are controlled from the Unit 1 Vent Panel in MCR.

Plausible since components such as PRZR and Reactor Head Vent valves are operated from this panel.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect, fans are controlled from the Unit 1 Vent Panel in MCR. Plausible since components such as PRZR and Reactor Head Vent valves are operated from this panel..

D. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 027AA2.02, Pressurizer Pressure Control System Malfunction / 3, Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Pressurizer Pressure Control Malfunctions: Normal values for RCS pressure Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.8 IR-SRO: 3.9 Proposed Question: !28 Given the following:

• Unit 1 is at HSD with only the A RCP running.

• The Master Pressure Controller (MPC) and spray valve controllers are all in auto and set to maintain 1780 psig.

• The RO has been directed to adjust the Master Pressure Controller to maintain a pressure of 2235 psig.

Which ONE of the following is the POT setting of the Master Pressure Controller for 2235 psig?

A. 4.11 B. 6.68 C. 7.45 D. 8.94 Proposed Answer: B. 6.68 Explanation: The range of the Pressurizer Pressure is 1700-2500 psig. The potentiometer is a 0 - 10 turn pot. To set the pot take the ratio of the desired pressure minus the lower span divided by the total range. The formula is as follows: (2235 - 1700) / (2500-1700) = X/10. (535/800) (10) = X. 6.68 = X where X is the pot setting.

Technical

Reference:

ND-93.3-LP-5, Pressurizer Pressure Control Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-5, Pressurizer Pressure Control, Objective B, Using a one-line diagram, drawn from memory, describe all design characteristics of the Pressurizer Pressure Control System, including setpoints, controls, interlocks, inputs, and outputs.

Question Source: NEW Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: This question requires knowledge of Master pressure controller function as well as an understanding of the normal pressure setpoint (2235 psig), therefore this question matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 4.11. Incorrect. Setting is 6.68. Plausible if candidate confuses Pressurizer pressure range (1700-2500), with Wide range pressure range (0-3000) and performs calculation with incorrect range of 1700 -

3000 psig. Calculation as follows: [(2235-1700) / (3000 - 1700)] = x/10; X=4.11.

B. 6.68. Correct.

C. 7.45. Incorrect. Setting is 6.68. Plausible if candidate confuses Pressurizer pressure range (1700-2500), with Wide range pressure range (0-3000) and performs calculation with incorrect range of 0 - 3000 psig. Calculation as follows: [(2235-0) / (3000 - 0)] = x/10; X=7.45.

D. 8.94. Incorrect. Setting is 6.68. Plausible if candidate confuses Pressurizer pressure range (1700-2500), with Wide range pressure range (0-3000) and performs calculation with incorrect range of 0 - 2500 psig. Calculation as follows: [(2235-0) / (2500 - 0)] = x/10; X=8.94.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 028AG2.4.47, Pressurizer Level Malfunction / 2, Ability to diagnose and recognize trends in an accurate and timely manner utilizing the appropriate control room reference material.

Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 4.2 IR-SRO: 4.2 Proposed Question: !29 Pressurizer level transmitter 1-RC-LT-459, Pressurizer Level Protection - Channel I, is selected for control (i.e., as the upper channel).

The reference leg of 1-RC-LT-459 develops a slow leak.

Which ONE of the following describes:

1) How the level indication will change on 1-RC-LT-459.

2) The expected operator action associated with the failure in accordance with 0-AP-53.00, Loss of Vital Instrumentation/Cont.

A. 1) Rise.

2) Place CH flow in manual.

B. 1) Rise.

2) Place CH flow in manual and isolate letdown.

C. 1) Lower.

2) Place CH flow in manual.

D. 1) Lower.

2) Place CH flow in manual and isolate letdown.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation: With 1-RC-LT-1459 reference line leak, the channel will read higher than actual. This will cause CH flow to lower. The operator is expected to place CH flow in manual, change position of the selector switch to an operable detector, and restore CH to Automatic.

Technical

Reference:

0-AP-53.00, Loss of Vital Instrumentation/controls, Rev 21, Step 11. . 1-AP-16.00, Excessive RCS Leakage, Step 1.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-93.1-LP-1, Measurement Systems, Objective C, Apply the theory of operation of level measuring devices.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: Modified Bank (LORP PLC0009)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must determine the effect of the transmitter leak, and utilize knowledge of actions contained in 0-AP-53.00, Loss of Vital Instrumentation/Controls to respond to the condition. These actions are beyond the Immediate Action Steps of the procedure, the operator would have to reference the procedure to respond correctly.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Part 1) is correct, the level indication would rise; read higher than actual. Part 2) is correct, AP-53.00 would be used to place CH flow in manual, and then in Step 11, the channel would be de-selected, and CH flow returned to automatic.

B. Incorrect - Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, the level indication would rise; read higher than actual. Part 2) is incorrect, letdown is not required to be isolated for this failure. Plausible is the Candidate focuses on transmitter leak in the stem of the question and determines that AP-16.00 Immediate Actions are required to quantify RCS leakage.

C. Incorrect - Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, level indication would rise. Plausible if Candidate confuses the effect of a variable leg leak with that of a reference leg leak. Part 2) is correct, AP-53.00 would be used to place CH flow in manual, and then in Step 11, the channel would be de-selected, and CH flow returned to automatic.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, level indication would rise. Plausible if Candidate confuses the effect of a variable leg leak with that of a reference leg leak. Part 2) is incorrect, ,

letdown is not required to be isolated for this failure. Plausible is the Candidate focuses on transmitter leak in the stem of the question and determines that AP-16.00 Immediate Actions are required to quantify RCS leakage.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 029EA2.01, ATWS / 1, Ability to determine or interpret the following as they apply to a ATWS: Reactor nuclear instrumentation Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.4 IR-SRO: 4.7 Proposed Question: !30 An entry into 1-FR-S.1, Response to Nuclear Power Generation ATWS was made from step 1 of E-0, Reactor Trip or SI.

The following conditions currently exist:

• The reactor trip breakers are closed.

• Rods are being inserted manually.

• Control Bank D is at 24 steps.

• Power range instruments are all indicating 8%

• Intermediate Range SUR is negative.

• An operator has just been dispatched to open reactor trip breakers per step 8 of 1-FR-S.1.

Which of the following conditions is required by 1-FR-S.1 to allow a return to 1-E-0?

A. Both of the RPS MG Set output breakers must be opened.

B. Both of the reactor trip breakers must be opened.

C. Power range indication must be reduced below 5%.

D. All rods must be fully inserted.

Proposed Answer: C Power range indication must be reduced below 5%

Explanation: 1-FR-S.1, step 9, Check Reactor Subcritical requires that power range channels be <

5%, and a negative SUR on Intermediate Range NIs. Once these conditions are met, then a return to E-0 is allowed.

Technical

Reference:

1-FR-S.1, Rev. 26, Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-36, FR-S.1, OBJECTIVE B, Given the Major Action Categories associated with FR-S.1, Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS, explain the purpose of FR-S.1, the transition criteria for entering and exiting FR-S.1, and the types of operator actions that will occur within each category.

Question Source: Modified Bank (Harris, 2004; q 47), Modified stem and distractors.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 43.5 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires student to interpret data and determine exit criteria for FR-S.1 which requires an understanding of NI requirements in FR-S.1.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Both of the RPS MG Set output breakers must be opened. Incorrect, FR-S.1 requires that Power Range be < 5% and Intermediate Range SUR is negative. Plausible because this is an action required by FR-S.1 and after this action is performed, power should be < 5%.

B. Both of the reactor trip breakers must be opened. Incorrect because Power range is still > 5%.

Plausible because this is an action required by FR-S.1 and after this action is performed, both reactor trip breakers will be open and power should be < 5%.

C. Power range indication must be reduced below 5%. Correct.

D. All rods must be fully inserted.

Incorrect, FR-S.1 requires that Power Range be < 5% and Intermediate Range SUR is negative.

Plausible because this is an action required by FR-S.1 and after this action is performed, power should be < 5%.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 029G2.1.25, Containment Purge / 8, Ability to interpret reference materials, such as graphs, curves, tables, etc.

Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.9 IR-SRO: 4.2 Proposed Question: !31 Initial Condition:

• Unit 2 Containment pressure has just reached atmospheric.

• The Team is preparing to place Unit 2 Containment on purge using 1-VS-F-58A, in accordance with 2-OP-VS-001, Containment Ventilation.

• The Personnel and Equipment Hatches are closed.

Which ONE of the following completes the following statement?

1) An allowable configuration would consist of ______?

2) The _______ filter is used in the flowpath.

(REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A. 1) Containment Purge and Fuel Building Exhaust

2) CAT II B. 1) Containment Purge Only

2) CAT I C. 1) Containment Purge and Fuel Building Exhaust

2) CAT I D. 1) Containment Purge Only

2) CAT II Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation: Using the provided reference, the initial containment alignment would be to use containment purge and Fuel Building. Using 1-VS-F-58A for the alignment would have fan discharge flow through the CAT I filter.

Technical

Reference:

2-OP-VS-001, Rev. 27, Containment Ventilation. Reference provided from 0-AP-5.20, Radiation Monitor System Ventilation Vent High Alarm, revision 26, Attachment 2. Similar to Table provided in 2-OP-VS-001, Containment Ventilation.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: Yes. 0-AP-5.20, Attachment 2.

Learning Objective: ND-88.4-LP-6, CTMT Vent, Objective D, Describe the operation of the Containment Purge System, including the purpose, flowpaths, and trip signals.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must utilize table on reference to determine allowable alignment. Also recall that 1-VS-F-58A flowpath uses the CAT I filter.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, allowable diversion stream is CTMT and Fuel Building. Part 2) is incorrect, CAT II filter is in 1-VS-F-59 flowpath; this is an alternate flowpath that can be used. Plausible since Candidate can confuse which filter is used in ventilation flowpath.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, allowable diversion stream is CTMT and Fuel Building.

Plausible since Candidate must understand and use Table to find correct answer. Part 2) -

correct.

C. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) - incorrect, only allowable diversion stream is CTMT and Fuel Building.

Plausible since Candidate must understand and use Table to find correct answer. Part 2) is incorrect - CAT II filter is in 1-VS-F-59 flowpath; this is an alternate flowpath that can be used. Plausible since Candidate can confuse which filter is used in ventilation flowpath.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 035A2.05, Steam Generator / 4, Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the SGS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Unbalanced flows to the S/Gs Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.4 Proposed Question: !32 Unit 2 is currently stable at 75% power.

The B Feed Reg Valve demand begins to slowly lower causing Annunciator 1H-G6, STM GEN 1B LVL ERROR, to actuate.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The effect this will have on the indicated power by Instantaneous Calorimetric.

2) The procedure used to respond to this event.

A. 1) Lowers.

2) 2-AP-21.00, Loss of Main Feedwater Flow.

B. 1) Rises.

2) 2-AP-21.00, Loss of Main Feedwater Flow.

C. 1) Lowers.

2) 0-AP-53.00, Loss of Vital Instrumentation/Controls.

D. 1) Rises.

2) 0-AP-53.00, Loss of Vital Instrumentation/Controls.

Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation: With FRV demand lowering, a reduction in feed flow will occur. This reduction will tend to Lower the Indicated Power calculated by the calorimetric; calorimetric normally based on Feed flow (UFM detector).

Technical

Reference:

0-AP-53.00, Rev. 21.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-8, SGWLC, Objective D, Evaluate the effects and required operator actions for a failure of an input to the SGWLC System. ND-93.4-LP-12, Abnormal Procedures,

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Objective K, Given a copy of 1-AP-53.00, describe the actions taken for a loss of vital instrumentation or controls.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.5)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must assess direction of FRV response based on demand change, and effect of this change on Calorimetric calculation.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, the lowering of Feed flow will cause the calculated Calorimetric power to lower. Part 2) is incorrect, 2-AP-21.00 is incorrect procedure to use. Plausible since.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, calorimetric would lower. Plausible in that Candidate must correctly assess effect of feed flow change on indicated calorimetric power. Part 2) incorrect, 2-AP-21.00 is incorrect procedure to use. Plausible in that the Candidate must assess plant condition and implement appropriate action. Entry Conditions for AP-21.00, Loss of Main Feedwater Flow, in Part The Reactor is in the Power Range and a reduction in Main FW flow occurs as indicated by one or more of the following: 1H-G6, STM GEN 1B ERROR.

C. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, calorimetric would lower. Plausible in that Candidate must correctly assess effect of feed flow change on indicated calorimetric power. Part

2) is correct. 0-AP-53.00 is the correct procedure to respond to the event.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 038EK1.02, Steam Gen. Tube Rupture / 3, Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts they apply to the SGTR: Leak rate vs. pressure drop Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.5 Proposed Question: !33 The Operating Team is in E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture and have completed RCS cooldown and depressurization. CHG pump suction has been aligned to the VCT.

The following Unit conditions exist:

• PRZR level is 35% and slowly rising.

• Affected S/G NR level is 68% and lowering.

• RCS pressure is 985 psig.

• Affected S/G pressure is 1000 psig.

Which ONE of the following actions should be taken by the Operating Team?

(REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A. Depressurize RCS and raise CHG flow.

B. Lower CHG flow and depressurize the RCS.

C. Turn on PRZR heaters.

D. Raise CHG flow.

Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation: IAW Step 36 Table of E-3, with PZR level of 35%/rising, and SG NR level 68%/lowering, the guidance would be to turn on PRZR heaters.

Technical

Reference:

1-E-3, Rev. 51, Steam Generator Tube Rupture, Step 36 Table.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank (LAOP0151, reordered distractors)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.8 / 41.10 / 45.3)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must determine, given the stated conditions, that the ruptured SG is back flowing into the RCS. The Table requires energizing pressurizer heaters to equalize SG and RCS pressure to stop backflow.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Depressurizing the RCS and raising CH flow is not appropriate for these conditions. Plausible should Candidate apply table guidance for PRZR level < 35%,

however PRZR level is equal to 35% and rising.

B. Incorrect - These actions would be appropriate if PZR level was between 65% and 69%

with the same trend in ruptured SG level. Plausible since Candidate could apply these actions from the table incorrectly.

C. Correct - Energizing PZR heaters is appropriate if PZR level is between 35% and 65% with the given change in SG level.

D. Incorrect. Raising CHG flow is appropriate if SG level is lowering and PRZR level is <35%.

Plausible if Candidate applies requirements for lowering SG NR level only.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 039K3.04, Main and Reheat Steam / 4S, Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the MRSS will have on the following: MFW pumps Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.5 IR-SRO: 2.6 Proposed Question: !34 Given the following:

• Unit 1 is at 100 % power.

• A complete separation of the Main steamline piping upstream of the MSR Steam Supply to the A & C MSRs (30 pipe) occurs.

Which ONE of the following describes the effect this will have on the

1) Main Feed pumps.

2) Main Steam Trip valves.

A. 1) Remain running.

2) Remain open.

B. 1) Trip.

2) Remain open.

C. 1) Remain running.

2) Close.

D. 1) Trip.

2) Close.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation: The separation of this steamline would immediately create a high steamline flow. A Hi Steam flow signal will cause a Main Steam Trip Valve closure and will generate a Safety Injection which will trip the Main Feed pumps.

Technical

Reference:

ND-89.1-LP-2, Main Steam system. ND-89.3-LP-3, Main Feedwater system.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-89.1-LP-2, Main Steam system, objective B, Describe the major components of the Main Steam System, including the operation of that component and the specific reason for the component.

ND-89.3-LP-3, Main Feedwater system, objective B, Describe the major main feedwater system

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet components including, if applicable, their functions, power supply and operation.

• Main Feed Pumps

• MFP Recirc Valves

• MFP Start Interlocks

• MFRVs

• MFP Trip Signals

• FRV Bypass Valves

• MFP Discharge MOVs

• Instrumentation Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.6)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: The question poses a malfunction of the Main Steam and Reheat system (rupture) and asks for the effect on Main Feed pumps. This is a direct match to the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Both parts are incorrect. Plausible if candidate confuses the effects that a rupture at this location of main steamline piping would cause, and fails to realize that a High Steamline flow would be generated. A small rupture would not cause a Hi steamline flow which would result in the Main Steam Trip valves remaining open and the Main Feed pumps continuing to run. Therefore this is a viable choice. Also if rupture is upstream of Main Steam Trip valve then a Header to Line SI would occur which is an SI signal but would not close Main Steam Trip valves.

B. Part 1 is correct, part 2 is incorrect. Plausible if candidate confuses the effects that a rupture at this location of main steamline piping would cause. A rupture upstream of the Main Steam Trip valves would not cause a Hi Steam flow, but could cause a Header to Line SI which would not close the Main Steam Trip valves, but would trip the Main Feed pumps. Therefore this is a viable choice.

C. Part 1 is incorrect, part 2 is correct. Plausible if candidate recognizes that a High steam flow will close the main steam trip valves but fails to recognize that a Hi steamline flow will also generate a a Safety Injection signal which will trip the Main feed pumps. Therefore this is a viable choice.

D. Correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 040AG2.1.30, Steam Line Rupture - Excessive Heat Transfer / 4, Ability to locate and operate components, including local controls.

Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.4 IR-SRO: 4.0 Proposed Question: !35 Initial Conditions:

Unit 1 operating at 100% power.

• A Steam line in Unit 1 alleyway ruptures.

• Station Service buses are lost on swap-over to Reserve Station Service Transformers following a manual reactor trip.

• Individual MSTV close switches on Benchboard fail to operate.

• MSTV Emergency close switch on Vertical Board fails to close the MSTVs.

Which one of the following states:

1) The redundant MSTV Emergency Close Switch, is located on the Appendix R panel in _______.

2) Operation of this switch ________ the MSTV close SOVs?

A. 1) Unit 1 ESGR.

2) Energizes.

B. 1) Unit 1 ESGR.

2) Deenergizes.

C. 1) Unit 2 ESGR.

2) Energizes.

D. 1) Unit 2 ESGR.

2) Deenergizes.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Emergency close switch is located in Unit 1 ESGR. SOVs are energize to function to close the MSTVs. Switch supplied by a battery which is charged by a battery charger.

Technical

Reference:

ND-89.1-LP-2, Main Steam System, Objective B, Describe the major components of the Main Steam System, including the operation of that component and the specific reason for the component. Page 6 of LP.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Learning Objective: ND-89.1-LP-2, Main Steam System, Objective B, Describe the major components of the Main Steam System, including the operation of that component and the specific reason for the component.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must identify correct location of redundant emergency close switch and whether the switch energizes/deenergizes an SOV to close the MSTV.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct. Both 1) and 2) are correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect. Plausible in that Candidate must recall specific function of the switch.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect. Part 2) is correct. Plausible in that Candidate can confuse the location of the Appendix R distribution panel (located in the opposite Units ESGR) with the Appendix R panel located in the respective Units ESGR.

D. Incorrect - Both Part 1) and 2) are incorrect. Plausible in that Candidate must recall specific function of the switch, Candidate can confuse the location of the Appendix R distribution panel (located in the opposite Units ESGR) with the Appendix R panel located in the respective Units ESGR.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 045K3.01, Main Turbine Generator / 4S, Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the MT/G system will have on the following: Remainder of the plant Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 2.9 IR-SRO: 3.2 Proposed Question: !36 Unit 1 is placing the Unit on-line in accordance with 1-OP-TM-001, Turbine - Generator Startup to 20%

- 25% Turbine Power.

• Steam Dumps are in Auto in steam pressure mode.

• Reactor Power has been raised to 8%.

• P-7 NIS POWER RANGE AND TURBINE POWER < 10% is LIT.

• When the second Generator output breaker, OCB-G1T240 is closed, Annunciator 1F-E1, GEN BACKUP LOCKOUT REL TRIP, comes in due to a fault.

Which one of the following correctly describes the effect this will have on:

1) The reactor.

2) Main Generator output breakers.

Reactor Main Gen output breakers A. trip trip open after 30 seconds B. not trip trip open after 30 seconds C. trip trip open immediately D. not trip trip open immediately Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation: Initially the reactor power is at 8% with turbine generator startup in progress. The Station service busses are supplied from offsite power. The annunciator, 1F-E1, GEN BACKUP LOCKOUT REL TRIP, comes in due to a fault causing a Generator Backup Lockout to occur. The Generator backup lockout then causes a turbine trip, generator output breakers to trip and lock out immediately, open voltage regulator excitation contactor, and trip and lock out Station Service Supply breakers. The reactor does not trip because P-7 status light indicates that P-7 isstill bypassing the turbine to reactor trip.

Technical

Reference:

ND-90.1-LP-7, 1-OP-TM-001, Turbine generator startup, Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-90.1-LP-7, OBJECTIVE E, Given a Main Generator protective device actuation, evaluate the possible causes for the actuation, protection provided by the actuation, and the effect on plant operation.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: Modified Bank (LORP LGEN0052), modified stem and distractors.

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.6)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: The question poses a scenario regarding a MTG fault which requires the student to analyze the conditions, the fault to determine the effect on the plant. This question directly matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect/incorrect. Reactor tripping is incorrect because the reactor does not trip because P-7 isstill bypassing that trip. Plausible if student confuses P-7 permissive lit/not lit indications and what they mean. Gen output breakers tripping open after 30 seconds is incorrect. The gen output breakers trip open immediately, however on a turbine trip at power with no fault a Gen backup lockout occurs 30 seconds after motoring starts making this plausible.

B. Correct/incorrect. Incorrect because the gen output breakers trip open immediately, however on a turbine trip at power with no fault a Gen backup lockout occurs 30 seconds after motoring starts making this plausible.

C. Incorrect/correct. Rx tripping is incorrect because P-7 isstill bypassing that trip. Plausible if student confuses P-7 permissive lit/not lit indications and what they mean.

D. Correct

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 054AK3.05, Loss of Main Feedwater / 4, Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Main Feedwater (MFW): HPI/PORV cycling upon total feedwater loss Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.6 IR-SRO: 4.7 Proposed Question: !37 Plant conditions are as follows:

• The team was performing 1-E-0 in response to a faulted steam generator outside containment.

• Upon transition from 1-E-0, the STA reported a red path on HEAT SINK.

• The team has entered 1-FR-H.1 (Loss of Secondary Heat Sink).

• AFW flow to all steam generators is 110 gpm each which is being supplied by 1-FW-P-3A (the only operating AFW pump).

• SG levels are A- 11% WR B- 27% WR C- 0% WR.

• RCS Thot - 525°F and stable.

• Pressurizer level - 88% and rising

• Pressurizer pressure - 2235 psig.

• 1-RC-PCV-1455C is cycling open and closed.

Which ONE of the following states the actions required by the team in response to these conditions?

A. Initiate RCS bleed and feed due to PRZR PORV cycling.

B. Transition back to procedure and step in effect.

C. Initiate RCS bleed and feed due to insufficient SG Level.

D. Feed one (1) Steam Generator at the maximum rate.

Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation: Plant conditions must be assessed to determine whether bleed and feed criteria have been met based on PRZR cycling, or SG WR levels insufficient (2/3 < 12% WR); return to procedure and step in effect; or feed one SG at maximum rate. Based on parameters given, bleed and feed should be initiated due to inadequate SG WR level.

Technical

Reference:

1-FR-H.1, Rev. 37, Loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-41, FR-H.1, Objective C, Given a copy of FR-H.1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

Question Source: Modified Bank (Stem and Distractors)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.5, 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must assess that PRZR PORVs cycling due to high level to discriminate between responses to determine correct reason to initiate RCS Bleed and Feed or perform other listed actions.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Bleed and Feed is initiated if SG WR levels are < minimum by WR indication OR RCS pressure - Greater than 2235 psig due to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, in this response the PRZR PORV is cycling due to high PRZR level. Plausible if Candidate if confused by concept of PORV cycling/open due to loss of heat sink.

B. Incorrect - With two SGs below 12% WR, Bleed and Feed is required. Actual given AFW flow is 330 gpm which is below the minimum (350). Also FR-H.1 cannot be exited until one SG is > 12% NR. Plausible since Candidate may confuse indicated AFW flow as meeting requirements to exit procedure.

C. Correct - Based on SG WR levels Bleed and Feed is required.

D. Incorrect - With two SGs below 12% WR, Bleed and Feed is required. Plausible since Candidate may confuse conditions provided with requirements to feed one SG at maximum rate for a Hot/Dry SG.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 055A3.03, Condenser Air Removal / 4S, Ability to monitor automatic operation of the CARS, including: Automatic diversion of CARS exhaust Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 2.5 IR-SRO: 2.7 Proposed Question: !38 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 operating at 100% power.

• A SGTR occurs on the A SG, the reactor is tripped and safety injection actuated.

• The Team has completed the Rapid Cooldown of 1-E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture.

• The Air Ejector discharge has been re-aligned to Containment.

Current Conditions:

• The A SG faults inside of Containment.

• Hi and Hi-Hi CLS have actuated.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) The position of 1-SV-TV-102A, AE DISCH TO CTMT SFGD TV, is ___________?

2) The position of 1-SV-TV-102, AE DISCH TO CTMT TB TV, is ____________?

A. 1) open

2) open B. 1) closed

2) closed C. 1) closed

2) open D. 1) open

2) closed Proposed Answer: B.

Explanation: From the initial conditions 1-SV-TV-102, and 1-SV-102A were opened to align Condenser Air Ejector exhaust to containment. 1-SV-TV-102A will initially close as a result of the SI but can be re-opened when the SI is reset. When Hi CLS actuates, another SI signal will be generated that closes 1-SV-TV-102A; the Hi CLS signal will close 1-SV-TV-102. When SI is reset, 1-SV-TV-102A can be manually re-opened but no information has been given to indicate that SI has been reset. 1-SV-TV-

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 102 will automatically re-open if the AE Rad Monitor High Alarm is active, and Hi/Hi-Hi CLS signals are manually reset when CTMT pressure drops below 14.2 psia on 2/4 channels.

Technical

Reference:

ND-93.5-LP-1, Pre-TMI Rad Monitor. ND-91-LP-4 SI Operations. ND-91-LP-5, CS System.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.5-LP-1, Pre-TMI Rad Monitor, Objective B, Determine the operation of the Victoreen Process Radiation Monitoring System. ND-91-LP-5, CS System, Objective A, Describe the operations of the Consequence Limiting Safeguards System, including coincidence, logics, setpoints and actions occurring upon system actuation.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must assess Unit Conditions and apply knowledge of how A/E discharge to CTMT is affected on Hi CLS/SI signal actuation during a SGTR.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Both of these TVs will close when Hi-CLS/SI actuates as CTMT pressure rises due to the A SG fault in CTMT. Plausible if Candidate assumes that blocking of RCS Low Pressure/Hdr-to-Line and HSF SI signals, which occurs prior to or during the RCS rapid Cooldown of 1-E3, also prevents Hi CLS actuation.

B. Correct - Both Trip valves will shut. 1-SV-TV-102A closes when Hi CLS generates an SI signal; 1-SV-TV-102 closes when Hi CLS actuates.

C. Incorrect - as described above, both valves receive a close signal. Plausible if Candidate correctly applies SI signal effects, but does not account for Hi CLS effect on 1-SV-TV-102A.

D. Incorrect - as described above, both valves receive a close signal. Plausible if Candidate correctly applies SI signal effects, but does not account for Hi CLS effect on 1-SV-TV-102.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 055EK3.02, Station Blackout / 6, Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as the apply to the Station Blackout: Actions contained in EOP for loss of offsite and onsite power Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.3 IR-SRO: 4.6 Proposed Question: !39 ECA-0.0, Loss of all AC Power, Step 21, directs the operator to:

Depressurize all Intact SGs to 300 psig Which ONE of the following describes the reason for stopping the pressure reduction at 300 psig?

A. Prevent losing pressurizer level.

B. Minimize inventory loss out of RCP seals.

C. Prevent voiding in the Reactor Vessel upper head.

D. Prevent SI Accumulator Nitrogen into the RCS.

Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation: SG depressurization is stopped at 300 psig to prevent N2 injection from SI accumulators. What the step accomplishes is to utilize the SI Acc inventory to provide a makeup to the RCS due to assumed leakage from RCP seals. This provides time to pursue restoration of power before core uncovery occurs.

Technical

Reference:

1-ECA-0.0, Rev. 39.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-17, ECA-0.0, B. Given a copy of ECA-0.0, Loss of All AC Power, explain the basis of each step of the procedure.

Question Source: Modified Bank (Farley, 2008, question 39).

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.5 / 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must identify reason for loss of all on-and off-site power procedure step.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Notes prior to referenced Step of ECA-0.0 lists loss of PRZR level as an expected occurrence - stopping of depressurization is not required. Plausible since Candidate can apply requirements of other EOP steps to this condition.

B. Incorrect - Reason, in part, to depressurize is to minimize inventory loss from RCP seals.

Plausible since Candidate could confuse this concept and apply to reason for securing the depressurization.

C. Incorrect - Note prior to Step lists upper head voiding as a condition that could be expected and not secured because of the voiding. Plausible since the Candidate may apply concept of other EOP steps in this Plant condition.

D. Correct - SGs depressurization is stopped at 300 psig to ensure the most liquid inventory is injected into the RCS, but sufficient level remains to prevent N2 injection.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 057AG2.4.50, Loss of Vital AC Inst. Bus / 6, Ability to verify system alarm setpoints and operate controls identified in the alarm response manual.

Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.2 IR-SRO: 4.6 Proposed Question: !40 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 at 100%

• A transient causes the following annunciators to alarm:

o 1K-B8, UPS SYSTEM 1B TROUBLE.

o 1C-B1, RCP 1B CC RETURN LO FLOW o 1E-G4, RX TRIP CH-2 PRZR LO PRESS Current Conditions:

• The non-licensed operator dispatched reports the red INVERTER SUPPLYING LOAD light is NOT lit for UPS 1B-1.

• Indication on 1-FW-FCV-1488 (B FRV Controller) is:

o Auto Light - NOT LIT o Manual Light - NOT LIT

• The control room team is currently performing actions per 1K-B8, UPS System 1B Trouble.

Which one of the following describes:

1) The method of control for feed flow to B SG.

2) The Abnormal Procedure that should be utilized?

A. 1) Throttle 1-FW-MOV-154B and 1-FW-HCV-155B as necessary.

2) 1-AP-10.04, Loss of Vital Bus IV.

B. 1) Manual control using the pushbutton on the FRV controller.

2) 1-AP-10.02, Loss of Vital Bus II.

C. 1) Throttle 1-FW-MOV-154B and 1-FW-HCV-155B as necessary.

2) 1-AP-10.02, Loss of Vital Bus II.

D. 1) Manual control using the pushbutton on the FRV controller.

2) 1-AP-10.04, Loss of Vital Bus IV.

Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation: Indications presented indicate a loss of vital bus II. ARP 1K-B8 direct AP-10.02 to be followed if the red Inverter supplying load light is not lit. ND-93.1-LP-3, Generic Instrument failures states, if power is lost to the M/A station in the MCR, the controller will shift to Auto-Hold. In this condition, neither the Auto light nor the Manual light on the M/a STATION IS LIT. The operator has no

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet control over the parameter/valve in this condition. The demand sent to the valve positioner will remain at exactly the same value that it was before the loss of power. 1-AP-10.02, Loss of Vital Bus II, states that 1-FW-FCV-1488 will transfer to AUTO-HOLD if Vital Bus II is lost. The AP further directs that 1-FW-MOV-154B, and 1-FW-HCV-155B be throttled as necessary to control SG B level.

Technical

Reference:

1-AP-10.02, Rev. 22, Loss of Vital Bus II Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.1-LP-3D, Generic Instrumentation Failures, Objective D; Explain the effects of a loss of power to various components of a controller.

ND-90.3-LP-5E, Vital and Semi-Vital Bus Distribution, Objective G; Given a loss of a Vital or Semi-Vital bus, describe the effect on Plant indications and controls, including actions taken IAW applicable APs to address the loss.

Question Source: Modified Bank (AOP0250)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.3)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires interpretation of vital bus indications and effects on FRV controllers. Question also test the ability to operate controls (B FRV controller) for a loss of vital bus including specific actions that must be taken.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Throttle 1-FW-MOV-154B and 1-FW-HCV 155B as necessary. This is correct.

2) 1-AP-10.03, Loss of Vital Bus III. This is incorrect as 1-AP-10.02 is the correct procedure because a loss of vital bus II will cause this FRV controller to go into auto-hold. Plausible because this vital bus is also a B train vital bus and this is a viable choice if candidate confuses which UPS supplies each respective Vital bus.

B. 1) Manual control using the pushbutton on the FRV controller. This is incorrect as the conditions are for an auto-hold condition which will not allow operation at the controller.

Plausible because a loss of vital bus III will cause a loss of rack controller requiring operation of this FRV in Manual control as stated.

2) 1-AP-10.02, Loss of Vital Bus II.

C. 1) Throttle 1-FW-MOV-154B and 1-FW-HCV 155B as necessary. This is correct.

2) 1-AP-10.02, Loss of Vital Bus II. This is correct.

D. 1) Manual control using the pushbutton on the FRV controller. This is incorrect as the conditions are for an auto-hold condition which will not allow operation at the controller.

Plausible because a loss of vital bus III will cause a loss of rack controller requiring operation of this FRV in Manual control as stated.

2) 1-AP-10.03, Loss of Vital Bus III. This is incorrect as 1-AP-10.02 is the correct procedure because a loss of vital bus II will cause this FRV controller to go into auto-hold. Plausible because this vital bus is also a B train vital bus and this is a viable choice if candidate confuses which UPS supplies each respective Vital bus.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 058AA1.02, Loss of DC Power / 6, Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of DC Power: Static inverter dc input breaker, frequency meter, ac output breaker and ground fault detector Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.1 IR-SRO: 3.1 Proposed Question: !41 Which ONE of the following breakers, if open, will cause a Vital Bus UPS Static Switch to shift to the alternant source?

A. Battery Charger AC Input.

B. Battery Charger DC Output.

C. Inverter DC Input.

D. Battery Bus DC Input Breaker.

Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation: Battery charger AC input is rectified to DC in the UPS. The DC output breaker feeds the Inverter and supplies a float charge to the battery/battery bus. The Inverter can be powered from the Battery or the DC battery charger output. The common breaker for these parallel paths is the Inverter DC Input breaker. If this breaker is open, the UPS static switch will shift the alternate source.

Technical

Reference:

ND-90.3-LP-5, Vital and Semi-Vital Bus Distribution, Objective B, Describe the components and indications associated with an Uninterruptable Power Supply (UPS).

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-90.3-LP-5, Vital and Semi-Vital Bus Distribution, Objective B, Describe the components and indications associated with an Uninterruptable Power Supply (UPS).

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6)

Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must know that Inverter can be powered from the DC Bus or from the Battery charger. As long as either the Battery bus or the Battery Charger has power, the Vital bus will have power available from the Inverter through the static switch. If the Inverter DC input breaker is opened, the static switch must shift to the alternate source.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - This is one of two parallel sources available to power a Vital Bus from the UPS Static Switch. Plausible if Candidate confuses power arrangement inside UPS to Static Switch.

B. Incorrect - The Battery charger is one of the two sources that can supply the UP Inverter, which in turn supplies the UPS static switch. Plausible if Candidate confuses power arrangement inside UPS to the Static Switch.

C. Correct - This breaker is common to either of the parallel sources to the UPS Inverter which feeds the UPS static switch. When breaker is opened, the only source of power to Vital bus through the static switch is the alternate source.

D. Incorrect - This is one of two available sources of DC power to the UPS inverter, which in turn supplies the UPS static switch. Plausible if Candidate confuses power arrangement inside UPS to Static Switch.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 059A1.07, Main Feedwater / 4S, Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the MFW controls including: Feed Pump speed, including normal control speed for ICS Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.5 IR-SRO: 2.6 NRC APPROVED.

Proposed Question: !42 Unit 1 is currently at 60% power and is performing a startup.

1-FW-P-1B, B Main Feed Pump, is running.

Shortly after starting 1-FW-P-1A, A Main Feed Pump, the operator observes the Main Feed Pump tripping.

Which ONE of the following conditions could have caused 1-FW-P-1A, A Main Feed Pump to trip?

A. Feed pump Lube oil pressure at 8 psig.

B. C Station Service Bus voltage at 68%.

C. Feed flow < 3000 gpm and Recirc valve, 1-FW-FCV-150A not fully open.

D. Feed pump Suction pressure at 430 psig.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation: Feed flow < 3000 gpm and Recirc valve not fully open, is one of the 10 Main Feed Pump trips. Feed flow immediately downstream of Feedwater discharge MOV provides the controlling signal to the Recirc Flow control valve.

Technical

Reference:

ND-89.3-LP-3, Main Feedwater Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-89.3-LP-3, Main Feedwater, Objective B, Describe the major main feedwater system components including, if applicable, their functions, power supply and operation.

• Main Feed Pumps

• MFP Recirc Valves

• MFP Start Interlocks

• MFRVs

• MFP Trip Signals

• FRV Bypass Valves

• MFP Discharge MOVs

• Instrumentation

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: NEW Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.5)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: The question requires the candidate to predict the feed pump trip conditions following attempt to start the Main Feed pump. The Main feed pump doesnt have an ICS control system for speed, therefore flow was used as parameter.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Feed pump Lube oil pressure at 8 psig. Incorrect, Low lube oil pressure trip is < 4 psig.

Plausible because this is below the start permissive of 10 psig.

B. C Station Service Bus undervoltage at 68%. Incorrect because the power supply for 1-FW-P-1A is the A 4160V Station Service bus. Plausible because 1-FW-P-1B2 is powered from the C SS bus and this would be below the trip setpoint.

C. Feed flow < 3000 gpm and Recirc valve not fully open. Correct.

D. Feed pump Low Suction pressure at 430 psig. Incorrect because the setpoint for the low suction pressure trip is < 55 psig. Plausible because < 450 psig is the operational limit for starting the second Feed pump per 1-OP-FW-004.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 059A4.08, Main Feedwater / 4S, Ability to manually operate and monitor in the control room: Feed regulating valve controller Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.0 IR-SRO: 2.9 Proposed Question: !43 Which ONE of the following describes the control available if the power to a MFRV controller is lost in the associated instrument rack in the relay room?

A. The M/A station will shift to manual and can be controlled manually from the MCR.

B. The M/A station will shift to Auto-Hold and cannot be controlled from the control room.

C. The output of the controller will raise to 100% demand.

D. The output of the controller will lower to 0% demand.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation: On Loss of power to the controller in the Relay Room, the M/A station on the control board will shift to Manual, and the parameter can be controlled from the benchboard.

Technical

Reference:

ND-93.1-LP-3, Objective D, Loss of Power to a Controller.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.1-LP-3, Objective C, Explain the basic layout/arrangement of a controller, including the Manual/Auto station.

Question Source: Bank (MFW0019)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must know that loss of power to controller in relay room causes M/A station to shift to Manual.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Loss of power to Controller causes M/A station to shift to manual and allows manual control from the MCR.

B. Incorrect - Loss of power to M/A station causes controller to shift to auto-hold. Plausible since Candidate can confuse status of the M/A station during a loss of power to the controller or M/A station.

C. Incorrect - Question asks for operation on loss of power. Plausible since Candidate can confuse effect of loss of air to the control system with loss of power to the M/A station/Controller.

D. Incorrect - Question asks for operation on loss of power. Plausible since Candidate can confuse effect of loss of air to the control system with loss of power to the M/A station/Controller.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 060AK1.02, Accidental Gaseous Radwaste Rel. / 9, Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Accidental Gaseous Radwaste Release:

Biological effects on humans of the various types of radiation, exposure levels that are acceptable for personnel in a nuclear reactor power plant; the units used for radiation intensity measurements and for radiation exposure levels Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 2.5 IR-SRO: 3.1 Proposed Question: !44 Given the following:

• An accidental gaseous radwaste release has occurred in the Waste Gas Decay Tank Room.

• A Site Area Emergency has been declared due to dose at the site boundary of 200 mRem/hr.

• Radiation protection has determined that radiation dose level in the room is 1,000 mRem/hr.

A Surry Power Station worker assigned to enter the room has a current year-to-date TEDE of 700 mRem.

The MAXIMUM total time the worker can be in the room without exceeding their maximum allowed Administrative exposure limit with NO extensions is _____ hour(s)?

A. 3.50 B. 1.00 C. 1.85 D. 2.30 Proposed Answer: B. 1.00 hour0 days <br />0 hours <br />0 weeks <br />0 months <br /> Explanation: Per VPAP-2101, Radiation Protection Program, the Administrative Dose limit (TEDE) for Radiation workers is 2.0 rem/calendar year at the workers home site. The Administrative Dose limit is 3.0 rem/calendar year for concurrent sites. Since the question states this is a Surry Power Station worker then the employees limit is 2.0 rem/calendar year. VPAP-2101 further states an administrative control is in effect requiring an upgrade (extension approval) if a workers annual dose exceeds 85%.

