ML15007A508
| ML15007A508 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Callaway  |
| Issue date: | 12/17/2014 |
| From: | Vincent Gaddy Operations Branch IV |
| To: | |
| References | |
| Download: ML15007A508 (223) | |
Text
References provided to applicants:
Q#62: ASME Steam Tables Q#69: Curve Book Fig 1-1 Q#83: EIP-ZZ-00101 ADD 1, Emergency Action Level Classification Matrix, Rev 3 Q#85: CSF-1 Rev 10, Fig. 4a, Critical Safety Function Status Trees Q#90: EIP-ZZ-00101 ADD 1, Emergency Action Level Classification Matrix, Rev 3 Q#99: EIP-ZZ-00101 ADD 1, Emergency Action Level Classification Matrix, Rev 3
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
Tier #
0DLQ)HHGZDWHU Group #
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Importance Rating
Ability to monitor automatic operation of the MFW, including 7XUELQHGULYHQIHHGSXPS
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Answer: D
Explanation: Per OTN-AE-00001 when the automatic method of transfer from the MFRV the MFRV Bypass valves is used the Feed Pump Master Control DELTA P setpoint automatically raises to 215 psid.
A. Incorrect - This is the minimum value for the Feed Pump Master Control DELTA P setpoint.
This is a plausible distractor if the student incorrectly assumes the system goes to minimum value when transfer to the MFRV bypass occurs B. Incorrect - This is the current program value. This is a plausible distractor if the student incorrectly assumes the system maintains the current value when transfer to the MFRV bypass occurs C. Incorrect - This is the maximum value for the Feed Pump Master Control DELTA P setpoint when the MFRV is in use. This is a plausible distractor if the student incorrectly assumes the system goes to maximum value for the MFRV when transfer to the MFRV bypass occurs D. Correct - see explanation above
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Answer: C
Explanation: 7KH76IRUWKH&67LVJDOORQV. The TS for the CST is applicable in MODES 1, 2, and 3. Mode 4 will be reached when the Reactor temp is less than 350°F. The TS IRUWKH5:67LV ,000 gallons.
Cooldown: 549°F - 350°F = 199°F. 199°F / 50°F/hour = slightly less than 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />. Mode 4 will be reached at 1500.
Feedwater conversion: 385,000 lbm/hr / 8.345 lbm/gal = 46,135 gal/hr CST level calculation: 418,000 - 281,000 = 137,000 gallons. 137,000 gal / 46,135 gal/hr= 2.97 hours0.00112 days <br />0.0269 hours <br />1.603836e-4 weeks <br />3.69085e-5 months <br />.
RWST level calculation: 418,000 - 394,000 = 24,000 gallons. 24,000 gal / 46,135 gal/hr = 30 minutes
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A. Incorrect - Based on the above calculations the CST level TS is met prior to entry into Mode
- 4. IF the candidate incorrectly calculates the cooldown rate or the level change in the CST, the candidate could incorrectly assume that Mode 4 is met before the CST level is met and would conclude that TS entry is not required due to not being applicable in Mode 4.
B. Incorrect - Based on the above calculations, if the students uses the RWST low level TS, (RWST and CST are both large tanks with similar TS low level values) this is when the TS limit would be reached.
C. Correct - Based on the above calculations, this is when the CST would reach the TS level of 281,000 gal. in Mode 3.
D. Incorrect - Based on the calculations above this is when the cooldown rate would result in entry into Mode 4 where the CST T/S is no longer applicable.
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. See B.
B. Correct. Upon receipt of a reactor trip, the subsequent shrink in the steam generators combined with the loss of the normal feedwater from the Turbine driven feedwater pumps will cause steam generator levels to lower to 17%, at which time the AFW system receives an actuation signal to start. Motor Driven AFW Pump A is designed to feed only Steam Generators B & C, Motor Driven AFW Pump B is designed to feed only Steam Generators A & D. The Turbine Driven AFW Pump can feed All Four Steam Generators. Given the Conditions where the TDAFW pump and the Power Supply to A MDAFW pump are lost, this leaves only B MDAFW pump to supply A & D Steam Generators.