This is to provide reasonable assurance that a worker will not exceed the administrative dose limit. The correct answer was derived by taking admin limit of 2 rem times 85% to calculate limit of 1700 mrem and then dividing by room dose rate of 1,000 mrem/hr.

Max allowable stay time = [(2000 x .85)-(700)] / (1000 mrem/hr). Max allowable stay time = 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />.

Technical

Reference:

VPAP-2101, Rev. 35, Radiation Protection Program.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-81.2-LP-3, External Exposure Control, Objective D, Explain the station administrative exposure limits, including necessary requirements and limitations for extensions.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.8 / 41.10 / 45.3)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: The question requires an understanding of the acceptable whole body exposure allowed under accident conditions. The question matches the K/A Distractor Analysis:

A. 3.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />. Incorrect, Admin limit is 2000 mrem R and this stay time would yield an exposure of 4.2 R. Plausible if candidate confuses Site Admin limit with Federal limit of 5.0 Rem for max allowable exposure [(5000 x .85)-(700)] / (1000 mrem/hr). Max allowable stay time = 3.55 hours6.365741e-4 days <br />0.0153 hours <br />9.093915e-5 weeks <br />2.09275e-5 months <br />.

B. 1.0 hour0 days <br />0 hours <br />0 weeks <br />0 months <br />. Correct.

C. 1.85 hours9.837963e-4 days <br />0.0236 hours <br />1.405423e-4 weeks <br />3.23425e-5 months <br />. Incorrect, Admin limit is 2000 mrem R and this stay time would yield an exposure of 2.55 R. Plausible if candidate confuses Site Admin limit with Fleet admin limit of 3.0 Rem for max allowable exposure [(3000 x .85)-(700)] / (1000 mrem/hr). Max allowable stay time = 1.85 hours9.837963e-4 days <br />0.0236 hours <br />1.405423e-4 weeks <br />3.23425e-5 months <br /> D. 2.3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br />. Incorrect, Admin limit is 2000 mrem R and this stay time would yield an exposure of 2.55 R. Plausible if candidate confuses Site Admin limit with Fleet admin limit of 3.0 Rem for max allowable exposure [(3000)-(700)] / (1000 mrem/hr). Max allowable stay time = 2.3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br />.

Note: did not apply the 85% to make number more plausible.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 061K1.04, Auxiliary/Emergency Feedwater / 4S, Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between the AFW and the following systems: RCS Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.9 IR-SRO: 4.1 NRC APPROVED.

Proposed Question: !45 The team is performing 1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, with plant conditions as follows:

• Containment pressure is 27 psia and rising slowly.

• A S/G parameters o Pressure- 650 psig and lowering slowly.

o Level- 57% WR and lowering slowly.

• B S/G parameters o Pressure 120 psig and lowering rapidly.

o Level- 15% WR and lowering rapidly.

• C S/G parameters o Pressure 630 psig and lowering slowly.

o Level- 56% WR and lowering slowly.

• Pressurizer level 0%.

• Pressurizer pressure 1200 psig and lowering.

• RCS Tave- 512 °F and lowering at a rate of 120 °F/hr.

Which ONE of the following states the minimum required AFW flow to the S/Gs in accordance with E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, Attachment 8?

A. A S/G- 100 gpm; B S/G- 100 gpm; C S/G-100 gpm B. A S/G- 175 gpm; B S/G- 0 gpm; C S/G- 175 gpm C. A S/G- 60 gpm; B S/G- 60 gpm; C S/G- 60 gpm D. A S/G- 225 gpm; B S/G- 0 gpm; C S/G- 225 gpm Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation: Under the given conditions, B SG is faulted. AFW should be isolated to this SG.

Minimum required AFW to the INTACT SGs is 450 gpm (Adverse CTMT Number); A and C should be fed at ~225 gpm each, until SG NR level has been restored to 18%. Given that all S/G pressure and levels are lowering, candidate must assess whether all three S/Gs are faulted, or if A and C S/G parameters are changing due RCS Cooldown caused by B S/G fault.

Technical

Reference:

1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, Attachment 8, Faulted SG Isolation and AFW Flow Control, Step 5.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-3, E-0, Objective B, Given a copy of E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

Question Source: Bank (EOP0370) small modification of AFW Flow numbers for plausibility.

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must assess plant conditions and determine the required AFW flow for these conditions.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - For these conditions the minimum is 450 gpm, with the CTMT adverse, and B SG AFW isolated due to being faulted. Plausible if Candidate applies minimum AFW flow for Adverse CTMT if all 3 SGs are faulted due to lowering trends on all SGs.

B. Incorrect - Total AFW not accounting for Adverse CTMT and correct flow to Intact SGs.

Plausible if Candidate disregards Adverse CTMT conditions.

C. Incorrect - Total AFW required is 450 gpm. Plausible if Candidate applies Minimum AFW flow requirements for 3 faulted SGs and does not account for adverse CTMT conditions.

D. Correct - minimum required AFW flow is established and flow to intact SGs.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 061K5.05, Auxiliary/Emergency Feedwater / 4S, Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as the apply to the AFW: Feed line voiding and water hammer Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.7 IR-SRO: 3.2 Proposed Question: !46 In accordance with 1-AP-21.01, Response to AFW Check Valve Backleakage, which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The temperature on an AFW pump casing where the pump is considered vapor bound.

2) Which of the AFW pumps is aligned and cooled FIRST if all AFW pumps are found to be vapor bound?

A. 1) 200°F.

2) Motor Driven.

B. 1) 200°F.

2) Turbine Driven.

C. 1) 165°F.

2) Motor Driven.

D. 1) 165°F.

2) Turbine Driven.

Proposed Answer: B.

Explanation: IAW 1-AP-21.01, specific guidance for closure of AFW discharge valves one (1) SG, or closure of one header of AFW MOVs to allow for cooldown of AFW piping due to Check Valve backleakage occurs when AFW header temperature exceeds 165 °F. AFW pumps are placed in PTL and cooled down by recircing the pump from the below ground tank to the above ground tank if pump casing temperatures exceeds 200 °F.

Technical

Reference:

1-AP-21.01, Response to AFW Check Valve Backleakage, Revision 5.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-8.3-LP-4, Aux Feed Sys., Objective C, Operate, in accordance with plant abnormal procedures, the Auxiliary Feed System during abnormal conditions.

Question Source: New

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall from memory specific limitations as described in 1-AP-21.01.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, 200°F casing temperature is considered as vapor bound. Part

2) is incorrect, 1-AP-21.01 Attachment 2 Note requires the TDAFW pump be cooled FIRST if all AFW pumps are vapor bound. Plausible if Candidate fails to recall requirements of AP-21.01.

B. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, 165 °F is the temperature where Attachment 1 of AP-21.01 requires Header temperatures be logged every two (2) hours, and where decisions are made to isolate AFW discharge to allow cooling if a check valve is leaking. Part 2) is incorrect, AP-21.01 requires that the TDAFW pump be cooled first. Plausible since Candidate must recall procedure requirements from memory.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, 165 °F is the temperature where Attachment 1 of AP-21.01 requires Header temperatures be logged every two (2) hours, and where decisions are made to isolate AFW discharge to allow cooling if a check valve is leaking. Part 2) is correct. Plausible since Candidate must recall procedural requirement from memory.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 062A4.04, AC Electrical Distribution / 6, Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Local operation of breakers Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.6 IR-SRO: 2.7 Proposed Question: !47 Initial Conditions:

Unit 1 A DC Bus is lost due to a fault, causing a reactor trip.

Current Conditions: (11 minutes following the reactor trip)

A Large Break LOCA occurs on Unit 1.

The Team decides to locally start 1-CS-P-1A, A CS Pump.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) Parameter(s) used to identify 1-CS-P-1A has been successfully started.

2) Does 1-CS-P-1A breaker, 1-EP-BKR-14H5, have overcurrent trip protection?

A. 1) Red breaker position indicating light and 1-CS-P-1A amps.

2) No.

B. 1) Red breaker position indicating light and 1-CS-P-1A amps.

2) Yes.

C. 1) 1-CS-P-1A amps only.

2) Yes.

D. 1) 1-CS-P-1A amps only.

2) No.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation: 1H 4160 V bus will remain energized from offsite power - control power to open/close breakers remotely has been lost. Control power has been lost to energize the breaker position light for 1-CS-P-1A, but overcurrent protection is still available; the breaker is a 480V - thus has inherent overcurrent protection.

Technical

Reference:

ND-90.3-LP-7, SS and Emergency Distribution and Control, Objective B, Describe the fault relays and interlocks for 4160V and 480V Station Service and Emergency distribution breakers.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant:

Learning Objective: ND-90.3-LP-7, SS and Emergency Distribution and Control, Objective B, Describe the fault relays and interlocks for 4160V and 480V Station Service and Emergency distribution breakers.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 / to 45.8)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must assess conditions and determine what parameters remain to determine locally operated breaker status and whether overcurrent protection is available.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - 1) red breaker position light has no power to illuminate. 2) Breaker will have overcurrent protection since it is a 480V breaker. Plausible since Candidate must determine that when breaker closed, breaker has no control power. Also, based on breaker type, will the component trip on an overcurrent condition.

B. Incorrect - 1) red breaker position light has no power to illuminate. 2) is correct, breaker can open on overcurrent. Plausible since Candidate must determine that when breaker closed, breaker has no control power. Also, based on breaker type, will the component trip on an overcurrent condition.

C. Correct. 1) Correct. 2) correct.

D. Incorrect - 1) Correct. 2) Incorrect. Plausible since Candidate must determine, based on breaker type, that the component can trip on an overcurrent condition.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 062AA2.04, Loss of Nuclear Svc Water / 4, Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Nuclear Service Water: The normal values and upper limits for the temperatures of the components cooled by SWS Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.5 IR-SRO: 2.9 Proposed Question: !48 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 is operating at 100%.

• 1-SW-P-10A, CHG PUMP SW PUMP, is running in HAND, 1-SW-P-10B, CHG PUMP SW PUMP is in Auto.

• 1-CH-P-1C, CHARGING PUMP is running.

• 1D-G5, SW OR CC PPS DISCH TO CHG PPS LO PRESS has just alarmed.

Current Conditions:

• Reactor Operator reports the following:

o 1-SW-P-10A has tripped, and 1-SW-P-10B remains in standby.

o Highest reading Charging pump bearing temperature is 179oF and rising.

Which ONE of the following describes:

1) The Reactor Operator can monitor Charging pump SW flow on the _______.

2) 0-AP-12.00, Service Water Abnormal, states that the affected Charging pump should be secured once bearing temperature exceeds ______.

A. 1) Vertical board 2) 195oF B. 1) PCS 2) 185oF C. 1) PCS 2) 195oF D. 1) Vertical board 2) 185oF Proposed Answer: B.1) PCS 2) 185oF.

Explanation: Per annunciator procedure 1D-G5, SW OR CC PPS DISCH TO CHG PPS LO PRESS, step 3 RNO, the operator should monitor Charging pump CC and SW flows on the PCS. Charging pump bearing temperatures are rising and per 0-AP-12.00 the pump must be secured if temperature exceeds 185 oF.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

1D-G5, Rev. 4, SW or CC Disch to Chg PPS LO PRESS. 0-AP-12.00, Service Water System Abnormal Conditions, Rev. 14.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No.

Learning Objective: ND-89.5-LP-2, Objective D, Explain the system interconnections associated with the Service Water Systems, flowpaths affected and safety implications of stop logging, and abnormal procedures associated with the systems.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of upper limits of operation for Charging pumps and scenario posed requires the candidate to choose the correct action and correct value of charging pump bearing temperature with a loss of service water.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Vertical Board. Incorrect. There are no Chg pump SW flow indications on the Vertical Board.

Plausible if the operator confuses other SW flow indication; Recirc Spray SW flow for example, with Charging pump SW flow indication. 2) 195 oF, Incorrect. 1-AP-12.00 requires securing the Charging pump once temp. exceeds 185 oF, not 195 oF which is the temp. 1-AP-9.00 requires securing a Reactor coolant pump . Plausible if candidate confuses the temp to secure charging pumps with the temp for securing reactor coolant pumps.

B. 1) PCS. Correct. 2) 185 oF. Correct.

C. 1) PCS. Correct. 2) 195 oF, Incorrect. 1-AP-12.00 requires securing the Charging pump once temp. exceeds 185 oF, not 195 oF which is the temp. 1-AP-9.00 requires securing a Reactor coolant pump . Plausible if candidate confuses the temp to secure charging pumps with the temp for securing reactor coolant pumps.

D. 1) Vertical Board. Incorrect. There are no Chg pump SW flow indications on the Vertical Board.

Plausible if the operator confuses other SW flow indication; Recirc Spray SW flow for example, with Charging pump SW flow indication. 2) 185 oF. Part 2 is correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 063K2.01, DC Electrical Distribution / 6, Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: Major DC loads Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.9 IR-SRO: 3.1 Proposed Question: !49 Given the following conditions:

• Unit 1 tripped from 100% power due to loss of on-site and off-site power.

• The team is performing 1-ECA-0.0, Loss of all AC Power.

• The AAC EDG has not been loaded on an emergency bus.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The power source for Unit 1 Annunciator System is _________.

2) The Black Battery is supplies the _________.

A. 1) A Station Battery

2) Seal Oil Backup Pump B. 1) B Station Battery

2) Emergency Oil Pump C. 1) A Station Battery

2) Emergency Oil Pump D. 1) B Station Battery

2) Seal Oil Backup Pump Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation: The Annunciator System is powered from the H Emergency Bus and the A DC Bus.

In ECA-0.0, both emergency buses on the Unit are de-energized, removing the AC source to the Annunciators, which leaves the A battery to continue powering the A battery bus. The air side seal oil backup pump and Emergency Oil Pump are powered from the Black Battery.

Technical

Reference:

1-AP-10.06, Loss of DC Power. 0-AP-10.13, Loss of Main Control Room Annunciators.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-89.2-LP-2, Turbine Support Systems, Objective A, Describe the Turbine Oil System. ND-90.3-LP-6, 125 VDC Distribution, Objective B, Describe the power supplies to and loads

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet supplied by the Black Battery system. ND-90.1-LP-1, Main Generator and Support, Objective D, Describe the components and alarms associated with the Hydrogen Seal Oil System. ND-93.4-LP-7, Misc Monitoring Equipment, Objective D, Describe the operation of the Main Control Room Annunciator Systems, to include the following: Hathaway System power supplies, Hathaway cabinet components and indications, alarm storage and sequence retrieval, annunciator bench board controls, annunciator alarms considered as Trip Indicators and/or Trip Demands.

Question Source: Modified Bank (From EOP0415, Modified distractors and Stem).

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. . Candidate must DC power source to Annunciator System and loads supplied by the black battery.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, A battery will be supplying annunciators. Part 2) is incorrect, the Seal oil backup pump (Turb Lube Oil System) is powered from the H emergency bus.

Plausible since the Air Side Seal Oil Backup pump (H2 Seal oil System) is powered from the black battery and the Candidate could confuse the power sources for these pumps due the similarity of the noun names.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, A battery bus is the source. Plausible since the Candidate can confuse the loads supplied by A and B DC buses. Part 2) is correct.

C. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, A battery bus is the source. Plausible since the Candidate can confuse the loads supplied by A and B DC buses. Part 2) is incorrect, the Seal oil backup pump (Turb Lube Oil System) Is powered from the H emergency bus. Plausible since the Air Side Seal Oil Backup pump (H2 Seal oil System) is powered from the black battery and the Candidate could confuse the power sources for these pumps due the similarity of the noun names.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 064K2.03, Emergency Diesel Generator / 6, Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: Control power Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.6 Proposed Question: !50 Current Condition on Unit 1:

• 1-EP-BKR-15H8 (1H Bus Normal Supply from RSS) tripped open spuriously.

• #1 EDG has started but failed to load.

• A field operator reports the exciter field circuit breaker on #1 EDG is tripped.

Which ONE of the following best completes the following statement regarding the ability to transfer fuel to the #1 EDG?

The Fuel Oil System (1) be able to transfer fuel oil to the Base Tank and (2) be able to transfer fuel to the Wall Tank.

A. (1) will not (2) will not B. (1) will not (2) will C. (1) will (2) will D. (1) will (2) will not Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Power supply to the diesel transfer pumps that feed the wall tank are 1H1-1 and 1H1-2, which will not have power if #1 EDG does not load. If the generator field is not flashed, power will not be available to 1-EE-P-2A/2B to transfer fuel oil from the wall tank to the base tank.

Technical

Reference:

ND-90.3-LP-1, EDG Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-90.3-LP-1, EDG, OBJECTIVE B, Describe the components and flowpaths of the EDG Air Start, Fuel Oil, Cooling, and Lubricating Oil Systems.

Question Source: Bank; LORP LEDG0062

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of DG Control power, specifically Exciter field flash and the effects if this is lost. This question matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. (1) will not. Correct.

(2) will not. Correct.

B. (1) will not. Correct.

(2) will. Incorrect, power supply to the diesel transfer pumps that feed the wall tank are 1H1-1 and 1H1-2, which will not have power if #1 EDG does not load.

C. (1) will. Incorrect, if the generator field is not flashed, power will not be available to 1-EE-P-2A/2B to transfer fuel oil to the base tank.

(2) will. Incorrect, power supply to the diesel transfer pumps that feed the wall tank are 1H1-1 and 1H1-2, which will not have power if #1 EDG does not load.

D. (1) will. Incorrect, if the generator field is not flashed, power will not be available to 1-EE-P-2A/2B to transfer fuel oil to the base tank.

(2) will not. Correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 067AK3.02, Plant Fire On-site / 8, Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Plant Fire on Site: Steps called out in the site fire protection plan, FPS manual, and fire zone manual Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 2.5 IR-SRO: 3.3 Proposed Question: !51

• 0-VSP-C8, Fire Detected, has alarmed.

• Zone 3009, VS-FL-3A, 1-VS-F-58A filter, is indicated on the fire display panel.

• The BOP has initiated 0-AP-48.00, Fire Protection - Operations response, Attachment 2.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The type of fire protection for this filter.

2) The method of actuation.

A. 1) CO2.

2) Automatic.

B. 1) CO2.

2) Manual.

C. 1) Deluge.

2) Automatic.

D. 1) Deluge.

2) Manual.

Proposed Answer: B.

Explanation: The CO2 system for VS-FL-3A, 1-VS-F-58A filter has three means of actuation specified in 0-AP-48.00, Attachment 2. The first is to actuate using the pushbutton in the MCR, the second is to use the pushbutton actuation locally at the filter, the third is to use the local manual throw over lever.

Deluge is used as fire protection for the VS-F-59 filter inlet, which can be aligned to the Aux Bldg general area.

Technical

Reference:

0-AP-48.00, Rev. 33, Fire Protection - Operations Response, Attachment 2.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-92.2-LP-1, Fire Protection, Objective B, Describe the areas protected, components, actuating sequence, and interlocks of the High and Low Pressure CARDOX Systems.

ND-92.2-LP-1, Fire Protection, Objective F, Given a reported fire or loss of domestic water, break down

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet the actions taken as set forth in AP-48.00, Fire Protection - Operations Response, and AP-49.00, Loss of Domestic Water.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.5,41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall from memory locations where CO2 can be operated for the particular component.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect. 58 Fan filter is not an automatically actuated function. Plausible since other protected items supplied by CO2 are automatically actuated, with manual as a backup.

B. Correct - Per Attachment 2 of 0-AP-48.00, CO2 is actuated from the MCR, at the filter, or using a local manual throw over lever.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect. Deluge is used on VS-F-59 filter. Plausible since this filter is similar to the VS-F-58A filter, is located near the 58A fan filter, but is not qualified at the same level. Part 2) is incorrect, actuation of fire protection for the 58A filter is manual only.

Plausible since other deluge protected components have an automatic initiation.

D. Incorrect- Part 1) is incorrect, Deluge is used on VS-F-59 filter. This filter is similar to the VS-F-58A filter, is located near the 58A fan filter, but is not qualified at the same level.

Plausible since the VS-F-59 filter is similar to the 58A filter, located nearby, and has a manual fire protection system. Part 2) is correct, fire protection is manually actuated.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 068AA2.10, Control Room Evac. / 8, Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Control Room Evacuation: Source range count rate Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 4.2 IR-SRO: 4.4 Proposed Question: !52 Initial Conditions

• Both units at 100% power.

• The Control Room is evacuated due to a Limiting Main Control Room Fire.

• All actions per 0-FCA-001, Limiting MCR Fire were taken prior to evacuation.

Current Conditions (20 minutes later)

• Operator dispatched to perform 0-FCA-11.0, Remote Monitoring.

• Operator reports that Unit 1, Neutron flux indicators; 1-NFI-NM-190A & B, are reading offscale low at the Remote Monitoring Panel.

Unit Supervisor directs the operator to switch 1-NFI-NM-190A & B to the alternate power supply using the Appendix R switch.

Which of the following describes:

1) The expected Nuclear Instrument indication at the Remote Monitoring panel.

2) The location of the alternate power App R switch for 1-NI-NFI-190 A & B.

A. 1) between 102 and 103 cps.

2) Cable Tray Room Unit 2.

B. 1) between 104 and 105 cps.

2) Cable Tray Room Unit 2.

C. 1) between 102 and 103 cps.

2) Emergency Switchgear Room Unit 2.

D. 1) between 104 and 105 cps.

2) Emergency Switchgear Room Unit 2.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation: Power will drop rapidly to 1% and then decrease at a rate of approximately -1/3 DPM.

Therefore it is expected that SR indication after 20 minutes would be between 102 and 103 cps which corresponds to between 10-7% and 10-6% on wide range indication. The normal Power supply for Unit 1 Excore Flux Monitor is Vital Bus 1-1, the alternate power supply is Vital Bus 2-3, with the switch being located in ESGR unit 2.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

0-FCA-011, Rev. 5, Remote Monitoring. ND-93.2-LP-5, Excore Fission Chamber.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.2-LP-5, Excore Fission Chamber, objectives C and D. Objective C:

Describe the location of major components including the instrumentation readouts. Objective D: Appraise the sources of the normal and alternate power supplies.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Part 1 of question asks for operator to determine SR indication found on Remote monitoring panel, therefore this question matches the K/A Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) between 102 and 103 cps. This is correct SR indication.

2) Cable Tray Room Unit 2. This is incorrect as the switch is located in ESGR Unit 2. Plausible if candidate confuses this App R switch with other Appr switches. There is another switch to switch the Unit 1 and Unit 2 Remote Monitoring panel to an alternate source and that switch is located in Cable Tray Room Unit 2.

B. 1) between 104 and 105 cps. This is incorrect because this indication is too high by 2 decades. Plausible if student applies -1/3 DPM from 100% power instead of from 1%. Value of 104 and 105 cps represent a 7 decade drop from 100%.

2) Cable Tray Room Unit 2. This is incorrect as the switch is located in ESGR Unit 2. Plausible if candidate confuses this App R switch with other Appr switches. There is another switch to switch the Unit 1 and Unit 2 Remote Monitoring panel to an alternate source and that switch is located in Cable Tray Room Unit 2.

C. 1) between 102 and 103 cps. Correct.

2) ESGR Unit 2. Correct.

D. 1) between 104 and 105 cps. This is incorrect because this indication is too high by 2 decades. Plausible if student applies -1/3 DPM from 100% power instead of from 1%. Value of 104 and 105 cps represent a 7 decade drop from 100%.

2) ESGR Unit 2. Correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 068K1.07, Liquid Radwaste / 9, Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between the Liquid Radwaste System and the following systems: Sources of liquid wastes for LRS Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 2.7 IR-SRO: 2.9 Proposed Question: !53 Both Units are operating at 100% power.

Which ONE of the following water sources is collected in the High/Low Level Liquid Waste Tanks prior to transfer to the SRF?

A. Laundry Drains.

B. Contaminated Drain Tank.

C. Auxiliary Building sump pump discharge.

D. VCT Drain.

Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation: The laundry Drain are collected in the Contaminated drain tanks, then pumped to the SRF. VCT and SI Header Drains are collected in the PDT, then pumped to the Boron Recovery tanks before processing for release. The Auxiliary Building sump collects leakage that contains air. These sumps are pumped to the Liquid Waste Tanks, where they are stored prior to processing for release.

Technical

Reference:

ND-92.4-LP-1, GW and LW, Objective C, Determine the operation of the Vents and Drains System. ND-92.4-LP-1, GW and LW, Objective D, Determine the operation of the Liquid Waste System.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-92.4-LP-1, GW and LW, Objective C, Determine the operation of the Vents and Drains System. ND-92.4-LP-1, GW and LW, Objective D, Determine the operation of the Liquid Waste System.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall which system leakage/drains are collected in the High or Low Level Waste Tanks, prior to processing and release.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Laundry Drains are collected in the Contaminated Drain Tanks. Plausible if Candidate confuses storage location for Laundry drain with fluids stored in HL/LL Waste Tanks.

B. Incorrect - The Contaminated Drain Tank collects the Laundry Drains which is pumped to the SRF for processing. Plausible since the Candidate confuse sources to CDT with sources to LW system.

C. Correct - This is an open air sump that collects leakage, and is pumped to the LW system.

D. Incorrect - VCT is drained to the PDT. This drain path is collected in the BRT. Plausible since under outage conditions where the VCT is to be completely drained for maintenance, in accordance with 0OP-CH-009, VCT Operations, the VCT can be drained to a floor drain, which would be pumped to HL/LL waste tanks; VCT maintenance would be accomplished when the Unit is shutdown, not at power.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 073A1.01, Process Radiation Monitoring / 7, Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) operating the PRM system controls including:

Radiation levels Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.5 Proposed Question: !54 Given the following:

• Unit 1 is at 100%, Unit 2 is in a Refueling Shutdown.

• 1-GW-RM-130A, Rad Monitor Process Vent Particulate indication spiked high causing the following alarms:

o 0-RMA-C5, Process Vent Rad Mon Trbl.

o 0-RMA-C6, Process Vent Part Alert / Hi.

Which ONE of the following describes the plant response?

A. 1-IA-TV-101A, and 1-IA-TV-101B, Unit 1 Containment Instrument Air compressor suctions will swap to outside air.

B. 1-CV-P-1A, and 1-CV-P-1B, Unit 1 Containment vacuum pumps will trip.

C. 1-SV-TV-103, Air Ejector Discharge to Vent-Vent Trip valve will automatically close.

D. 1-GW-FCV-160, Unit 1 vacuum pump discharge valve, will automatically close.

Proposed Answer: D. Unit 1 vacuum pump discharge valve will automatically close.

Explanation: When a high alarm on RM-130A/B/C (Process Vent MGPI particulate/normal-range gas/high-range gas) sounds, the solenoids are de-energized to shut the WGDT bleed FCV and the containment vacuum pump discharge valves (GW-FCV-160/260). The operator must turn off the vacuum pump to prevent rupturing the discharge hose on the vacuum pump discharge Technical

Reference:

ND-88.4-LP-5, CTMT Vacuum. ARP 0-RMA-C5/C6, Rev. 3, Process Vent Rad Mon Trbl/ Process Vent Part Alert/Hi Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-88.4-LP-5, CTMT Vacuum, Objective B; Describe the operation of the containment vacuum system, including all of the starting and stopping signals for the containment vacuum pumps.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: Modified Bank (North Anna 2008 RO, Q 51. Modified Stem and Distractors)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis:

Question requires ability to predict system response upon receipt of a high radiation alarm, therefore question matches the K/A Distractor Analysis:

A. Unit 1 Containment Instrument Air compressor suctions will swap to outside air. Incorrect. Unit 1 vacuum pump discharge valves will close. Plausible because the Containment Instrument Air compressor suction swap is an automatic action, but for a different radiation monitor (RM-159, 160 Containment Hi particulate/gaseous) therefore this choice could be chosen if candidate confuses auto actions for this rad monitor.

B. Unit 1 vacuum pump will trip. Incorrect. Discharge valves will close. Plausible if the candidate confuses auto actions with required operator actions because tripping the vacuum pumps tripping is required to avoid rupturing the discharge hose.

C. 1-SV-TV-103, Air Ejector Discharge to Vent-Vent Trip valve will automatically close. Incorrect.

Unit 1 vacuum pump discharge valves will close. Plausible because the closure of 1-SV-TV-103 is an automatic action, but for a different radiation monitor (RM-159, 160 - Condenser air ejector) therefore this choice could be chosen if candidate confuses auto actions for this rad monitor.

D. Both units vacuum pump discharge valves will automatically close, pumps will remain running.

Correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 076AK2.01, High Reactor Coolant Activity / 9, Knowledge of the interrelations between the High Reactor Coolant Activity and the following: Process radiation monitors Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 2.6 IR-SRO: 3.0 Proposed Question: !55 Unit 2 is shutdown and has been borated to CSD boron concentration in preparation for Cooldown to CSD for a Refueling outage.

Chemistry has notified the Team that the RCS crud burst has been initiated.

Which ONE of the following describes:

1) The FIRST Radiation monitor that will detect the increased RCS Activity caused by the crud burst.

2) Which CVCS filter is monitored for differential pressure during the crud burst cleanup?

A. 1) Letdown Radiation monitor.

2) Reactor Coolant filter.

B. 1) Letdown Radiation Monitor.

2) Letdown filter.

C. 1) Auxiliary Building Control Area Radiation Monitor.

2) Reactor Coolant filter.

D. 1) Auxiliary Building Control Area Radiation Monitor.

2) Letdown filter.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: When the RCS crud burst begins, the increased RCS activity will be sensed on the Letdown RM. Per 2-GOP-2.4, Unit Cooldown, HSD to 351 °F, the Reactor coolant filter differential pressure is monitored at 2 hour2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> intervals during the crud burst. The Aux Bldg Control Area RM is located just outside the VCT cubicle in the Aux Bldg, since the RCS coolant with higher activity is flowing though the VCT, increased RM reading is probable.

Technical

Reference:

2-GOP-2.4, Unit Cooldown, HSD to 351 °F, Rev 53, Page 16.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-94-SP-1, 100% RCS Drained to Mid-Loop, Objective E, Initiate an RCS cooldown IAW GOP-2.4.

Question Source: New

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.7 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must assess effect of increased RCS activity caused by the crud burst and the RCS filter that is monitored.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct. Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect. Plausible since the Letdown filter is the first filter in the flow path through the CVCS, and the Candidates are required to have the ability to draw this system from memory.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect. Plausible since the Aux Bldg Control Area RM will see the effect of increased RCS activity, but will follow the trend of the Letdown RM. Part 2) is correct.

D. Incorrect - Both Parts 1) and 2) are incorrect. Plausible since the Letdown filter is the first filter in the flow path through the CVCS, and the Candidates are required to have the ability to draw this system from memory. The Aux Bldg Control Area RM will see the effect of increased RCS activity, but will follow the trend of the Letdown RM.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 076G2.1 .30, Service Water / 4S, Ability to locate and operate components, including local controls.

Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.4 IR-SRO: 4.0 Proposed Question: !56 Given the following:

• Unit 1 and Unit 2 are both operating at 100%.

• You are preparing for a Performance Test of Charging Pump SW pump, 1-SW-P-10A Appendix R controls.

• An operator needs to be stationed locally at 1-SW-P-10A to observe the pump, and a second operator at the Appendix R controls for 1-SW-P-10A to start and stop the pump.

The Charging Pump SW pump, 1-SW-P-10A is located inside ___(1)___, and the Appendix R controls for 1-SW-P-10A are located inside Unit 1___(2)___ room.

A. 1) MER 4 2) Emergency Switchgear B. 1) MER 4 2) Cable Vault C. 1) MER 3 2) Cable Vault D. 1) MER 3 2) Emergency Switchgear Proposed Answer: A 1) MER 4. 2) Emergency Switchgear Explanation: 1) Charging Pump SW pump 1-SW-P-10A, and 2-SW-P-10A are located in MER4. The B train pumps, 1-SW-P-10B and 2-SW-P-10B are located in MER 3. 2) The Appendix R panel that controls 1-SW-P-10A is located in Unit 1 Emergency Switchgear Room.

Technical

Reference:

0-FCA-1.0, Rev. 49, Limiting MCR Fire.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-89.5-LP-2, Objective C, State in general the flowpath of service water from the high level intake to the discharge tunnel for the systems served by service water.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of local components and demonstrates ability to operate SW components. Therefore this question matches the K/A Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) MER 4. Correct 2) U1 Emergency Switchgear. Correct answer.

B. 1) MER 4. Correct 2) Unit 1 Cable Vault. Incorrect the Appendix R panel which controls 1-SW-P-10A. Plausible if candidate confuses the two locations since during performance of 0-FCA-1.0 for Limiting MCR fire operations are performed in both locations at the same time.

C. 1) MER 3. Incorrect, Train A Charging SW components are located in MER 4, Train B components are located in MER 3. Plausible if candidate confuses location of Train A with Train B. 2) Unit 1 Cable Vault. Incorrect the Appendix R panel which controls 1-SW-P-10A. Plausible if candidate confuses the two locations since during performance of 0-FCA-1.0 for Limiting MCR fire operations are performed in both locations at the same time.

D. 1) MER 3. Incorrect, Train A Charging SW components are located in MER 4, Train B components are located in MER 3. Plausible if candidate confuses location of Train A with Train B. 2) Unit 1 Emergency Switchgear. Correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 076G2.2.22, Service Water / 4S, Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and safety limits.

Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.0 IR-SRO: 4.7 Proposed Question: !57 Which ONE of the following states:

1) The minimum canal level per Tech Spec 3.14, Circulation and Service Water Systems.

2) The channel coincidence required to cause BC SW isolation?

A. 1) 23.5 feet.

2) 2/4 Channel.

B. 1) 23.5 feet.

2) 3/4 Channels.

C. 1) 23.0 feet.

2) 2/4 Channels.

D. 1) 23.0 feet

2) 3/4 Channels.

Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation: Minimum Canal level per TS-3.14 is 23.0 feet. SW isolation occurs when Intake Canal level is 23.5 feet on 3 / 4 channels.

Technical

Reference:

Tech Spec 3.14.A.1. The high level intake canal is filled to at least elevation

+23.0 feet at the high level intake structure.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-89.5-LP-1, Circulation Water System, Objective B, Describe the components associated with the circulating water system: Circ water pumps, Passive vacuum breakers, Canal level indication and isolation signals, Condenser inlet/outlet MOV close signals, Components affected by stop logging. ND-89.5-LP-1, Circulation Water System, Objective C, Identify the Technical Specifications associated with the Circulating Water System, including for SRO candidates, the basis behind these specifications: TS 3.14, Circulating and Service Water Systems.

Question Source: New

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level:

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.2 / 45.2)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matched K/A. Candidate must recall minimum canal level per TS-3.14, and coincidence associated with BC SW isolation of low canal level.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, minimum level 23.0 feet. Plausible since Candidate must discriminate between canal level minimum per TS - 3.14 and channel coincidence where isolation occurs. Part 2 is incorrect, correct coincidence is 3 / 4. Plausible since the Candidate can confuse coincidence required with other 4-channel coincidences (i.e., Recirc Mode transfer coincidence on RWST level.)

B. Incorrect- Part 1) incorrect, minimum level 23.0 feet. Plausible since Candidate must discriminate between canal level minimum per TS - 3.14 and channel coincidence where isolation occurs Part 2) correct.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2 is incorrect, correct coincidence is 3 / 4. Plausible since the Candidate can confuse coincidence required with other 4-channel coincidences (i.e.,

Recirc Mode transfer coincidence on RWST level).

D. Correct - Both Part 1) and 2) correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 077AK1 .02, Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances / 6, Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts they apply to Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances: Over-excitation Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.3 IR-SRO: 3.4 Proposed Question: !58 A severe thunderstorm has caused perturbations on the grid. 0-AP-10.18 has been entered due to grid instabilities Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100% power, Unit 2 is shutdown.

• The A and B Voltage regulators are in AUTO.

• The A Voltage Regulator is in service.

• Power System Stabilizer (PSS) is in service.

• 55 MVARS Out Current Conditions:

• The Operator reports a large rise in MVARS (Out).

• The following Annunciators have just alarmed:

o 1J-A8, OVEREXCITATION LIMIT.

o 1J-B7, VREG CHANNEL A LOCAL ALARM.

Which of the following occurs if the A Voltage Regulator is unable to lower Generator voltage in its current mode?

A. A Voltage Regulator will shift to the V/Hz mode to control voltage. The B channel will remain in standby.

B. A Voltage Regulator will trip into Emergency Manual. The B channel will automatically assume control.

C. A Voltage Regulator will trip into Emergency Manual to control voltage.

The B channel will remain in standby.

D. A Voltage Regulator will shift to the V/Hz mode to control voltage. The B channel automatically assume control.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation: The Main Voltage Regulator channel will trip into Emergency Manual mode if overexcitation of 125% exists for four seconds. However the, standby channel should have assumed

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet control at this point. The Voltage regulator only shifts to V/Hz when both Generator output breakers have opened.

Technical

Reference:

ARP 1J-A8, Rev. 4, OVEREXCIATION LIMIT.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-90.1-LP-6, Voltage Regulator, Objective C; Describe the controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Main Generator.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.4, 41.5, 41.7, 41.10 / 45.8)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question provides a condition of overexcitation during for the student to evaluate.

Question requires knowledge of overexcitation and operation of the Voltage Regulators.

Distractor Analysis:

A. A Voltage Regulator will shift to the V/Hz mode to control voltage. This is incorrect as both Gen breakers are closed. The B channel will remain in standby. This is incorrect as the B channel will take control.

B. A Voltage Regulator will trip into Emergency Manual. This is correct.

The B channel will automatically assume control. This is correct.

C. A Voltage Regulator will trip into Emergency Manual to control voltage.

This is correct. The B channel will remain in standby. This is incorrect as the B channel will take control.

D. A Voltage Regulator will shift to the V/Hz mode to control voltage. This is incorrect as both Gen breakers are closed .The B channel automatically assume control.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 078A3.01, Instrument Air / 8, Ability to monitor automatic operation of the IAS, including:

Air pressure Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.1 IR-SRO: 3.2 Proposed Question: !59 Which ONE of the following describes the operation of Instrument Air compressor 1-IA-C-1 when in AUTO?

A. Compressor will start and LOAD when pressure drops to 90 psig.

Compressor will then UNLOAD and LOAD at 105 psig and 95 psig, respectively.

B. Compressor will start and LOAD when pressure drops to 95 psig.

Compressor will then UNLOAD and LOAD at 105 psig and 95 psig, respectively.

C. Compressor will start and LOAD when pressure drops to 100 psig.

Compressor will then UNLOAD and LOAD at 110 psig and 100 psig, respectively.

D. Compressor will start and LOAD when pressure drops to 90 psig.

Compressor will then UNLOAD and LOAD at 110 psig and 100 psig, respectively.

Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation:

Technical

Reference:

NCRODP-17, Compressed Air.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-92.1-LP-1, Station Air Systems, Objective B, Determine the system flowpaths and components associated with the Instrument Air System.

Question Source: Bank (IA00027)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5)

Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall IA compressor start load and unload air pressure.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Start pressure correct. Load and unload pressure is that of the CTMT IA compressor operating in Auto. Plausible if Candidate confuses CTMT IA compressor operation with Station IA compressor.

B. Incorrect - This is the air pressure that the Lag Service Air compressor operates. Plausible for Candidate to confuse Station Air compressor operation with Instrument Air compressor.

C. Incorrect - This is the load and unload pressure for the Lead SA compressor. Plausible for Candidate to confuse SA compressor operation with IA compressor.

D. Correct - this is the starting and LOAD/UNLOAD operating air pressure for the Station IA compressor.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 103A1.01, Containment / 5, Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the containment system controls including:

Containment pressure, temperature and humidity Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.7 IR-SRO: 4.1 Proposed Question: !60 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 was operating at 100%.

• Auto Reactor Trip and SI initiation occurs due to Large Break LOCA.

• Containment pressure peaks at 45 psia.

Current Conditions:

• RWST level has just reached 60% one minute ago and is lowering.

• Containment pressure is 22 psia and lowering.

Which ONE of the following describes:

1) The status of Recirc Spray pumps.

2) The minimum number of Containment Spray and Recirc Spray pumps needed to cool and depressurize the containment to < 1 psig in < 60 minutes following a Design Basis LOCA.

A. 1) Both Outside Recirc Spray pumps are running, Inside Recirc Spray pumps are off.

2) One Containment Spray pump and two Recirculation Spray pumps.