C. Incorrect. See B.
D. Incorrect. See B.
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Answer: D
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Plausible because a lockout on the XPB03 feeder breaker from the 13.8 kV bus will result in an automatic closure of the crosstie breaker, however the XPB03 to PB03 feeder breaker(PB0306) does not tie into the circuit for automatic closure of the crosstie breaker.
B. Incorrect. Plausible because manual opening of the breaker causes an undervoltage conditions resulting in automatic actuations on other busses (ie. NB01 or NB02). Incorrect because even though the cross tie breaker PB0401 can be closed manually if the fault does not exist on PB04, this will not result in an Automatic closure of the crosstie breaker.
C. Incorrect. Plausible because an over pressure fault on either the XPB03 or XPB04 transformers will result in an Automatic closure of the crosstie breaker. However this actuation requires 2/2 pressure switches to actuate to cause the transfer. With only 1 of 2 switches actuating it will only result in an alarm in the control room.
D. Correct. With the system in a normal lineup, a Differential Overcurrent condition will result in a Lockout of the PA0208 Breaker. This will automatically trip the PB04 Bus Feeder Breaker PB0402, and close the PB0401 (PB04 to PB03 cross tie breaker).
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
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062 AC Electrical Distribution Group #
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Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following: Major system loads.
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Answer: A
Explanation: The power supply lineup for mode 3 will be NB01 powered from the switchyard ring bus and NB02 powered from the Startup Transformer. Station Service Power (Pa busses) will be powered from the Startup Transformer also. Specifically, Backup Heater Group A is powered from NB01 via PG21 and Backup Heater Group B is powered from NB02 via PG22. The Variable Heater Group C is powered from PG24 via PA02. For the given conditions above, PA02 losses power and since the B EDG, NE02, fails to start, NB02 losses power. Therefore, the only heater group available for RCS pressure control is Backup Heater Group A since NB01 will remain powered from the switchyard ring bus.
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect - NB02 becomes deenergized C. Incorrect - PA02 losses power causing a loss of PG24 losing the Variable Heater Group C D. Incorrect - NB02 becomes deenergized and PA02 losses power causing a loss of PG24 losing the Variable Heater Group C
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Technical Reference(s :
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I. LIST the loads supplied by NB01 and NB02.
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8. Pressurizer Heaters
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Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Correct. Based on the indications of the annunciator NK01 Trouble, it can be determined that a malfunction on the DC electrical system has occurred. With the indications of NK11 showing a discharge and bus voltage, with no current flow from the charger NK21, it is indicative of the battery supplying power to NK01 which in turn is supplying power to NN01 due the normal lineup.
The indications of NK12 and NK02 are shown for comparison to normal values. Failure of NK21 Battery Charger has occurred.
B. Incorrect. Indications show that NK01 had a discharge of approximately 100 amps indicating that it is supplying a load, the largest load on this bus being the NN01 bus via the inverter. This combined with the NN11 INV TRBL/XFR annunciator NOT being lit indicates that the inverter is still functioning. This annunciator not being lit also indicates that the NN01 bus has not lost power. If the candidate does not understand the function of the inverter is to convert the DC power from the NK bus to AC power and supply it to the NN bus, then the candidate can incorrectly assume that the NN bus is still being supplied power by the NK01 battery with the inverter failed.
C. Incorrect. Plausible because NG01A is the alternate power supply through both the static transfer switch and the SOLA Transformer. In the event NK01 is lost, then NG01A will be supplying NN01 via the static transfer switch. If the static transfer switch is lost then the SOLA transformer can be placed in service to directly supply NN01 via a manual breaker transfer on NN01. With no load on the battery charger NK21, as indicated by no DC amps indicated, the candidate can correctly assume that the battery charger has failed.
D. Incorrect. Plausible because NG01A is the alternate power supply through both the static transfer switch and the SOLA Transformer. In the event NK01 is lost, then NG01A will be supplying NN01 via the static transfer switch. If the static transfer switch is lost then the SOLA transformer can be placed in service to directly supply NN01 via a manual breaker transfer on NN01. Depending on the type of failure that occurs within the inverter, the NN01 bus can be supplied from NG01A via the static transfer switch, if the failure prevents this, then the candidate can assume that he NN01 bus will be supplied power from NG01A via the SOLA transformer.
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
Tier #
064 Emergency Diesel Generator Group #
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Importance Rating
Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the ED/G system: Air receivers.
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Answer: B
Explanation: The starting air compressor system for the B EDG consists of 2 Starting air tanks TKJ02C and TKJ02D. These are refered to as the C and D starting air receivers.
Each Starting air tank has an inlet check valve, KJV711B and KJV712B, that prevents a flaw / depressurization in one air tank from affecting the other tank. The discharge of the starting air tanks are NOT cross connected, i.e. KJV760B is closed.
A. Incorrect - Plausible if the candidate assumes that the air pressure in the D receiver will compensate for the loss of the C air receiver and the receivers are cross connected. The EDG will start because the Air receivers ARE NOT cross connected therefore the fault in the C air receiver will not affect the D air receiver allowing the EDG to start on only one receiver.
B. Correct - the D Air receiver has sufficient starting air pressure required for one start attempt per the Tech Spec basis. Prior to leak on the C Air receiver, it is assumed that starting receiver pressure was 610- 640 psig (normal band) The Air receivers are not cross connected during normal operation to ensure redundancy in the starting capability of the EDG. The inlet lines have
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check valves which allow a single air compressor to supply both receivers simultaneously while still ensuring independence and redundancy of the system.
C. Incorrect. Plausible if the candidate assumes that both air receivers are required to supply sufficient starting air to the EDG with the system operated cross connected. If they assume they are operated cross connected they could also assume the fault in the C receiver is also degrading the starting pressure in the D receiver.
D. Incorrect. Plausible if the candidate assumes that both air receivers are required to supply sufficient starting air to the EDG with the system operated without the receivers cross connected.
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Plausible because under normal conditions with power available to both A and B train components, this would be correct. With the loss of NB02 due to the trip of the EDG, the B Train valves (including EN HV-7) and Spray Pump will not have power.
B. Correct. ES-1.3 will direct the operator to open both the containment sump recirculation valves. With the loss of NB02 due to the trip of the EDG, the B Train valves (including EN HV-7) and Spray Pump will not have power.
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C. Incorrect. Plausible if the candidate incorrectly crosses the trains believing that the A train components are affected by the loss of the EDG. Incorrect because EN HV-1 (A train) will be aligned correctly to the Open position, and EN HV-7 (B Train) will not be realigned.
D. Incorrect. Plausible if the candidate determines that containment pressure is below the setpoint for containment spray actuation and therefore the spray pumps are not running and swap over for containment spray is not required. Incorrect because Containment spray actuates at 27 psig in containment and swapover to containment sump is required at the RWST Lo Lo 2 alarm setpoint.
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Answer: B
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Explanation:
A. Incorrect. These are normal indications for feed flow, steam flow, and level at 100% power.
Plausible because of elevated level compared to D S/G with small Steam Flow Feedflow mismatch.
B. Correct. Based on Reduced SG Feedwater flow with a Stable Steam Generator Level, B S/G indicates that additional feedwater is coming from another source,(ie. the ruptured tube from the RCS)
C. Incorrect. Even Though C S/G indicates a higher level than the other generators, it is because feedflow is much higher than steam flow, so a higher level is expected.
D. Incorrect. If it is incorrectly assumed that level will lower due to a tube leak, then D S/G is plausible, however feedflow and steam flow are matched with level stable, indicating that level is simply lower than expected but responding normally.
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Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Correct. NK12 is rated for 900 amp hours and at a discharge rate of 170 amps the battery capacity is 5.3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br />. Therefore 5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> is the maximum listed time the battery would be operable.
B. Incorrect. NK12 is rated for 900 amp hours, however PJ11 is rated at 1200 amp hours, and at a discharge rate of 170 amps the battery capacity is 7.1 hours1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />, Therefore 7 hours8.101852e-5 days <br />0.00194 hours <br />1.157407e-5 weeks <br />2.6635e-6 months <br /> is plausible if the incorrect battery rating was used.
C. Incorrect. NK12 is rated for 900 amp hours, however NK14 is rated for 1650 amp hours, and at this discharge rate would be 9.7 hours8.101852e-5 days <br />0.00194 hours <br />1.157407e-5 weeks <br />2.6635e-6 months <br />. Therefore 9 hours1.041667e-4 days <br />0.0025 hours <br />1.488095e-5 weeks <br />3.4245e-6 months <br /> is plausible if the incorrect battery rating was used.