B. 1) Both Inside Recirc Spray pumps are running, Outside Recirc Spray pumps are off.

2) One Containment Spray pump and two Recirculation Spray pumps.

C. 1) Both Outside Recirc Spray pumps are running, Inside Recirc Spray pumps are off.

2) One Containment Spray pump and one Recirculation Spray pump.

D. 1) Both Inside Recirc Spray pumps are running, Outside Recirc Spray pumps are off.

2) One Containment Spray pump and one Recirculation Spray pump.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation: Inside Recirculation Spray subsystems are started automatically by a HI-HI CLS with <

60% in the RWST. Outside Recirc Spray subsystems will start with an additional 120 sec delay. One Containment Spray Subsystem and two Recirculation Spray Subsystems operating together, the spray systems are capable of cooling and depressurizing the containment to 1.0 psig in less than 60 minutes and to subatmospheric pressure within 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> following the Design Basis Accident.

Technical

Reference:

ND-91-LP-6, Recirc Spray, and ND-91-LP-5, Containment Spray.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-91-LP-5, Recirc Spray objective A; State the purpose of the Recirculation Spray sub-systems.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.5)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of the parameters and equipment that must operate to maintain the Containment below its design pressure limit.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Both Outside Recirc Spray pumps are running, Inside Recirc Spray pumps are off.

Incorrect, Outside recirc spray pumps will start after 120 sec delay. Plausible if candidate confuses ORS with IRS start as this is common mistake made.

2) One Containment Spray pump and two Recirculation Spray pumps.

B. 1) Both Inside Recirc Spray pumps are running, Outside Recirc Spray pumps are off.

Correct.

2) One Containment Spray pump and two Recirculation Spray pumps. Correct.

C. 1) Both Outside Recirc Spray pumps are running, Inside Recirc Spray pumps are off.

Incorrect, Outside recirc spray pumps will start after 120 sec delay Plausible if candidate confuses ORS with IRS start as this is common mistake made.

2) One Containment Spray pump and one Recirculation Spray pump. Incorrect as one train which includes one Containment spray subsystem and two Recirculation spray subsystems are needed. Plausible if student confuses Recirc Spray capability with Containment Spray.

D. 1) Both Inside Recirc Spray pumps are running, Outside Recirc Spray pumps are off.

Correct.

2) One Containment Spray pump and one Recirculation Spray pump.

Incorrect as one train which includes one Containment spray subsystem and two Recirculation spray subsystems are needed. Plausible if student confuses Recirc Spray capability with Containment Spray.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.1.23, Conduct of operations, Ability to perform specific system and integrated plant procedures during all modes of plant operation.

Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 4.3 IR-SRO: 4.4 Proposed Question: !61 The reactor is starting up following a refueling outage, in accordance with 1-GOP-1.8. Unit Startup, HSD to Max Allowable Power.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The flowpath used when diluting to critical in accordance with 1-OP-CH-007, Blender Operations.

2) The method used to stabilize reactor power at 10-8 amps.

A. 1) Dilute to the VCT Inlet.

2) Boration / Dilution.

B. 1) Dilute to the VCT Inlet.

2) Rods.

C. 1) Alternate dilute to CH pump suction.

2) Boration / Dilution.

D. 1) Alternate dilute to CH pump suction.

2) Rods.

Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation: Following a refueling, the initial criticality is performed IAW 1(2)-OP-RX-009, Dilution to Critical Conditions following Refueling. When diluting to criticality, alternate dilute to the CH pump suction is used at 60 gpm. When reactor power has been raised to 10-8 amps, rods are moved in to stabilize power at 10-8 amps.

Technical

Reference:

1(2)-OP-RX-009, Rev. 22, Dilution; 1(2)-OP-RX-006, Rod Withdrawal.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-87-ST-1, Startup Certification Simulator Exercise, Day 1, Objective B, From the point of criticality, raise power to and stabilize power at 10 E-8 amps to take critical data in accordance with 1-OP-RX-006. ND-94-SP-2, RCS at CSD with PZR Solid to 100%, Objective H, Startup the reactor and stabilize at 2% power IAW the General Operating Procedure, OP-RX-005, Rod

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Control System Withdrawal of the Shutdown Banks, and OP-RX-009, Dilution to Critical Conditions Following Refueling.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.2 / 45.6)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must identify flowpath of blender system for dilution to critical; flowpath specified in 1-OP-RX-009, Step 5.3.5. Candidate must select the correct method of stabilizing reactor power at 10-8 amps.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, Dilution is aligned to the CH pump suction by closing the valve to the VCT inlet in Alternate Dilute Mode of the Blender. Plausible since Candidate can confuse Dilute Mode with Alternate Dilute alignment. Part 2) incorrect, rods are used to stabilize at 10-8 amps. Plausible since candidate can confuse method used to Stabilize power with method used to adjust rod height for physics testing or to ensure adequate reactivity available to raise power and place the Unit on-line.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, Dilution is aligned to the CH pump suction by closing the valve to the VCT inlet in Alternate Dilute Mode of the Blender. Plausible since Candidate can confuse Dilute Mode with Alternate Dilute alignment. Part 2) is correct.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect, rods are used to stabilize at 10-8 amps.

Plausible since candidate can confuse method used to Stabilize power with method used to adjust rod height for physics testing or to ensure adequate reactivity available to raise power and place the Unit on-line.

D, Correct - Both Part 1) and 2) are correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.1.7, Conduct of operations, Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior and instrument interpretation.

Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 4.4 IR-SRO: 4.7 Proposed Question: !62 Given the following conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 12% power.

• The team is currently performing 1-GOP-1.8, Unit Startup, and are checking trip status lights in preparation for blocking Intermediate Range and Power-Range (Lo SP) trips.

• The team depresses Intermediate-Range and Power-Range (LO Setpoint) Block pushbuttons.

• Trip Status lights are as follows:

Light # Noun name As-found Required A3 P-10 NIS PWR RGE > 10% LIT LIT C1 NIS PWR RNG LO SP TRIP BLOCKED NOT LIT LIT

• The team notes that status light C1 is in wrong state, checks bulb and finds bulb is good.

Which ONE of the following describes how the plant will respond if the team continues to raise power.

1) At what power will the reactor trip?

2) What is the coincidence for the reactor trip?

A. 1) 35%. 2) 1/4.

B. 1) 23%. 2) 2/4.

C. 1) 23%. 2) 1/4.

D. 1) 35%. 2) 2/4.

Proposed Answer: B. 1) 23%. 2) 2/4.

Explanation: Power Range Hi flux (Lo SP) actuates when 2/4 channels exceed 23% if not blocked.

Block conditions require that P-10 be satisfied by 2/4 PR channels > 10%, and PR Block switches depressed. The P-10 interlock is made up as indicated by Trip status light A3 being lit, however the Pwr Range Lo SP block is NOT made up as indicated by status light C1 not being Lit. This will result in a reactor trip at 23% due to PR Hi flux (Lo SP). The intermediate hi flux trip is also not bypassed but its setpoint is 35%.

Technical

Reference:

1-GOP-1.8, Rev. 28, Unit Startup, HSD to Max Allowable Power.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-10, Objective C, Explain all RPS reactor trip signals, including setpoints, coincidences, and purpose.

Question Source: Modified Bank (PRO0168)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.12 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question provides a condition where one of indications are not as expected, and team makes a wrong decision. Student must evaluate plant conditions and judge if actions are correct.

This meets the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) 35%. Incorrect. Reactor will first trip at 23% from Power Range Hi Flux Low sp. Plausible because this is the setpoint for the intermediate range trip. 2) 1/4. Incorrect. The coincidence is 2/4 exceeding 23%. This is plausible if the candidate confuses the intermediate logic 1/2 with the power range logic 2/4. Also the Rod Stop is 1/4 logic.

B. 1) 23%. Correct. 2) 2/4. Correct.

C. 1) 23%. Correct. 2) 1/4. Incorrect. The coincidence is 2/4 exceeding 23%. This is plausible if the candidate confuses the intermediate logic 1/2 with the power range logic 2/4. Also the Rod Stop is 1/4 logic.

D. 1) 35%. Incorrect. Reactor will first trip at 23% from Power Range Hi Flux Low sp. Plausible because this is the setpoint for the intermediate range trip. 2) 2/4. Correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.2.6, Equipment Control, Knowledge of the process for making changes to procedures Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.0 IR-SRO: 3.6 Proposed Question: !63 An Operator has been briefed and sent to perform 1-OPT-FW-001, Motor Driven Aux Feedwater Pump 1-FW-P-3A. While placing 1-FW-P-3A in the proper lineup for the test, a typographical error for a valve mark number is discovered.

Which ONE of the following states the next actions to be performed to address the issue?

A. The Operator makes a pen and ink correction, has the cognizant supervisor initial and date the correction, and then continues the OPT.

B. The Operator makes a pen and ink correction, continues the OPT, notes the pen and ink change in the Operator Comments section.

C. The Operator makes the pen and ink correction, continues with the OPT, and then processes a procedure change.

D. The Operator makes the pen and ink correction, continues with the OPT, notifies the cognizant Supervisor during debrief, and then processes a procedure change.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: This type of correction is considered an Administrative change. The operator would have the cognizant supervisor initial and date the change and then complete the OPT.

Technical

Reference:

AD-AA-100, Rev. 2, Technical Procedure Process Control, section 3.11.1.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO o Learning Objective: SROUTP-02, Objective B, For a Tier 2 procedure, discuss the following: Purpose of the procedure, Requirements for operations personnel.

Question Source: Bank (LADM0154)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.3 / 45.13)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Process of a procedure change to a procedure for this case must be evaluated.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Per AD-AA-100, Section 3.11.1, these are the Steps required for an Administrative correction found during performance of an OPT.

B. Incorrect - a pen and ink change made by the operator is insufficient, a Supervisor must initial the change before continuing with the procedure. Plausible since the Candidate could assume a minor change would be documented in this section of the procedure.

C. Incorrect - the cognizant Supervisor must initial a pen and ink typographical correction to a procedure prior to continuing with the procedure. Plausible since the Candidate could place a higher priority on completing the procedure and exiting a Tech Spec clock than addressing a minor procedure change.

D. Incorrect - the cognizant Supervisor must be made aware of the need for a change, and initial the correction prior to continuing with the procedure. Plausible since the Candidate could place a higher priority on completing the procedure and exiting a Tech Spec clock than addressing a minor procedure change.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.2.7, Equipment Control, Knowledge of the process for conducting special or infrequent tests Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 2.9 IR-SRO: 3.6 Proposed Question: !64 Which ONE of the following Periodic Tests is designated as an Infrequently Conducted or Complex Evolution?

A. 1-OPT-CH-009, Refueling Test of the Manual Emergency Boration Flow Path.

B. 1-OPT-RX-005, Control Rod Assembly Partial Movement.

C. 1-OPT-CT-211, Containment Integrity Verifications.

D. 1-OPT-ZZ-001, ESF Actuation with Undervoltage and Degraded Voltage - 1H Bus.

Proposed Answer: D. 1-OPT-ZZ-001, ESF Actuation with Undervoltage and Degraded Voltage - 1H Bus Explanation: 1-OPT-ZZ-001, ESF Actuation with Undervoltage and Degraded Voltage - 1H Bus is an ICCE III. ICCE Category III are routine tests or evolutions that are complex due to Abnormal Initial conditions, concurrent tests, or Infrequently performed. (OP-AA-106)

Technical

Reference:

OP-AA-106, Rev. 9, Infrequently Conducted or Complex Evolutions Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: SROU-02, Admin Procedures, Objective A; For a Tier 1 procedure discuss the following, purpose, responsibilities, authorization and knowledge items applicable to operators.

Question Source: Modified Bank (North Anna 2008 RO Exam, question 71: Modified distractors to conform to Surry Testing configuration.

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.3 / 45.13)

Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of ICCE test and which tests meet the requirement therefore the question matches the K/A Distractor Analysis:

A. 1-OPT-CH-009, Refueling Test of the Manual Emergency Boration Flow Path. Plausible as this PT is performed on an 18 month (refueling outage) interval and is designated as a REACT MGT (Reactivity Management) procedure. Based on being infrequently performed and designated as REACT MGT, the candidate who is not familiar with the ICCE requirements could default to this distractor.

B. 1-OPT-RX-005, Hot Rod Drops By Bank. Plausible as this PT is performed on a quarterly interval and is designated as a REACT MGT (Reactivity Management) procedure. Based on being infrequently performed and designated as REACT MGT, the candidate who is not familiar with the ICCE requirements could default to this distractor.

C. 1-OPT-CT-211, Containment Integrity Verifications. Plausible as this PT is performed on an 18 month (refueling outage) interval and is designated as an ISI test (Inservice Inspection) procedure. Based on being infrequently performed and designated as ISI, the candidate who is not familiar with the ICCE requirements could default to this distractor.

D. 1-OPT-ZZ-001, ESF Actuation with Undervoltage and Degraded Voltage - 1H Bus. Correct, this PT is designated as a Category III ICCE.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.3.13, Radiation Control, Knowledge of radiological safety procedures pertaining to licensed operator duties, such as response to radiation monitor alarms, containment entry requirements, fuel handling responsibilities, access to locked high-radiation areas, aligning filters, etc.

Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.4 IR-SRO: 3.8 Proposed Question: !65 Given the following:

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.

• A Subatmospheric Containment Entry is to be made in accordance with VPAP-0106, to identify the source of a step change in Unidentified leakage of +0.4 gpm.

• The Shift Manager has entered Action Level 3 for RCS leakage and has notified the OMOC.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The minimum level of authority for the containment entry is ___(1)___.

2) The HP Shift Supervisor or designee must __(2)__.

A. (1) Plant Manager (2) Sign on to the In-Core Detector tagout B. (1) Plant Manager (2) Verify In-Core Detectors in storage location C. (1) Director, Nuclear Safety and Licensing (2) Sign on to the In-Core Detector tagout D. (1) Director, Nuclear Safety and Licensing (2) Verify In-Core Detectors in storage location Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation:

Technical

Reference:

VPAP-0106, Subatmospheric Containment Entry, Rev 13.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: Learning Objective: SROU-02, Admin Procedures, Objective A, For a Tier 1 procedure, discuss the following:

Purpose of the procedure, Responsibilities, as it applies to operations personnel (Operations Personnel, Shift Operators, Reactor Operators, etc.), Who is required to authorize specific plant operations or process changes (for example, procedure modifications). For example, who is required to authorize the use of an air operated valve as an isolation boundary on a tagout.

This is important because you, as a member of the control room staff, need to understand what authorizations are required BEFORE you direct an action in the plant.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Knowledge items applicable to operators. For example, in OP-AA-100, how valve verifications are performed. This is specific to operators, and operators need to have this knowledge item in the carrying out of their daily duties. Tier 1 Procedures: VPAP-0106, Sub-atmospheric Containment Entry.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.12 / 43.4 / 45.9 / 45.10)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall specifics for subatmospheric containment entry; Level of authority to approve entry, and HP SS requirements for In-Core Detector system (to ensure personnel dose not impacted by exposure to activated cables or equipment of In-Core System.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, Director NSS&L is minimum level of authority to approve entry. Plausible since Plant manager is responsible for oversight of Plant Operations, and is second in line of succession. Part 2) is correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, Director NSS&L is minimum level of authority to approve entry. Plausible since Plant manager is responsible for oversight of Plant Operations, and is second in line of succession. Part 2) is incorrect, in-core detectors are driven to the storage position when the reactor has been shutdown; otherwise located at the bottom of the core for use in flux mapping. Plausible since Candidate could assume in-core detectors are driven to the storage location for all CTMT entries.

C. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect, in-core detectors are driven to the storage position when the reactor has been shutdown; otherwise located at the bottom of the core for use in flux mapping. Plausible since Candidate could assume in-core detectors are driven to the storage location for all CTMT entries.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.3.14, Radiation Control, Knowledge of radiation or contamination hazards that may arise during normal, abnormal, or emergency conditions or activities Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.4 IR-SRO: 3.8 Proposed Question: !66 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 is in a refueling outage.

• Fuel off-load is in progress.

Current Conditions:

• A report is received that a fuel assembly being removed from the core was significantly damaged while lifting it from the core.

• Large Bubbles were seen escaping from the damaged fuel assembly.

• NO radiation alarms have been received.

Which ONE of the following describes the actions required by 0-AP-22.00, Fuel Handling Abnormal Conditions:

1) What is the required status of Main Control Room Ventilation?

2) Is Containment Evacuation required?

A. 1) Normal Ventilation.

2) Yes.

B. 1) Emergency Ventilation.

2) No.

C. 1) Emergency Ventilation.

2) Yes.

D. 1) Normal Ventilation.

2) No.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation: 0-AP-22.00, Fuel Handling Abnormal Conditions is entered by either 1) Fuel cladding failure as determined by radiation monitor; or 2) Fuel cladding failure as determined by observation; (bubbles or cloudiness, separation of fuel rod). In this case 0-AP-22.00 is entered due to observation and verbal report to the Control Room will initiate this. Step 5 requires Containment evacuation and step 7 requires Normal MCR ventilation to be secured.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

0-AP-22.00, Rev. 24, Fuel Handling Abnormal Conditions.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-92.5-LP-7, Refueling Aps, Objective C; Respond to a plant event in accordance with AP-22.00, "Fuel Handling Abnormal Conditions," AP-22.01, "Loss of Refueling Cavity Level," and AP-22.02, "Malfunction of Spent Fuel Pit Systems," while demonstrating knowledge of the purpose, indications, and applicable immediate operator actions.

Question Source: Modified Bank (North Anna 2014 RO exam, question 71; modified distractors to conform to Surry configuration).

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.12 / 43.4 / 45.10)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of what constitutes a radiation hazard and damaged fuel therefore the question matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Normal Ventilation. Incorrect. Per AP-22.00 Normal MCR ventilation is secured and Emergency Ventilation is started. Plausible because with no radiation alarms it may appear that there are no hazards in containment so a candidate may chose this option thinking there are no hazards. 2) Yes. Containment evacuation is required. The second part is correct.

B. 1) Emergency Ventilation. Correct. 2) No. Containment evacuation is NOT required. Per AP-22.00 evacuation is required in the effective area which is containment. Plausible because no Radiation Monitor alarms are present. This may result in the appearance that no radiation hazard exists.

C. 1) Emergency Ventilation. Correct. 2) Yes Containment evacuation is required. Correct.

D. 1) Normal Ventilation. Incorrect. Per AP-22.00 Normal MCR ventilation is secured and Emergency Ventilation is started. Plausible because with no radiation alarms it may appear that there are no hazards in containment so a candidate may chose this option thinking there are no hazards. 2) No. Containment evacuation is NOT required. Incorrect. This is plausible because no Radiation Monitor alarms are present. This may result in the appearance that no radiation hazard exists therefore no evacuation is needed which is incorrect.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.3.4, Radiation Control, Knowledge of radiation exposure limits under normal and emergency conditions Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.7 Proposed Question: !67 Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements?

The Federal Dose limit for Lens of the Eye is _______.

AND The Federal Dose Limit for the Skin is _______.

A. (1) 15 Rem (2) 50 Rem B. (1) 1.5 Rem (2) 5.0 Rem C. (1) 5.0 Rem (2) 1.5 Rem D. (1) 50 Rem (2) 15 Rem Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Per 10 CFR 20 and VPAP-2101 (Radiation Protection Program), the Federal Limit for Lens of the Eye is 15 Rem, the limit for Skin is 50 Rem. Per VPAP-2101, the limits for Lens of the Eye and Skin for an Employee less than the age of 18 is 1/10th the Federal limits (i.e., 1.5 Rem for Lens of the Eye, and 5 Rem for the Skin.)

Technical

Reference:

VPAP-2101, Rev. 35, Radiation Protection Program, Section 6.3.2, Regulatory Limits and Controls, a. and c.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-81.2-PP-3, External Exposure Control, Objective C, Explain the federal exposure limits for Total Effective Dose Equivalent, extremity, skin, and Lens of the Eye doses including necessary requirements and limitations for extensions Question Source: Bank (NAPS 2014, 72) modified for Surry

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.12 / 43.4 / 45.10)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall federal limits for Lens of the Eye and Skin.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, 1.5 Rem is the limit for a Minor (<18 years of age). Plausible if Candidate confuses limits for federal and dose to dose to a minor. Part 2) is incorrect, 5 Rem is the limit for skin dose to a minor IAW VPAP-2101, Radiation Control Program.

Plausible if Candidate confuses Federal limit and limit for dose to a minor.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, this is the skin dose limit for a minor (per VPAP-2101) and the TEDE limit. Plausible if the Candidate incorrectly applies these limits to the federal limit. Part 2 is incorrect, 1.5 Rem is the lens of the eye limit for a minor. Plausible if Candidate incorrectly applies lens of the eye limit for a minor to skin dose.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect. Part 2) is incorrect. Plausible if the Candidate confuses the limits for Lens of the Eye and Skin dose.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.4.21, Emergency Procedures/Plans, Knowledge of the parameters and logic used to assess the status of safety functions, such as reactivity control, core cooling and heat removal, reactor coolant system integrity, containment conditions, radioactivity release control, etc.

Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 4.0 IR-SRO: 4.6 Proposed Question: !68 Which of the following Critical Safety Function RED paths can be directly caused by procedurally directed operator action?

A. Subcriticality B. Core Cooling C. Heat Sink D. Containment Proposed Answer: C. Heat Sink Explanation: Operator throttling AFW below 350 gpm (460 gpm) while no steam generator is above 12% (18%) would cause an entry condition into FR-H.1 as in the case of ECA-2.1, Uncontrolled Depressurization of all Steam Generators or FR-P.1, Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Condition.

Technical

Reference:

1-FR-H.1 Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-26, CSFST, Objective A; Explain the associations between the six critical safety functions and the three barriers that prevent the uncontrolled release of radioactive materials to the environment. FR-H.1 first Caution allows exiting FR-H.1 if entry condition met because of intentionally throttling AFW below 350/450 gpm.

Question Source: Bank (Diablo Canyon, RO exam 2007 question 74)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 43.5 / 45.12)

Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of the specific parameters requiring entry into FR procedures and also knowledge of the EOPs that could cause a direct entry into an FR. This question matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Subcriticality. Incorrect, caused by power generation > 5%. Plausible if candidate confuses procedurally directed actions with procedurally required actions.

B. Core Cooling. Incorrect caused by core overheat as indicated by elevated Core exit thermocouples.

Plausible if candidate confuses procedurally directed actions with procedurally required actions.

C. Heat Sink. Correct, can be caused by operator throttling AFW below 350/450 gpm as directed by EOPs.

D. Containment. Incorrect, caused by high containment pressure. Plausible if candidate confuses procedurally directed actions with procedurally required actions

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.4.29, Emergency Procedures/Plans, Knowledge of the emergency plan.

Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.1 IR-SRO: 4.4 Proposed Question: !69 The Station has just upgraded from an Alert to a Site Area Emergency.

Which ONE of the following actions is required for a Site Area Emergency in addition to those actions initiated for the Alert?

A. Off-Site monitoring Team Dispatched.

B. Emergency Response Personnel called in.

C. A Report of Radiological Conditions to the State is transmitted.

D. Accountability is performed.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Per EPIP-1.04, Response to Site Area Emergency, off-site dose monitoring are dispatched, Step 7.

Technical

Reference:

Per EPIP-1.04, Response to Site Area Emergency, Step 7, Revision 23; EPIP-2.01, Rev. 44, Report of Emergency to State and Local Governments.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.5-LP-2, SEM, Objective D, Determine the corrective actions required by a classified plant emergency. ND-95.5-LP-3, EM Comm, Objective D, Carry out data gathering to complete the EPIP-2.01 attachments, including the sources of meteorological and radiological data, time requirements for message transmissions, and phones used for each type of data transmission.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.11)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must assess responses and apply knowledge of EP actions.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - per Step 7 of EPIP-1.04, Response to Site Area Emergency.

B. Incorrect - per E-Plan, Emergency Response personnel are called in for an Alert or higher classification. Plausible if Candidate applies actions already in progress for Alert.

C. Incorrect - a Report of Radiological Condition to the State is required if a release of radiological material has occurred, is in progress, or has been terminated, per EPIP-2.01, Attachment 2, Report of Emergency to State and Local Governments, Item 3. Plausible if Candidate assumes upgrade to SAE due to release.

D. Incorrect - Accountability is performed for any Classification of Alert or higher. Plausible if Candidate confuses actions already underway with actions required due to the Upgrade.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.4.43, Emergency Procedures/Plans, Knowledge of emergency communications systems and techniques.

Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.8 Proposed Question: !70 Given the following:

• 0800: A large break LOCA occurred.

• 0810: A Site Area Emergency was declared.

When obtaining meteorological data from the MET panel:

1) The preferred source for wind speed, and wind direction is the Main Tower ___(1)___.

2) The required Notification completion time is recorded following roll call after reading Item

____(2)____.

A. 1) Lower Level.

2) 11, Additional Information.

B. 1) Lower Level.

2) 1, Emergency Classification.

C. 1) Upper Level.

2) 11, Additional Information.

D. 1) Upper Level.

2) 1, Emergency Classification.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation: 1) Per EPIP-2.01 Attachment 1, Instructions for Completing report of Emergency to State and Local Governments, the priority for obtaining Wind Dir. & Wind Speed is Main Tower Lower level, followed by the Backup Tower and then Main Tower Upper level. 2) Per EPIP-2.01, Report of Emergency to State and Local Governments the Notification Completed Time is recorded after roll call in Item 1, Emergency Classification. This is a recent change from the previous revision which conducted the roll call after item 11, Additional information.

Technical

Reference:

EPIP-2.01, Rev. 44, Report of Emergency to State and Local Governments.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.5-LP-3, EM Communicator, Objective D, Carry out data gathering to complete the EPIP-2.01 attachments, including the sources of meteorological and radiological data, time requirements for message transmissions, and phones used for each type of data transmission.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge and ability to acquire MET data using EPIP-2.01, therefore question matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis: Note Ambient Temp. included for all choices for completeness.

A. 1) Main Tower Lower Level. Correct. 2) Item 11, Additional Information. This is incorrect. Per EPIP-2.01, Report of Emergency to State and Local Governments, the Notification Completed Time is recorded after roll call in Item 1, Emergency Classification. This is plausible because this is a recent change from the previous revision which conducted the roll call after item 11, Additional information.

B. 1) Main Tower Lower Level. Correct. 2) Item 1, Emergency Classification. Correct.

C. 1) Main Tower Upper Level. Incorrect. EPIP-2.01 step 19 states the primary source of wind speed is the Main Tower Lower level and the alternate source would be the Backup tower and Main Tower Upper Level. Plausible if candidate confuses the preferred with the backup source.

2) Item 11, Additional Information. This is incorrect. Per EPIP-2.01, Report of Emergency to State and Local Governments, the Notification Completed Time is recorded after roll call in Item 1, Emergency Classification. This is plausible because this is a recent change from the previous revision which conducted the roll call after item 11, Additional information.

D. 1) Main Tower Upper Level. Incorrect. EPIP-2.01 step 19 states the primary source of wind speed is the Main Tower Lower level and the alternate source would be the Backup tower and Main Tower Upper Level. Plausible if candidate confuses the preferred with the backup source.

2) Item 1, Emergency Classification. Correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE04EK2.2, LOCA Outside Containment / 3, Knowledge of the interrelations between the (LOCA Outside Containment) and the following: Facility's heat removal systems, including primary coolant, emergency coolant, the decay heat removal systems and relations between the proper operation of these systems to the operation of the facility.

Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.8 IR-SRO: 4.0 Proposed Question: !71 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 2 operating at 100% power.

• A LOCA has occurred in Unit 2 Safeguards.

• Unit 2 is tripped and safety injection actuated.

• 2-SI-MOV-2890C, LHSI to Cold Legs, has been closed.

• RCS Pressure is 1005 psig and rising.

• The Team has transitioned to 2-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The status of the LHSI pumps.

2) The position of the LHSI Suction Valves from the RWST, 2-SI-MOV-2862A and B.

A. 1) Secured in PTL.

2) Closed.

B. 1) Secured in AUTO.

2) Closed.

C. 1) Secured in PTL.

2) Open.

D 1) Secured in AUTO.

2) Open.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Per 2-ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment, Rev 8, Step 2, states that when 2-SI-MOV-2890C is closed, RCS pressure is monitored. If RCS pressure is Increasing, the LHSI pumps are placed in PTL, and the LHSI pump suction MOVs from the RWST are closed.

Technical

Reference:

2-ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment, Rev 8, Step 2. SPS ECA-1.2 Step Deviation Document, Step 2.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-21, ECA-1.2, Objective B, Given a copy of ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

Question Source: Modified Bank (Harris, 2009, Question 15)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall the status of LHSI pumps and RWST suction valves if LOCA outside of CTMT is isolated in ECA-1.2, Step 2.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, the LHSI pumps are secured and placed in PTL and RWST suction MOVs are closed to stop further flooding and conserve remaining content of the RWST. Plausible due to the majority of EOP steps that operate the LHSI pumps require the LHSI pumps be stopped and placed in AUTO. Part 2) is correct C. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, LHSI pumps are secured and placed in PTL. Plausible since the majority of EOP steps that operate the LHSI pumps require the LHSI pumps be stopped and place in AUTO. Part 2) is incorrect. Plausible since the Candidate may not consider continued loss of RWST level through open MOVs to the break site.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect; LHSI pumps are secured and placed in PTL. Plausible due to the majority of EOP steps that operate the LHSI pumps require the LHSI pumps be stopped and placed in AUTO. Part 2) is incorrect, the RWST suction MOVs are closed.

Plausible since the Candidate may not consider continued loss of RWST level through open MOVs to the break site.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE08EK3.3, RCS Overcooling - PTS / 4, Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the (Pressurized Thermal Shock) Manipulation of controls required to obtain desired operating results during abnormal and emergency situations.

Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.7 IR-SRO: 3.8 Proposed Question: !72 Given the following:

• Unit 1 was operating at 100% when a large break LOCA occurred.

• RCS pressure is 25 psig.

• All ECCS equipment responded as designed.

• The crew is performing step 4 of 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary coolant.

• The STA reports that red path for Integrity is satisfied and recommends FR-P.1.

Which of the following describes:

1) The actions the crew would take in response to the Integrity Red path.

2) The reason these actions are taken.

A. 1) Go to FR-P.1, and after step 1 return to 1-E-1.

2) Steam Generators are thermally disconnected from the RCS.

B. 1) Go to FR-P.1, and after step 1 return to 1-E-1.

2) Pressurized thermal shock is not a concern.

C. 1) Do not enter FR-P.1, continue in 1-E-1 until directed to transition.

2) Steam Generators are thermally disconnected from the RCS.

D 1) Do not enter FR-P.1, continue in 1-E-1 until directed to transition.

2) Pressurized thermal shock is not a concern.

Proposed Answer: B. 1) Go to FR-P.1, and after step 1 return to 1-E-1.

2) Pressurized thermal shock is not a concern.

Explanation: 1) The purpose of 1-FRP-P.1, step 1: Check RCS pressure greater than 185 psig, is to determine if the entry into FR-P.1 was due to a LBLOCA. For transients where RCS pressure is less then LHSI pump shutoff head and flow from LHSI pumps has been verified, the team should return to the procedure and step in effect. 2) The reason for transitioning back to E-1 is the PTS is not a concern. PTS requires a rapid cooldown causing the tensile thermal stress, AND relatively high pressure which is not present in a large break LOCA because the RCS has depressurized. In 1-FR-H.1, Loss of Heat sink step 1 checks RCS pressure against Steam Generator pressure and IF RCS pressure is less then all Steam Generators then a secondary heat sink is not required because the Steam Generators are thermally disconnected from the RCS.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

ND-95.3-LP-46, 1-FR-P.1., Rev. 25. WOG ERG for FR-P.1, Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Condition; 1-FR-H.1, Rev. 37, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-46, FR-P.1, Objective C, Given a copy of FR-P.1, Response To Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Condition, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

Question Source: NEW Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 41.10, 45.6, 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question poses a scenario whereby the candidate needs to decide to enter FR-P.1 or remain in E-1 and the reason for performing those actions.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Go to FR-P.1, and after step 1 return to 1-E-1. Correct.

2) Steam Generators are thermally disconnected from the RCS. This is a true statement but this is incorrect. This is easy to confuse with correct reason and is plausible becasuse this is a true statement and this is the reason for transitioning from 1-FR-H.1, Loss of Heat Sink back to E-1. The question is asking for the reason for transitioning back from 1-FR-P.1.

B. 1) Go to FR-P.1, and after step 1 return to 1-E-1. Correct.

2) Pressurized thermal shock is not a concern. Correct.

C. 1) Do not enter FR-P.1, continue in 1-E-1 until directed to transition. Incorrect because the crew must go to a RED or ORANGE path when directed unless superceeded. Plausible if crew believes this condition has a note or other directive that prevent implementation of FRPs, such as note in ES-1.3.

2) Steam Generators are thermally disconnected from the RCS. This is a true statement but this is incorrect. This is easy to confuse with correct reason and is plausible becasuse this is a true statement and this is the reason for transitioning from 1-FR-H.1, Loss of Heat Sink back to E-1. The question is asking for the reason for transitioning back from 1-FR-P.1.

D 1) Do not enter FR-P.1, continue in 1-E-1 until directed to transition. Incorrect because the crew must go to a RED or ORANGE path when directed unless superceeded. Plausible if crew believes this condition has a note or other directive that prevent implementation of FRPs, such as note in ES-1.3.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE10EA1.3, Natural Circ. With Steam Void / 4, Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the (Natural Circulation with Steam Void in Vessel with/without RVLIS)

Desired operating results during abnormal and emergency situations.

Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.4 IR-SRO: 3.7 Proposed Question: !73 Initial Conditions:

• The Team is performing ES-0.4, Natural Circulation Cooldown with Steam Voids in the Reactor Vessel W/O RVLIS.

• The Team is unsuccessful in starting an RCP.

• Both channels of Reactor Vessel Level Indication (RVLIS) have been lost.

• RCS Pressure is stable at 1590 psig.

Current Conditions:

• The Team has completed RCS Cooldown with RCS THOT stable at 445°F.

• Pzr level is stable at 39%, with charging and letdown flows equal.

• The Team has reached Step 9, Depressurize the RCS; with target RCS pressure of 800 psig.

Which ONE of the following completes the following statements?

1) The preferred method for depressurizing the RCS is _______.

2) Pressurizer level is expected to _______.

A. 1) Auxiliary Spray

2) Rise rapidly B. 1) Auxiliary Spray

2) Remain at approximately 39%

C. 1) One (1) pressurizer PORV

2) Remain at approximately 39%

D. 1) One (1) pressurizer PORV

2) Rise rapidly Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: During depressurization to 800 psig, and at a constant temperature, pressure will reach saturation for the temperature in the vessel head area. A void can be expected to form and grow

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet under these conditions causing a rapid rise in pressurizer level as water is displaced from the vessel head area into the pressurizer.

Technical

Reference:

ES-0.4, Natural Circulation Cooldown with Steam Voids in the Reactor Vessel W/O RVLIS, Rev 13, Step 9; WOG Background Document, ES-0.4, Rev 2.

STEP: Depressurize RCS BASIS: The decrease in system pressure to less than 800 psig will cross the upper head saturation limit curve (Figure 1) and void formation can be expected. Both RCS pressure and PRZR level are monitored at this time. If the desired pressure is reached without overfilling the PRZR (i.e., PRZR level less than 90%), then the depressurization is terminated and the operator can continue with the cool down. However, if the PRZR level increases above 90% during the depressurization, then further actions are taken as specified in the next step.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-55, ES-0.4, Objective B, Given a copy of ES-0.4, Natural Circulation Cooldown With Steam Void in Rx Vessel (WITHOUT RVLIS), explain the basis of each procedural step.

Question Source: Bank (EOP0163) changed cooldown rate from 10 °F/hr to 45 °F/hr.

Modified to a 2 x 2 format, and removed Pzr Level column.

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall preference for RCS depressurization with letdown in service, and analyze conditions to determine that saturation conditions will be reached in the vessel head area as RCS pressure is reduced.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Part 1 and Part 2) are correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, Auxiliary spray is preferred method with letdown in service.

Part 2) is incorrect, void is expected to form and grow as pressure/temperature reach saturation in the vessel head area. Plausible if Candidate fails to consider that the vessel

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet head region will reach saturation; and assumes that with CH/LD equalized, pressurizer level will not change.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, Auxiliary spray is preferred with LD in service. Plausible if Candidate fails to consider preference for Auxiliary spray for depressurization over use of pzr PORV. Part 2) is incorrect, void is expected to form and grow as pressure/temperature reach saturation in the vessel head area. Plausible if Candidate fails to consider that the vessel head region will reach saturation; and assumes that with CH/LD equalized, pressurizer level will not change.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, Auxiliary spray is preferred with LD in service. Plausible if Candidate fails to consider preference for Auxiliary spray for depressurization over use of pzr PORV with letdown in service. Part 2) is correct, void would tend to grow.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE11EG2.1 .2, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirc. / 4, Ability to execute procedure steps.

Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.6 IR-SRO: 4.6 Proposed Question: !74 Given the following:

• A Large Break LOCA has occurred.

• Crew is presently performing step 3 of ES-1.3

• RWST level is at 13%.

• RMT Phase 1 and Phase 2 status lights are OFF.

• The RO reports that both LHSI pumps have just tripped and locked out.

Which of the following completes the following statements.

1) The procedure that should be used for the next step is ___(1)___.

2) Swapover to the recirc mode will normally occur as 2/4 of the RWST level transmitters reach

___(2)___.

A. 1) ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

2) 13.5%.

B. 1) ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation.

2) 13%.

C. 1) ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation.

2) 13.5%.

D. 1) ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

2) 13%.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation: Transition to ECA-1.1 is required due to loss of LHSI pumps. ECA-1.1 requires placing one charging pump in service. RWST is < 13.5% so RMT should have occurred, but didnt. Pushing RMT actuation pushbuttons is addressed further on in the procedure, but at this time ECA-1.1 must be entered.

Technical

Reference:

1-ES-1.3, Rev. 24, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation. 1-ECA-1.1, Rev. 39, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-20, ECA-1.1, Objective B; Given a copy of ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: Bank (LEOP 0787)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question provides a scenario and requires the candidate to determine the actions required, therefore the question matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) ECA-1.1. Correct. 2) 13.5%. Correct.

B. 1) ES-1.3. Incorrect because both LHSI pumps have tripped. Plausible because auto RMT did not occur at 13.5% RWST level and further in ES-1.3 steps would be taken to restore RMT. 2) 13%. Incorrect. RMT is designed to occur once RWST level reaches 13.5%.

Plausible because this is the level that RMT is checked per ES-1.3.

C. 1) ES-1.3. Incorrect because both LHSI pumps have tripped. Plausible because auto RMT did not occur at 13.5% RWST level and further in ES-1.3 steps would be taken to restore RMT. 2) 13.5%. Correct.

D. 1) ECA-1.1. Correct. Incorrect because there is enough inventory in the RWST, but plausible because ECA-1.1 caution states to secure pumps is suction source is lost and RWST level is approaching 6% when pumps will be secured. 2) 13%. Incorrect. RMT is designed to occur once RWST level reaches 13.5%. Plausible because this is the level that RMT is checked per ES-1.3

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE15EG2.4.8, Containment Flooding / 5, Knowledge of how abnormal operating procedures are used in conjunction with EOPs.

Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.8 IR-SRO: 4.5 Proposed Question: !75 Initial Conditions:

• Both Units are operating at 100% power.

• A seismic event occurs which results in a Loss of Offsite Power and an automatic Reactor Trip on both Units.

Current Conditions:

• The Team has transitioned from1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection to 1-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip Response.

• The STA reports that Containment Sump Level is 7.8 feet and rising.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The Abnormal Procedure initiated by 1-E-0 Immediate Actions.

2) The PATH COLOR in effect on the Containment Status Tree.

A. 1) 0-AP-37.00, Seismic Event.

2) Red.

B. 1) 0-AP-37.00, Seismic Event.

2) Orange.

C. 1) 1-AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1 Power.

2) Red.

D. 1) 1-AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1 Power.

2) Orange.

Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation: 1(2)-AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1(2) Power are initiated on Step 3 of E-0 when BOTH Emergency Bus are Not Energized (called by RNO column). With Containment Sump level at 7.8 feet and rising this would indicate an Orange condition on the Containment Status Tree.