D. Incorrect. NK12 is rated for 900 amp hours; however, PK12 is rated for 2400 amp hours. With a discharge rate of 170 amps per hour, this would equate to 14.1 hours1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />. Therefore 14 hours1.62037e-4 days <br />0.00389 hours <br />2.314815e-5 weeks <br />5.327e-6 months <br /> is plausible if the incorrect battery rating was used.
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Answer: A
Explanation:
Starting sequence: The Shutdown sequencer blocks all other AFW pumps starts until the MDAFW pumps are started at 30 seconds by the Shutdown sequencer. The A ESW pump is started at 20 seconds by the Shutdown Sequencer.
Reason: The diesel generators are designed as follows:
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- a. To start and accelerate to rated speed, in the sequence shown in Figure 8.3-2, all the needed engineered safety features and emergency hot shutdown loads.
- b. So that at no time during the loading sequence do the frequency and voltage decrease to less than 95 percent of 60 Hz and 75 percent of 4.16 kV, respectively.
A. Correct. Per the explanation above this is the correct sequence, and reason.
B. Incorrect. Per the explanation above this is the correct sequence, however Frequency is allowed to drop during the starting of large loads to 95% of 60 Hz, but Voltage is allowed to drop to 75% of 4.16 kV.
C. Incorrect. Per the explanation above this is the incorrect sequence. The Shutdown sequencer blocks ALL MDAFW pump starts until after the A ESW pump is started. The reason is correct D. Incorrect. Per the explanation above this is the incorrect sequence. The Shutdown sequencer blocks ALL MDAFW pump starts until after the A ESW pump is started. Also the reason is incorrect. Frequency is allowed to drop during the starting of large loads to 95% of 60 Hz, but Voltage is allowed to drop to 75% of 4.16 kV.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The three channels of RCS Lo Flow detector bistables are powered from NN01, NN02, and NN03. A loss of NN04 does not affect the RCS Low flow Reactor trip signal.
B. Incorrect. There are 2 channels of SR High Flux that input to the RPS system for a reactor trip. It could be incorrectly assumed that a loss of NN04 will cause a loss of power to the Channel 2 SRNI. This is plausible because many other systems utilize a power scheme of Train A off of channel 1, and Train B off of channel 4.
C. Correct. There are 4 channels for pressurizer pressure, therefore when NN04 is lost, the channel 4 of pressurizer pressure loses power and the bistable trips actuating channel 458C of the pressurizer pressure system.
D. Incorrect. The three channels of Pressurizer Hi Water Level Reactor Trip signals are powered from NN01, NN02, and NN03. A loss of NN04 does not affect the Pressurizer Hi Water Level Reactor Trip Signal.
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Question #13
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Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Correct. Due to MISVs and FWIV failing closed on a loss of NK04, the reactor will be tripped.
B EDG was not initially running, therefore it is NOT available due to a loss of field flash capability.
B. Incorrect. Due to MISVs and FWIV failing closed on a loss of NK04, the reactor will be tripped. B EDG was not initially running, therefore it is NOT available due to a loss of field flash capability.
C. Incorrect. Due to MISVs and FWIV failing closed on a loss of NK04, the reactor will be tripped. If NK02 is lost, the TDAFW pump governor control valve DC power is lost and may need to be started manually if it is required.
D. Incorrect. Due to MISVs and FWIV failing closed on a loss of NK04, the reactor will be tripped. If NK02 is lost, the TDAFW pump governor control valve DC power is lost and may need to be started manually if it is required.
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Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Correct. Based on the indications of a Low Flow and Low Pressure on the B Train ESW system, and a Red Running light on the B EWS pump, this indicates that the pump has started and is running but not producing any discharge flow or pressure. This is characteristic of a sheared shaft on the ESW pump.
B. Incorrect. Upon initiation of the Safety Injection the ESW pumps will Auto Start on the Timed Sequencer. The RED indicating light indicates that the breaker for the B ESW pump has started.
The annunciator 55A which is driven off of the ESW pump discharge pressure will only activate if the pump is running and pressure is low.
C. Incorrect. Plausible because if the pump is running and the strainer is clogged, then low flow will occur on the system, however the pressure detector is located on the discharge of the pump, upstream of the strainer, and will indicate a higher than normal pressure. Annunciator 55C ESW Strainer D/P HI would also be in alarm, not provided in the stem.