Technical

Reference:

F-5, Rev. 2, Containment. 1-E-0, Rev. 71, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-48, FR-Z.1, Objective A, Given a simulated plant condition requiring the use of the critical safety function status trees, transition through the Containment Status Tree denoting, in accordance with the rules of priority, any applicable Function Restoration procedure needing implementation. ND-95.3-LP-26, CSFST, Objective D, Given a specific plant condition, apply the Critical Safety Function rules of prioritization to determine the applicable procedure.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must apply rules of usage in EOP network for prioritization of Function Restoration Procedure and EOP.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, 0-AP-37.00 would be initiated in response to a VSP annunciator. Plausible if Candidate does not take into account of E-0 initiation of AP-10.07 when Immediate Actions of E-0 are performed. Part 2) is incorrect, Ctmt Sump > 7.2 ft. is an Orange Path. Plausible if Candidate confuses Red Path and Orange Path criteria on Containment Status Tree.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, 0-AP-37.00 would be initiated in response to a VSP annunciator. Plausible if Candidate does not take into account of E-0 initiation of AP-10.07 when Immediate Actions of E-0 are performed. Part 2) is correct, Ctmt Sump > 7.2 ft. is an Orange Path.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, AP-10.07 is initiated at Step 3 of E-0 if Both Emergency buses are not energized. Part 2) is incorrect, Ctmt Sump > 7.2 ft. is an Orange Path. Plausible if Candidate confuses Red Path and Orange Path criteria on Containment Status Tree. .

D. Correct for Both Parts 1) and 2).

RO EXAM LIST OF ATTACHMENTS Attachment # Attachment Description 1 Containment Ventilation 2 E-3 Table ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 001AA1.02, Continuous Rod Withdrawal / 1, Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Continuous Rod Withdrawal : Rod in-out-hold switch Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.6 IR-SRO: 3.4 Proposed Question: !1 Initial Conditions:

• Reactor at 50% with a ramp to 100% in progress.

• Median Tave fails such that Tave is 4.0 °F lower than Tref.

• Rod Control is placed in manual 30 seconds after the failure occurs.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) The direction of rod motion before the rods were placed in manual.

2) The number of steps the control rods must be moved to restore the control rods to their ORIGINAL rod height during failure recovery.

A. 1) Out.

2) 16.

B. 1) Out.

2) 20.

C. 1) In.

2) 16.

D. 1) In.

2) 20.

Proposed Answer: B.

Explanation: Part 1) With Tave < Tref by at least 1.5 °F, control rods will move OUT. Part 2) from 1.5

°F to 3 °F Tave/Tref deviation, rod motion is 8 steps per minute. From 3 °F to 5 °F, rod motion is 32 Steps/minute for each degree of deviation PLUS the original motion of 8 steps/minute. 8 + 1.0(32 SPM/°F) x .5 minutes = 20 steps. If 8 Steps per minute is excluded from calculation, the result is 16 steps.

Technical

Reference:

ND-93.3-LP-3, Rod Control System, Objective B, Reproducing a simplified one-line diagram from memory, explain the operation, including interrelationships, of the following Automatic Tavg Control Unit components: Rod Speed & Direction Controller. Slide 13.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-3, Rod Control System, Objective B, Reproducing a simplified one-line diagram from memory, explain the operation, including interrelationships, of the following Automatic Tavg Control Unit components: Rod Speed & Direction Controller. Slide 13.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches the K/A in that the trainee must determine the direction and magnitude of rod motion to return the control rods to their original height using the in-hold-out switch.

Distractor Analysis:

a. 1) Correct - Rods moved OUT in auto during the failure.

2) Incorrect - Rods moved a total of 20 steps by calculation. Plausible if Candidate excludes 8 SPM from calculation.

b. 1) Correct - Rods moved OUT in auto during the failure.

2) Correct - Rods moved a total of 20 steps by calculation.

c. 1) Incorrect - Rods have moved OUT in auto during the failure. Plausible if Candidate confuses direction of rod motion during the failure.

2) Incorrect - Rods moved a total of 20 steps by calculation. Plausible if Candidate excludes 8 SPM from calculation.

d. 1) Incorrect - Rods moved OUT in auto during the failure. Plausible if Candidate confuses direction of rod motion during the failure.

2) Correct - Rods moved a total of 20 steps by calculation.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 001K6.03, Control Rod Drive / 1, Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following CRDS components: Reactor trip breakers, including controls Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.7 IR-SRO: 4.2 PRINT ON WHITE.

Proposed Question: !2 Initial plant conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100% power.

• Currently performing a test of Reactor Trip breaker A per 1-PT-8.1, Rx. Protection Logic testing.

• An automatic reactor trip signal occurs, but only the B RPS train actuates.

• Reactor Trip and Reactor Trip Bypass breaker position following the Trip are shown below.

• No operator actions have been taken.

Which ONE of the following correctly completes the following statements:

1) The Reactor trip and Bypass breakers _________operate correctly.

2) As a backup to the UV coil, the Trip Coil is ___________ upon receipt of a reactor trip signal.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet A. 1) did not

2) energized B. 1) did not

2) de-energized C. 1) did

2) energized D. 1) did

2) de-energized Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: 1) When testing the Reactor Trip breakers its corresponding bypass breaker is closed.

This allows testing of the train reactor protection logic without causing an actual reactor trip. Protection is provided by the opposite logic train which will open its reactor trip breaker and the opposite train bypass breaker. In this case the A Reactor trip breaker was being tested and the A Reactor trip bypass breaker was closed. An automatic reactor trip was received which should have caused the A Reactor trip bypass breaker to open (from the B RPS train), but didnt. 2) DC power to the UV coil and automatic shunt relay (STA) will be interrupted to the B Reactor Trip Breaker and the A Reactor trip bypass breaker by the reactor trip signal. This in turn will cause the UV coil to de-energize and trip the breaker. De-energizing the STA relay causes the STA relay contact to close allowing DC power to energize the Trip coil (TC) to trip the breaker as a backup to tripping the breaker by de-energizing the UV coil.

Technical

Reference:

1-PT-8.1, Revision 40 Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-10, Objective B, Analyze the operation of the Reactor Trip Breakers in response to a manual or automatic trip signal.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7/45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: The question matches the K/A because question tests the knowledge of the effects of a Reactor trip bypass breaker failure which directly matches the K/A.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) No. This is correct.

2) Energize. This is correct.

B. 1) No. This is correct.

2) De-energize. This is incorrect as the Trip Coil is energized as a backup to de-energizing the UV coils. Plausible if candidate confuses operation of the UV and Shunt Trip relays (both de-energize) with operation of the Trip Coil (energizes).

C. 1) Yes. This is incorrect, the B RPS reactor trip will trip the B reactor trip breaker and the A bypass breaker. Plausible as part of the action is correct, and if the student confuses which bypass breaker should operate then this choice could be made.

2) Energize. This is correct.

D. 1) Yes. This is incorrect, the B RPS reactor trip will trip the B reactor trip breaker and the A bypass breaker. Plausible as part of the action is correct, and if the student confuses which bypass breaker should operate then this choice could be made.

2) De-energize. This is incorrect as the Trip Coil is energized as a backup to de-energizing the UV coils. Plausible if candidate confuses operation of the UV and Shunt Trip relays (both de-energize) with operation of the Trip Coil (energizes)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 003K4.04, Reactor Coolant Pump / 4, Knowledge of RCPS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: Adequate cooling of RCP motor and seals Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.8 IR-SRO: 3.1 NRC APPROVED.

Proposed Question: !3 Initial Conditions:

• The Unit is in Cold Shutdown with the Team preparing to start the first RCP in accordance with 1-OP-RC-001, Starting and Running Any Reactor Coolant Pump.

• Vacuum assist was unavailable during RCS Loop fill.

The following sequence of events occur:

• 0900, C RCP started for RCS Vent.

• 0902, C RCP secured due to low seal Differential Pressure.

• 0933, C RCP started for RCS Vent.

• 0938, C RCP secured due to low seal Differential Pressure.

• 1012, C RCP started for RCS Vent.

• 1027, C RCP secured due to the loss of both seal injection and thermal barrier flow.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) What is the earliest time the fourth start of the C RCP may be attempted, in accordance with 1-OP-RC-001?

2) When restoring seal injection and thermal barrier cooling to an RCP seal, which is restored first?

A. 1) 1128.

2) Thermal Barrier.

B. 1) 1128.

2) Seal Injection.

C. 1) 1058.

2) Thermal Barrier.

D. 1) 1058.

2) Seal Injection.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: In accordance with 1(2)-OP-RC-001, Precaution and Limitation 4.6, within any two hour period the number of starts should be limited to a maximum of three, with an idle period of 30 minutes before each restart. When three starts or attempted starts have been made within a two-hour period, then a FOURTH start should NOT be made until the motor has been allowed to cool by standing idle for

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet at least one hour. In accordance with 1(2)-OP-RC-001, Precaution and Limitation 4.2, upon loss of CC Water and Seal Injection flow to an RCP, CC water flow to the Thermal Barrier must be restored before restarting seal injection flow since Thermal barrier flow provides a more even Cooldown of the seal area.

Technical

Reference:

OP-RC-001.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-88.1-ST-6.1, Objective B, Given the initial condition of the Unit on RHR and a startup in progress, start the first RCP IAW OP-RC-001.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: The K/A is met, the Candidate must recall RCP start limitations and seal cooling restoration from memory, and apply these concepts to RCP Motor and Seal cooling.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Both parts 1) and 2) are correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect, establishing seal injection flow first runs has a higher probability of warping the shaft since injection enters the seal in one location; the thermal barrier encircles the pump shaft so a more uniform cooling of the seals occurs.

Plausible in that the Candidate incorrectly recall the differences between the design of seal injection and thermal barrier flow in the RCP seal area.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, before the fourth start attempt is made, the RCP must remain idle for 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> to ensure adequate time for the RCP motor stator to cool. Part 2) is correct.

Plausible since the Candidate can confuse the total number of starts in the P&L with the number of starts allowed in a two hour period.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, before the fourth start attempt is made, the RCP must remain idle for 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> to ensure adequate time for the RCP motor stator to cool. Part 2) is incorrect, establishing seal injection flow first runs has a higher probability of warping the shaft since injection enters the seal in one location; the thermal barrier encircles the pump shaft so a more uniform cooling of the seals occurs. Plausible since the Candidate can confuse the total number of starts in the P&L with the number of starts allowed in a two hour period and incorrectly recall the differences between the design of seal injection and thermal barrier flow in the RCP seal area.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 004K4.03, Chemical and Volume Control / 2, Knowledge of CVCS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: Protection of ion exchangers (high letdown temperature will isolate ion exchangers)

Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.8 IR-SRO: 2.9 Proposed Question: !4 Unit 1 was operating at 100% operation when a failure occurred causing Letdown temperature to rise.

Which of the following describes:

1) At what temperature will the Letdown divert valve, 1-CH-TCV-1143 divert to the VCT?

2) What is the reason for this action?

A. 1) 145 oF.

2) Protect Ion Exchanger resin from damage due to high Letdown line temp.

B. 1) 145 oF.

2) Mitigate positive reactivity caused by boron absorption from Demins.

C. 1) 130 oF.

2) Protect Ion Exchanger resin from damage due to high Letdown line temp.

D. 1) 130 oF.

2) Mitigate positive reactivity caused by boron absorption from Demins.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation: Letdown Line temperatures and VCT temperatures are rising slowly. Once Letdown line temperature reaches 145 oF, 1-CH-TCV-1143 will divert to the VCT which bypasses the Demins. The reason for this is to protect the Ion exchangers from high temperatures. 130 oF is the high temperature alarm setpoint for the VCT.

Technical

Reference:

ND-88.3-LP-2 Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-88.3-LP-2, Charging and Letdown, Objective C; Assess the function and operation of each charging and letdown system component including instrumentation and control.

Question Source: New

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of CVCS design feature for providing protection of ion exchangers from high temperatures. This matches the K/A Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) 145 oF. Correct.

2) Protect Ion Exchanger resin from damage due to high Letdown line temp. Correct.

B. 1) 145 oF. Correct.

2) Mitigate positive reactivity caused by boron absorption from Demins.

Incorrect, TCV 1143 provides protection to the Demins. Plausible because letdown temperature changes will cause a change to boron.

In this case Letdown temperatures are rising which would tend to release boron adding negative reactivity which is the opposite effect.

C. 1) 130 oF. Incorrect, because the divert valve diverts at 145 oF.

Plausible because this is the setpoint for ARP 1D-F1, VCT Hi temp, therefore this choice could be selected if candidate confused between VCT hi temp and Letdown Hi temp/divert setpoint.

2) Protect Ion Exchanger resin from damage due to high Letdown line temp. This is correct.

D. 1) 130 oF. Incorrect, because the divert valve diverts at 145 oF.

Plausible because this is the setpoint for ARP 1D-F1, VCT Hi temp, therefore this choice could be selected if candidate confused between VCT hi temp and Letdown Hi temp/divert setpoint

2) Mitigate positive reactivity caused by boron absorption from Demins.

Incorrect, TCV 1143 provides protection to the Demins. Plausible because letdown temperature changes will cause a change to boron.

In this case Letdown temperatures are rising which would tend to release boron adding negative reactivity which is the opposite effect.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 005K2.03, Residual Heat Removal / 4, Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following:

RCS pressure boundary motor-operated valves Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.7 IR-SRO: 2.8 Proposed Question: !5 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 is being cooled down to Cold Shutdown, with RHR in service.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) The power supply to 1-RH-MOV-1700, RHR Inlet MOV.

2) The pressure transmitter that supplies the signal for the 460 psig open interlock.

A. 1) 1H1-2S-8C.

2) 1-RC-PT-1444, PRZR Press Control.

B. 1) 1H1-2S-8C.

2) 1-RC-PT-1403, RCS Pressure Narrow Range.

C. 1) 1A1-1E-4B.

2) 1-RC-PT-1444, PRZR Press Control.

D. 1) 1A1-1E-4B.

2) 1-RC-PT-1403, RCS Pressure Narrow Range.

Proposed Answer: B.

Explanation: RHR inlet MOVs are powered from an emergency bus supply, 1H or 1J. The RHR MOV inlet open interlock setpoint is 460 psig. 1-RC-PT-1444 range is 1700 to 2500 psig which is above the low limit for this transmitter. 1-RC-PT-1403 has a range of 0 to 1000 psig.

Technical

Reference:

1-OP-RH-001, RHR Operations, Section 5.1.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-88.2-LP-1, RHR System, Objective B, Using a one-line diagram of the RHR system drawn from memory, describe the system flowpaths including all interconnections with other systems. ND-88.2-LP-1, RHR System, Objective C, System Components and Operation.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must be able to identify power source and transmitter used for the open interlock.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) correct, RH-MOV-1700 P/S is 1H11-2S-8C. Part 2) Incorrect, RC-PT-1444 is used for Pzr Pressure Control Input when > 1700 psig RCS pressure. Plausible since the Candidate must differentiate between PT used for interlock at Low RCS pressure and PT used when >1700 psig.

B. Correct -Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

C. Incorrect -Part 1) is incorrect, P/S for MOV is from an Emergency bus. Plausible since power source listed is on an MCC in the upper cable vault where other CTMT penetration MOVs and other MOVs located in CTMT are powered. Part 2) is incorrect, RC-PT-1444 is used for Pzr pressure control input when RCS pressure is > 1700 psig. Plausible since the Candidate must differentiate between PT used for interlock at Low RCS pressure and the PT used >1700 psig.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, P/S for MOV is from H Emergency bus. Plausible since power source listed is on an MCC in the upper cable vault where other CTMT penetration MOVs and other MOVs located in CTMT are powered. Part 2) is correct, RC-PT-1403 is used for interlock at low RCS pressure.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 005K6.03, Residual Heat Removal / 4, Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following will have on the RHRS: RHR heat exchanger Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.5 IR-SRO: 2.6 Proposed Question: !6 Given the following conditions:

• RCS temperature is 175°F.

• RCS pressure is 305 psig.

• The PRZR is solid.

• Charging flow control is in manual.

• RHR is in service, with the "A" RHR heat exchanger and 1-RH-P-1A in service.

• 1-RH-FCV-1605, RHR H/X bypass, is in AUTO.

The "A" RHR heat exchanger suddenly develops a 150 gpm tube leak.

With NO Operator actions, which ONE of the following identifies the effect of this malfunction on:

1) Flow through the RHR pump.

2) RCS pressure.

A. 1) Flow remains the same.

2) Pressure lowers.

B. 1) Flow remains the same.

2) Pressure rises.

C. 1) Flow rises.

2) Pressure rises.

D. 1) Flow rises.

2) Pressure lowers.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation: A 150 gpm tube leak in the A RHR heat exchanger leak into the component cooling system because the RHR pressure is much greater than CC. This 150 gpm leakage flow will cause total flow to initially drop by 150 gpm. This will be sensed by FT-1605 and will cause FCV-1605 to open to allow an additional 150 gpm to flow through FCV-1605 because it is in AUTO. The net result is that RHR pump flow will increase by approximately 150 gpm. RCS pressure will decrease because the 150 gpm tube leak is leaving the RCS, and with Charging flow in MANUAL there is no system that will automatically respond to the RCS leak.

Technical

Reference:

ND-88.2-LP-1, RHR System Description

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-88.2-LP-1, Objective C. Assess the function and operation of each RHR system component.

Question Source: Bank (RHR0066)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: The question deals with a malfunction of the A RHR heat exchanger caused by a tube leak. The student must be knowledgeable of the system operation, flowpath and component operation to evaluate the effect on the RHRS of this malfunction.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) RHR pump flow remains the same (incorrect). RHR pump flow will rise because of the break flow and the effect of 1-RH-FCV-1605 opening farther. Plausible if student doesnt understand leak effect on FT-1605. If leak is downstream of FT-1605 instead of upstream then FT-1605 would cause FCV-1605 to throttle down keeping RHR pump flow the same. Or if FT-1605 measured pump flow instead of RHR system flow then RHR pump flow would remain the same.

2) RCS pressure lowers (correct).

B. 1) RHR pump flow remains the same (incorrect). RHR pump flow will rise because of the break flow and the effect of 1-RH-FCV-1605 opening farther. Plausible if student doesnt understand leak effect on FT-1605. If leak is downstream of FT-1605 instead of upstream then FT-1605 would cause FCV-1605 to throttle down keeping RHR pump flow the same. Or if FT-1605 measured pump flow instead of RHR system flow then RHR pump flow would remain the same.

2) RCS pressure rises (incorrect). RCS pressure will lower because 150 gpm is leaving the system and not being replaced. Plausible if student fails to take into account that Charging is in MANUAL, and fails to take into account that the leak is out of the RHR system and not into the RHR system. Additionally initial flow through HCV-1142 would decrease, which by itself would cause RCS pressure to rise.

C. RHR pump flow increases (correct).

2) RCS pressure rises (incorrect). RCS pressure will lower because 150 gpm is leaving the system and not being replaced. Plausible if student fails to take into account that Charging is in MANUAL, and fails to take into account that the leak is out of the RHR system and not into the RHR system. . Additionally initial flow through HCV-1142 would decrease, which by itself would cause RCS pressure to rise.

D. Correct answer.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 006A2.05, Emergency Core Cooling / 2, Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the ECCS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Improper amperage to the pump motor Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.4 IR-SRO: 3.5 Proposed Question: !7 Initial Conditions:

• A Small Break LOCA is in progress.

• SI re-initiated two (2) minutes ago.

• SI has been reset.

• The Team is performing 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, and has reached Step 19, Establish Charging Pump Redundant Flowpaths.

Current Conditions:

• 1-CH-P-1A indicates 60 amps.

• 1-CH-P-1B indicates 62 amps.

• 1-CH-P-1C indicates 30 amps.

Which ONE of the following describes the condition of C CH pump when Step 19 is complete?

1) The control switch is in ________.

2) Aligned to the ________.

A. 1) Pull-to-lock

2) Alternate header B. 1) Auto-after-start

2) Alternate header C. 1) Pull-to-lock

2) Normal header D. 1) Auto-after-start

2) Normal header Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Note Prior to Step 19 of 1-E-1 states that CH pump order of priority is C, B, A. And the highest priority CH pump should be aligned to the Normal Header. With the Amp indications provided,

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet the C CH pump should be identified as degraded. To meet the requirements of the Notes and Step 19, the C CH pump should be aligned to the Alternate Header, with the control switch in Pull-to-Lock.

Technical

Reference:

1-E-1, Revision 43.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-7, 1-E-1, Objective B, Given a copy of E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition. Pages 26/27.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.5)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question meets K/A. Candidate must assess the indications provided for the CH pumps, determine that the C CH pump is degraded, and assess the alignment of the CH pumps to the Normal and Alternate Headers based upon knowledge of the Notes prior to Step 19 of 1-E-1.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct. Alignment at the end of Step 19 of 1-E-1 should match this configuration.

B. Incorrect - Part 1 is incorrect. Part 2) is correct. The CH pump that is secured in Step 19 is maintained in PTL. Plausible since this is a possible configuration of the control switch if Candidates fails to apply step 19 correctly.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, Part 2) is incorrect, C CH should be aligned to the Alternate header based on the Notes prior to Step 19. Plausible since this is a possible configuration if Candidates fails to apply Notes correctly.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, the CH pump that is secured in Step 19 is maintained in PTL.

Plausible since this is a possible configuration of the control switch if Candidates fails to apply step 19 correctly. Part 2) is incorrect, C CH should be aligned to the Alternate header based on the Notes prior to Step 19. Plausible since this is a possible configuration if Candidates fails to apply Notes correctly.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 006K3.01, Emergency Core Cooling / 2, Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the ECCS will have on the following: RCS Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.1 IR-SRO: 4.2 Proposed Question: !8 Given the following:

• Unit 1 operating at 100%.

• Spurious Safety Injection signal has been initiated.

• Following the SI the Charging pump suction valves have the following positions:

o 1-CH-MOV-1115B, CHG pump suction from RWST; CLOSED o 1-CH-MOV-1115C, CHG pump suction from VCT; OPEN.

o 1-CH-MOV-1115D, CHG pump suction from RWST; OPEN.

o 1-CH-MOV-1115E, CHG pump suction from VCT; CLOSED.

• All other auto SI actions occur as designed.

Assuming no operator action occurs, which of the following describes the effect on HHSI injection into the RCS?

A. HHSI injection flow from the VCT only.

B. HHSI injection flow from the RWST only.

C. HHSI injection flow from the VCT and RWST.

D. No HHSI injection flow.

Proposed Answer: B. HHSI injection flow from the RWST only Explanation: VCT will be isolated from Charging pumps once 1-CH-MOV-1115E goes closed because both MOV-1115 C and E are series valves. Both of these valves are supposed to stroke closed once an SI occurs and either MOV-1115B or D opens. Flow from the RWST will occur once MOV-1115D opens.

Both MOV-1115B and D will stroke open once SI occurs.

Technical

Reference:

ND-88.3-LP-2, Charging and Letdown.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-88.3-LP-2, Charging and Letdown, Objective C; Assess the function and operation of each charging and letdown system component including instrumentation and control.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.6)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question poses a failure of the SI system, specifically the auto initiate logic therefore the failure mechanism matches the loss or failure of ECCS. The question specifically asks for the effect of this failure on flow into the RCS. The question matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. HHSI injection flow from the VCT only. Incorrect because VCT is isolated. Plausible if operator confuses VCT suction configuration (MOV-1115C/E in series) with the RWST (MOV-1115B/D in parallel).

B. HHSI injection flow from the RWST only. Correct.

C. HHSI injection flow from the VCT and RWST. Incorrect because VCT is isolated. Plausible if operator confuses VCT suction configuration (MOV-1115C/E in series) with the RWST (MOV-1115B/D in parallel), or confuses isolation logic and believes 1115B must be opened before 1115C will go closed.

D. No HHSI injection flow. Incorrect because VCT is isolated and RWST is aligned. Plausible if operator confuses VCT suction configuration (MOV-1115C/E in series) with the RWST (MOV-1115B/D in parallel).

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 007A2.02, Pressurizer Relief/Quench Tank / 5, Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the P S; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Abnormal pressure in the PRT Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.6 IR-SRO: 3.2 Proposed Question: !9 Initial Conditions:

• 1-RC-PT-1445, PRZR PRESS CNTRL, failed high.

• The Team has completed the Immediate Actions of 0-AP-53.00, Loss of Vital Instrumentation/Controls.

Current Conditions: (7 minutes later):

• The STA notes that PRT Pressure, Level, and Temperature all have a rising trend.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The PRZR PORV block valve that must be closed.

2) The procedure that directs this action.

A. 1) Close 1-RC-MOV-1536, PRZR PORV block valve to isolate 1-RC-PCV-1455C.

2) 1-AP-16.00, Excessive RCS Leakage.

B. 1) Close 1-RC-MOV-1535, PRZR PORV block valve to isolate 1-RC-PCV-1456.

2) 1-AP-31.00, Increasing or Decreasing RCS Pressure.

C. 1) Close 1-RC-MOV-1536, PRZR PORV block valve to isolate 1-RC-PCV-1455C.

2) 1-AP-31.00, Increasing or Decreasing RCS Pressure.

D. 1) Close 1-RC-MOV-1535, PRZR PORV block valve to isolate 1-RC-PCV-1456.

2) 1-AP-16.00, Excessive RCS Leakage.

Proposed Answer: B.

Explanation: Failure of 1-RC-PT-1445 will cause 1-RC-PCV-1456 to open. The first Step of AP-31.00 is an Immediate Action Step that will have the Team close the Block Valve for a PORV that has not closed after lifting. Rising indications on the PRT indicate that the PORV that has lifted did not fully reseat and is leaking.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

1-AP-31.00, Rev. 19. Increasing or Decreasing RCS Pressure.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No.

Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-5, PZR Press Control, Objective C, In accordance with 1-AP-31.00, relate the operator actions necessary during abnormal functioning of the Pressurizer Pressure Control System.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches the K/A. The Candidate must assess the effect of the Pressure transmitter failure on the PZR PORVs, identify which block must be isolated to stop PORV leakage, and identify which procedural guidance is used to take this action.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, PORV is operated from the master pressure controller.

Plausible in that the Candidate may confuse which block valve used to isolate the PORV that has lifted. Part 2) is incorrect, 0-AP-53.00 would transition the Team to AP-31.00 to address the abnormal condition when the pressure transmitter failed. AP-31.00 actions would be in effect at the Current Conditions time (7 minutes later) as stated in the Stem.

Plausible in that the Candidate may confuse which procedure would be in effect at the time of Current Conditions, and Step 20 of AP-16.00 directs the Team to check PRT inleakage Normal, then try to identify source on inleakage using Attachment 1 - but does not direct closure of block to isolate leakage.

B. Correct - Part 1) is correct, the correct MOV is closed to isolate the leak. Part 2) is correct in that this is the AP in effect at the time of Current Conditions.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, wrong block valve to close to isolate suspected leaking PZR PORV. Plausible in that the Candidate may confuse which block valve used to isolate the PORV that has lifted. Part 2) is correct.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, this block valve is used to isolate leaking PORV. Part 2) is incorrect, 0-AP-53.00 would have been exited to AP-31.00 at time of Current Conditions.

Plausible since the Candidate could select the incorrect AP supplying reference to close block valve at current conditions, Step 20 of AP-16.00 directs the Team to check PRT inleakage Normal, then try to identify source on inleakage using Attachment 1 - but does not direct closure of block to isolate leakage.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 008AA1.04, Pressurizer Vapor Space Accident / 3, Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Pressurizer Vapor Space Accident: Feedwater pumps Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.8 IR-SRO: 2.5 Proposed Question: !10 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100%.

• Pressurizer Safety Valve 1-RC-SV-1551A inadvertently fails partially open.

• S/G B NR level channel, 1-FW-LI-1484, fails high immediately following the Reactor trip.

• 30 seconds later SI automatically actuates.

Current Conditions (10 minutes later)

• Plant is stabilized with Tave at 552 oF and RCS pressure at 1910 psig.

• Pressurizer vapor space temperature is steady at 630 oF.

• Main Feedwater pumps have tripped, all Feed Reg valves are closed, and all Feed Reg Bypass valves are closed.

Which of the following describes:

1) The Main Feed pumps trip after the_______.

2) The Feed Regulating Bypass valves closed due to the _______.

A. 1) reactor trip, but before the safety injection.

2) reactor trip coincident with low Tave.

B. 1) reactor trip, but before the safety injection.

2) safety injection.

C. 1) safety injection.

2) reactor trip coincident with low Tave.

D. 1) safety injection.

2) safety injection.

Proposed Answer: D. 1) safety injection. 2) safety injection.

Explanation: Feed pumps automatically tripped because of the SI and the Feedwater isolation (FWI) occurred because of the SI. Reactor trip coincident with low Tave does cause a FWI but the SI occurred first therefore it is what caused the FWI.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

ND-88.1-LP-3, Pressurizer and Pressure relief. ND-89.3-LP-3, Main Feedwater System Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-89.3-LP-3, Main Feedwater System, objective B; Describe the major main feedwater system components including, if applicable, their functions, power supply and operation.

Question Source: Modified Bank (CPSES 2005, question 1: modified stem and distractors)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question tests knowledge related to Feedwater pumps following a Pressurizer vapor space accident. This directly matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) After the reactor trip, but before the Safety Injection. Incorrect, one S/G level channel will not auto trip Feed pumps. Plausible if student confuses Hi level Feed pump trip coincidence, or confuses auto actions that occur on Rx Trip with Feedwater trips such as Turbine Trip. Turbine trip does not cause a Feed pump trip but a Feed pump trip does cause a Turbine trip. 2) reactor trip coincident with low Tave. Incorrect because, the Feed Reg Bypass valve does not have any isolation associated with Rx Trip and low Tave. Plausible because this is a Feedwater Isolation to the Feed Reg valves.

B. 1) After the reactor trip, but before the Safety Injection. Incorrect, one S/G level channel will not auto trip Feed pumps. Plausible if student confuses Hi level Feed pump trip coincidence, or confuses auto actions that occur on Rx Trip with Feedwater trips such as Turbine Trip. Turbine trip does not cause a Feed pump trip but a Feed pump trip does cause a Turbine trip. 2) Safety Injection. This is correct.

C. 1) After the Safety Injection. This is correct. 2) reactor trip coincident with low Tave. Incorrect because the SI occurred first. Also, the Feed Reg Bypass valve does not have any isolation associated with Rx Trip and low Tave. Plausible because this is a Feedwater Isolation to the Feed Reg valves.

D. 1) After the Safety Injection. This is correct. 2) Safety Injection. This is correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 008K1.01, Component Cooling Water / 8, Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the CCWS and the following systems: SWS Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.1 IR-SRO: 3.1 Proposed Question: !11

• Unit 1 reactor operating at 100% power.

• A tube leak develops in 1-CC-E-1A, A CCHX.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) The effect on CC Surge Tank level.

2) The CW lines that supply SW to the CCHXs.

A. 1) Rise.

2) 1A/C.

B. 1) Lower.

2) 1B/D.

C. 1) Rise.

2) 1B/D.

D. 1) Lower.

2) 1A/C.

Proposed Answer: B.

Explanation: Component Cooling is at a higher pressure than SW, causing CC to leak into SW, thus CC Surge tank level would lower. The 1B and 1D CW lines supply SW to through 1-SW-MOV-102A/B.

Technical

Reference:

VSP-D7, CC Surge TK HI-LO-LVL, Revision 3 Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-88.5-LP-1, Component Cooling Presentation, Objective A, Describe the major system components including their function and power supply (if applicable), including: CC Surge Tank, Radiation Monitors, CC Pumps, Chemical Addition, CC Heat Exchangers.

ND-89.5-LP-2, Service Water, Objective C, State in general the flowpath of service water from the high level intake to the discharge tunnel for the systems served by service water.

Question Source: New

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.9)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must determine effect on CC Surge Tank level given a CC HX leak, and which CW line supplies the CCHXs.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - 1) is incorrect, CC is at a higher pressure than SW, the leak will cause CC Surge Tank level to drop. Plausible should Candidate confuse which system is at the higher pressure thus direction of flow. 2) Incorrect - CW supply for the SW cooling the CC system is from the 1B/D lines. Plausible should Candidate confuse CW lines that supply CC and the BC systems.

B. Correct - 1) Correct, CC Surge tank level will drop. 2) Correct - SW to the CCHXs is supplied from the 1B/D CW lines.

C. Incorrect - 1) Incorrect, CC is at a higher pressure than SW, the leak will cause CC Surge Tank level to drop. Plausible if Candidate confuse which system is at the higher pressure thus direction of flow. 2) Correct, SW to the CCHXs is supplied from the 1B/D CW lines.

D. Correct - 1) CC Surge tank level will drop. 2) Incorrect - CW supply for the SW cooling the CC system is from the 1B/D lines. Plausible should Candidate confuse CW lines that supply CC and the BC systems.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 009EK3.11, Small Break LOCA / 3, Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as the apply to the small break LOCA: Dangers associated with inadequate core cooling Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.4 IR-SRO: 4.5 Proposed Question: !12 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 and Unit 2 operating at 100%.

• LOCA on Unit 1 causing Reactor trip and SI.

• Charging pump, 1-CH-P-1B started then tripped on lockout, 1-CH-P-1A and C are running.

• Containment pressure is 16.2 psia and slowly rising.

Current conditions:

• RO reports loss of 1H 4160 V bus. EDG 1 did not start.

• RCS pressure is 1082 psig and slowly lowering.

• CETC is 528 oF and stable.

Which of the following states:

1) RCP Trip criteria is _____.

2) The reason RCPs are tripped.

A. 1) Met.

2) Prevent excessive depletion of RCS inventory.

B. 1) Not met.

2) Minimize heat input.

C. 1) Not met.

2) Prevent excessive depletion of RCS inventory.

D. 1) Met.

2) Minimize heat input.

Proposed Answer: C. 1) not met. 2) prevent excessive depletion of RCS inventory.

Explanation: 1) After the loss of 1H bus the remaining Charging pumps 1-CH-P-1A, and 1-CH-P-1C were lost therefore no HHSI pumps are running. The RCP Trip criteria requires tripping all RCPs if BOTH of the following conditions are met: 1) Charging pumps at least one running and flowing to RCS.

AND 2) RCS Subcooling < 30 oF [85 oF]. Calculated Subcooling is 556 oF (Tsat for 1097 psia) minus

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 528 oF = 28 oF subcooling. The second condition is met but the first one is not because there are no charging pumps. Therefore RCP trip criteria is NOT met.

2) The reason for tripping the RCPs is to prevent excessive depletion of RCS water inventory through a small break in the RCS which might lead to severe core uncovery if the RCPs were tripped for some reason later in the accident.

Technical

Reference:

1-E-1, Rev. 43, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant. 1-ES-1.2, Rev. 47, Post Loca Cooldown and Depressurization.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-7, Objective B, Given a copy of E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.5 / 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: RCP trip criteria needs to be done to ensure RCS depletion doesnt lead to inadequate core cooling later if RCPs are tripped. Question poses a SBLOCA problem whereby candidate must determine if RCP trip criteria is met, and also the basis for tripping RCPs therefore the question meets the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet A. 1) met. Incorrect. RCP trip criteria is NOT met because there are no Charging pumps running. Plausible because the Subcooling criteria is met.

2) prevent excessive depletion of RCS inventory. Correct.

B. 1) not met. Correct.

2) minimize heat input. Incorrect RCP trip criteria prevents excessive depletion through a small break in the RCS which might lead to severe core uncovery if RCPs were tripped later in the accident. Plausible if candidate confuses RCP Trip criteria for small break LOCA with other EOP steps requiring tripping of RCPs. For example a small break LOCA 1-ES-1.2, (small break LOCA) step 15 requires tripping all but one RCP to minimize heat input. Also, 1-FR-H.1 step 2 requires stopping all RCPs if Bleed and Feed is required inn order to minimize heat input.

C. 1) not met. Correct.

2) prevent excessive depletion of RCS inventory. Correct.

D. 1) met. Incorrect. RCP trip criteria is NOT met because there are no Charging pumps running. Plausible because the Subcooling criteria is met.

2) minimize heat input. Incorrect RCP trip criteria prevents excessive depletion through a small break in the RCS which might lead to severe core uncovery if RCPs were tripped later in the accident. Plausible if candidate confuses RCP Trip criteria for small break LOCA with other EOP steps requiring tripping of RCPs. For example a small break LOCA 1-ES-1.2, (small break LOCA) step 15 requires tripping all but one RCP to minimize heat input. Also, 1-FR-H.1 step 2 requires stopping all RCPs if Bleed and Feed is required inn order to minimize heat input.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 010K6.02, Pressurizer Pressure Control / 3, Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the PZR PCS: PZR Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.5 Proposed Question: !13 A ground has developed on DC Panel 1-2, causing 1-RC-SOV-101B-1 and 1-RC-SOV-101B-2, PRZR Vent Valves, to fail open.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) The Master Pressure controller output will _______?

2) The PRZR Vent Valves discharge to the ___________?

A. 1) rise

2) Primary Vent Pot B. 1) rise

2) Reactor Cavity C. 1) lower

2) Primary Vent Pot D. 1) lower

2) Reactor Cavity Proposed Answer: D Explanation: Opening of the PRZR vent valves will cause PRZR pressure to lower. The Master pressure controller responds by lowering output to close the PRZR spray valves and cause PRZR heaters to energize to raise PRZR pressure. When 1-RC-SOV-101B-1 / 2 fail open, they vent the top of the PRZR to the reactor cavity.

Technical

Reference:

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-93.4-LP-4, Post Accident Monitoring, Objective A, Describe the flowpath, controls, and interrelationships of the following major components on the Post-Accident Monitoring Control (PAMC) Panel: Pressurizer Head Vent Subsystem. ND-92.4-LP-1, GW and LW, Objective C, Determine the operation of the Vents and Drains System.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must determine effect of vapor space leak on pressurizer cause by the opening of the PRZR Vent Valves and the Effect on the PZR PCS. Also the Candidate must recall the location of the discharge of these valves.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, the Master pressure controller output will lower to energize all PRZR heaters and close the spray valves to return RCS pressure to NOP. Part 2) incorrect, the valves discharge to the Reactor Cavity in order to allow the H2 Recombiner to catalyze the H2 released from the PRZR. Plausible since the Candidate can confuse operation of the PRZR PCS and changes in Master Pressure controller output to adjust RCS pressure, and Primary Vent Pot can be used to capture vents from PRZR Relief Line Vent on the discharge side of the C PRZR SV.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, the Master pressure controller output will lower to energize all PRZR heaters and close the spray valves to return RCS pressure to NOP. Part 2) is correct. Plausible since the Candidate can confuse operation of the PRZR PCS and changes in Master Pressure controller output to adjust RCS pressure C. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, master pressure controller will lower to energize PRZR heaters and close spray valves to return RCS pressure to NOP. Part 2) is incorrect, plausible since the Primary Vent Pot can be used to capture vents from PRZR Relief Line Vent on the discharge side of the C PRZR SV.

D. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 011EK2.02, Large Break LOCA / 3, Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as the apply to the Large Break LOCA: Pumps Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.6 IR-SRO: 2.7 Proposed Question: !14 Initial conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100% power.

• The breaker for 1-SI-MOV-1885C, LHSI Pump "A" Recirc Valve, was found open, and could not be reclosed.

• A Large Break LOCA occurs.

Current conditions:

• The RWST level is 12.5%.

• The Team is currently at 1-ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation; step 5, Align SI System for Recirc.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) Which LHSI pump(s) will automatically align to the RMT mode?

2) Which LHSI pump will normally supply the suction to the HHSI Alternate Header?

A. 1) Both LHSI pumps.

2) B LHSI pump.

B. 1) ONLY the "B" LHSI pump.

2) A LHSI pump.

C. 1) Both LHSI pumps.

2) A LHSI pump.

D. 1) ONLY the "B" LHSI pump.

2) B LHSI pump.

Proposed Answer: C. 1) Both LHSI pumps will align to Recirc Mode 2) A LHSI pump.

Explanation: 1) Recirc Mode Transfer will initiate automatically once RWST is at 13.5% (2/4 coincidence). The first phase of RMT is the automatic opening of the LHSI pump discharge to the HHSI pumps. While the LHSI pump discharge MOVs are opening the LHSI pump recirc valves (MOVs 1885A, 1885B, 1885C, and 1885D) all will attempt to auto-CLOSE. MOV-1885C will not CLOSE because it has a failed breaker, this will not matter as there are two recirc lines and two MOVs per recirc line. MOV-1885B will close and will isolate the recirc line that MOV-1885C is on. RMT will continue as designed and both LHSI pumps will align to the Recirc. Mode. 2) Normally the A LHSI pump will supply the HHSI Alternate Header.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

ND-91-LP-3 Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-91-LP-3, objective E; Explain the operation of the Safety Injection system in response to a RMT initiation signal, including RMT signal setpoint, coincidence, and purpose.

Question Source: Bank (SI00075)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.5 / 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question poses a scenario involving the ability for the LHSI and HHSI pumps to transfer to RMT. The student must have knowledge related to RMT and pump operation in order to determine which pump will shift to the Recirc mode.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Both LHSI pumps. Correct. 2) B LHSI pump. Incorrect, because the A LHSI pump normally supplies Alternate header, while the B LHSI pump supplies the Normal HHSI header. Plausible because candidate could very easily confuse the A and B LHSI pump flow paths.

B. 1) ONLY the "B" LHSI pump. Incorrect, this failure will not significantly affect the Recirc alignment due to the multiple lines that are cross-tied.

Plausible because many pumps have dedicated recirc lines with only one MOV that controls flow path. An example of this would be the High Head SI system (Charging). 2) A LHSI pump. This is correct.

C. 1) Both LHSI pumps. This is correct. 2) A LHSI pump. This is correct.

D. 1) ONLY the "B" LHSI pump. Incorrect, this failure will not significantly affect the Recirc alignment due to the multiple lines that are cross-tied.

Plausible because many pumps have dedicated recirc lines with only one MOV that controls flow path. An example of this would be the High Head SI system (Charging). 2) B LHSI pump. Incorrect, because the A LHSI pump normally supplies Alternate header, while the B LHSI pump supplies the Normal HHSI header. Plausible because candidate could very easily confuse the A and B LHSI pump flow paths.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 011K2.02, Pressurizer Level Control / 2, Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: PZR heaters Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.1 IR-SRO: 3.2 Proposed Question: !15 A loss of off-site power has resulted in the trip of both Units.

• 120 seconds have elapsed since the reactor trip.

Which ONE of the following identifies the Pressurizer heaters energized on Unit 1?

A. None.

B. E Group.

C. E and A Groups.

D. A Group.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Following the loss of an emergency bus, the EDGs will receive an auto start signal. At the time of bus repower, a 180 second time delay is started by the Load Sequencing circuit. Since #3 EDG is designed to align to Unit 2; Unit 1 will have only the H bus energized by #1 EDG, (this bus powers the E Group heaters. Since 2 minutes have elapsed since the reactor trip, the E group have approximately 1 minute remaining before the Load Sequence timer elapses. The B, C, and D Pressurizer heaters are powered from the Station Service buses - these buses are lost on the loss of off-site power.

Technical

Reference:

ND-90.3-LP-7, SS and Emergency Dist Prot and Control, Objective D, Analyze the purpose and effects of Load Sequencing on Emergency Distribution loads.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-90.3-LP-7, SS and Emergency Dist Prot and Control, Objective D, Analyze the purpose and effects of Load Sequencing on Emergency Distribution loads.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must analyze emergency distribution and load sequencing effects to determine which pressurizer heater group on Unit 1 will re-energize after load sequence timers have elapsed.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Load sequencing will lock-out the E group heaters until 180 seconds have elapsed following the re-power of the H bus. Only 120 seconds have elapsed. Unit 1 J 4160V/480V buses remain de-energized since #3 EDG preferentially loads to Unit 2 J bus on loss of off-site power.

B. Incorrect - Load sequencing will lock-out the E group heaters until 180 seconds have elapsed following the re-power of the H bus. Only 120 seconds have elapsed; E group heaters will remain de-energized for an additional 60 seconds.

C. Incorrect - Load sequencing will lock-out the E group heaters until 180 seconds have elapsed following the re-power of the H bus. Only 120 seconds have elapsed. Unit 1 J 4160V/480V buses remain de-energized since #3 EDG preferentially loads to Unit 2 J bus on a loss of off-site power.

D. Incorrect - Unit 1 J 4160V/480V buses remain de-energized since #3 EDG preferentially loads to Unit 2 J bus on a loss of off-site power. A group przr heaters are powered from 1J bus.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 012K5.02, Reactor Protection / 7, Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as the apply to the RPS: Power density Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.1 IR-SRO: 3.3 Proposed Question: !16 Given the following:

• Unit 1 is at a hold point following a refueling outage.

• 1-GOP-1.5, Unit Startup, 2% to Max Allowable power is in progress and all steps are completed for current conditions.

• Control Rods are in Manual with Tave and Tref matched.

• Power Range NIs indicate as follows:

o N-41 37%

o N-42 36%

o N-43 33%

o N-44 36%

• Power Range NI N-44 then fails low.

Which one of the choices below completes the following statements?

1) The current status of the RCS single loop low flow trip (P-8) is ___(1)___.

2) The Reactor Protection System function currently protecting the core against a positive reactivity excursion is the ___(2)___ trip.

A. 1) not blocked

2) Intermediate Range High Flux B. 1) not blocked

2) Power Range High Flux High Setpoint C. 1) blocked

2) Intermediate Range High Flux D. 1) blocked

2) Power Range High Flux High Setpoint Proposed Answer: B. 1) not blocked. 2) Power Range High Flux High Setpoint Explanation: Status light A2, NIS PWR RGE <35% is LIT when 3-of-4 NI channels; N-41 (42,43,44) falls below P-8, 35% power. For the given conditions, only 2/4 Power Range detectors are less than 35%

(N-41, N-44), therefore the expected status light response is NOT LIT. Power Range High Flux High Setpoint is currently protecting core from a reactivity excursion. The intermediate Range High Flux is bypassed at 10% power.

Technical

Reference:

1-GOP-1.5, Rev. 71, Unit Startup, 2% to Max Allowable power.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective:

• ND-93.3-LP-16, Permissive Bypass Trip Status lights, Objective A, When given the permissive number (i.e., P-1, P-2), explain the function of the permissive including the setpoints, and coinci-dence.

• ND-93.3-LP-10, Rx. Protection, Objective C, Explain all RPS reactor trip signals, including setpoints, coincidences, and purpose.

Question Source: Modified Bank: North Anna 2014 Q 39 (modified stem and setpoints to match our plant).

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: A positive reactivity excursion that is unchecked would create an elevated power density somewhere in the core. Therefore the question matches the K/A Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) not blocked. This is correct for part 1.

2) Intermediate Range High Flux. Incorrect because this reactor trip is blocked at this time. Plausible if the student confuses the blocked point with the setpoint because the setpoint is approximately 35%.

B. 1) not blocked. Correct.

2) Power Range High Flux High Setpoint. Correct.

C. 1) blocked. This is incorrect as coincidence is 3 of 4. Plausible if student confuses block with not blocked coincidence.

2) Intermediate Range High Flux. Incorrect because this reactor trip is blocked at this time. Plausible if the student confuses the blocked point with the setpoint because the setpoint is approximately 35%.

D. 1) blocked. This is incorrect as coincidence is 3 of 4. Plausible if student confuses block with not blocked coincidence.

2) Power Range High Flux High Setpoint. This is correct for part 2.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 013G2.2.36, Engineered Safety Features Actuation / 2, Ability to analyze the effect of maintenance activities, such as degraded power sources, on the status of limiting conditions of operations Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.1 IR-SRO: 4.2 Proposed Question: !17 Both Units are operating at 100% power.

• 1615 1-SI-P-1B, B LHSI pump, tagged out for Seal Head Tank repair.

• 2130 #1 EDG Load Limit knob on the UG-8 governor found in position 1 vice greater than 10 position during log rounds.

• 2145 The SRO declares Tech Spec 3.02 in effect, which requires the Unit be placed in at least Hot Shutdown in 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> and in Cold Shutdown in the following 30 hours3.472222e-4 days <br />0.00833 hours <br />4.960317e-5 weeks <br />1.1415e-5 months <br />.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The Tech Spec definition of Cold Shutdown.

2) Is this the correct application of Tech Spec 3.02 for the current plant conditions?

A. 1) The reactor is subcritical by at least 1% k/k and Tavg is 200°F.

2) Yes.

B. 1) The reactor is subcritical by at least 1% k/k and Tavg is 200°F.

2) No.

C. 1) The reactor is subcritical by at least 1.77% k/k and Tavg is 140°F.

2) Yes.

D. 1) The reactor is subcritical by at least 1.77% k/k and Tavg is 140°F.

2) No.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: The Tech Spec Definition of CSD is RCS Tave 200 °F and Reactor Shutdown by at least 1% k/k. A Shutdown Margin of 1.77% k/k is associated with the Administrative Limit which is procedurally driven. The 140 °F RCS Temperature is associated with Refueling Shutdown definition.

With the Load Limit knob on the UG-8 governor in a position other than >10, the EDG cannot be assumed to be able to accept rated load since the Load Limit restricts the movement of the fuel rack lever. With the #1 EDG inoperable, the Emergency power Supply for 1-SI-P-1A has been lost. TS 3.02 allows 1-SI-P-1A to be considered operable if the Normal or Emergency power source is Operable, and

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet the redundant component, 1-SI-P-1B, is also Operable. With 1-SI-P-1B tagged out, the requirements of TS-3.02 cannot be met, thus a TS-3.02 6/30 hour clock is in effect.

Technical

Reference:

Tech Spec 3.02, Rev. 44.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-90.3-LP-1, EDG, Objective M, Describe the Tech Spec requirements for the EDG and support systems, including for SRO candidates, the basis for these requirements.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.2 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must apply Tech Specs and system knowledge to determine that EDG cannot be assumed capable of performing its TS related function due to its degraded ability and would be considered degraded.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - part 1) is correct, this statement matches the definition of CSD per TS Section 2.

Part 2) is correct, Per TS 3.02, the A LHSI pump cannot be considered Operable since its emergency power source is inoperable, and its redundant component, B LHSI pump is Inoperable due to being tagged out.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect, TS-3.02 would apply. Plausible if the Candidate does not consider the #1 EDG degraded in assessment of TS-3.02 applicability.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, SDM margin requirement per TS definition of CSD is 1% k/k with RCS Tave 200 °F. Plausible if Candidate confuses Administrative Limit for SDM (1.77%) with TS requirement (1%) and the RCS Tave limit of the CSD Definition (200 °F) with the Refueling SD limit for Tave (140 °F). Part 2) is correct, TS 3.02 is correct for the plant condition given.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, SDM margin requirement per TS definition of CSD is 1% k/k with RCS Tave 200 °F. Plausible if Candidate confuses Administrative Limit for SDM (1.77%) with TS requirement (1%) and the RCS Tave limit of the CSD Definition (200 °F) with the Refueling SD limit for Tave (140 °F). Part 2) is incorrect. Plausible if the Candidate does not consider the #1 EDG degraded in assessment of TS-3.02 applicability.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 013K4.10, Engineered Safety Features Actuation / 2, Knowledge of ESFAS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following: Safeguards equipment control reset Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.3 IR-SRO: 3.7 Proposed Question: !18 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100% power when a large break LOCA occurs.

• Containment pressure peaks at 45 psia.

Current Conditions:

• The crew is at 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, step 17 and is attempting to open 1-IA-TV-100.

• The RO reports that Containment pressure is slowly lowering and is as follows:

o 1-LM-PI-100A 15 psia.

o 1-LM-PI-100B 15 psia.

o 1-LM-PI-100C 14 psia.

o 1-LM-PI-100D 15 psia.

• The operator has depressed both CLS Train A (B) RESET buttons.

• SI has been reset.

Which one of the following correctly completes the statements below:

1) After depressing both CLS RESET buttons CLS is _____.

2) When the operator attempts to open 1-IA-TV-100 the valve will ___________.

A. 1) reset 2) remain closed B. 1) not reset 2) open C. 1) not reset 2) remain closed D. 1) reset 2) open Proposed Answer: C Explanation: 1) The CLS reset circuit is made up when 2/4 Containment pressure transmitters sense containment pressure < 14.2 psia AND both CLS RESET buttons are depressed. In this case 1/4 Containment pressure transmitters are < 14.2 psia therefore CLS cannot be reset. 2) 1-IA-TV-100 is part of the phase III isolation and cannot be opened until CLS is reset therefore 1-IA-TV-100 will remain closed.

Technical

Reference:

ARP 1B-D4, Rev. 0. 1-E-1, Rev. 43, CLS TR A RESET PERM. NCRODP 67-S, Containment Isolation.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-92.1-LP-1, Station AIR, Objective D, Describe the flowpaths and components associated with the Containment Instrument Air System.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A because question requires detailed knowledge of CLS reset.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) reset. Incorrect. CLS cannot be reset until the CLS permissive is reached which is when 2/4 Containment pressure transmitters sense containment pressure < 14.2. psia. Plausible if candidate confuses reset coincidence of 2/4 with 1/4. 2) remain closed. This is correct.

B. 1) Not reset. Correct. 2) stroke open. This is incorrect, 1-IA-TV-100 is part of the phase III isolation and cannot be opened until CLS is reset. Plausible if candidate confuses 1-IA-TV-100 with a phase I valve which only requires SI to be reset in order to operate. SI was reset in attachment 1 of E-0 and again in an earlier step of E-1, and is part of initial conditions.

C. 1) Not reset. Correct 2) remain closed. This is correct.

D. 1) reset. Incorrect. CLS cannot be reset until the CLS permissive is reached which is when 2/4 Containment pressure transmitters sense containment pressure < 14.2. psia. Plausible if candidate confuses reset coincidence of 2/4 with 1/4. 2) stroke open. This is incorrect, 1-IA-TV-100 is part of the phase III isolation and cannot be opened until CLS is reset. Plausible if candidate confuses 1-IA-TV-100 with a phase I valve which only requires SI to be reset in order to operate. SI was reset in attachment 1 of E-0 and again in an earlier step of E-1, and is part of initial conditions.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 014K5.01, Rod Position Indication / 1, Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the RPIS: Reasons for differences between RPIS and step counter Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 2.7 IR-SRO: 3.0 Proposed Question: !19 The reactor is operating at 100% power when the following sequence of events occur:

• Initial D Bank rod height 225 Steps.

• The RO is performing 1-OPT-RX-005, Control Rod Assembly partial Movement, for D Control Bank.

• Annunciator G-A6, Rod Cont Sys Urgent Failure is received when Control Bank D begins to move inward.

• Rod Control In-Hold-Out switch placed in Hold.

The following indications are noted by the RO:

• Control Bank D, Group 1 Step counter indicates 224 Steps.

• Control Bank D, Group 2 Step counter indicates 222 Steps.

• Control Bank D, CERPI Group 1 indicates 224 Steps.

• Control Bank D, CERPI Group 2 indicates 222 Steps.

Which ONE of the following identifies the:

1) Power Cabinet affected by the Urgent Failure.

2) The source of the signal for the Individual Rod Position Indicator.

A. 1) Power Cabinet 1BD

2) CRDM LVDT B. 1) Power Cabinet 1BD

2) Slave Cycler C. 1) Power Cabinet 2BD

2) CRDM LVDT D. 1) Power Cabinet 2BD

2) Slave Cycler Proposed Answer: A Explanation: When an Urgent Failure is received in a Power Cabinet, the Stationary and Movable gripper coils both energize at low current to hold the affected rods in position. Cabinet 1 BD operates

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Group 1 Rods in Banks B and D. Cabinet 2 BD operates Group 2 rods in Banks B and D.

Cabinet 1 BD has the Urgent Failure since this group indicates 2 steps higher than Group 2; Group 2 rods continued to move until in-hold-out switch placed in hold position. A Linear variable differential transformer mounted on the CRDM is used to develop a signal to the IRPI; the pulse to analog converter sends a signal to the group step counters to increment/decrement the indication.

Technical

Reference:

ND-93.3-LP-3, Rod Control, Objective F, Explain the resulting actions from an "Urgent Failure" or "Non-urgent Failure" alarm, including the meaning of the alarm and the necessary recovery tasks.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-3, Rod Control, Objective F, Explain the resulting actions from an "Urgent Failure" or "Non-urgent Failure" alarm, including the meaning of the alarm and the necessary recovery tasks. ND-93.3-LP-4, CERPI Sys, Objective B, Using the block diagram provided, examine the following CERPI components: Individual Rod Position Indicators (IRPI).

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must assess differences between CERPI and Group Step Indications to determine cabinet affected by Urgent Failure alarm.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Part 1) Correct. Part 2) Correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) Correct. Part 2) - incorrect, Slave cycler sends a signal to increment the group step counters. Plausible since Rod Control diagram shows the Slave cycler output going to the group step counters, P/A converter (CERPI), and the PCS computer; Candidate can confuse function of outputs to subsystems related to Rod Control.

C. Incorrect -Part 1) - incorrect, by indications given, group 2 rods of Bank D continued to move following receipt of Urgent Failure Alarm, thus could not have been the source of the Urgent Failure alarm. Plausible if Candidate confuses nomenclature designating which power cabinet controls group 1 and group 2 rods of the Bank D. Part 2) is correct.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) - incorrect, by indications given, group 2 rods of Bank D continued to move following receipt of Urgent Failure Alarm, thus could not have been the source of the Urgent Failure alarm. Plausible if Candidate confuses nomenclature designating which power cabinet controls group 1 and group 2 rods of the Bank. Part 2) - incorrect, Slave cycler sends a signal to increment the group step counters. Plausible since Rod Control diagram shows the Slave cycler output going to the group step counters, P/A converter (CERPI), and the PCS computer; Candidate can confuse function of outputs to subsystems related to Rod Control.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 015AK2.10, RCP Malfunctions / 4, Knowledge of the interrelations between the Reactor Coolant Pump Malfunctions (Loss of RC Flow) and the following: RCP indicators and controls Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.8 IR-SRO: 2.8 Proposed Question: !20 With Unit 1 at 100% power, an inadvertent phase III containment isolation occurs. Approximately 15 minutes later, the following RCP temperatures exist:

"A" RCP

• Upper Motor radial bearing 185°F

• RCP lower bearing Seal Water Temp 215°F

• Stator winding 285°F "C" RCP

• Upper Motor radial bearing 180°F

• RCP lower bearing Seal Water Temp 210°F

• Stator winding 305°F In order to mitigate these plant conditions, the crew will monitor RCP temperatures using

_____(1)_______, then initiate 1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, trip the reactor, and stop

_____(2)_______.

A. 1) 1-AP-15.00, Loss of Component Cooling.

2) "C" RCP.

B. 1) 1-AP-15.00, Loss of Component Cooling.

2) "A" RCP.

C. 1) 1-AP-9.00, RCP Abnormal Conditions.

2) "A" RCP.

D. 1) 1-AP-9.00, RCP Abnormal Conditions.

2) "C" RCP.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation: 1-AP-9.00, RCP Abnormal Conditions is required due to elevated RCP temperatures. 1-AP-15.00, Loss of Component Cooling is only required if there is a complete loss of Component Cooling and efforts to restore CC have failed. The C RCP is the only RCP that is required to be tripped because action levels have been reached.

Technical

Reference:

1-AP-9.00, Rev. 35. RCP Abnormal Conditions.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-88.1-LP-6G, Rx. Coolant Pumps; Summarize the content of Abnormal Procedures 9 and 16, and Annunciator Procedures for RCP CC Return Low Flow, RCP Vibrations, and RCS Low Flow, and the EP Continuous Actions Page which require stopping the RCPs.

Question Source: Bank (AOP0249)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.7 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: The question requires knowledge of RCP indications, specifically temperature indications that correlate to requirements for tripping the RCP. Therefore the question matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) 1-AP-15, Loss of Component Cooling. Not correct, because AP-15.00 is used for a total loss of CC. In this case there is only a loss of CC to the RCPs. Plausible because CC is in fact lost to the RCPs due to closure of 1-CC-TV-105B.

2) "C" RCP. This is correct.

B. 1) 1-AP-15, Loss of Component Cooling. Not correct, because AP-15.00 is used for a total loss of CC. In this case there is only a loss of CC to the RCPs. Plausible because CC is in fact lost to the RCPs due to closure of 1-CC-TV-105A.

2) "A" RCP. Incorrect because 1-AP-9.00 Attachment 1 states that the limit for the most limiting parameter (upper motor radial bearing) is 195°F. Plausible because this parameter does have an Action level requirement.

C. 1) 1-AP-9.0, RCP Abnormal Conditions. This is correct.

2) "A" RCP. Incorrect because 1-AP-9.00 Attachment 1 states that the limit for the most limiting parameter (upper motor radial bearing) is 195°F. Plausible because this parameter does have an Action level requirement.

D. 1) 1-AP-9.0, RCP Abnormal Conditions. This is correct

2) "C" RCP. This is correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 017A1.01, In-core Temperature Monitor / 7, Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the ITM system controls including: Core exit temperature Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.7 IR-SRO: 3.9 Proposed Question: !21 Unit 2 initially operating at 100% power, when the following occurs:

• A LOCA outside of CTMT.

• The Reactor is tripped and Safety Injection actuated.

• The RCPs have been tripped due to low RCS subcooling.

• RVLIS Full Range Indicates 42% and stable.

• RCS THOT indicates 650 °F and stable.

• CETCs indicate 660 °F and rising.

Which ONE of the following describes:

1) The temperature indication used on the Core Cooling Status tree.

2) The status of the Core Cooling Status Tree.

A. CETC temperature.

Orange.

B. CETC temperature.

Red.

C. THOT.

Orange.

D. THOT.

Red.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Per the F-2, Core Cooling Status Tree, CETC is used in determining the status of the Core Cooling Status Tree. Under these conditions, the Tree would indicate an Orange Condition.

Technical

Reference:

F-2, Rev. 1A, Core Cooling Status Tree.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-38, FR-C.1, Objective A, Given a simulated plant condition requiring the use of the Critical Safety Function Status Trees, transition through the core cooling status tree denoting, in accordance with the rules of priority, any applicable Function Restoration Procedure needing implementation.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall from memory the setpoint, indications used, and flowpath through the F-2 Status Tree.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1 is correct, CETC temperature is used in the status tree. Part 2) is incorrect, an ORANGE Path would be indicated with the indications provided, Plausible since Candidate must recall and apply the limits of this flowchart to arrive at the correct answer.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, CETC indication is used. Plausible in the Candidate can confuse an indication used in other EOPs (THOT) with the indications used in the status tree (CETC). Part 2) is correct, an ORANGE Path would be indicated.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, CETC indication is used. Plausible in the Candidate can confuse an indication used in other EOPs (THOT) with the indications used in the status tree (CETC). Part 2) is incorrect, with the indications provided, an Orange Path would be indicated. Plausible since Candidate must recall and apply the limits of this flowchart to arrive at the correct answer.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 022A4.03, Containment Cooling /5, Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Dampers in the CCS Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.2 Proposed Question: !22 Unit 2 is performing a Reactor Startup following a forced outage. Shutdown banks are fully withdrawn.

During the outage, a substantial amount of work had been performed in the Pressurizer Cubicle in Containment.

Given the following data:

Initial Condition Parameter Condition 1 Day later PRT Level 78% 78%

PRT Pressure 6 psig 6 psig PRT Temperature 82°F 84°F Weighted AVG CTMT Temperature 97.2°F 101.5°F A PRZR SV Temperature 129°F 152°F B PRZR SV Temperature 140°F 160°F C PRZR SV Temperature 121°F 149°F PRZR PORV Temperature 121°F 148°F Shutdown bank CERPI Indication No change in CERPI Which ONE of the following states the cause for the changes noted between the Initial Conditions and the Conditions found 1 Day later?

A. Cubicle Ventilation Damper position change.

B. CRDM Fan Trips.

C. B PRZR SV Leaking.

D. PRZR PORV leaking.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Based upon past occurrence, the PRZR SV temperatures can elevate after reaching HSD after a maintenance outage approximately 9-11°F per day until temperature stabilizes. With the Ventilation damper re-positioned during work activities, these temperatures can change to a greater magnitude in a shorter time frame. (Data used from Unit 2 Spring outage, 2014; 5/19/2014 @2300 Unit 2 reached HSD).

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective:

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall previous incidents of damper position changes and the effect on containment area temperatures, Also, data provided in the Stem must be analyzed to determine the probable cause for the data changes noted.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct.

B. Incorrect - A loss of CRDM Fan cooling will cause abnormal readings of CERPI indications.

Initial conditions given indicate that CERPI indications are not changing. Plausible if Candidate confuses cause for PRT temperature change with loss of containment air cooling caused by a loss of CRDM fans.

C. Incorrect - B SV temperature has changed; the Candidate should assess this change as related to temperature equalizing at the valve after RCS pressure/temperature change to reach HSD. Plausible if Candidate bases choice on temperature change only.

D. Incorrect - C SV and PORV discharge are located in a relatively close proximity and the same piping. If one or the other was leaking one would be indicating a higher temperature but be close to each other in magnitude. Plausible if Candidate assess choice based on temperature change only.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 022AK1.04, Loss of Rx Coolant Makeup / 2, Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup: Reason for changing from manual to automatic control of charging flow valve controller Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.9 IR-SRO: 3.0 Proposed Question: !23 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 at 50% power and ramping up to 100% in accordance with GOP-1.5, Unit Startup, 2% to Max Allowable Power.

• Rod Control in manual due to hunting in automatic.

Current Conditions:

• Median Tave fails to a stable indication of 550 °F.

• No Operator Actions have been taken.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) The Pressurizer level control setpoint is _______.

2) The automatic charging low flow limit is _______.

A. 1) 24.8%

2) 30 gpm B. 1) 25.8%

2) 30 gpm C. 1) 24.8%

2) 25 gpm D. 1) 25.8%

2) 25 gpm Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation: Median Tave failure affects rod control and the pressurizer level control setpoint. With Rod Control in manual-only pressurizer level setpoint is affected. The failure of Median Tave to an indicated 550 °F, changes the pressurizer level setpoint to 25.8%, and the pressurizer level control system limits minimum CH flow to 25 gpm to reduce the probability of Letdown flashing. 30 gpm is the CH flow low flow alarm setpoint. PRZR level setpoint changes linearly based on Median Tave. Tave is programmed to change from 547 ° to 573° from 0% to 100% power. PRZR level changes from 22.2%

at 547° to 53.7% at 573°. Tave change = 26°; PRZR level change = 31.5%. Ratio: 31.5%/26° =

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 1.21%/°F. 550°-547° = 3°. 3° X 1.21%/°F = 3.63%. 3.63% + 22.2% = 25.8% (Setpoint at 550°). If Candidate inverts the ratio, (3° X 0.825) + 22.2% = 24.8% (distractor setpoint).

Technical

Reference:

ARP 1D-E5, Rev. 4, CHG PP TO REGEN HX HI-LO FLOW.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-7, Press Level Ctrl Sys, Objective B, Reproducing a one-line diagram from memory, explain the operation, including interrelationships, of the Pressurizer Level Control circuitry components.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.8 / 41.10 / 45.3)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must evaluate the effect of Median Tave Failure on Pzr level control system, apply Pzr level control setpoint and effect on CH flow limits. Inherent in this analysis is application of knowledge that CH flow is limited by design while in automatic control mode.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, level setpoint if ratio inverted. Plausible since Candidate could make math error in calculation. Part 2) is the Low Flow alarm setpoint for CH flow.

Plausible in that the Candidate could confuse alarm setpoint with low flow limit.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect, 30 gpm is the low flow alarm setpoint.

Plausible in that the Candidate confuses alarm setpoint with low flow limit.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, level setpoint if ratio inverted. Plausible since Candidate could make math error in calculation. Part 2) - correct, low flow limit for automatic CH flow control.

D. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 022K1.02, Containment Cooling / 5, Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between the CCS and the following systems: SEC / remote monitoring systems Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.7 IR-SRO: 3.5 Proposed Question: !24 Unit 2 is operating at 100% power with Chilled CC in service to containment.

• An operator is verifying the Plant Computer System displays and indications are functioning properly using the laptop computer at the Auxiliary Shutdown Panel.

• 2-CD-REF-1, Unit 2 Turbine Building Chiller trips.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) Containment partial pressure will _______.

2) Containment saturation temperature is sensed at the_______.

A. 1) lower

2) Containment air recirculation fan discharge B. 1) rise

2) Containment air recirculation fan discharge C. 1) rise

2) Containment dome D. 1) lower

2) Containment dome Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Containment partial pressure is derived by subtracting calculated saturation pressure inside containment from Total pressure. The saturation air temperature is determined by an RTD in the discharge of the containment air recirculation fan. On loss of Chilled CC, the temperature will rise, causing the calculated saturation pressure to rise. This results in Indicated Partial Air Pressure to lower. Actual air pressure in containment will rise since the loss of cooling causes higher temperature in containment.

Technical

Reference:

2B-A6, Rev. 9, CTMT Part Press -0.1 PSI CH 1 Reference Provided to Applicant: No

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Learning Objective:

Question Source: Modified Bank (CC00046) Added PCS laptop to stem.

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Cause/effect relationship between cooling and indicated pressure tested. Beaver Valley/March/2005/13 and North Anna/2006/19 questions linked loss of cooling to CTMT recirc fans to effect on CTMT pressure/other means to accomplish function.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Correct - Indicated Partial pressure will lower due to method of calculation. 2) Correct, the saturation air temperature is determined by an RTD in the discharge of the containment air recirculation fan B. 1) Incorrect - Partial pressure calculated will lower, not rise. Inverse of actual effect on partial pressure seen. Plausible if Candidate confuses the method used to calculate partial pressure and the method of determining temperature. 2) Correct, the saturation air temperature is determined by an RTD in the discharge of the containment air recirculation fan.

C. 1) Incorrect - Partial pressure calculated will lower, not rise. Inverse of actual effect on partial pressure seen. Plausible if Candidate confuses the method used to calculate partial pressure and the method of determining temperature. 2) Incorrect, the saturation air temperature is determined by an RTD in the discharge of the containment air recirculation fan. Plausible since there are Containment RTDs throughout containment including the dome that are used to determine Containment temperature. Additionally, the Containment dome would be the hottest place, therefore using this temperature would be conservative.

D. Correct - Indicated Partial pressure will lower due to method of calculation. 2) Incorrect, the saturation air temperature is determined by an RTD in the discharge of the containment air recirculation fan. Plausible since there are Containment RTDs throughout containment including the dome that are used to determine Containment temperature. Additionally, the Containment dome would be the hottest place, therefore using this temperature would be conservative.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 025AA1.04, Loss of RHR System / 4, Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of Residual Heat Removal System: Closed cooling water pumps Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.8 IR-SRO: 2.6 Proposed Question: !25 Initial Conditions

• Unit 1 is in Cold Shutdown, at 190 °F, on RHR, preparing to take the pressurizer solid.

• A RHR pump is running with the A RHR HX in service.

• A CC pump running on Unit 1; D CC pump running on Unit 2. CC is cross-tied.

Current Conditions

• C RSST trips and locks out.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) The status of A RHR pump.

2) The _______ CC pump is running on Unit 1, and the ______ CC pump is running on Unit 2.

A. 1) Running.

2) A; D B. 1) Tripped.

2) B; C C. 1) Running.

2) B; C D. 1) Tripped.

2) A; D Proposed Answer: B.

Explanation: With the lockout of C RSST, the Unit 1 H and Unit 2 J emergency buses will be lost and regained by #1 and #3 EDGs, respectively. Since the RHR and CC pumps are supplied by the Emergency Bus stub bus, the supply breaker to the emergency bus stub bus will trip on the loss of the emergency bus and must be locally closed to restore power to the emergency bus stub bus. A RHR pump, A CC pump, and D CC pump will all trip. B and C CC pumps will receive an auto start signal.

Technical

Reference:

VSP-F6, RES STA SERV XFMR C LOCKOUT, Rev 3.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-90.3-LP-7, SS and Emergency Dist Prot and Control, Objective B, Fault Relays and Interlocks for 4160v and 480v Breakers. ND-88.5-LP-1, Component Cooling Presentation, Objective A, Describe the major system components including their function and power supply (if applicable), including CC Pumps.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must determine status of A RHR pump and Unit 1 and 2 CC pumps following a C RSST trip.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1 is incorrect, A RHR will trip on loss of power. Plausible if Candidate confuses which bus is lost on C RSST lockout. Part 2) is incorrect A and D CC pumps will be lost also on the lockout of C RSST. Plausible if candidate confuses loads affected by C RSST lockout.

B. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, A RHR will trip on loss of power. Plausible if Candidate confuses which bus(es) is lost on C RSST lockout. Part 2) is correct, B and C CC pumps will auto start on low header pressure.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect, incorrect A and D CC pumps will be lost also on the lockout of C RSST. Plausible if candidate confuses loads affected by C RSST lockout.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 026A3.02, Containment Spray / 5, Ability to monitor automatic operation of the CSS, including: Verification that cooling water is supplied to the containment spray heat exchanger Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.9 IR-SRO: 4.2 Proposed Question: !26 Given the following:

• A Large Break LOCA has occurred on unit 1.

• An operator has been assigned to perform 1-E-0, Reactor Trip or SI; Attachment 4, CLS Component verification.

• When checking the valve lineup the operator notices that the red and green light bulbs for 1-SW-MOV-104A, RSHX A SW INLET are NOT lit.

Which one of the following indications does 1-E-0, Attachment 4 direct the operator use to verify that there is adequate flow through the heat exchanger?

A. 1-SW-MOV-103A, RS HX A&D SW SUPPLY; and 1-SW-MOV-105A, RSHX A SW OUTLET red lights LIT.

B. Annunciator 1A-D6, RS HX 1A RAD MON PP NO FLOW is NOT LIT.

C. Flow indication on 1-SW-FI-106A, RS HX A SW Outlet Flow.

D. 1-SW-P-5A, RS SW Radiation Monitor Sample pump red light is LIT.

Proposed Answer: C. Flow indication on 1-SW-FI-106A, RS HX A SW Outlet Flow.

Explanation: There is an indication of SW flow through the heat exchanger outlet on the Vertical section. Attachment 4 of 1-E-0 also checks that there is 6,000 - 12,000 gpm flow through each heat exchanger.

Technical

Reference:

1-E-0, Attachment 4, Rev. 71.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-91-LP-6, Recirc Spray, Objective D; Using a simplified one-line diagram showing the system flow paths and cross-connects, explain the operation of the major Service Water System components serving the Recirculation Spray Heat Exchangers.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: Modified Bank, (North Anna 2004, Q 27), Modified distractors to conform to Surry plant configuration.

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of proper indication of SW flow through the Recirc Spray heat exchangers. With Surrys design Recirc spray is required to operate in conjunction with Containment spray to maintain Containment integrity. Therefore since containment spray does not have a heat exchanger and Recirc spray does and is required to act this matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1-SW-MOV-103A, RS HX A&D SW SUPPLY; and 1-SW-MOV-105A, RSHX A SW OUTLET red lights LIT. Incorrect because 1-SW-MOV-103A is the upstream supply for RX HX A and D, 1-SW-MOV-104A still has to be open to supply flow through RS HX A. Plausible because this could be chosen by the candidate who is unfamiliar with the flow supply through RS HX A.

B. Annunciator 1A-D6, RS HX 1A RAD MON PP NO FLOW is NOT Lit. Incorrect, because this annunciator will be Lit when flow switch senses no flow through Rad monitor. This annunciator being lit or unlit will not verify whether there is adequate flow through the RS heat exchanger.

This answer could be chosen by a candidate who mistakenly believes that this annunciator is associated with SW flow through the heat exchanger.

C. Flow indication on 1-SW-FI-106A, RS HX A SW Outlet Flow. Correct.

D. 1-SW-P-5A red lights LIT. Incorrect, because these lights indicate whether there is a rad monitor pump running on the respective Heat Exchanger. Plausible because this pump will start on a HI-HI CLS shortly after the RS SW HX MOVs open and is a normal indication following flow thru HX. Therefore this choice may be chosen by the candidate who is unfamiliar with the sequence of actions and flow paths in this system.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 027A4.01, Containment Iodine Removal / 5, Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: CIRS Controls Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.3 IR-SRO: 3.3 Proposed Question: !27 Unit 1 is operating at 100% with the following conditions:

• 1-OPT-RC-10. 0, Computer leak Rate Program has trended a rise in Unidentified leakage of 0.1 gpm.

• A Containment entry has been performed and the leak has been identified on the A SG Primary manway.

• HP has requested the Unit 1 Iodine filter fans, 1-VS-F-3A and 3B, be started.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The control switch positions for the Iodine Filter Fans.

2) The location of the controls for the fans.

A. 1) Off / Auto / On.

2) Unit 1 Ventilation Panel.

B. 1) Off / Auto / On.

2) Post Accident Monitoring Panel.

C. 1) Off / On.

2) Post Accident Monitoring Panel.

D. 1) Off / On.

2) Unit 1 Ventilation Panel.

Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation: The Iodine filter fans are normally secured and started only as necessary.

Technical

Reference:

1-RM-Q7, Rev. 5, CTMT Alert/Failure ARP.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-6, Containment Ventilation, Objective C, Describe the purpose and operation of the iodine filtration system.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must correctly choose location of controls for these fans.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, the fans have an Off / On switch. Plausible since Candidate can confuse these switches with the control switch for the Heat Tracing located on the adjacent panel. Fans are controlled from the Unit 1 Vent Panel in MCR. Part 2) is correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, the fans have an Off / On switch. Plausible since Candidate can confuse these switches with the control switch for the Heat Tracing located on the adjacent panel. Part 2) is incorrect, fans are controlled from the Unit 1 Vent Panel in MCR.

Plausible since components such as PRZR and Reactor Head Vent valves are operated from this panel.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect, fans are controlled from the Unit 1 Vent Panel in MCR. Plausible since components such as PRZR and Reactor Head Vent valves are operated from this panel..

D. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 027AA2.02, Pressurizer Pressure Control System Malfunction / 3, Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Pressurizer Pressure Control Malfunctions: Normal values for RCS pressure Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.8 IR-SRO: 3.9 Proposed Question: !28 Given the following:

• Unit 1 is at HSD with only the A RCP running.

• The Master Pressure Controller (MPC) and spray valve controllers are all in auto and set to maintain 1780 psig.

• The RO has been directed to adjust the Master Pressure Controller to maintain a pressure of 2235 psig.

Which ONE of the following is the POT setting of the Master Pressure Controller for 2235 psig?

A. 4.11 B. 6.68 C. 7.45 D. 8.94 Proposed Answer: B. 6.68 Explanation: The range of the Pressurizer Pressure is 1700-2500 psig. The potentiometer is a 0 - 10 turn pot. To set the pot take the ratio of the desired pressure minus the lower span divided by the total range. The formula is as follows: (2235 - 1700) / (2500-1700) = X/10. (535/800) (10) = X. 6.68 = X where X is the pot setting.

Technical

Reference:

ND-93.3-LP-5, Pressurizer Pressure Control Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-5, Pressurizer Pressure Control, Objective B, Using a one-line diagram, drawn from memory, describe all design characteristics of the Pressurizer Pressure Control System, including setpoints, controls, interlocks, inputs, and outputs.

Question Source: NEW Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: This question requires knowledge of Master pressure controller function as well as an understanding of the normal pressure setpoint (2235 psig), therefore this question matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 4.11. Incorrect. Setting is 6.68. Plausible if candidate confuses Pressurizer pressure range (1700-2500), with Wide range pressure range (0-3000) and performs calculation with incorrect range of 1700 -

3000 psig. Calculation as follows: [(2235-1700) / (3000 - 1700)] = x/10; X=4.11.

B. 6.68. Correct.

C. 7.45. Incorrect. Setting is 6.68. Plausible if candidate confuses Pressurizer pressure range (1700-2500), with Wide range pressure range (0-3000) and performs calculation with incorrect range of 0 - 3000 psig. Calculation as follows: [(2235-0) / (3000 - 0)] = x/10; X=7.45.

D. 8.94. Incorrect. Setting is 6.68. Plausible if candidate confuses Pressurizer pressure range (1700-2500), with Wide range pressure range (0-3000) and performs calculation with incorrect range of 0 - 2500 psig. Calculation as follows: [(2235-0) / (2500 - 0)] = x/10; X=8.94.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 028AG2.4.47, Pressurizer Level Malfunction / 2, Ability to diagnose and recognize trends in an accurate and timely manner utilizing the appropriate control room reference material.

Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 4.2 IR-SRO: 4.2 Proposed Question: !29 Pressurizer level transmitter 1-RC-LT-459, Pressurizer Level Protection - Channel I, is selected for control (i.e., as the upper channel).

The reference leg of 1-RC-LT-459 develops a slow leak.

Which ONE of the following describes:

1) How the level indication will change on 1-RC-LT-459.

2) The expected operator action associated with the failure in accordance with 0-AP-53.00, Loss of Vital Instrumentation/Cont.