D. Incorrect. The Service Water Cross Connect valves are normally OPEN supplying the ESW loads while the ESW pumps are in Standby. On initiation of an ESW pump start, these valves will automatically CLOSE to isolate the Service Water System from the ESW system. The SI signal can be validated with this picture using both the Service Water Cross Connect valves being closed and the UHS Return valves being OPEN. If one of these valves closed under normal operation, It will cause Annunciator 55A to come in, however the ESW pump will not Automatically start.
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Importance Rating
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Question #15
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A. Correct. ECA-1.2 directs isolating each system that is connected to the RCS and is located outside of containment, starting with the RHR system because it is a low pressure system connected to the high pressure RCS system and is therefore the most probable location for a LOCA outside containment. RCS Pressure is monitored because pressure will rise when the break is isolated.
B. Incorrect. Isolating RHR piping first is correct, however Pressurizer level is not monitored while in ECA-1.2. Under normal conditions, RCS pressure rising will provide faster response to the leak isolation. This is plausible because Pressurizer level is monitored for other RCS leak procedures to determine SI criteria.
C. Incorrect. ECA-1.2 directs closing and opening normally open valves in systems that are connected to the RCS. The Boron Injection Header is isolated last because it is the highest pressure rated system and therefore the least likely to develop a leak. See A explanation.
D. Incorrect. See B & C.
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. This function is Removed by resetting the RWST SI signal. With an SI present when the RWST reaches 36% RHR suction valves will automatically swap over to the containment sump allowing the maximum volume of the RWST to be transferred to the sump.
B. Correct. The purpose of resetting the signal is to prevent inadvertent loss of RWST inventory due to an automatic swapover. This prevents loss of RWST inventory to the containment sump and possible ECCS pump damage.
C. Incorrect. This function is allowed when the Containment Spray Actuation Signal (CSAS) signal is reset, but is not activated on an SI nor is reset by the SI reset switches or the RWST SI reset switches.
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D. Incorrect. Resetting the overall SI Signal with the SI Reset Switches (Different than the RWST SI switches) allows the starting and stopping of ECCS pumps during subsequent recovery phases of a LOCA.
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Knowledge of the parameters and logic used to assess the status of safety functions, such as reactivity control, core cooling and heat removal, reactor coolant system integrity, containment conditions, radioactivity release control, etc.
Question #17
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Reactor power indicates less than 5% therefore FR-S.1 entry conditions are not met. Therefore Subcriticality is not challenged B. Correct. With Narrow Range S/G levels less than 7% and total Aux Feedwater Flow less than 285,000 lbm/hr, conditions are met for a Red Path Loss of Secondary Heatsink and FR-H.1 entry conditions are met. The crew has transitioned out of E-0 and status tree monitoring has begun and the transition can be made, prior to this no transition can be made unless directed by E-0.
Heat sink is therefore the highest safety function that is challenged C. Incorrect. Conditions are met for an Orange Path on FR-P.1 due to the cold leg temperature on D loop, however the higher path of Red and the higher status of FR-H.1 make the FR-H.1 transition a higher priority and the correct path. However, the heat sink safety function is higher D. Incorrect. Conditions are met for an Orange Path on FR-Z.1 due to the high containment pressure and no spray pumps running, however the higher path of Red and the higher status of FR-H.1 make the FR-H.1 transition a higher priority and the correct path. However, the heat sink safety function is higher Technical Reference(s :&6)&ULWLFDO6DIHW\)XQFWLRQ6WDWXV7UHHV5(9
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Question #18
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Answer: D
Explanation: Per the FSAR chapter 8 and TS bases 3.8.1, Automatic load tap changers associated with the ESF transformers, as well as associated capacitor banks, provide voltage regulation for the preferred sources in the event of changing switchyard voltage.
Under normal operation, the Load tap changers are operated in Automatic. Though they can be considered Operable while in Manual, OTN-NB-0001, Addendum 1 specifies certain restrictions if the LTC is operated in Manual.