A. 1) Rise.

2) Place CH flow in manual.

B. 1) Rise.

2) Place CH flow in manual and isolate letdown.

C. 1) Lower.

2) Place CH flow in manual.

D. 1) Lower.

2) Place CH flow in manual and isolate letdown.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation: With 1-RC-LT-1459 reference line leak, the channel will read higher than actual. This will cause CH flow to lower. The operator is expected to place CH flow in manual, change position of the selector switch to an operable detector, and restore CH to Automatic.

Technical

Reference:

0-AP-53.00, Loss of Vital Instrumentation/controls, Rev 21, Step 11. . 1-AP-16.00, Excessive RCS Leakage, Step 1.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-93.1-LP-1, Measurement Systems, Objective C, Apply the theory of operation of level measuring devices.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: Modified Bank (LORP PLC0009)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must determine the effect of the transmitter leak, and utilize knowledge of actions contained in 0-AP-53.00, Loss of Vital Instrumentation/Controls to respond to the condition. These actions are beyond the Immediate Action Steps of the procedure, the operator would have to reference the procedure to respond correctly.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Part 1) is correct, the level indication would rise; read higher than actual. Part 2) is correct, AP-53.00 would be used to place CH flow in manual, and then in Step 11, the channel would be de-selected, and CH flow returned to automatic.

B. Incorrect - Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, the level indication would rise; read higher than actual. Part 2) is incorrect, letdown is not required to be isolated for this failure. Plausible is the Candidate focuses on transmitter leak in the stem of the question and determines that AP-16.00 Immediate Actions are required to quantify RCS leakage.

C. Incorrect - Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, level indication would rise. Plausible if Candidate confuses the effect of a variable leg leak with that of a reference leg leak. Part 2) is correct, AP-53.00 would be used to place CH flow in manual, and then in Step 11, the channel would be de-selected, and CH flow returned to automatic.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, level indication would rise. Plausible if Candidate confuses the effect of a variable leg leak with that of a reference leg leak. Part 2) is incorrect, ,

letdown is not required to be isolated for this failure. Plausible is the Candidate focuses on transmitter leak in the stem of the question and determines that AP-16.00 Immediate Actions are required to quantify RCS leakage.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 029EA2.01, ATWS / 1, Ability to determine or interpret the following as they apply to a ATWS: Reactor nuclear instrumentation Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.4 IR-SRO: 4.7 Proposed Question: !30 An entry into 1-FR-S.1, Response to Nuclear Power Generation ATWS was made from step 1 of E-0, Reactor Trip or SI.

The following conditions currently exist:

• The reactor trip breakers are closed.

• Rods are being inserted manually.

• Control Bank D is at 24 steps.

• Power range instruments are all indicating 8%

• Intermediate Range SUR is negative.

• An operator has just been dispatched to open reactor trip breakers per step 8 of 1-FR-S.1.

Which of the following conditions is required by 1-FR-S.1 to allow a return to 1-E-0?

A. Both of the RPS MG Set output breakers must be opened.

B. Both of the reactor trip breakers must be opened.

C. Power range indication must be reduced below 5%.

D. All rods must be fully inserted.

Proposed Answer: C Power range indication must be reduced below 5%

Explanation: 1-FR-S.1, step 9, Check Reactor Subcritical requires that power range channels be <

5%, and a negative SUR on Intermediate Range NIs. Once these conditions are met, then a return to E-0 is allowed.

Technical

Reference:

1-FR-S.1, Rev. 26, Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-36, FR-S.1, OBJECTIVE B, Given the Major Action Categories associated with FR-S.1, Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS, explain the purpose of FR-S.1, the transition criteria for entering and exiting FR-S.1, and the types of operator actions that will occur within each category.

Question Source: Modified Bank (Harris, 2004; q 47), Modified stem and distractors.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 43.5 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires student to interpret data and determine exit criteria for FR-S.1 which requires an understanding of NI requirements in FR-S.1.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Both of the RPS MG Set output breakers must be opened. Incorrect, FR-S.1 requires that Power Range be < 5% and Intermediate Range SUR is negative. Plausible because this is an action required by FR-S.1 and after this action is performed, power should be < 5%.

B. Both of the reactor trip breakers must be opened. Incorrect because Power range is still > 5%.

Plausible because this is an action required by FR-S.1 and after this action is performed, both reactor trip breakers will be open and power should be < 5%.

C. Power range indication must be reduced below 5%. Correct.

D. All rods must be fully inserted.

Incorrect, FR-S.1 requires that Power Range be < 5% and Intermediate Range SUR is negative.

Plausible because this is an action required by FR-S.1 and after this action is performed, power should be < 5%.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 029G2.1.25, Containment Purge / 8, Ability to interpret reference materials, such as graphs, curves, tables, etc.

Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.9 IR-SRO: 4.2 Proposed Question: !31 Initial Condition:

• Unit 2 Containment pressure has just reached atmospheric.

• The Team is preparing to place Unit 2 Containment on purge using 1-VS-F-58A, in accordance with 2-OP-VS-001, Containment Ventilation.

• The Personnel and Equipment Hatches are closed.

Which ONE of the following completes the following statement?

1) An allowable configuration would consist of ______?

2) The _______ filter is used in the flowpath.

(REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A. 1) Containment Purge and Fuel Building Exhaust

2) CAT II B. 1) Containment Purge Only

2) CAT I C. 1) Containment Purge and Fuel Building Exhaust

2) CAT I D. 1) Containment Purge Only

2) CAT II Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation: Using the provided reference, the initial containment alignment would be to use containment purge and Fuel Building. Using 1-VS-F-58A for the alignment would have fan discharge flow through the CAT I filter.

Technical

Reference:

2-OP-VS-001, Rev. 27, Containment Ventilation. Reference provided from 0-AP-5.20, Radiation Monitor System Ventilation Vent High Alarm, revision 26, Attachment 2. Similar to Table provided in 2-OP-VS-001, Containment Ventilation.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: Yes. 0-AP-5.20, Attachment 2.

Learning Objective: ND-88.4-LP-6, CTMT Vent, Objective D, Describe the operation of the Containment Purge System, including the purpose, flowpaths, and trip signals.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.12)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must utilize table on reference to determine allowable alignment. Also recall that 1-VS-F-58A flowpath uses the CAT I filter.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, allowable diversion stream is CTMT and Fuel Building. Part 2) is incorrect, CAT II filter is in 1-VS-F-59 flowpath; this is an alternate flowpath that can be used. Plausible since Candidate can confuse which filter is used in ventilation flowpath.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, allowable diversion stream is CTMT and Fuel Building.

Plausible since Candidate must understand and use Table to find correct answer. Part 2) -

correct.

C. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) - incorrect, only allowable diversion stream is CTMT and Fuel Building.

Plausible since Candidate must understand and use Table to find correct answer. Part 2) is incorrect - CAT II filter is in 1-VS-F-59 flowpath; this is an alternate flowpath that can be used. Plausible since Candidate can confuse which filter is used in ventilation flowpath.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 035A2.05, Steam Generator / 4, Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the SGS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations: Unbalanced flows to the S/Gs Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.4 Proposed Question: !32 Unit 2 is currently stable at 75% power.

The B Feed Reg Valve demand begins to slowly lower causing Annunciator 1H-G6, STM GEN 1B LVL ERROR, to actuate.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The effect this will have on the indicated power by Instantaneous Calorimetric.

2) The procedure used to respond to this event.

A. 1) Lowers.

2) 2-AP-21.00, Loss of Main Feedwater Flow.

B. 1) Rises.

2) 2-AP-21.00, Loss of Main Feedwater Flow.

C. 1) Lowers.

2) 0-AP-53.00, Loss of Vital Instrumentation/Controls.

D. 1) Rises.

2) 0-AP-53.00, Loss of Vital Instrumentation/Controls.

Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation: With FRV demand lowering, a reduction in feed flow will occur. This reduction will tend to Lower the Indicated Power calculated by the calorimetric; calorimetric normally based on Feed flow (UFM detector).

Technical

Reference:

0-AP-53.00, Rev. 21.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-8, SGWLC, Objective D, Evaluate the effects and required operator actions for a failure of an input to the SGWLC System. ND-93.4-LP-12, Abnormal Procedures,

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Objective K, Given a copy of 1-AP-53.00, describe the actions taken for a loss of vital instrumentation or controls.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.3 / 45.5)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must assess direction of FRV response based on demand change, and effect of this change on Calorimetric calculation.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, the lowering of Feed flow will cause the calculated Calorimetric power to lower. Part 2) is incorrect, 2-AP-21.00 is incorrect procedure to use. Plausible since.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, calorimetric would lower. Plausible in that Candidate must correctly assess effect of feed flow change on indicated calorimetric power. Part 2) incorrect, 2-AP-21.00 is incorrect procedure to use. Plausible in that the Candidate must assess plant condition and implement appropriate action. Entry Conditions for AP-21.00, Loss of Main Feedwater Flow, in Part The Reactor is in the Power Range and a reduction in Main FW flow occurs as indicated by one or more of the following: 1H-G6, STM GEN 1B ERROR.

C. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, calorimetric would lower. Plausible in that Candidate must correctly assess effect of feed flow change on indicated calorimetric power. Part

2) is correct. 0-AP-53.00 is the correct procedure to respond to the event.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 038EK1.02, Steam Gen. Tube Rupture / 3, Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts they apply to the SGTR: Leak rate vs. pressure drop Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.5 Proposed Question: !33 The Operating Team is in E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture and have completed RCS cooldown and depressurization. CHG pump suction has been aligned to the VCT.

The following Unit conditions exist:

• PRZR level is 35% and slowly rising.

• Affected S/G NR level is 68% and lowering.

• RCS pressure is 985 psig.

• Affected S/G pressure is 1000 psig.

Which ONE of the following actions should be taken by the Operating Team?

(REFERENCE PROVIDED)

A. Depressurize RCS and raise CHG flow.

B. Lower CHG flow and depressurize the RCS.

C. Turn on PRZR heaters.

D. Raise CHG flow.

Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation: IAW Step 36 Table of E-3, with PZR level of 35%/rising, and SG NR level 68%/lowering, the guidance would be to turn on PRZR heaters.

Technical

Reference:

1-E-3, Rev. 51, Steam Generator Tube Rupture, Step 36 Table.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank (LAOP0151, reordered distractors)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.8 / 41.10 / 45.3)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must determine, given the stated conditions, that the ruptured SG is back flowing into the RCS. The Table requires energizing pressurizer heaters to equalize SG and RCS pressure to stop backflow.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Depressurizing the RCS and raising CH flow is not appropriate for these conditions. Plausible should Candidate apply table guidance for PRZR level < 35%,

however PRZR level is equal to 35% and rising.

B. Incorrect - These actions would be appropriate if PZR level was between 65% and 69%

with the same trend in ruptured SG level. Plausible since Candidate could apply these actions from the table incorrectly.

C. Correct - Energizing PZR heaters is appropriate if PZR level is between 35% and 65% with the given change in SG level.

D. Incorrect. Raising CHG flow is appropriate if SG level is lowering and PRZR level is <35%.

Plausible if Candidate applies requirements for lowering SG NR level only.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 039K3.04, Main and Reheat Steam / 4S, Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the MRSS will have on the following: MFW pumps Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.5 IR-SRO: 2.6 Proposed Question: !34 Given the following:

• Unit 1 is at 100 % power.

• A complete separation of the Main steamline piping upstream of the MSR Steam Supply to the A & C MSRs (30 pipe) occurs.

Which ONE of the following describes the effect this will have on the

1) Main Feed pumps.

2) Main Steam Trip valves.

A. 1) Remain running.

2) Remain open.

B. 1) Trip.

2) Remain open.

C. 1) Remain running.

2) Close.

D. 1) Trip.

2) Close.

Proposed Answer: D Explanation: The separation of this steamline would immediately create a high steamline flow. A Hi Steam flow signal will cause a Main Steam Trip Valve closure and will generate a Safety Injection which will trip the Main Feed pumps.

Technical

Reference:

ND-89.1-LP-2, Main Steam system. ND-89.3-LP-3, Main Feedwater system.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-89.1-LP-2, Main Steam system, objective B, Describe the major components of the Main Steam System, including the operation of that component and the specific reason for the component.

ND-89.3-LP-3, Main Feedwater system, objective B, Describe the major main feedwater system

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet components including, if applicable, their functions, power supply and operation.

• Main Feed Pumps

• MFP Recirc Valves

• MFP Start Interlocks

• MFRVs

• MFP Trip Signals

• FRV Bypass Valves

• MFP Discharge MOVs

• Instrumentation Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.6)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: The question poses a malfunction of the Main Steam and Reheat system (rupture) and asks for the effect on Main Feed pumps. This is a direct match to the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Both parts are incorrect. Plausible if candidate confuses the effects that a rupture at this location of main steamline piping would cause, and fails to realize that a High Steamline flow would be generated. A small rupture would not cause a Hi steamline flow which would result in the Main Steam Trip valves remaining open and the Main Feed pumps continuing to run. Therefore this is a viable choice. Also if rupture is upstream of Main Steam Trip valve then a Header to Line SI would occur which is an SI signal but would not close Main Steam Trip valves.

B. Part 1 is correct, part 2 is incorrect. Plausible if candidate confuses the effects that a rupture at this location of main steamline piping would cause. A rupture upstream of the Main Steam Trip valves would not cause a Hi Steam flow, but could cause a Header to Line SI which would not close the Main Steam Trip valves, but would trip the Main Feed pumps. Therefore this is a viable choice.

C. Part 1 is incorrect, part 2 is correct. Plausible if candidate recognizes that a High steam flow will close the main steam trip valves but fails to recognize that a Hi steamline flow will also generate a a Safety Injection signal which will trip the Main feed pumps. Therefore this is a viable choice.

D. Correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 040AG2.1.30, Steam Line Rupture - Excessive Heat Transfer / 4, Ability to locate and operate components, including local controls.

Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.4 IR-SRO: 4.0 Proposed Question: !35 Initial Conditions:

Unit 1 operating at 100% power.

• A Steam line in Unit 1 alleyway ruptures.

• Station Service buses are lost on swap-over to Reserve Station Service Transformers following a manual reactor trip.

• Individual MSTV close switches on Benchboard fail to operate.

• MSTV Emergency close switch on Vertical Board fails to close the MSTVs.

Which one of the following states:

1) The redundant MSTV Emergency Close Switch, is located on the Appendix R panel in _______.

2) Operation of this switch ________ the MSTV close SOVs?

A. 1) Unit 1 ESGR.

2) Energizes.

B. 1) Unit 1 ESGR.

2) Deenergizes.

C. 1) Unit 2 ESGR.

2) Energizes.

D. 1) Unit 2 ESGR.

2) Deenergizes.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Emergency close switch is located in Unit 1 ESGR. SOVs are energize to function to close the MSTVs. Switch supplied by a battery which is charged by a battery charger.

Technical

Reference:

ND-89.1-LP-2, Main Steam System, Objective B, Describe the major components of the Main Steam System, including the operation of that component and the specific reason for the component. Page 6 of LP.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Learning Objective: ND-89.1-LP-2, Main Steam System, Objective B, Describe the major components of the Main Steam System, including the operation of that component and the specific reason for the component.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must identify correct location of redundant emergency close switch and whether the switch energizes/deenergizes an SOV to close the MSTV.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct. Both 1) and 2) are correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect. Plausible in that Candidate must recall specific function of the switch.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect. Part 2) is correct. Plausible in that Candidate can confuse the location of the Appendix R distribution panel (located in the opposite Units ESGR) with the Appendix R panel located in the respective Units ESGR.

D. Incorrect - Both Part 1) and 2) are incorrect. Plausible in that Candidate must recall specific function of the switch, Candidate can confuse the location of the Appendix R distribution panel (located in the opposite Units ESGR) with the Appendix R panel located in the respective Units ESGR.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 045K3.01, Main Turbine Generator / 4S, Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the MT/G system will have on the following: Remainder of the plant Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 2.9 IR-SRO: 3.2 Proposed Question: !36 Unit 1 is placing the Unit on-line in accordance with 1-OP-TM-001, Turbine - Generator Startup to 20%

- 25% Turbine Power.

• Steam Dumps are in Auto in steam pressure mode.

• Reactor Power has been raised to 8%.

• P-7 NIS POWER RANGE AND TURBINE POWER < 10% is LIT.

• When the second Generator output breaker, OCB-G1T240 is closed, Annunciator 1F-E1, GEN BACKUP LOCKOUT REL TRIP, comes in due to a fault.

Which one of the following correctly describes the effect this will have on:

1) The reactor.

2) Main Generator output breakers.

Reactor Main Gen output breakers A. trip trip open after 30 seconds B. not trip trip open after 30 seconds C. trip trip open immediately D. not trip trip open immediately Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation: Initially the reactor power is at 8% with turbine generator startup in progress. The Station service busses are supplied from offsite power. The annunciator, 1F-E1, GEN BACKUP LOCKOUT REL TRIP, comes in due to a fault causing a Generator Backup Lockout to occur. The Generator backup lockout then causes a turbine trip, generator output breakers to trip and lock out immediately, open voltage regulator excitation contactor, and trip and lock out Station Service Supply breakers. The reactor does not trip because P-7 status light indicates that P-7 isstill bypassing the turbine to reactor trip.

Technical

Reference:

ND-90.1-LP-7, 1-OP-TM-001, Turbine generator startup, Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-90.1-LP-7, OBJECTIVE E, Given a Main Generator protective device actuation, evaluate the possible causes for the actuation, protection provided by the actuation, and the effect on plant operation.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: Modified Bank (LORP LGEN0052), modified stem and distractors.

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.6)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: The question poses a scenario regarding a MTG fault which requires the student to analyze the conditions, the fault to determine the effect on the plant. This question directly matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect/incorrect. Reactor tripping is incorrect because the reactor does not trip because P-7 isstill bypassing that trip. Plausible if student confuses P-7 permissive lit/not lit indications and what they mean. Gen output breakers tripping open after 30 seconds is incorrect. The gen output breakers trip open immediately, however on a turbine trip at power with no fault a Gen backup lockout occurs 30 seconds after motoring starts making this plausible.

B. Correct/incorrect. Incorrect because the gen output breakers trip open immediately, however on a turbine trip at power with no fault a Gen backup lockout occurs 30 seconds after motoring starts making this plausible.

C. Incorrect/correct. Rx tripping is incorrect because P-7 isstill bypassing that trip. Plausible if student confuses P-7 permissive lit/not lit indications and what they mean.

D. Correct

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 054AK3.05, Loss of Main Feedwater / 4, Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Main Feedwater (MFW): HPI/PORV cycling upon total feedwater loss Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.6 IR-SRO: 4.7 Proposed Question: !37 Plant conditions are as follows:

• The team was performing 1-E-0 in response to a faulted steam generator outside containment.

• Upon transition from 1-E-0, the STA reported a red path on HEAT SINK.

• The team has entered 1-FR-H.1 (Loss of Secondary Heat Sink).

• AFW flow to all steam generators is 110 gpm each which is being supplied by 1-FW-P-3A (the only operating AFW pump).

• SG levels are A- 11% WR B- 27% WR C- 0% WR.

• RCS Thot - 525°F and stable.

• Pressurizer level - 88% and rising

• Pressurizer pressure - 2235 psig.

• 1-RC-PCV-1455C is cycling open and closed.

Which ONE of the following states the actions required by the team in response to these conditions?

A. Initiate RCS bleed and feed due to PRZR PORV cycling.

B. Transition back to procedure and step in effect.

C. Initiate RCS bleed and feed due to insufficient SG Level.

D. Feed one (1) Steam Generator at the maximum rate.

Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation: Plant conditions must be assessed to determine whether bleed and feed criteria have been met based on PRZR cycling, or SG WR levels insufficient (2/3 < 12% WR); return to procedure and step in effect; or feed one SG at maximum rate. Based on parameters given, bleed and feed should be initiated due to inadequate SG WR level.

Technical

Reference:

1-FR-H.1, Rev. 37, Loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-41, FR-H.1, Objective C, Given a copy of FR-H.1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

Question Source: Modified Bank (Stem and Distractors)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.5, 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must assess that PRZR PORVs cycling due to high level to discriminate between responses to determine correct reason to initiate RCS Bleed and Feed or perform other listed actions.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Bleed and Feed is initiated if SG WR levels are < minimum by WR indication OR RCS pressure - Greater than 2235 psig due to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, in this response the PRZR PORV is cycling due to high PRZR level. Plausible if Candidate if confused by concept of PORV cycling/open due to loss of heat sink.

B. Incorrect - With two SGs below 12% WR, Bleed and Feed is required. Actual given AFW flow is 330 gpm which is below the minimum (350). Also FR-H.1 cannot be exited until one SG is > 12% NR. Plausible since Candidate may confuse indicated AFW flow as meeting requirements to exit procedure.

C. Correct - Based on SG WR levels Bleed and Feed is required.

D. Incorrect - With two SGs below 12% WR, Bleed and Feed is required. Plausible since Candidate may confuse conditions provided with requirements to feed one SG at maximum rate for a Hot/Dry SG.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 055A3.03, Condenser Air Removal / 4S, Ability to monitor automatic operation of the CARS, including: Automatic diversion of CARS exhaust Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 2.5 IR-SRO: 2.7 Proposed Question: !38 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 operating at 100% power.

• A SGTR occurs on the A SG, the reactor is tripped and safety injection actuated.

• The Team has completed the Rapid Cooldown of 1-E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture.

• The Air Ejector discharge has been re-aligned to Containment.

Current Conditions:

• The A SG faults inside of Containment.

• Hi and Hi-Hi CLS have actuated.

Which ONE of the following states:

1) The position of 1-SV-TV-102A, AE DISCH TO CTMT SFGD TV, is ___________?

2) The position of 1-SV-TV-102, AE DISCH TO CTMT TB TV, is ____________?

A. 1) open

2) open B. 1) closed

2) closed C. 1) closed

2) open D. 1) open

2) closed Proposed Answer: B.

Explanation: From the initial conditions 1-SV-TV-102, and 1-SV-102A were opened to align Condenser Air Ejector exhaust to containment. 1-SV-TV-102A will initially close as a result of the SI but can be re-opened when the SI is reset. When Hi CLS actuates, another SI signal will be generated that closes 1-SV-TV-102A; the Hi CLS signal will close 1-SV-TV-102. When SI is reset, 1-SV-TV-102A can be manually re-opened but no information has been given to indicate that SI has been reset. 1-SV-TV-

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 102 will automatically re-open if the AE Rad Monitor High Alarm is active, and Hi/Hi-Hi CLS signals are manually reset when CTMT pressure drops below 14.2 psia on 2/4 channels.

Technical

Reference:

ND-93.5-LP-1, Pre-TMI Rad Monitor. ND-91-LP-4 SI Operations. ND-91-LP-5, CS System.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.5-LP-1, Pre-TMI Rad Monitor, Objective B, Determine the operation of the Victoreen Process Radiation Monitoring System. ND-91-LP-5, CS System, Objective A, Describe the operations of the Consequence Limiting Safeguards System, including coincidence, logics, setpoints and actions occurring upon system actuation.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must assess Unit Conditions and apply knowledge of how A/E discharge to CTMT is affected on Hi CLS/SI signal actuation during a SGTR.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Both of these TVs will close when Hi-CLS/SI actuates as CTMT pressure rises due to the A SG fault in CTMT. Plausible if Candidate assumes that blocking of RCS Low Pressure/Hdr-to-Line and HSF SI signals, which occurs prior to or during the RCS rapid Cooldown of 1-E3, also prevents Hi CLS actuation.

B. Correct - Both Trip valves will shut. 1-SV-TV-102A closes when Hi CLS generates an SI signal; 1-SV-TV-102 closes when Hi CLS actuates.

C. Incorrect - as described above, both valves receive a close signal. Plausible if Candidate correctly applies SI signal effects, but does not account for Hi CLS effect on 1-SV-TV-102A.

D. Incorrect - as described above, both valves receive a close signal. Plausible if Candidate correctly applies SI signal effects, but does not account for Hi CLS effect on 1-SV-TV-102.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 055EK3.02, Station Blackout / 6, Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as the apply to the Station Blackout: Actions contained in EOP for loss of offsite and onsite power Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.3 IR-SRO: 4.6 Proposed Question: !39 ECA-0.0, Loss of all AC Power, Step 21, directs the operator to:

Depressurize all Intact SGs to 300 psig Which ONE of the following describes the reason for stopping the pressure reduction at 300 psig?

A. Prevent losing pressurizer level.

B. Minimize inventory loss out of RCP seals.

C. Prevent voiding in the Reactor Vessel upper head.

D. Prevent SI Accumulator Nitrogen into the RCS.

Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation: SG depressurization is stopped at 300 psig to prevent N2 injection from SI accumulators. What the step accomplishes is to utilize the SI Acc inventory to provide a makeup to the RCS due to assumed leakage from RCP seals. This provides time to pursue restoration of power before core uncovery occurs.

Technical

Reference:

1-ECA-0.0, Rev. 39.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-17, ECA-0.0, B. Given a copy of ECA-0.0, Loss of All AC Power, explain the basis of each step of the procedure.

Question Source: Modified Bank (Farley, 2008, question 39).

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.5 / 41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must identify reason for loss of all on-and off-site power procedure step.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Notes prior to referenced Step of ECA-0.0 lists loss of PRZR level as an expected occurrence - stopping of depressurization is not required. Plausible since Candidate can apply requirements of other EOP steps to this condition.

B. Incorrect - Reason, in part, to depressurize is to minimize inventory loss from RCP seals.

Plausible since Candidate could confuse this concept and apply to reason for securing the depressurization.

C. Incorrect - Note prior to Step lists upper head voiding as a condition that could be expected and not secured because of the voiding. Plausible since the Candidate may apply concept of other EOP steps in this Plant condition.

D. Correct - SGs depressurization is stopped at 300 psig to ensure the most liquid inventory is injected into the RCS, but sufficient level remains to prevent N2 injection.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 057AG2.4.50, Loss of Vital AC Inst. Bus / 6, Ability to verify system alarm setpoints and operate controls identified in the alarm response manual.

Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.2 IR-SRO: 4.6 Proposed Question: !40 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 at 100%

• A transient causes the following annunciators to alarm:

o 1K-B8, UPS SYSTEM 1B TROUBLE.

o 1C-B1, RCP 1B CC RETURN LO FLOW o 1E-G4, RX TRIP CH-2 PRZR LO PRESS Current Conditions:

• The non-licensed operator dispatched reports the red INVERTER SUPPLYING LOAD light is NOT lit for UPS 1B-1.

• Indication on 1-FW-FCV-1488 (B FRV Controller) is:

o Auto Light - NOT LIT o Manual Light - NOT LIT

• The control room team is currently performing actions per 1K-B8, UPS System 1B Trouble.

Which one of the following describes:

1) The method of control for feed flow to B SG.

2) The Abnormal Procedure that should be utilized?

A. 1) Throttle 1-FW-MOV-154B and 1-FW-HCV-155B as necessary.

2) 1-AP-10.04, Loss of Vital Bus IV.

B. 1) Manual control using the pushbutton on the FRV controller.

2) 1-AP-10.02, Loss of Vital Bus II.

C. 1) Throttle 1-FW-MOV-154B and 1-FW-HCV-155B as necessary.

2) 1-AP-10.02, Loss of Vital Bus II.

D. 1) Manual control using the pushbutton on the FRV controller.

2) 1-AP-10.04, Loss of Vital Bus IV.

Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation: Indications presented indicate a loss of vital bus II. ARP 1K-B8 direct AP-10.02 to be followed if the red Inverter supplying load light is not lit. ND-93.1-LP-3, Generic Instrument failures states, if power is lost to the M/A station in the MCR, the controller will shift to Auto-Hold. In this condition, neither the Auto light nor the Manual light on the M/a STATION IS LIT. The operator has no

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet control over the parameter/valve in this condition. The demand sent to the valve positioner will remain at exactly the same value that it was before the loss of power. 1-AP-10.02, Loss of Vital Bus II, states that 1-FW-FCV-1488 will transfer to AUTO-HOLD if Vital Bus II is lost. The AP further directs that 1-FW-MOV-154B, and 1-FW-HCV-155B be throttled as necessary to control SG B level.

Technical

Reference:

1-AP-10.02, Rev. 22, Loss of Vital Bus II Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.1-LP-3D, Generic Instrumentation Failures, Objective D; Explain the effects of a loss of power to various components of a controller.

ND-90.3-LP-5E, Vital and Semi-Vital Bus Distribution, Objective G; Given a loss of a Vital or Semi-Vital bus, describe the effect on Plant indications and controls, including actions taken IAW applicable APs to address the loss.

Question Source: Modified Bank (AOP0250)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.3)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires interpretation of vital bus indications and effects on FRV controllers. Question also test the ability to operate controls (B FRV controller) for a loss of vital bus including specific actions that must be taken.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Throttle 1-FW-MOV-154B and 1-FW-HCV 155B as necessary. This is correct.

2) 1-AP-10.03, Loss of Vital Bus III. This is incorrect as 1-AP-10.02 is the correct procedure because a loss of vital bus II will cause this FRV controller to go into auto-hold. Plausible because this vital bus is also a B train vital bus and this is a viable choice if candidate confuses which UPS supplies each respective Vital bus.

B. 1) Manual control using the pushbutton on the FRV controller. This is incorrect as the conditions are for an auto-hold condition which will not allow operation at the controller.

Plausible because a loss of vital bus III will cause a loss of rack controller requiring operation of this FRV in Manual control as stated.

2) 1-AP-10.02, Loss of Vital Bus II.

C. 1) Throttle 1-FW-MOV-154B and 1-FW-HCV 155B as necessary. This is correct.

2) 1-AP-10.02, Loss of Vital Bus II. This is correct.

D. 1) Manual control using the pushbutton on the FRV controller. This is incorrect as the conditions are for an auto-hold condition which will not allow operation at the controller.

Plausible because a loss of vital bus III will cause a loss of rack controller requiring operation of this FRV in Manual control as stated.

2) 1-AP-10.03, Loss of Vital Bus III. This is incorrect as 1-AP-10.02 is the correct procedure because a loss of vital bus II will cause this FRV controller to go into auto-hold. Plausible because this vital bus is also a B train vital bus and this is a viable choice if candidate confuses which UPS supplies each respective Vital bus.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 058AA1.02, Loss of DC Power / 6, Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Loss of DC Power: Static inverter dc input breaker, frequency meter, ac output breaker and ground fault detector Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.1 IR-SRO: 3.1 Proposed Question: !41 Which ONE of the following breakers, if open, will cause a Vital Bus UPS Static Switch to shift to the alternant source?

A. Battery Charger AC Input.

B. Battery Charger DC Output.

C. Inverter DC Input.

D. Battery Bus DC Input Breaker.

Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation: Battery charger AC input is rectified to DC in the UPS. The DC output breaker feeds the Inverter and supplies a float charge to the battery/battery bus. The Inverter can be powered from the Battery or the DC battery charger output. The common breaker for these parallel paths is the Inverter DC Input breaker. If this breaker is open, the UPS static switch will shift the alternate source.

Technical

Reference:

ND-90.3-LP-5, Vital and Semi-Vital Bus Distribution, Objective B, Describe the components and indications associated with an Uninterruptable Power Supply (UPS).

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-90.3-LP-5, Vital and Semi-Vital Bus Distribution, Objective B, Describe the components and indications associated with an Uninterruptable Power Supply (UPS).

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6)

Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must know that Inverter can be powered from the DC Bus or from the Battery charger. As long as either the Battery bus or the Battery Charger has power, the Vital bus will have power available from the Inverter through the static switch. If the Inverter DC input breaker is opened, the static switch must shift to the alternate source.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - This is one of two parallel sources available to power a Vital Bus from the UPS Static Switch. Plausible if Candidate confuses power arrangement inside UPS to Static Switch.

B. Incorrect - The Battery charger is one of the two sources that can supply the UP Inverter, which in turn supplies the UPS static switch. Plausible if Candidate confuses power arrangement inside UPS to the Static Switch.

C. Correct - This breaker is common to either of the parallel sources to the UPS Inverter which feeds the UPS static switch. When breaker is opened, the only source of power to Vital bus through the static switch is the alternate source.

D. Incorrect - This is one of two available sources of DC power to the UPS inverter, which in turn supplies the UPS static switch. Plausible if Candidate confuses power arrangement inside UPS to Static Switch.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 059A1.07, Main Feedwater / 4S, Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the MFW controls including: Feed Pump speed, including normal control speed for ICS Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.5 IR-SRO: 2.6 NRC APPROVED.

Proposed Question: !42 Unit 1 is currently at 60% power and is performing a startup.

1-FW-P-1B, B Main Feed Pump, is running.

Shortly after starting 1-FW-P-1A, A Main Feed Pump, the operator observes the Main Feed Pump tripping.

Which ONE of the following conditions could have caused 1-FW-P-1A, A Main Feed Pump to trip?

A. Feed pump Lube oil pressure at 8 psig.

B. C Station Service Bus voltage at 68%.

C. Feed flow < 3000 gpm and Recirc valve, 1-FW-FCV-150A not fully open.

D. Feed pump Suction pressure at 430 psig.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation: Feed flow < 3000 gpm and Recirc valve not fully open, is one of the 10 Main Feed Pump trips. Feed flow immediately downstream of Feedwater discharge MOV provides the controlling signal to the Recirc Flow control valve.

Technical

Reference:

ND-89.3-LP-3, Main Feedwater Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-89.3-LP-3, Main Feedwater, Objective B, Describe the major main feedwater system components including, if applicable, their functions, power supply and operation.

• Main Feed Pumps

• MFP Recirc Valves

• MFP Start Interlocks

• MFRVs

• MFP Trip Signals

• FRV Bypass Valves

• MFP Discharge MOVs

• Instrumentation

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: NEW Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.5)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: The question requires the candidate to predict the feed pump trip conditions following attempt to start the Main Feed pump. The Main feed pump doesnt have an ICS control system for speed, therefore flow was used as parameter.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Feed pump Lube oil pressure at 8 psig. Incorrect, Low lube oil pressure trip is < 4 psig.

Plausible because this is below the start permissive of 10 psig.

B. C Station Service Bus undervoltage at 68%. Incorrect because the power supply for 1-FW-P-1A is the A 4160V Station Service bus. Plausible because 1-FW-P-1B2 is powered from the C SS bus and this would be below the trip setpoint.

C. Feed flow < 3000 gpm and Recirc valve not fully open. Correct.

D. Feed pump Low Suction pressure at 430 psig. Incorrect because the setpoint for the low suction pressure trip is < 55 psig. Plausible because < 450 psig is the operational limit for starting the second Feed pump per 1-OP-FW-004.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 059A4.08, Main Feedwater / 4S, Ability to manually operate and monitor in the control room: Feed regulating valve controller Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.0 IR-SRO: 2.9 Proposed Question: !43 Which ONE of the following describes the control available if the power to a MFRV controller is lost in the associated instrument rack in the relay room?

A. The M/A station will shift to manual and can be controlled manually from the MCR.

B. The M/A station will shift to Auto-Hold and cannot be controlled from the control room.

C. The output of the controller will raise to 100% demand.

D. The output of the controller will lower to 0% demand.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation: On Loss of power to the controller in the Relay Room, the M/A station on the control board will shift to Manual, and the parameter can be controlled from the benchboard.

Technical

Reference:

ND-93.1-LP-3, Objective D, Loss of Power to a Controller.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.1-LP-3, Objective C, Explain the basic layout/arrangement of a controller, including the Manual/Auto station.

Question Source: Bank (MFW0019)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 to 45.8)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must know that loss of power to controller in relay room causes M/A station to shift to Manual.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Loss of power to Controller causes M/A station to shift to manual and allows manual control from the MCR.

B. Incorrect - Loss of power to M/A station causes controller to shift to auto-hold. Plausible since Candidate can confuse status of the M/A station during a loss of power to the controller or M/A station.

C. Incorrect - Question asks for operation on loss of power. Plausible since Candidate can confuse effect of loss of air to the control system with loss of power to the M/A station/Controller.

D. Incorrect - Question asks for operation on loss of power. Plausible since Candidate can confuse effect of loss of air to the control system with loss of power to the M/A station/Controller.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 060AK1.02, Accidental Gaseous Radwaste Rel. / 9, Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Accidental Gaseous Radwaste Release:

Biological effects on humans of the various types of radiation, exposure levels that are acceptable for personnel in a nuclear reactor power plant; the units used for radiation intensity measurements and for radiation exposure levels Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 2.5 IR-SRO: 3.1 Proposed Question: !44 Given the following:

• An accidental gaseous radwaste release has occurred in the Waste Gas Decay Tank Room.

• A Site Area Emergency has been declared due to dose at the site boundary of 200 mRem/hr.

• Radiation protection has determined that radiation dose level in the room is 1,000 mRem/hr.

A Surry Power Station worker assigned to enter the room has a current year-to-date TEDE of 700 mRem.

The MAXIMUM total time the worker can be in the room without exceeding their maximum allowed Administrative exposure limit with NO extensions is _____ hour(s)?

A. 3.50 B. 1.00 C. 1.85 D. 2.30 Proposed Answer: B. 1.00 hour0 days <br />0 hours <br />0 weeks <br />0 months <br /> Explanation: Per VPAP-2101, Radiation Protection Program, the Administrative Dose limit (TEDE) for Radiation workers is 2.0 rem/calendar year at the workers home site. The Administrative Dose limit is 3.0 rem/calendar year for concurrent sites. Since the question states this is a Surry Power Station worker then the employees limit is 2.0 rem/calendar year. VPAP-2101 further states an administrative control is in effect requiring an upgrade (extension approval) if a workers annual dose exceeds 85%.

This is to provide reasonable assurance that a worker will not exceed the administrative dose limit. The correct answer was derived by taking admin limit of 2 rem times 85% to calculate limit of 1700 mrem and then dividing by room dose rate of 1,000 mrem/hr.

Max allowable stay time = [(2000 x .85)-(700)] / (1000 mrem/hr). Max allowable stay time = 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />.

Technical

Reference:

VPAP-2101, Rev. 35, Radiation Protection Program.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-81.2-LP-3, External Exposure Control, Objective D, Explain the station administrative exposure limits, including necessary requirements and limitations for extensions.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.8 / 41.10 / 45.3)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: The question requires an understanding of the acceptable whole body exposure allowed under accident conditions. The question matches the K/A Distractor Analysis:

A. 3.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />. Incorrect, Admin limit is 2000 mrem R and this stay time would yield an exposure of 4.2 R. Plausible if candidate confuses Site Admin limit with Federal limit of 5.0 Rem for max allowable exposure [(5000 x .85)-(700)] / (1000 mrem/hr). Max allowable stay time = 3.55 hours6.365741e-4 days <br />0.0153 hours <br />9.093915e-5 weeks <br />2.09275e-5 months <br />.

B. 1.0 hour0 days <br />0 hours <br />0 weeks <br />0 months <br />. Correct.

C. 1.85 hours9.837963e-4 days <br />0.0236 hours <br />1.405423e-4 weeks <br />3.23425e-5 months <br />. Incorrect, Admin limit is 2000 mrem R and this stay time would yield an exposure of 2.55 R. Plausible if candidate confuses Site Admin limit with Fleet admin limit of 3.0 Rem for max allowable exposure [(3000 x .85)-(700)] / (1000 mrem/hr). Max allowable stay time = 1.85 hours9.837963e-4 days <br />0.0236 hours <br />1.405423e-4 weeks <br />3.23425e-5 months <br /> D. 2.3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br />. Incorrect, Admin limit is 2000 mrem R and this stay time would yield an exposure of 2.55 R. Plausible if candidate confuses Site Admin limit with Fleet admin limit of 3.0 Rem for max allowable exposure [(3000)-(700)] / (1000 mrem/hr). Max allowable stay time = 2.3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br />.

Note: did not apply the 85% to make number more plausible.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 061K1.04, Auxiliary/Emergency Feedwater / 4S, Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between the AFW and the following systems: RCS Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.9 IR-SRO: 4.1 NRC APPROVED.

Proposed Question: !45 The team is performing 1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, with plant conditions as follows:

• Containment pressure is 27 psia and rising slowly.

• A S/G parameters o Pressure- 650 psig and lowering slowly.

o Level- 57% WR and lowering slowly.

• B S/G parameters o Pressure 120 psig and lowering rapidly.

o Level- 15% WR and lowering rapidly.

• C S/G parameters o Pressure 630 psig and lowering slowly.

o Level- 56% WR and lowering slowly.

• Pressurizer level 0%.

• Pressurizer pressure 1200 psig and lowering.

• RCS Tave- 512 °F and lowering at a rate of 120 °F/hr.

Which ONE of the following states the minimum required AFW flow to the S/Gs in accordance with E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, Attachment 8?

A. A S/G- 100 gpm; B S/G- 100 gpm; C S/G-100 gpm B. A S/G- 175 gpm; B S/G- 0 gpm; C S/G- 175 gpm C. A S/G- 60 gpm; B S/G- 60 gpm; C S/G- 60 gpm D. A S/G- 225 gpm; B S/G- 0 gpm; C S/G- 225 gpm Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation: Under the given conditions, B SG is faulted. AFW should be isolated to this SG.

Minimum required AFW to the INTACT SGs is 450 gpm (Adverse CTMT Number); A and C should be fed at ~225 gpm each, until SG NR level has been restored to 18%. Given that all S/G pressure and levels are lowering, candidate must assess whether all three S/Gs are faulted, or if A and C S/G parameters are changing due RCS Cooldown caused by B S/G fault.

Technical

Reference:

1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, Attachment 8, Faulted SG Isolation and AFW Flow Control, Step 5.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-3, E-0, Objective B, Given a copy of E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

Question Source: Bank (EOP0370) small modification of AFW Flow numbers for plausibility.

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must assess plant conditions and determine the required AFW flow for these conditions.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - For these conditions the minimum is 450 gpm, with the CTMT adverse, and B SG AFW isolated due to being faulted. Plausible if Candidate applies minimum AFW flow for Adverse CTMT if all 3 SGs are faulted due to lowering trends on all SGs.

B. Incorrect - Total AFW not accounting for Adverse CTMT and correct flow to Intact SGs.

Plausible if Candidate disregards Adverse CTMT conditions.

C. Incorrect - Total AFW required is 450 gpm. Plausible if Candidate applies Minimum AFW flow requirements for 3 faulted SGs and does not account for adverse CTMT conditions.

D. Correct - minimum required AFW flow is established and flow to intact SGs.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 061K5.05, Auxiliary/Emergency Feedwater / 4S, Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as the apply to the AFW: Feed line voiding and water hammer Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.7 IR-SRO: 3.2 Proposed Question: !46 In accordance with 1-AP-21.01, Response to AFW Check Valve Backleakage, which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The temperature on an AFW pump casing where the pump is considered vapor bound.

2) Which of the AFW pumps is aligned and cooled FIRST if all AFW pumps are found to be vapor bound?

A. 1) 200°F.

2) Motor Driven.

B. 1) 200°F.

2) Turbine Driven.

C. 1) 165°F.

2) Motor Driven.

D. 1) 165°F.

2) Turbine Driven.

Proposed Answer: B.

Explanation: IAW 1-AP-21.01, specific guidance for closure of AFW discharge valves one (1) SG, or closure of one header of AFW MOVs to allow for cooldown of AFW piping due to Check Valve backleakage occurs when AFW header temperature exceeds 165 °F. AFW pumps are placed in PTL and cooled down by recircing the pump from the below ground tank to the above ground tank if pump casing temperatures exceeds 200 °F.

Technical

Reference:

1-AP-21.01, Response to AFW Check Valve Backleakage, Revision 5.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-8.3-LP-4, Aux Feed Sys., Objective C, Operate, in accordance with plant abnormal procedures, the Auxiliary Feed System during abnormal conditions.

Question Source: New

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall from memory specific limitations as described in 1-AP-21.01.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, 200°F casing temperature is considered as vapor bound. Part

2) is incorrect, 1-AP-21.01 Attachment 2 Note requires the TDAFW pump be cooled FIRST if all AFW pumps are vapor bound. Plausible if Candidate fails to recall requirements of AP-21.01.

B. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, 165 °F is the temperature where Attachment 1 of AP-21.01 requires Header temperatures be logged every two (2) hours, and where decisions are made to isolate AFW discharge to allow cooling if a check valve is leaking. Part 2) is incorrect, AP-21.01 requires that the TDAFW pump be cooled first. Plausible since Candidate must recall procedure requirements from memory.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, 165 °F is the temperature where Attachment 1 of AP-21.01 requires Header temperatures be logged every two (2) hours, and where decisions are made to isolate AFW discharge to allow cooling if a check valve is leaking. Part 2) is correct. Plausible since Candidate must recall procedural requirement from memory.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 062A4.04, AC Electrical Distribution / 6, Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room: Local operation of breakers Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.6 IR-SRO: 2.7 Proposed Question: !47 Initial Conditions:

Unit 1 A DC Bus is lost due to a fault, causing a reactor trip.

Current Conditions: (11 minutes following the reactor trip)

A Large Break LOCA occurs on Unit 1.

The Team decides to locally start 1-CS-P-1A, A CS Pump.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) Parameter(s) used to identify 1-CS-P-1A has been successfully started.

2) Does 1-CS-P-1A breaker, 1-EP-BKR-14H5, have overcurrent trip protection?

A. 1) Red breaker position indicating light and 1-CS-P-1A amps.

2) No.

B. 1) Red breaker position indicating light and 1-CS-P-1A amps.

2) Yes.

C. 1) 1-CS-P-1A amps only.

2) Yes.

D. 1) 1-CS-P-1A amps only.

2) No.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation: 1H 4160 V bus will remain energized from offsite power - control power to open/close breakers remotely has been lost. Control power has been lost to energize the breaker position light for 1-CS-P-1A, but overcurrent protection is still available; the breaker is a 480V - thus has inherent overcurrent protection.

Technical

Reference:

ND-90.3-LP-7, SS and Emergency Distribution and Control, Objective B, Describe the fault relays and interlocks for 4160V and 480V Station Service and Emergency distribution breakers.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant:

Learning Objective: ND-90.3-LP-7, SS and Emergency Distribution and Control, Objective B, Describe the fault relays and interlocks for 4160V and 480V Station Service and Emergency distribution breakers.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 / to 45.8)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must assess conditions and determine what parameters remain to determine locally operated breaker status and whether overcurrent protection is available.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - 1) red breaker position light has no power to illuminate. 2) Breaker will have overcurrent protection since it is a 480V breaker. Plausible since Candidate must determine that when breaker closed, breaker has no control power. Also, based on breaker type, will the component trip on an overcurrent condition.

B. Incorrect - 1) red breaker position light has no power to illuminate. 2) is correct, breaker can open on overcurrent. Plausible since Candidate must determine that when breaker closed, breaker has no control power. Also, based on breaker type, will the component trip on an overcurrent condition.

C. Correct. 1) Correct. 2) correct.

D. Incorrect - 1) Correct. 2) Incorrect. Plausible since Candidate must determine, based on breaker type, that the component can trip on an overcurrent condition.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 062AA2.04, Loss of Nuclear Svc Water / 4, Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Nuclear Service Water: The normal values and upper limits for the temperatures of the components cooled by SWS Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.5 IR-SRO: 2.9 Proposed Question: !48 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 is operating at 100%.

• 1-SW-P-10A, CHG PUMP SW PUMP, is running in HAND, 1-SW-P-10B, CHG PUMP SW PUMP is in Auto.

• 1-CH-P-1C, CHARGING PUMP is running.

• 1D-G5, SW OR CC PPS DISCH TO CHG PPS LO PRESS has just alarmed.

Current Conditions:

• Reactor Operator reports the following:

o 1-SW-P-10A has tripped, and 1-SW-P-10B remains in standby.

o Highest reading Charging pump bearing temperature is 179oF and rising.

Which ONE of the following describes:

1) The Reactor Operator can monitor Charging pump SW flow on the _______.

2) 0-AP-12.00, Service Water Abnormal, states that the affected Charging pump should be secured once bearing temperature exceeds ______.

A. 1) Vertical board 2) 195oF B. 1) PCS 2) 185oF C. 1) PCS 2) 195oF D. 1) Vertical board 2) 185oF Proposed Answer: B.1) PCS 2) 185oF.

Explanation: Per annunciator procedure 1D-G5, SW OR CC PPS DISCH TO CHG PPS LO PRESS, step 3 RNO, the operator should monitor Charging pump CC and SW flows on the PCS. Charging pump bearing temperatures are rising and per 0-AP-12.00 the pump must be secured if temperature exceeds 185 oF.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

1D-G5, Rev. 4, SW or CC Disch to Chg PPS LO PRESS. 0-AP-12.00, Service Water System Abnormal Conditions, Rev. 14.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No.

Learning Objective: ND-89.5-LP-2, Objective D, Explain the system interconnections associated with the Service Water Systems, flowpaths affected and safety implications of stop logging, and abnormal procedures associated with the systems.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of upper limits of operation for Charging pumps and scenario posed requires the candidate to choose the correct action and correct value of charging pump bearing temperature with a loss of service water.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Vertical Board. Incorrect. There are no Chg pump SW flow indications on the Vertical Board.

Plausible if the operator confuses other SW flow indication; Recirc Spray SW flow for example, with Charging pump SW flow indication. 2) 195 oF, Incorrect. 1-AP-12.00 requires securing the Charging pump once temp. exceeds 185 oF, not 195 oF which is the temp. 1-AP-9.00 requires securing a Reactor coolant pump . Plausible if candidate confuses the temp to secure charging pumps with the temp for securing reactor coolant pumps.

B. 1) PCS. Correct. 2) 185 oF. Correct.

C. 1) PCS. Correct. 2) 195 oF, Incorrect. 1-AP-12.00 requires securing the Charging pump once temp. exceeds 185 oF, not 195 oF which is the temp. 1-AP-9.00 requires securing a Reactor coolant pump . Plausible if candidate confuses the temp to secure charging pumps with the temp for securing reactor coolant pumps.

D. 1) Vertical Board. Incorrect. There are no Chg pump SW flow indications on the Vertical Board.

Plausible if the operator confuses other SW flow indication; Recirc Spray SW flow for example, with Charging pump SW flow indication. 2) 185 oF. Part 2 is correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 063K2.01, DC Electrical Distribution / 6, Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: Major DC loads Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 2.9 IR-SRO: 3.1 Proposed Question: !49 Given the following conditions:

• Unit 1 tripped from 100% power due to loss of on-site and off-site power.

• The team is performing 1-ECA-0.0, Loss of all AC Power.

• The AAC EDG has not been loaded on an emergency bus.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The power source for Unit 1 Annunciator System is _________.

2) The Black Battery is supplies the _________.

A. 1) A Station Battery

2) Seal Oil Backup Pump B. 1) B Station Battery

2) Emergency Oil Pump C. 1) A Station Battery

2) Emergency Oil Pump D. 1) B Station Battery

2) Seal Oil Backup Pump Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation: The Annunciator System is powered from the H Emergency Bus and the A DC Bus.

In ECA-0.0, both emergency buses on the Unit are de-energized, removing the AC source to the Annunciators, which leaves the A battery to continue powering the A battery bus. The air side seal oil backup pump and Emergency Oil Pump are powered from the Black Battery.

Technical

Reference:

1-AP-10.06, Loss of DC Power. 0-AP-10.13, Loss of Main Control Room Annunciators.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-89.2-LP-2, Turbine Support Systems, Objective A, Describe the Turbine Oil System. ND-90.3-LP-6, 125 VDC Distribution, Objective B, Describe the power supplies to and loads

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet supplied by the Black Battery system. ND-90.1-LP-1, Main Generator and Support, Objective D, Describe the components and alarms associated with the Hydrogen Seal Oil System. ND-93.4-LP-7, Misc Monitoring Equipment, Objective D, Describe the operation of the Main Control Room Annunciator Systems, to include the following: Hathaway System power supplies, Hathaway cabinet components and indications, alarm storage and sequence retrieval, annunciator bench board controls, annunciator alarms considered as Trip Indicators and/or Trip Demands.

Question Source: Modified Bank (From EOP0415, Modified distractors and Stem).

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. . Candidate must DC power source to Annunciator System and loads supplied by the black battery.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, A battery will be supplying annunciators. Part 2) is incorrect, the Seal oil backup pump (Turb Lube Oil System) is powered from the H emergency bus.

Plausible since the Air Side Seal Oil Backup pump (H2 Seal oil System) is powered from the black battery and the Candidate could confuse the power sources for these pumps due the similarity of the noun names.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, A battery bus is the source. Plausible since the Candidate can confuse the loads supplied by A and B DC buses. Part 2) is correct.

C. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, A battery bus is the source. Plausible since the Candidate can confuse the loads supplied by A and B DC buses. Part 2) is incorrect, the Seal oil backup pump (Turb Lube Oil System) Is powered from the H emergency bus. Plausible since the Air Side Seal Oil Backup pump (H2 Seal oil System) is powered from the black battery and the Candidate could confuse the power sources for these pumps due the similarity of the noun names.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 064K2.03, Emergency Diesel Generator / 6, Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: Control power Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.6 Proposed Question: !50 Current Condition on Unit 1:

• 1-EP-BKR-15H8 (1H Bus Normal Supply from RSS) tripped open spuriously.

• #1 EDG has started but failed to load.

• A field operator reports the exciter field circuit breaker on #1 EDG is tripped.

Which ONE of the following best completes the following statement regarding the ability to transfer fuel to the #1 EDG?

The Fuel Oil System (1) be able to transfer fuel oil to the Base Tank and (2) be able to transfer fuel to the Wall Tank.

A. (1) will not (2) will not B. (1) will not (2) will C. (1) will (2) will D. (1) will (2) will not Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Power supply to the diesel transfer pumps that feed the wall tank are 1H1-1 and 1H1-2, which will not have power if #1 EDG does not load. If the generator field is not flashed, power will not be available to 1-EE-P-2A/2B to transfer fuel oil from the wall tank to the base tank.

Technical

Reference:

ND-90.3-LP-1, EDG Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-90.3-LP-1, EDG, OBJECTIVE B, Describe the components and flowpaths of the EDG Air Start, Fuel Oil, Cooling, and Lubricating Oil Systems.

Question Source: Bank; LORP LEDG0062

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of DG Control power, specifically Exciter field flash and the effects if this is lost. This question matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. (1) will not. Correct.

(2) will not. Correct.

B. (1) will not. Correct.

(2) will. Incorrect, power supply to the diesel transfer pumps that feed the wall tank are 1H1-1 and 1H1-2, which will not have power if #1 EDG does not load.

C. (1) will. Incorrect, if the generator field is not flashed, power will not be available to 1-EE-P-2A/2B to transfer fuel oil to the base tank.

(2) will. Incorrect, power supply to the diesel transfer pumps that feed the wall tank are 1H1-1 and 1H1-2, which will not have power if #1 EDG does not load.

D. (1) will. Incorrect, if the generator field is not flashed, power will not be available to 1-EE-P-2A/2B to transfer fuel oil to the base tank.

(2) will not. Correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 067AK3.02, Plant Fire On-site / 8, Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Plant Fire on Site: Steps called out in the site fire protection plan, FPS manual, and fire zone manual Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 2.5 IR-SRO: 3.3 Proposed Question: !51

• 0-VSP-C8, Fire Detected, has alarmed.

• Zone 3009, VS-FL-3A, 1-VS-F-58A filter, is indicated on the fire display panel.

• The BOP has initiated 0-AP-48.00, Fire Protection - Operations response, Attachment 2.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The type of fire protection for this filter.

2) The method of actuation.

A. 1) CO2.

2) Automatic.

B. 1) CO2.

2) Manual.

C. 1) Deluge.

2) Automatic.

D. 1) Deluge.

2) Manual.

Proposed Answer: B.

Explanation: The CO2 system for VS-FL-3A, 1-VS-F-58A filter has three means of actuation specified in 0-AP-48.00, Attachment 2. The first is to actuate using the pushbutton in the MCR, the second is to use the pushbutton actuation locally at the filter, the third is to use the local manual throw over lever.

Deluge is used as fire protection for the VS-F-59 filter inlet, which can be aligned to the Aux Bldg general area.

Technical

Reference:

0-AP-48.00, Rev. 33, Fire Protection - Operations Response, Attachment 2.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-92.2-LP-1, Fire Protection, Objective B, Describe the areas protected, components, actuating sequence, and interlocks of the High and Low Pressure CARDOX Systems.

ND-92.2-LP-1, Fire Protection, Objective F, Given a reported fire or loss of domestic water, break down

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet the actions taken as set forth in AP-48.00, Fire Protection - Operations Response, and AP-49.00, Loss of Domestic Water.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.5,41.10 / 45.6 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall from memory locations where CO2 can be operated for the particular component.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect. 58 Fan filter is not an automatically actuated function. Plausible since other protected items supplied by CO2 are automatically actuated, with manual as a backup.

B. Correct - Per Attachment 2 of 0-AP-48.00, CO2 is actuated from the MCR, at the filter, or using a local manual throw over lever.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect. Deluge is used on VS-F-59 filter. Plausible since this filter is similar to the VS-F-58A filter, is located near the 58A fan filter, but is not qualified at the same level. Part 2) is incorrect, actuation of fire protection for the 58A filter is manual only.

Plausible since other deluge protected components have an automatic initiation.

D. Incorrect- Part 1) is incorrect, Deluge is used on VS-F-59 filter. This filter is similar to the VS-F-58A filter, is located near the 58A fan filter, but is not qualified at the same level.

Plausible since the VS-F-59 filter is similar to the 58A filter, located nearby, and has a manual fire protection system. Part 2) is correct, fire protection is manually actuated.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 068AA2.10, Control Room Evac. / 8, Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Control Room Evacuation: Source range count rate Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 4.2 IR-SRO: 4.4 Proposed Question: !52 Initial Conditions

• Both units at 100% power.

• The Control Room is evacuated due to a Limiting Main Control Room Fire.

• All actions per 0-FCA-001, Limiting MCR Fire were taken prior to evacuation.

Current Conditions (20 minutes later)

• Operator dispatched to perform 0-FCA-11.0, Remote Monitoring.

• Operator reports that Unit 1, Neutron flux indicators; 1-NFI-NM-190A & B, are reading offscale low at the Remote Monitoring Panel.

Unit Supervisor directs the operator to switch 1-NFI-NM-190A & B to the alternate power supply using the Appendix R switch.

Which of the following describes:

1) The expected Nuclear Instrument indication at the Remote Monitoring panel.

2) The location of the alternate power App R switch for 1-NI-NFI-190 A & B.

A. 1) between 102 and 103 cps.

2) Cable Tray Room Unit 2.

B. 1) between 104 and 105 cps.

2) Cable Tray Room Unit 2.

C. 1) between 102 and 103 cps.

2) Emergency Switchgear Room Unit 2.

D. 1) between 104 and 105 cps.

2) Emergency Switchgear Room Unit 2.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation: Power will drop rapidly to 1% and then decrease at a rate of approximately -1/3 DPM.

Therefore it is expected that SR indication after 20 minutes would be between 102 and 103 cps which corresponds to between 10-7% and 10-6% on wide range indication. The normal Power supply for Unit 1 Excore Flux Monitor is Vital Bus 1-1, the alternate power supply is Vital Bus 2-3, with the switch being located in ESGR unit 2.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

0-FCA-011, Rev. 5, Remote Monitoring. ND-93.2-LP-5, Excore Fission Chamber.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.2-LP-5, Excore Fission Chamber, objectives C and D. Objective C:

Describe the location of major components including the instrumentation readouts. Objective D: Appraise the sources of the normal and alternate power supplies.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 43.5 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Part 1 of question asks for operator to determine SR indication found on Remote monitoring panel, therefore this question matches the K/A Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) between 102 and 103 cps. This is correct SR indication.

2) Cable Tray Room Unit 2. This is incorrect as the switch is located in ESGR Unit 2. Plausible if candidate confuses this App R switch with other Appr switches. There is another switch to switch the Unit 1 and Unit 2 Remote Monitoring panel to an alternate source and that switch is located in Cable Tray Room Unit 2.

B. 1) between 104 and 105 cps. This is incorrect because this indication is too high by 2 decades. Plausible if student applies -1/3 DPM from 100% power instead of from 1%. Value of 104 and 105 cps represent a 7 decade drop from 100%.

2) Cable Tray Room Unit 2. This is incorrect as the switch is located in ESGR Unit 2. Plausible if candidate confuses this App R switch with other Appr switches. There is another switch to switch the Unit 1 and Unit 2 Remote Monitoring panel to an alternate source and that switch is located in Cable Tray Room Unit 2.

C. 1) between 102 and 103 cps. Correct.

2) ESGR Unit 2. Correct.

D. 1) between 104 and 105 cps. This is incorrect because this indication is too high by 2 decades. Plausible if student applies -1/3 DPM from 100% power instead of from 1%. Value of 104 and 105 cps represent a 7 decade drop from 100%.

2) ESGR Unit 2. Correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 068K1.07, Liquid Radwaste / 9, Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause effect relationships between the Liquid Radwaste System and the following systems: Sources of liquid wastes for LRS Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 2.7 IR-SRO: 2.9 Proposed Question: !53 Both Units are operating at 100% power.

Which ONE of the following water sources is collected in the High/Low Level Liquid Waste Tanks prior to transfer to the SRF?

A. Laundry Drains.

B. Contaminated Drain Tank.

C. Auxiliary Building sump pump discharge.

D. VCT Drain.

Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation: The laundry Drain are collected in the Contaminated drain tanks, then pumped to the SRF. VCT and SI Header Drains are collected in the PDT, then pumped to the Boron Recovery tanks before processing for release. The Auxiliary Building sump collects leakage that contains air. These sumps are pumped to the Liquid Waste Tanks, where they are stored prior to processing for release.

Technical

Reference:

ND-92.4-LP-1, GW and LW, Objective C, Determine the operation of the Vents and Drains System. ND-92.4-LP-1, GW and LW, Objective D, Determine the operation of the Liquid Waste System.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-92.4-LP-1, GW and LW, Objective C, Determine the operation of the Vents and Drains System. ND-92.4-LP-1, GW and LW, Objective D, Determine the operation of the Liquid Waste System.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.2 to 41.9 / 45.7 to 45.8)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall which system leakage/drains are collected in the High or Low Level Waste Tanks, prior to processing and release.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Laundry Drains are collected in the Contaminated Drain Tanks. Plausible if Candidate confuses storage location for Laundry drain with fluids stored in HL/LL Waste Tanks.

B. Incorrect - The Contaminated Drain Tank collects the Laundry Drains which is pumped to the SRF for processing. Plausible since the Candidate confuse sources to CDT with sources to LW system.

C. Correct - This is an open air sump that collects leakage, and is pumped to the LW system.

D. Incorrect - VCT is drained to the PDT. This drain path is collected in the BRT. Plausible since under outage conditions where the VCT is to be completely drained for maintenance, in accordance with 0OP-CH-009, VCT Operations, the VCT can be drained to a floor drain, which would be pumped to HL/LL waste tanks; VCT maintenance would be accomplished when the Unit is shutdown, not at power.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 073A1.01, Process Radiation Monitoring / 7, Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) operating the PRM system controls including:

Radiation levels Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.5 Proposed Question: !54 Given the following:

• Unit 1 is at 100%, Unit 2 is in a Refueling Shutdown.

• 1-GW-RM-130A, Rad Monitor Process Vent Particulate indication spiked high causing the following alarms:

o 0-RMA-C5, Process Vent Rad Mon Trbl.

o 0-RMA-C6, Process Vent Part Alert / Hi.

Which ONE of the following describes the plant response?

A. 1-IA-TV-101A, and 1-IA-TV-101B, Unit 1 Containment Instrument Air compressor suctions will swap to outside air.

B. 1-CV-P-1A, and 1-CV-P-1B, Unit 1 Containment vacuum pumps will trip.

C. 1-SV-TV-103, Air Ejector Discharge to Vent-Vent Trip valve will automatically close.

D. 1-GW-FCV-160, Unit 1 vacuum pump discharge valve, will automatically close.

Proposed Answer: D. Unit 1 vacuum pump discharge valve will automatically close.

Explanation: When a high alarm on RM-130A/B/C (Process Vent MGPI particulate/normal-range gas/high-range gas) sounds, the solenoids are de-energized to shut the WGDT bleed FCV and the containment vacuum pump discharge valves (GW-FCV-160/260). The operator must turn off the vacuum pump to prevent rupturing the discharge hose on the vacuum pump discharge Technical

Reference:

ND-88.4-LP-5, CTMT Vacuum. ARP 0-RMA-C5/C6, Rev. 3, Process Vent Rad Mon Trbl/ Process Vent Part Alert/Hi Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-88.4-LP-5, CTMT Vacuum, Objective B; Describe the operation of the containment vacuum system, including all of the starting and stopping signals for the containment vacuum pumps.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: Modified Bank (North Anna 2008 RO, Q 51. Modified Stem and Distractors)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis:

Question requires ability to predict system response upon receipt of a high radiation alarm, therefore question matches the K/A Distractor Analysis:

A. Unit 1 Containment Instrument Air compressor suctions will swap to outside air. Incorrect. Unit 1 vacuum pump discharge valves will close. Plausible because the Containment Instrument Air compressor suction swap is an automatic action, but for a different radiation monitor (RM-159, 160 Containment Hi particulate/gaseous) therefore this choice could be chosen if candidate confuses auto actions for this rad monitor.

B. Unit 1 vacuum pump will trip. Incorrect. Discharge valves will close. Plausible if the candidate confuses auto actions with required operator actions because tripping the vacuum pumps tripping is required to avoid rupturing the discharge hose.

C. 1-SV-TV-103, Air Ejector Discharge to Vent-Vent Trip valve will automatically close. Incorrect.

Unit 1 vacuum pump discharge valves will close. Plausible because the closure of 1-SV-TV-103 is an automatic action, but for a different radiation monitor (RM-159, 160 - Condenser air ejector) therefore this choice could be chosen if candidate confuses auto actions for this rad monitor.

D. Both units vacuum pump discharge valves will automatically close, pumps will remain running.

Correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 076AK2.01, High Reactor Coolant Activity / 9, Knowledge of the interrelations between the High Reactor Coolant Activity and the following: Process radiation monitors Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 2.6 IR-SRO: 3.0 Proposed Question: !55 Unit 2 is shutdown and has been borated to CSD boron concentration in preparation for Cooldown to CSD for a Refueling outage.

Chemistry has notified the Team that the RCS crud burst has been initiated.

Which ONE of the following describes:

1) The FIRST Radiation monitor that will detect the increased RCS Activity caused by the crud burst.

2) Which CVCS filter is monitored for differential pressure during the crud burst cleanup?

A. 1) Letdown Radiation monitor.

2) Reactor Coolant filter.

B. 1) Letdown Radiation Monitor.

2) Letdown filter.

C. 1) Auxiliary Building Control Area Radiation Monitor.

2) Reactor Coolant filter.

D. 1) Auxiliary Building Control Area Radiation Monitor.

2) Letdown filter.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: When the RCS crud burst begins, the increased RCS activity will be sensed on the Letdown RM. Per 2-GOP-2.4, Unit Cooldown, HSD to 351 °F, the Reactor coolant filter differential pressure is monitored at 2 hour2.314815e-5 days <br />5.555556e-4 hours <br />3.306878e-6 weeks <br />7.61e-7 months <br /> intervals during the crud burst. The Aux Bldg Control Area RM is located just outside the VCT cubicle in the Aux Bldg, since the RCS coolant with higher activity is flowing though the VCT, increased RM reading is probable.

Technical

Reference:

2-GOP-2.4, Unit Cooldown, HSD to 351 °F, Rev 53, Page 16.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-94-SP-1, 100% RCS Drained to Mid-Loop, Objective E, Initiate an RCS cooldown IAW GOP-2.4.

Question Source: New

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR 41.7 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must assess effect of increased RCS activity caused by the crud burst and the RCS filter that is monitored.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct. Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect. Plausible since the Letdown filter is the first filter in the flow path through the CVCS, and the Candidates are required to have the ability to draw this system from memory.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect. Plausible since the Aux Bldg Control Area RM will see the effect of increased RCS activity, but will follow the trend of the Letdown RM. Part 2) is correct.

D. Incorrect - Both Parts 1) and 2) are incorrect. Plausible since the Letdown filter is the first filter in the flow path through the CVCS, and the Candidates are required to have the ability to draw this system from memory. The Aux Bldg Control Area RM will see the effect of increased RCS activity, but will follow the trend of the Letdown RM.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 076G2.1 .30, Service Water / 4S, Ability to locate and operate components, including local controls.

Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.4 IR-SRO: 4.0 Proposed Question: !56 Given the following:

• Unit 1 and Unit 2 are both operating at 100%.

• You are preparing for a Performance Test of Charging Pump SW pump, 1-SW-P-10A Appendix R controls.

• An operator needs to be stationed locally at 1-SW-P-10A to observe the pump, and a second operator at the Appendix R controls for 1-SW-P-10A to start and stop the pump.

The Charging Pump SW pump, 1-SW-P-10A is located inside ___(1)___, and the Appendix R controls for 1-SW-P-10A are located inside Unit 1___(2)___ room.

A. 1) MER 4 2) Emergency Switchgear B. 1) MER 4 2) Cable Vault C. 1) MER 3 2) Cable Vault D. 1) MER 3 2) Emergency Switchgear Proposed Answer: A 1) MER 4. 2) Emergency Switchgear Explanation: 1) Charging Pump SW pump 1-SW-P-10A, and 2-SW-P-10A are located in MER4. The B train pumps, 1-SW-P-10B and 2-SW-P-10B are located in MER 3. 2) The Appendix R panel that controls 1-SW-P-10A is located in Unit 1 Emergency Switchgear Room.

Technical

Reference:

0-FCA-1.0, Rev. 49, Limiting MCR Fire.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-89.5-LP-2, Objective C, State in general the flowpath of service water from the high level intake to the discharge tunnel for the systems served by service water.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of local components and demonstrates ability to operate SW components. Therefore this question matches the K/A Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) MER 4. Correct 2) U1 Emergency Switchgear. Correct answer.

B. 1) MER 4. Correct 2) Unit 1 Cable Vault. Incorrect the Appendix R panel which controls 1-SW-P-10A. Plausible if candidate confuses the two locations since during performance of 0-FCA-1.0 for Limiting MCR fire operations are performed in both locations at the same time.

C. 1) MER 3. Incorrect, Train A Charging SW components are located in MER 4, Train B components are located in MER 3. Plausible if candidate confuses location of Train A with Train B. 2) Unit 1 Cable Vault. Incorrect the Appendix R panel which controls 1-SW-P-10A. Plausible if candidate confuses the two locations since during performance of 0-FCA-1.0 for Limiting MCR fire operations are performed in both locations at the same time.

D. 1) MER 3. Incorrect, Train A Charging SW components are located in MER 4, Train B components are located in MER 3. Plausible if candidate confuses location of Train A with Train B. 2) Unit 1 Emergency Switchgear. Correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 076G2.2.22, Service Water / 4S, Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and safety limits.

Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.0 IR-SRO: 4.7 Proposed Question: !57 Which ONE of the following states:

1) The minimum canal level per Tech Spec 3.14, Circulation and Service Water Systems.

2) The channel coincidence required to cause BC SW isolation?

A. 1) 23.5 feet.

2) 2/4 Channel.

B. 1) 23.5 feet.

2) 3/4 Channels.

C. 1) 23.0 feet.

2) 2/4 Channels.

D. 1) 23.0 feet

2) 3/4 Channels.

Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation: Minimum Canal level per TS-3.14 is 23.0 feet. SW isolation occurs when Intake Canal level is 23.5 feet on 3 / 4 channels.

Technical

Reference:

Tech Spec 3.14.A.1. The high level intake canal is filled to at least elevation

+23.0 feet at the high level intake structure.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-89.5-LP-1, Circulation Water System, Objective B, Describe the components associated with the circulating water system: Circ water pumps, Passive vacuum breakers, Canal level indication and isolation signals, Condenser inlet/outlet MOV close signals, Components affected by stop logging. ND-89.5-LP-1, Circulation Water System, Objective C, Identify the Technical Specifications associated with the Circulating Water System, including for SRO candidates, the basis behind these specifications: TS 3.14, Circulating and Service Water Systems.

Question Source: New

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level:

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.2 / 45.2)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matched K/A. Candidate must recall minimum canal level per TS-3.14, and coincidence associated with BC SW isolation of low canal level.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, minimum level 23.0 feet. Plausible since Candidate must discriminate between canal level minimum per TS - 3.14 and channel coincidence where isolation occurs. Part 2 is incorrect, correct coincidence is 3 / 4. Plausible since the Candidate can confuse coincidence required with other 4-channel coincidences (i.e., Recirc Mode transfer coincidence on RWST level.)

B. Incorrect- Part 1) incorrect, minimum level 23.0 feet. Plausible since Candidate must discriminate between canal level minimum per TS - 3.14 and channel coincidence where isolation occurs Part 2) correct.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2 is incorrect, correct coincidence is 3 / 4. Plausible since the Candidate can confuse coincidence required with other 4-channel coincidences (i.e.,

Recirc Mode transfer coincidence on RWST level).

D. Correct - Both Part 1) and 2) correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 077AK1 .02, Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances / 6, Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts they apply to Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances: Over-excitation Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.3 IR-SRO: 3.4 Proposed Question: !58 A severe thunderstorm has caused perturbations on the grid. 0-AP-10.18 has been entered due to grid instabilities Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100% power, Unit 2 is shutdown.

• The A and B Voltage regulators are in AUTO.

• The A Voltage Regulator is in service.

• Power System Stabilizer (PSS) is in service.

• 55 MVARS Out Current Conditions:

• The Operator reports a large rise in MVARS (Out).

• The following Annunciators have just alarmed:

o 1J-A8, OVEREXCITATION LIMIT.

o 1J-B7, VREG CHANNEL A LOCAL ALARM.

Which of the following occurs if the A Voltage Regulator is unable to lower Generator voltage in its current mode?

A. A Voltage Regulator will shift to the V/Hz mode to control voltage. The B channel will remain in standby.

B. A Voltage Regulator will trip into Emergency Manual. The B channel will automatically assume control.

C. A Voltage Regulator will trip into Emergency Manual to control voltage.

The B channel will remain in standby.

D. A Voltage Regulator will shift to the V/Hz mode to control voltage. The B channel automatically assume control.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation: The Main Voltage Regulator channel will trip into Emergency Manual mode if overexcitation of 125% exists for four seconds. However the, standby channel should have assumed

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet control at this point. The Voltage regulator only shifts to V/Hz when both Generator output breakers have opened.

Technical

Reference:

ARP 1J-A8, Rev. 4, OVEREXCIATION LIMIT.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO Learning Objective: ND-90.1-LP-6, Voltage Regulator, Objective C; Describe the controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Main Generator.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.4, 41.5, 41.7, 41.10 / 45.8)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question provides a condition of overexcitation during for the student to evaluate.

Question requires knowledge of overexcitation and operation of the Voltage Regulators.

Distractor Analysis:

A. A Voltage Regulator will shift to the V/Hz mode to control voltage. This is incorrect as both Gen breakers are closed. The B channel will remain in standby. This is incorrect as the B channel will take control.

B. A Voltage Regulator will trip into Emergency Manual. This is correct.

The B channel will automatically assume control. This is correct.

C. A Voltage Regulator will trip into Emergency Manual to control voltage.

This is correct. The B channel will remain in standby. This is incorrect as the B channel will take control.

D. A Voltage Regulator will shift to the V/Hz mode to control voltage. This is incorrect as both Gen breakers are closed .The B channel automatically assume control.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 078A3.01, Instrument Air / 8, Ability to monitor automatic operation of the IAS, including:

Air pressure Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.1 IR-SRO: 3.2 Proposed Question: !59 Which ONE of the following describes the operation of Instrument Air compressor 1-IA-C-1 when in AUTO?

A. Compressor will start and LOAD when pressure drops to 90 psig.

Compressor will then UNLOAD and LOAD at 105 psig and 95 psig, respectively.

B. Compressor will start and LOAD when pressure drops to 95 psig.

Compressor will then UNLOAD and LOAD at 105 psig and 95 psig, respectively.

C. Compressor will start and LOAD when pressure drops to 100 psig.

Compressor will then UNLOAD and LOAD at 110 psig and 100 psig, respectively.

D. Compressor will start and LOAD when pressure drops to 90 psig.

Compressor will then UNLOAD and LOAD at 110 psig and 100 psig, respectively.

Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation:

Technical

Reference:

NCRODP-17, Compressed Air.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-92.1-LP-1, Station Air Systems, Objective B, Determine the system flowpaths and components associated with the Instrument Air System.

Question Source: Bank (IA00027)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5)

Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall IA compressor start load and unload air pressure.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Start pressure correct. Load and unload pressure is that of the CTMT IA compressor operating in Auto. Plausible if Candidate confuses CTMT IA compressor operation with Station IA compressor.

B. Incorrect - This is the air pressure that the Lag Service Air compressor operates. Plausible for Candidate to confuse Station Air compressor operation with Instrument Air compressor.

C. Incorrect - This is the load and unload pressure for the Lead SA compressor. Plausible for Candidate to confuse SA compressor operation with IA compressor.

D. Correct - this is the starting and LOAD/UNLOAD operating air pressure for the Station IA compressor.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: 103A1.01, Containment / 5, Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the containment system controls including:

Containment pressure, temperature and humidity Level: RO Tier #: 2 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.7 IR-SRO: 4.1 Proposed Question: !60 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 was operating at 100%.

• Auto Reactor Trip and SI initiation occurs due to Large Break LOCA.

• Containment pressure peaks at 45 psia.

Current Conditions:

• RWST level has just reached 60% one minute ago and is lowering.

• Containment pressure is 22 psia and lowering.

Which ONE of the following describes:

1) The status of Recirc Spray pumps.

2) The minimum number of Containment Spray and Recirc Spray pumps needed to cool and depressurize the containment to < 1 psig in < 60 minutes following a Design Basis LOCA.

A. 1) Both Outside Recirc Spray pumps are running, Inside Recirc Spray pumps are off.

2) One Containment Spray pump and two Recirculation Spray pumps.

B. 1) Both Inside Recirc Spray pumps are running, Outside Recirc Spray pumps are off.

2) One Containment Spray pump and two Recirculation Spray pumps.

C. 1) Both Outside Recirc Spray pumps are running, Inside Recirc Spray pumps are off.

2) One Containment Spray pump and one Recirculation Spray pump.

D. 1) Both Inside Recirc Spray pumps are running, Outside Recirc Spray pumps are off.

2) One Containment Spray pump and one Recirculation Spray pump.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation: Inside Recirculation Spray subsystems are started automatically by a HI-HI CLS with <

60% in the RWST. Outside Recirc Spray subsystems will start with an additional 120 sec delay. One Containment Spray Subsystem and two Recirculation Spray Subsystems operating together, the spray systems are capable of cooling and depressurizing the containment to 1.0 psig in less than 60 minutes and to subatmospheric pressure within 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> following the Design Basis Accident.

Technical

Reference:

ND-91-LP-6, Recirc Spray, and ND-91-LP-5, Containment Spray.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-91-LP-5, Recirc Spray objective A; State the purpose of the Recirculation Spray sub-systems.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 45.5)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of the parameters and equipment that must operate to maintain the Containment below its design pressure limit.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Both Outside Recirc Spray pumps are running, Inside Recirc Spray pumps are off.

Incorrect, Outside recirc spray pumps will start after 120 sec delay. Plausible if candidate confuses ORS with IRS start as this is common mistake made.

2) One Containment Spray pump and two Recirculation Spray pumps.

B. 1) Both Inside Recirc Spray pumps are running, Outside Recirc Spray pumps are off.

Correct.

2) One Containment Spray pump and two Recirculation Spray pumps. Correct.

C. 1) Both Outside Recirc Spray pumps are running, Inside Recirc Spray pumps are off.

Incorrect, Outside recirc spray pumps will start after 120 sec delay Plausible if candidate confuses ORS with IRS start as this is common mistake made.

2) One Containment Spray pump and one Recirculation Spray pump. Incorrect as one train which includes one Containment spray subsystem and two Recirculation spray subsystems are needed. Plausible if student confuses Recirc Spray capability with Containment Spray.

D. 1) Both Inside Recirc Spray pumps are running, Outside Recirc Spray pumps are off.

Correct.

2) One Containment Spray pump and one Recirculation Spray pump.

Incorrect as one train which includes one Containment spray subsystem and two Recirculation spray subsystems are needed. Plausible if student confuses Recirc Spray capability with Containment Spray.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.1.23, Conduct of operations, Ability to perform specific system and integrated plant procedures during all modes of plant operation.

Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 4.3 IR-SRO: 4.4 Proposed Question: !61 The reactor is starting up following a refueling outage, in accordance with 1-GOP-1.8. Unit Startup, HSD to Max Allowable Power.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The flowpath used when diluting to critical in accordance with 1-OP-CH-007, Blender Operations.