A. Incorrect. The manual tap changers are a backup to the automatic tap changers if the auto tap changers fail.
B. Incorrect. The ESF buses are protected by BOTH the auto tap changers and the capacitor banks.
C. Incorrect. The manual tap changers are a backup to the automatic tap changers if the auto tap changers fail.
D. Correct. The ESF buses are protected by BOTH the auto tap changers and the capacitor banks.
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Answer: C
A. Incorrect. Plausible because it is the second attempted path to supply boric acid to the charging pump suction after the emergency borate valve is opened. Incorrect because this is downstream of the boric acid filter ,and will not provide adequate flow if the filter is clogged.
B. Incorrect. Plausible because this is the RNO action from step 4 in check the charging system available. Nothing tells the candidate that the charging system is unavailable. the RNO says to perform Attachment B. This is the first valve that is opened in Attachment B.
C. Correct. If attempts to supply boric acid from the BAST have been unsuccessful as indicated by Emergency Boration flow being less than 30 gpm, then the emergency boration should be accomplished from the RWST by opening BN LCV-112D, CCP suction from the RWST.
D. Incorrect. Plausible because it is the first attempted path to supply boric acid to the charging pump suction after it is determined that an emergency boration is required. Incorrect because this is downstream of the boric acid filter ,and will not provide adequate flow if the filter is clogged.
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Ability to verify that the alarms are consistent with the plant conditions.
Question #20
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Answer: D
A. Incorrect. Plausible because if 459A is NOT the controlling channel and BB-LI-459A fails, it will not provide input into any control circuitry and will NOT give any annunciators. These indications are accurate if BB-LI-459A was to fail high, all pzr heaters will energize and charging flow will reduce.
B. Incorrect. Plausible because the operator could assume that the increased charging flow due to the failed instrument will drive pressurizer level up and require additional heat input from the heaters due to the insurge into the pressurizer. Incorrect because pressurizer heaters will turn off when annunciator 32C is LIT in order to prevent uncovering the pressurizer heaters, due to the assumption that Pressurizer level is low.
C. Incorrect. Plausible because when Annunciator 32C is LIT, then Letdown is isolated and pressurizer heaters will turn off, the candidate could assume that because it is an instrument failure, the backup channel will see actual level and reduce charging flow in order to prevent an undesired increase in actual pressurizer level following the isolation of letdown flow. Incorrect
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because the same circuit that is controlling letdown and pressurizer heaters will also control charging flow.
D. Correct. Annunciator 32C is driven off of the channel selected for control of the pressurizer level. Therefore, with BB-LI-459A indicating 0% and Annunciator 32C LIT, it can be assumed that it was the upper controlling channel and upon failing low, will isolate letdown and turn off the PZR heaters which will drive charging flow to rise to restore pressurizer level. BB-LI-459A can only be selected as the upper controlling channel.
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Importance Rating
Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Source Range Nuclear Instrumentation: ([SHFWHGFKDQJHLQVRXUFHUDQJHFRXQWUDWHZKHQURGVDUHPRYHG
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Answer: D
Explanation: Per OTG-ZZ-0001A source range channel count rate should not increase by a
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factor of 4. The given counts rate in the stem N-31 was 90 cps. 90 cps x 4 = 360 cps. Based on this the operator should not expect counts to increase above 360 cps during the withdrawal of the Shutdown Bank. Likewise, N-32 was 85 cps. X4 = 340 cps. The operator should not expect counts to increase above 340 cps during the withdrawal of Shutdown banks.
If the pulse height discriminator fails high it would NOT count all of the pulses and would give a lower than expected indication.
If the pulse height discriminator fails low it would count more pulses and would give a higher than expected reading A. Incorrect - N31 is indicating less than 4 times the original value so this is a normal value. If the pulse height discriminator fails high it would NOT count all of the pulses and would give a lower than expected indication.
B. Incorrect - N31 is indicating less than 4 times the original value so this is a normal value. If the pulse height discriminator fails low it would count more pulses and would give a higher than expected reading C. Incorrect - N32 is indicating more than 4 times the initial value so this is an abnormal high count rate. If the pulse height discriminator fails high it would NOT count all of the pulses and would give a lower than expected indication.