2) The method used to stabilize reactor power at 10-8 amps.

A. 1) Dilute to the VCT Inlet.

2) Boration / Dilution.

B. 1) Dilute to the VCT Inlet.

2) Rods.

C. 1) Alternate dilute to CH pump suction.

2) Boration / Dilution.

D. 1) Alternate dilute to CH pump suction.

2) Rods.

Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation: Following a refueling, the initial criticality is performed IAW 1(2)-OP-RX-009, Dilution to Critical Conditions following Refueling. When diluting to criticality, alternate dilute to the CH pump suction is used at 60 gpm. When reactor power has been raised to 10-8 amps, rods are moved in to stabilize power at 10-8 amps.

Technical

Reference:

1(2)-OP-RX-009, Rev. 22, Dilution; 1(2)-OP-RX-006, Rod Withdrawal.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-87-ST-1, Startup Certification Simulator Exercise, Day 1, Objective B, From the point of criticality, raise power to and stabilize power at 10 E-8 amps to take critical data in accordance with 1-OP-RX-006. ND-94-SP-2, RCS at CSD with PZR Solid to 100%, Objective H, Startup the reactor and stabilize at 2% power IAW the General Operating Procedure, OP-RX-005, Rod

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Control System Withdrawal of the Shutdown Banks, and OP-RX-009, Dilution to Critical Conditions Following Refueling.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.2 / 45.6)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must identify flowpath of blender system for dilution to critical; flowpath specified in 1-OP-RX-009, Step 5.3.5. Candidate must select the correct method of stabilizing reactor power at 10-8 amps.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, Dilution is aligned to the CH pump suction by closing the valve to the VCT inlet in Alternate Dilute Mode of the Blender. Plausible since Candidate can confuse Dilute Mode with Alternate Dilute alignment. Part 2) incorrect, rods are used to stabilize at 10-8 amps. Plausible since candidate can confuse method used to Stabilize power with method used to adjust rod height for physics testing or to ensure adequate reactivity available to raise power and place the Unit on-line.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, Dilution is aligned to the CH pump suction by closing the valve to the VCT inlet in Alternate Dilute Mode of the Blender. Plausible since Candidate can confuse Dilute Mode with Alternate Dilute alignment. Part 2) is correct.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect, rods are used to stabilize at 10-8 amps.

Plausible since candidate can confuse method used to Stabilize power with method used to adjust rod height for physics testing or to ensure adequate reactivity available to raise power and place the Unit on-line.

D, Correct - Both Part 1) and 2) are correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.1.7, Conduct of operations, Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior and instrument interpretation.

Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 4.4 IR-SRO: 4.7 Proposed Question: !62 Given the following conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 12% power.

• The team is currently performing 1-GOP-1.8, Unit Startup, and are checking trip status lights in preparation for blocking Intermediate Range and Power-Range (Lo SP) trips.

• The team depresses Intermediate-Range and Power-Range (LO Setpoint) Block pushbuttons.

• Trip Status lights are as follows:

Light # Noun name As-found Required A3 P-10 NIS PWR RGE > 10% LIT LIT C1 NIS PWR RNG LO SP TRIP BLOCKED NOT LIT LIT

• The team notes that status light C1 is in wrong state, checks bulb and finds bulb is good.

Which ONE of the following describes how the plant will respond if the team continues to raise power.

1) At what power will the reactor trip?

2) What is the coincidence for the reactor trip?

A. 1) 35%. 2) 1/4.

B. 1) 23%. 2) 2/4.

C. 1) 23%. 2) 1/4.

D. 1) 35%. 2) 2/4.

Proposed Answer: B. 1) 23%. 2) 2/4.

Explanation: Power Range Hi flux (Lo SP) actuates when 2/4 channels exceed 23% if not blocked.

Block conditions require that P-10 be satisfied by 2/4 PR channels > 10%, and PR Block switches depressed. The P-10 interlock is made up as indicated by Trip status light A3 being lit, however the Pwr Range Lo SP block is NOT made up as indicated by status light C1 not being Lit. This will result in a reactor trip at 23% due to PR Hi flux (Lo SP). The intermediate hi flux trip is also not bypassed but its setpoint is 35%.

Technical

Reference:

1-GOP-1.8, Rev. 28, Unit Startup, HSD to Max Allowable Power.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-93.3-LP-10, Objective C, Explain all RPS reactor trip signals, including setpoints, coincidences, and purpose.

Question Source: Modified Bank (PRO0168)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 43.5 / 45.12 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question provides a condition where one of indications are not as expected, and team makes a wrong decision. Student must evaluate plant conditions and judge if actions are correct.

This meets the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) 35%. Incorrect. Reactor will first trip at 23% from Power Range Hi Flux Low sp. Plausible because this is the setpoint for the intermediate range trip. 2) 1/4. Incorrect. The coincidence is 2/4 exceeding 23%. This is plausible if the candidate confuses the intermediate logic 1/2 with the power range logic 2/4. Also the Rod Stop is 1/4 logic.

B. 1) 23%. Correct. 2) 2/4. Correct.

C. 1) 23%. Correct. 2) 1/4. Incorrect. The coincidence is 2/4 exceeding 23%. This is plausible if the candidate confuses the intermediate logic 1/2 with the power range logic 2/4. Also the Rod Stop is 1/4 logic.

D. 1) 35%. Incorrect. Reactor will first trip at 23% from Power Range Hi Flux Low sp. Plausible because this is the setpoint for the intermediate range trip. 2) 2/4. Correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.2.6, Equipment Control, Knowledge of the process for making changes to procedures Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.0 IR-SRO: 3.6 Proposed Question: !63 An Operator has been briefed and sent to perform 1-OPT-FW-001, Motor Driven Aux Feedwater Pump 1-FW-P-3A. While placing 1-FW-P-3A in the proper lineup for the test, a typographical error for a valve mark number is discovered.

Which ONE of the following states the next actions to be performed to address the issue?

A. The Operator makes a pen and ink correction, has the cognizant supervisor initial and date the correction, and then continues the OPT.

B. The Operator makes a pen and ink correction, continues the OPT, notes the pen and ink change in the Operator Comments section.

C. The Operator makes the pen and ink correction, continues with the OPT, and then processes a procedure change.

D. The Operator makes the pen and ink correction, continues with the OPT, notifies the cognizant Supervisor during debrief, and then processes a procedure change.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: This type of correction is considered an Administrative change. The operator would have the cognizant supervisor initial and date the change and then complete the OPT.

Technical

Reference:

AD-AA-100, Rev. 2, Technical Procedure Process Control, section 3.11.1.

Reference Provided to Applicant: NO o Learning Objective: SROUTP-02, Objective B, For a Tier 2 procedure, discuss the following: Purpose of the procedure, Requirements for operations personnel.

Question Source: Bank (LADM0154)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.3 / 45.13)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Process of a procedure change to a procedure for this case must be evaluated.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Per AD-AA-100, Section 3.11.1, these are the Steps required for an Administrative correction found during performance of an OPT.

B. Incorrect - a pen and ink change made by the operator is insufficient, a Supervisor must initial the change before continuing with the procedure. Plausible since the Candidate could assume a minor change would be documented in this section of the procedure.

C. Incorrect - the cognizant Supervisor must initial a pen and ink typographical correction to a procedure prior to continuing with the procedure. Plausible since the Candidate could place a higher priority on completing the procedure and exiting a Tech Spec clock than addressing a minor procedure change.

D. Incorrect - the cognizant Supervisor must be made aware of the need for a change, and initial the correction prior to continuing with the procedure. Plausible since the Candidate could place a higher priority on completing the procedure and exiting a Tech Spec clock than addressing a minor procedure change.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.2.7, Equipment Control, Knowledge of the process for conducting special or infrequent tests Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 2.9 IR-SRO: 3.6 Proposed Question: !64 Which ONE of the following Periodic Tests is designated as an Infrequently Conducted or Complex Evolution?

A. 1-OPT-CH-009, Refueling Test of the Manual Emergency Boration Flow Path.

B. 1-OPT-RX-005, Control Rod Assembly Partial Movement.

C. 1-OPT-CT-211, Containment Integrity Verifications.

D. 1-OPT-ZZ-001, ESF Actuation with Undervoltage and Degraded Voltage - 1H Bus.

Proposed Answer: D. 1-OPT-ZZ-001, ESF Actuation with Undervoltage and Degraded Voltage - 1H Bus Explanation: 1-OPT-ZZ-001, ESF Actuation with Undervoltage and Degraded Voltage - 1H Bus is an ICCE III. ICCE Category III are routine tests or evolutions that are complex due to Abnormal Initial conditions, concurrent tests, or Infrequently performed. (OP-AA-106)

Technical

Reference:

OP-AA-106, Rev. 9, Infrequently Conducted or Complex Evolutions Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: SROU-02, Admin Procedures, Objective A; For a Tier 1 procedure discuss the following, purpose, responsibilities, authorization and knowledge items applicable to operators.

Question Source: Modified Bank (North Anna 2008 RO Exam, question 71: Modified distractors to conform to Surry Testing configuration.

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.3 / 45.13)

Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of ICCE test and which tests meet the requirement therefore the question matches the K/A Distractor Analysis:

A. 1-OPT-CH-009, Refueling Test of the Manual Emergency Boration Flow Path. Plausible as this PT is performed on an 18 month (refueling outage) interval and is designated as a REACT MGT (Reactivity Management) procedure. Based on being infrequently performed and designated as REACT MGT, the candidate who is not familiar with the ICCE requirements could default to this distractor.

B. 1-OPT-RX-005, Hot Rod Drops By Bank. Plausible as this PT is performed on a quarterly interval and is designated as a REACT MGT (Reactivity Management) procedure. Based on being infrequently performed and designated as REACT MGT, the candidate who is not familiar with the ICCE requirements could default to this distractor.

C. 1-OPT-CT-211, Containment Integrity Verifications. Plausible as this PT is performed on an 18 month (refueling outage) interval and is designated as an ISI test (Inservice Inspection) procedure. Based on being infrequently performed and designated as ISI, the candidate who is not familiar with the ICCE requirements could default to this distractor.

D. 1-OPT-ZZ-001, ESF Actuation with Undervoltage and Degraded Voltage - 1H Bus. Correct, this PT is designated as a Category III ICCE.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.3.13, Radiation Control, Knowledge of radiological safety procedures pertaining to licensed operator duties, such as response to radiation monitor alarms, containment entry requirements, fuel handling responsibilities, access to locked high-radiation areas, aligning filters, etc.

Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.4 IR-SRO: 3.8 Proposed Question: !65 Given the following:

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.

• A Subatmospheric Containment Entry is to be made in accordance with VPAP-0106, to identify the source of a step change in Unidentified leakage of +0.4 gpm.

• The Shift Manager has entered Action Level 3 for RCS leakage and has notified the OMOC.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The minimum level of authority for the containment entry is ___(1)___.

2) The HP Shift Supervisor or designee must __(2)__.

A. (1) Plant Manager (2) Sign on to the In-Core Detector tagout B. (1) Plant Manager (2) Verify In-Core Detectors in storage location C. (1) Director, Nuclear Safety and Licensing (2) Sign on to the In-Core Detector tagout D. (1) Director, Nuclear Safety and Licensing (2) Verify In-Core Detectors in storage location Proposed Answer: C.

Explanation:

Technical

Reference:

VPAP-0106, Subatmospheric Containment Entry, Rev 13.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: Learning Objective: SROU-02, Admin Procedures, Objective A, For a Tier 1 procedure, discuss the following:

Purpose of the procedure, Responsibilities, as it applies to operations personnel (Operations Personnel, Shift Operators, Reactor Operators, etc.), Who is required to authorize specific plant operations or process changes (for example, procedure modifications). For example, who is required to authorize the use of an air operated valve as an isolation boundary on a tagout.

This is important because you, as a member of the control room staff, need to understand what authorizations are required BEFORE you direct an action in the plant.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Knowledge items applicable to operators. For example, in OP-AA-100, how valve verifications are performed. This is specific to operators, and operators need to have this knowledge item in the carrying out of their daily duties. Tier 1 Procedures: VPAP-0106, Sub-atmospheric Containment Entry.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.12 / 43.4 / 45.9 / 45.10)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall specifics for subatmospheric containment entry; Level of authority to approve entry, and HP SS requirements for In-Core Detector system (to ensure personnel dose not impacted by exposure to activated cables or equipment of In-Core System.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, Director NSS&L is minimum level of authority to approve entry. Plausible since Plant manager is responsible for oversight of Plant Operations, and is second in line of succession. Part 2) is correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, Director NSS&L is minimum level of authority to approve entry. Plausible since Plant manager is responsible for oversight of Plant Operations, and is second in line of succession. Part 2) is incorrect, in-core detectors are driven to the storage position when the reactor has been shutdown; otherwise located at the bottom of the core for use in flux mapping. Plausible since Candidate could assume in-core detectors are driven to the storage location for all CTMT entries.

C. Correct - Both Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is incorrect, in-core detectors are driven to the storage position when the reactor has been shutdown; otherwise located at the bottom of the core for use in flux mapping. Plausible since Candidate could assume in-core detectors are driven to the storage location for all CTMT entries.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.3.14, Radiation Control, Knowledge of radiation or contamination hazards that may arise during normal, abnormal, or emergency conditions or activities Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.4 IR-SRO: 3.8 Proposed Question: !66 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 1 is in a refueling outage.

• Fuel off-load is in progress.

Current Conditions:

• A report is received that a fuel assembly being removed from the core was significantly damaged while lifting it from the core.

• Large Bubbles were seen escaping from the damaged fuel assembly.

• NO radiation alarms have been received.

Which ONE of the following describes the actions required by 0-AP-22.00, Fuel Handling Abnormal Conditions:

1) What is the required status of Main Control Room Ventilation?

2) Is Containment Evacuation required?

A. 1) Normal Ventilation.

2) Yes.

B. 1) Emergency Ventilation.

2) No.

C. 1) Emergency Ventilation.

2) Yes.

D. 1) Normal Ventilation.

2) No.

Proposed Answer: C Explanation: 0-AP-22.00, Fuel Handling Abnormal Conditions is entered by either 1) Fuel cladding failure as determined by radiation monitor; or 2) Fuel cladding failure as determined by observation; (bubbles or cloudiness, separation of fuel rod). In this case 0-AP-22.00 is entered due to observation and verbal report to the Control Room will initiate this. Step 5 requires Containment evacuation and step 7 requires Normal MCR ventilation to be secured.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

0-AP-22.00, Rev. 24, Fuel Handling Abnormal Conditions.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-92.5-LP-7, Refueling Aps, Objective C; Respond to a plant event in accordance with AP-22.00, "Fuel Handling Abnormal Conditions," AP-22.01, "Loss of Refueling Cavity Level," and AP-22.02, "Malfunction of Spent Fuel Pit Systems," while demonstrating knowledge of the purpose, indications, and applicable immediate operator actions.

Question Source: Modified Bank (North Anna 2014 RO exam, question 71; modified distractors to conform to Surry configuration).

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.12 / 43.4 / 45.10)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of what constitutes a radiation hazard and damaged fuel therefore the question matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Normal Ventilation. Incorrect. Per AP-22.00 Normal MCR ventilation is secured and Emergency Ventilation is started. Plausible because with no radiation alarms it may appear that there are no hazards in containment so a candidate may chose this option thinking there are no hazards. 2) Yes. Containment evacuation is required. The second part is correct.

B. 1) Emergency Ventilation. Correct. 2) No. Containment evacuation is NOT required. Per AP-22.00 evacuation is required in the effective area which is containment. Plausible because no Radiation Monitor alarms are present. This may result in the appearance that no radiation hazard exists.

C. 1) Emergency Ventilation. Correct. 2) Yes Containment evacuation is required. Correct.

D. 1) Normal Ventilation. Incorrect. Per AP-22.00 Normal MCR ventilation is secured and Emergency Ventilation is started. Plausible because with no radiation alarms it may appear that there are no hazards in containment so a candidate may chose this option thinking there are no hazards. 2) No. Containment evacuation is NOT required. Incorrect. This is plausible because no Radiation Monitor alarms are present. This may result in the appearance that no radiation hazard exists therefore no evacuation is needed which is incorrect.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.3.4, Radiation Control, Knowledge of radiation exposure limits under normal and emergency conditions Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.7 Proposed Question: !67 Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements?

The Federal Dose limit for Lens of the Eye is _______.

AND The Federal Dose Limit for the Skin is _______.

A. (1) 15 Rem (2) 50 Rem B. (1) 1.5 Rem (2) 5.0 Rem C. (1) 5.0 Rem (2) 1.5 Rem D. (1) 50 Rem (2) 15 Rem Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Per 10 CFR 20 and VPAP-2101 (Radiation Protection Program), the Federal Limit for Lens of the Eye is 15 Rem, the limit for Skin is 50 Rem. Per VPAP-2101, the limits for Lens of the Eye and Skin for an Employee less than the age of 18 is 1/10th the Federal limits (i.e., 1.5 Rem for Lens of the Eye, and 5 Rem for the Skin.)

Technical

Reference:

VPAP-2101, Rev. 35, Radiation Protection Program, Section 6.3.2, Regulatory Limits and Controls, a. and c.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-81.2-PP-3, External Exposure Control, Objective C, Explain the federal exposure limits for Total Effective Dose Equivalent, extremity, skin, and Lens of the Eye doses including necessary requirements and limitations for extensions Question Source: Bank (NAPS 2014, 72) modified for Surry

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.12 / 43.4 / 45.10)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall federal limits for Lens of the Eye and Skin.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Part 1) is correct. Part 2) is correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, 1.5 Rem is the limit for a Minor (<18 years of age). Plausible if Candidate confuses limits for federal and dose to dose to a minor. Part 2) is incorrect, 5 Rem is the limit for skin dose to a minor IAW VPAP-2101, Radiation Control Program.

Plausible if Candidate confuses Federal limit and limit for dose to a minor.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, this is the skin dose limit for a minor (per VPAP-2101) and the TEDE limit. Plausible if the Candidate incorrectly applies these limits to the federal limit. Part 2 is incorrect, 1.5 Rem is the lens of the eye limit for a minor. Plausible if Candidate incorrectly applies lens of the eye limit for a minor to skin dose.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect. Part 2) is incorrect. Plausible if the Candidate confuses the limits for Lens of the Eye and Skin dose.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.4.21, Emergency Procedures/Plans, Knowledge of the parameters and logic used to assess the status of safety functions, such as reactivity control, core cooling and heat removal, reactor coolant system integrity, containment conditions, radioactivity release control, etc.

Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 4.0 IR-SRO: 4.6 Proposed Question: !68 Which of the following Critical Safety Function RED paths can be directly caused by procedurally directed operator action?

A. Subcriticality B. Core Cooling C. Heat Sink D. Containment Proposed Answer: C. Heat Sink Explanation: Operator throttling AFW below 350 gpm (460 gpm) while no steam generator is above 12% (18%) would cause an entry condition into FR-H.1 as in the case of ECA-2.1, Uncontrolled Depressurization of all Steam Generators or FR-P.1, Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Condition.

Technical

Reference:

1-FR-H.1 Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-26, CSFST, Objective A; Explain the associations between the six critical safety functions and the three barriers that prevent the uncontrolled release of radioactive materials to the environment. FR-H.1 first Caution allows exiting FR-H.1 if entry condition met because of intentionally throttling AFW below 350/450 gpm.

Question Source: Bank (Diablo Canyon, RO exam 2007 question 74)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 43.5 / 45.12)

Comments:

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge of the specific parameters requiring entry into FR procedures and also knowledge of the EOPs that could cause a direct entry into an FR. This question matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Subcriticality. Incorrect, caused by power generation > 5%. Plausible if candidate confuses procedurally directed actions with procedurally required actions.

B. Core Cooling. Incorrect caused by core overheat as indicated by elevated Core exit thermocouples.

Plausible if candidate confuses procedurally directed actions with procedurally required actions.

C. Heat Sink. Correct, can be caused by operator throttling AFW below 350/450 gpm as directed by EOPs.

D. Containment. Incorrect, caused by high containment pressure. Plausible if candidate confuses procedurally directed actions with procedurally required actions

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.4.29, Emergency Procedures/Plans, Knowledge of the emergency plan.

Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.1 IR-SRO: 4.4 Proposed Question: !69 The Station has just upgraded from an Alert to a Site Area Emergency.

Which ONE of the following actions is required for a Site Area Emergency in addition to those actions initiated for the Alert?

A. Off-Site monitoring Team Dispatched.

B. Emergency Response Personnel called in.

C. A Report of Radiological Conditions to the State is transmitted.

D. Accountability is performed.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Per EPIP-1.04, Response to Site Area Emergency, off-site dose monitoring are dispatched, Step 7.

Technical

Reference:

Per EPIP-1.04, Response to Site Area Emergency, Step 7, Revision 23; EPIP-2.01, Rev. 44, Report of Emergency to State and Local Governments.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.5-LP-2, SEM, Objective D, Determine the corrective actions required by a classified plant emergency. ND-95.5-LP-3, EM Comm, Objective D, Carry out data gathering to complete the EPIP-2.01 attachments, including the sources of meteorological and radiological data, time requirements for message transmissions, and phones used for each type of data transmission.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.11)

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must assess responses and apply knowledge of EP actions.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - per Step 7 of EPIP-1.04, Response to Site Area Emergency.

B. Incorrect - per E-Plan, Emergency Response personnel are called in for an Alert or higher classification. Plausible if Candidate applies actions already in progress for Alert.

C. Incorrect - a Report of Radiological Condition to the State is required if a release of radiological material has occurred, is in progress, or has been terminated, per EPIP-2.01, Attachment 2, Report of Emergency to State and Local Governments, Item 3. Plausible if Candidate assumes upgrade to SAE due to release.

D. Incorrect - Accountability is performed for any Classification of Alert or higher. Plausible if Candidate confuses actions already underway with actions required due to the Upgrade.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: G2.4.43, Emergency Procedures/Plans, Knowledge of emergency communications systems and techniques.

Level: RO Tier #: 3 Group #: IR - RO: 3.2 IR-SRO: 3.8 Proposed Question: !70 Given the following:

• 0800: A large break LOCA occurred.

• 0810: A Site Area Emergency was declared.

When obtaining meteorological data from the MET panel:

1) The preferred source for wind speed, and wind direction is the Main Tower ___(1)___.

2) The required Notification completion time is recorded following roll call after reading Item

____(2)____.

A. 1) Lower Level.

2) 11, Additional Information.

B. 1) Lower Level.

2) 1, Emergency Classification.

C. 1) Upper Level.

2) 11, Additional Information.

D. 1) Upper Level.

2) 1, Emergency Classification.

Proposed Answer: B Explanation: 1) Per EPIP-2.01 Attachment 1, Instructions for Completing report of Emergency to State and Local Governments, the priority for obtaining Wind Dir. & Wind Speed is Main Tower Lower level, followed by the Backup Tower and then Main Tower Upper level. 2) Per EPIP-2.01, Report of Emergency to State and Local Governments the Notification Completed Time is recorded after roll call in Item 1, Emergency Classification. This is a recent change from the previous revision which conducted the roll call after item 11, Additional information.

Technical

Reference:

EPIP-2.01, Rev. 44, Report of Emergency to State and Local Governments.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.5-LP-3, EM Communicator, Objective D, Carry out data gathering to complete the EPIP-2.01 attachments, including the sources of meteorological and radiological data, time requirements for message transmissions, and phones used for each type of data transmission.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question requires knowledge and ability to acquire MET data using EPIP-2.01, therefore question matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis: Note Ambient Temp. included for all choices for completeness.

A. 1) Main Tower Lower Level. Correct. 2) Item 11, Additional Information. This is incorrect. Per EPIP-2.01, Report of Emergency to State and Local Governments, the Notification Completed Time is recorded after roll call in Item 1, Emergency Classification. This is plausible because this is a recent change from the previous revision which conducted the roll call after item 11, Additional information.

B. 1) Main Tower Lower Level. Correct. 2) Item 1, Emergency Classification. Correct.

C. 1) Main Tower Upper Level. Incorrect. EPIP-2.01 step 19 states the primary source of wind speed is the Main Tower Lower level and the alternate source would be the Backup tower and Main Tower Upper Level. Plausible if candidate confuses the preferred with the backup source.

2) Item 11, Additional Information. This is incorrect. Per EPIP-2.01, Report of Emergency to State and Local Governments, the Notification Completed Time is recorded after roll call in Item 1, Emergency Classification. This is plausible because this is a recent change from the previous revision which conducted the roll call after item 11, Additional information.

D. 1) Main Tower Upper Level. Incorrect. EPIP-2.01 step 19 states the primary source of wind speed is the Main Tower Lower level and the alternate source would be the Backup tower and Main Tower Upper Level. Plausible if candidate confuses the preferred with the backup source.

2) Item 1, Emergency Classification. Correct.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE04EK2.2, LOCA Outside Containment / 3, Knowledge of the interrelations between the (LOCA Outside Containment) and the following: Facility's heat removal systems, including primary coolant, emergency coolant, the decay heat removal systems and relations between the proper operation of these systems to the operation of the facility.

Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 3.8 IR-SRO: 4.0 Proposed Question: !71 Initial Conditions:

• Unit 2 operating at 100% power.

• A LOCA has occurred in Unit 2 Safeguards.

• Unit 2 is tripped and safety injection actuated.

• 2-SI-MOV-2890C, LHSI to Cold Legs, has been closed.

• RCS Pressure is 1005 psig and rising.

• The Team has transitioned to 2-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The status of the LHSI pumps.

2) The position of the LHSI Suction Valves from the RWST, 2-SI-MOV-2862A and B.

A. 1) Secured in PTL.

2) Closed.

B. 1) Secured in AUTO.

2) Closed.

C. 1) Secured in PTL.

2) Open.

D 1) Secured in AUTO.

2) Open.

Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: Per 2-ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment, Rev 8, Step 2, states that when 2-SI-MOV-2890C is closed, RCS pressure is monitored. If RCS pressure is Increasing, the LHSI pumps are placed in PTL, and the LHSI pump suction MOVs from the RWST are closed.

Technical

Reference:

2-ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment, Rev 8, Step 2. SPS ECA-1.2 Step Deviation Document, Step 2.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-21, ECA-1.2, Objective B, Given a copy of ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

Question Source: Modified Bank (Harris, 2009, Question 15)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.7)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall the status of LHSI pumps and RWST suction valves if LOCA outside of CTMT is isolated in ECA-1.2, Step 2.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Parts 1) and 2) are correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, the LHSI pumps are secured and placed in PTL and RWST suction MOVs are closed to stop further flooding and conserve remaining content of the RWST. Plausible due to the majority of EOP steps that operate the LHSI pumps require the LHSI pumps be stopped and placed in AUTO. Part 2) is correct C. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, LHSI pumps are secured and placed in PTL. Plausible since the majority of EOP steps that operate the LHSI pumps require the LHSI pumps be stopped and place in AUTO. Part 2) is incorrect. Plausible since the Candidate may not consider continued loss of RWST level through open MOVs to the break site.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect; LHSI pumps are secured and placed in PTL. Plausible due to the majority of EOP steps that operate the LHSI pumps require the LHSI pumps be stopped and placed in AUTO. Part 2) is incorrect, the RWST suction MOVs are closed.

Plausible since the Candidate may not consider continued loss of RWST level through open MOVs to the break site.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE08EK3.3, RCS Overcooling - PTS / 4, Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the (Pressurized Thermal Shock) Manipulation of controls required to obtain desired operating results during abnormal and emergency situations.

Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.7 IR-SRO: 3.8 Proposed Question: !72 Given the following:

• Unit 1 was operating at 100% when a large break LOCA occurred.

• RCS pressure is 25 psig.

• All ECCS equipment responded as designed.

• The crew is performing step 4 of 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary coolant.

• The STA reports that red path for Integrity is satisfied and recommends FR-P.1.

Which of the following describes:

1) The actions the crew would take in response to the Integrity Red path.

2) The reason these actions are taken.

A. 1) Go to FR-P.1, and after step 1 return to 1-E-1.

2) Steam Generators are thermally disconnected from the RCS.

B. 1) Go to FR-P.1, and after step 1 return to 1-E-1.

2) Pressurized thermal shock is not a concern.

C. 1) Do not enter FR-P.1, continue in 1-E-1 until directed to transition.

2) Steam Generators are thermally disconnected from the RCS.

D 1) Do not enter FR-P.1, continue in 1-E-1 until directed to transition.

2) Pressurized thermal shock is not a concern.

Proposed Answer: B. 1) Go to FR-P.1, and after step 1 return to 1-E-1.

2) Pressurized thermal shock is not a concern.

Explanation: 1) The purpose of 1-FRP-P.1, step 1: Check RCS pressure greater than 185 psig, is to determine if the entry into FR-P.1 was due to a LBLOCA. For transients where RCS pressure is less then LHSI pump shutoff head and flow from LHSI pumps has been verified, the team should return to the procedure and step in effect. 2) The reason for transitioning back to E-1 is the PTS is not a concern. PTS requires a rapid cooldown causing the tensile thermal stress, AND relatively high pressure which is not present in a large break LOCA because the RCS has depressurized. In 1-FR-H.1, Loss of Heat sink step 1 checks RCS pressure against Steam Generator pressure and IF RCS pressure is less then all Steam Generators then a secondary heat sink is not required because the Steam Generators are thermally disconnected from the RCS.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Technical

Reference:

ND-95.3-LP-46, 1-FR-P.1., Rev. 25. WOG ERG for FR-P.1, Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Condition; 1-FR-H.1, Rev. 37, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-46, FR-P.1, Objective C, Given a copy of FR-P.1, Response To Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Condition, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

Question Source: NEW Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.5 / 41.10, 45.6, 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question poses a scenario whereby the candidate needs to decide to enter FR-P.1 or remain in E-1 and the reason for performing those actions.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) Go to FR-P.1, and after step 1 return to 1-E-1. Correct.

2) Steam Generators are thermally disconnected from the RCS. This is a true statement but this is incorrect. This is easy to confuse with correct reason and is plausible becasuse this is a true statement and this is the reason for transitioning from 1-FR-H.1, Loss of Heat Sink back to E-1. The question is asking for the reason for transitioning back from 1-FR-P.1.

B. 1) Go to FR-P.1, and after step 1 return to 1-E-1. Correct.

2) Pressurized thermal shock is not a concern. Correct.

C. 1) Do not enter FR-P.1, continue in 1-E-1 until directed to transition. Incorrect because the crew must go to a RED or ORANGE path when directed unless superceeded. Plausible if crew believes this condition has a note or other directive that prevent implementation of FRPs, such as note in ES-1.3.

2) Steam Generators are thermally disconnected from the RCS. This is a true statement but this is incorrect. This is easy to confuse with correct reason and is plausible becasuse this is a true statement and this is the reason for transitioning from 1-FR-H.1, Loss of Heat Sink back to E-1. The question is asking for the reason for transitioning back from 1-FR-P.1.

D 1) Do not enter FR-P.1, continue in 1-E-1 until directed to transition. Incorrect because the crew must go to a RED or ORANGE path when directed unless superceeded. Plausible if crew believes this condition has a note or other directive that prevent implementation of FRPs, such as note in ES-1.3.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE10EA1.3, Natural Circ. With Steam Void / 4, Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the (Natural Circulation with Steam Void in Vessel with/without RVLIS)

Desired operating results during abnormal and emergency situations.

Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.4 IR-SRO: 3.7 Proposed Question: !73 Initial Conditions:

• The Team is performing ES-0.4, Natural Circulation Cooldown with Steam Voids in the Reactor Vessel W/O RVLIS.

• The Team is unsuccessful in starting an RCP.

• Both channels of Reactor Vessel Level Indication (RVLIS) have been lost.

• RCS Pressure is stable at 1590 psig.

Current Conditions:

• The Team has completed RCS Cooldown with RCS THOT stable at 445°F.

• Pzr level is stable at 39%, with charging and letdown flows equal.

• The Team has reached Step 9, Depressurize the RCS; with target RCS pressure of 800 psig.

Which ONE of the following completes the following statements?

1) The preferred method for depressurizing the RCS is _______.

2) Pressurizer level is expected to _______.

A. 1) Auxiliary Spray

2) Rise rapidly B. 1) Auxiliary Spray

2) Remain at approximately 39%

C. 1) One (1) pressurizer PORV

2) Remain at approximately 39%

D. 1) One (1) pressurizer PORV

2) Rise rapidly Proposed Answer: A.

Explanation: During depressurization to 800 psig, and at a constant temperature, pressure will reach saturation for the temperature in the vessel head area. A void can be expected to form and grow

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet under these conditions causing a rapid rise in pressurizer level as water is displaced from the vessel head area into the pressurizer.

Technical

Reference:

ES-0.4, Natural Circulation Cooldown with Steam Voids in the Reactor Vessel W/O RVLIS, Rev 13, Step 9; WOG Background Document, ES-0.4, Rev 2.

STEP: Depressurize RCS BASIS: The decrease in system pressure to less than 800 psig will cross the upper head saturation limit curve (Figure 1) and void formation can be expected. Both RCS pressure and PRZR level are monitored at this time. If the desired pressure is reached without overfilling the PRZR (i.e., PRZR level less than 90%), then the depressurization is terminated and the operator can continue with the cool down. However, if the PRZR level increases above 90% during the depressurization, then further actions are taken as specified in the next step.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-55, ES-0.4, Objective B, Given a copy of ES-0.4, Natural Circulation Cooldown With Steam Void in Rx Vessel (WITHOUT RVLIS), explain the basis of each procedural step.

Question Source: Bank (EOP0163) changed cooldown rate from 10 °F/hr to 45 °F/hr.

Modified to a 2 x 2 format, and removed Pzr Level column.

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.7 / 45.5 / 45.6)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must recall preference for RCS depressurization with letdown in service, and analyze conditions to determine that saturation conditions will be reached in the vessel head area as RCS pressure is reduced.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct - Part 1 and Part 2) are correct.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, Auxiliary spray is preferred method with letdown in service.

Part 2) is incorrect, void is expected to form and grow as pressure/temperature reach saturation in the vessel head area. Plausible if Candidate fails to consider that the vessel

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet head region will reach saturation; and assumes that with CH/LD equalized, pressurizer level will not change.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, Auxiliary spray is preferred with LD in service. Plausible if Candidate fails to consider preference for Auxiliary spray for depressurization over use of pzr PORV. Part 2) is incorrect, void is expected to form and grow as pressure/temperature reach saturation in the vessel head area. Plausible if Candidate fails to consider that the vessel head region will reach saturation; and assumes that with CH/LD equalized, pressurizer level will not change.

D. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, Auxiliary spray is preferred with LD in service. Plausible if Candidate fails to consider preference for Auxiliary spray for depressurization over use of pzr PORV with letdown in service. Part 2) is correct, void would tend to grow.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE11EG2.1 .2, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirc. / 4, Ability to execute procedure steps.

Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 1 IR - RO: 4.6 IR-SRO: 4.6 Proposed Question: !74 Given the following:

• A Large Break LOCA has occurred.

• Crew is presently performing step 3 of ES-1.3

• RWST level is at 13%.

• RMT Phase 1 and Phase 2 status lights are OFF.

• The RO reports that both LHSI pumps have just tripped and locked out.

Which of the following completes the following statements.

1) The procedure that should be used for the next step is ___(1)___.

2) Swapover to the recirc mode will normally occur as 2/4 of the RWST level transmitters reach

___(2)___.

A. 1) ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

2) 13.5%.

B. 1) ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation.

2) 13%.

C. 1) ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation.

2) 13.5%.

D. 1) ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

2) 13%.

Proposed Answer: A Explanation: Transition to ECA-1.1 is required due to loss of LHSI pumps. ECA-1.1 requires placing one charging pump in service. RWST is < 13.5% so RMT should have occurred, but didnt. Pushing RMT actuation pushbuttons is addressed further on in the procedure, but at this time ECA-1.1 must be entered.

Technical

Reference:

1-ES-1.3, Rev. 24, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation. 1-ECA-1.1, Rev. 39, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-20, ECA-1.1, Objective B; Given a copy of ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation, apply the basis of each procedural step to be able to determine the appropriate response for a given plant condition.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Question Source: Bank (LEOP 0787)

Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question provides a scenario and requires the candidate to determine the actions required, therefore the question matches the K/A.

Distractor Analysis:

A. 1) ECA-1.1. Correct. 2) 13.5%. Correct.

B. 1) ES-1.3. Incorrect because both LHSI pumps have tripped. Plausible because auto RMT did not occur at 13.5% RWST level and further in ES-1.3 steps would be taken to restore RMT. 2) 13%. Incorrect. RMT is designed to occur once RWST level reaches 13.5%.

Plausible because this is the level that RMT is checked per ES-1.3.

C. 1) ES-1.3. Incorrect because both LHSI pumps have tripped. Plausible because auto RMT did not occur at 13.5% RWST level and further in ES-1.3 steps would be taken to restore RMT. 2) 13.5%. Correct.

D. 1) ECA-1.1. Correct. Incorrect because there is enough inventory in the RWST, but plausible because ECA-1.1 caution states to secure pumps is suction source is lost and RWST level is approaching 6% when pumps will be secured. 2) 13%. Incorrect. RMT is designed to occur once RWST level reaches 13.5%. Plausible because this is the level that RMT is checked per ES-1.3

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet K/A Number: WE15EG2.4.8, Containment Flooding / 5, Knowledge of how abnormal operating procedures are used in conjunction with EOPs.

Level: RO Tier #: 1 Group #: 2 IR - RO: 3.8 IR-SRO: 4.5 Proposed Question: !75 Initial Conditions:

• Both Units are operating at 100% power.

• A seismic event occurs which results in a Loss of Offsite Power and an automatic Reactor Trip on both Units.

Current Conditions:

• The Team has transitioned from1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection to 1-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip Response.

• The STA reports that Containment Sump Level is 7.8 feet and rising.

Which ONE of the following identifies:

1) The Abnormal Procedure initiated by 1-E-0 Immediate Actions.

2) The PATH COLOR in effect on the Containment Status Tree.

A. 1) 0-AP-37.00, Seismic Event.

2) Red.

B. 1) 0-AP-37.00, Seismic Event.

2) Orange.

C. 1) 1-AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1 Power.

2) Red.

D. 1) 1-AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1 Power.

2) Orange.

Proposed Answer: D.

Explanation: 1(2)-AP-10.07, Loss of Unit 1(2) Power are initiated on Step 3 of E-0 when BOTH Emergency Bus are Not Energized (called by RNO column). With Containment Sump level at 7.8 feet and rising this would indicate an Orange condition on the Containment Status Tree.

Technical

Reference:

F-5, Rev. 2, Containment. 1-E-0, Rev. 71, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.

ES-401 Sample Written Examination Form ES-401-5 Question Worksheet Reference Provided to Applicant: No Learning Objective: ND-95.3-LP-48, FR-Z.1, Objective A, Given a simulated plant condition requiring the use of the critical safety function status trees, transition through the Containment Status Tree denoting, in accordance with the rules of priority, any applicable Function Restoration procedure needing implementation. ND-95.3-LP-26, CSFST, Objective D, Given a specific plant condition, apply the Critical Safety Function rules of prioritization to determine the applicable procedure.

Question Source: New Question History: Last NRC Exam: NO Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension or Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: (CFR: 41.10 / 43.5 / 45.13)

Comments:

K/A Match Analysis: Question matches K/A. Candidate must apply rules of usage in EOP network for prioritization of Function Restoration Procedure and EOP.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, 0-AP-37.00 would be initiated in response to a VSP annunciator. Plausible if Candidate does not take into account of E-0 initiation of AP-10.07 when Immediate Actions of E-0 are performed. Part 2) is incorrect, Ctmt Sump > 7.2 ft. is an Orange Path. Plausible if Candidate confuses Red Path and Orange Path criteria on Containment Status Tree.

B. Incorrect - Part 1) is incorrect, 0-AP-37.00 would be initiated in response to a VSP annunciator. Plausible if Candidate does not take into account of E-0 initiation of AP-10.07 when Immediate Actions of E-0 are performed. Part 2) is correct, Ctmt Sump > 7.2 ft. is an Orange Path.

C. Incorrect - Part 1) is correct, AP-10.07 is initiated at Step 3 of E-0 if Both Emergency buses are not energized. Part 2) is incorrect, Ctmt Sump > 7.2 ft. is an Orange Path. Plausible if Candidate confuses Red Path and Orange Path criteria on Containment Status Tree. .

D. Correct for Both Parts 1) and 2).

RO EXAM LIST OF ATTACHMENTS Attachment # Attachment Description 1 Containment Ventilation 2 E-3 Table