D. Correct - N32 is indicating more than 4 times the initial value so this is an abnormal high count rate. If the pulse height discriminator fails low it would count more pulses and would give a higher than expected reading Technical Reference(s :27*==$/HVVRQ3ODQ7/3([FRUHQXFOHDU
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
Tier #
6WHDP*HQHUDWRU7XEH/HDN Group #
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Importance Rating
Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Steam Generator Tube Leak:&RQGHQVDWHDLUHMHFWRUH[KDXVWUDGLDWLRQPRQLWRUDQGIDLOXUHLQGLFDWRU
Question #22
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Two consistent samples of RCS indicate constant Iodine-131 level of 23 Ci/ml.
This is not elevated enough nor is there a spike in activity which would be indicative of a fuel element failure.
B. Correct. The elevated value on the Condenser Air Discharge Rad Monitor GE-RE-92 is an indication of a Steam Generator Tube leak. .
C. Incorrect. GT-RE-27 indicates a steady reading at a normal level. If an RCS leak existed outside of containment this detector would show an increase in radiation levels. This is a
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plausible distractor based on the student must know that GE-RE-92 indicates a SG tube leak instead of an RCS leak outside of Containment..
D. Incorrect. With Tavg constant and Pressurizer level stable, and charging rising, it is plausible that a malfunction is occurring with the level control system, however level is being maintained a charging rises due to the lost inventory through the Steam Generator Tube leak.
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
Tier #
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Importance Rating
Ability to interpret and execute procedure steps.
Question #23
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Answer: A
Explanation: With the initial conditions given, the crew is performing step 6 reducing load.
15 minutes later the plant condition have degraded requiring the RNO for continuous action step #1 to be implemented. With reactor power now at 55%, the correct action is to perform the RNO with Reactor Power greater than or equal to 10% and trip the reactor and transition to E-0.
A. Correct - See explanation above B. Incorrect - Step #12 which is a continuous action step requires to verify within 3°F not 1.5°F.
Furthermore, performing this action would mean that the candidate has not recognized the requirement to trip the reactor.
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C. Incorrect - If the candidate does not correctly implement the continuous action step #1 (
candidate does not apply the 10% power criteria) they may believe incorrectly that a transition to OTO-AC-00001 is correct. Automatic turbine trip on condenser backpressure does not occur until 8.5 HgA.
D. Incorrect - A reactor trip and transition to E-0 are required. A reactor trip will trip the turbine.
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Learning Objective:
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Knowledge of conditions and limitations in the facility license.
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Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Correct. Restricting the quantity of radioactivity contained in each gas storage tank provides assurance that in the event of an uncontrolled release of the tank's contents, the resulting whole body exposure to a MEMBER OF THE PUBLIC at the nearest SITE BOUNDARY will not exceed 0.5 rem.
B. Incorrect. Plausible because 1.5 rem/yr is the annual exposure limit for Iodine-131 & 133, and Tritium to any organ, but is not the limit for noble gases.
C. Incorrect. Plausible because 3 rem/yr is the annual exposure limit at the site boundary for exposure to the skin for Noble Gas, but is not the limit for Whole Body.
D. Incorrect. Plausible because 5 mrem is the limit for dose to a member of the public to any organ due to LIQUID effluent release to unrestricted areas.
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Importance Rating
Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the (High Containment Pressure):'HVLUHGRSHUDWLQJUHVXOWVGXULQJDEQRUPDODQGHPHUJHQF\VLWXDWLRQV
Question #25
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Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. E-0 Attachment A checks if Containment Spray Pumps are running, and if NOT the RNO states to Manually Actuate CSAS. Indications show the spray pump is running with indications of greater than 27 psig in containment.
B. Incorrect. Containment Spray Pumps are not placed in Pull-To-Lock unless damage to the pump is imminent or it is a hazard to personnel. All indications provided show proper operation.
If it is desired to secure the pump, CSAS is RESET and the handswitch is placed in Normal After Stop position.
C. Correct. Indications of High Discharge Pressure with no flow, and the Green light on the Discharge Valve indicate it failed to open. E-0 Attachment A RNO for valves not properly aligned states to Align CSAS valves as necessary. The Discharge Valves should be opened from the control board.
D. Incorrect. Transfer to containment sump is not required as indicated by the RHR pump still aligned to the RWST, the Automatic Swap over at 36% in the RWST has not yet occurred therefore swapping the Containment Spray is not yet required. Required at 12%level in the RWST, and indications are not consistent with pump cavitation due to loss of suction.
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
Tier #
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Importance Rating
Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Dropped Control Rod: (IIHFWVRIWXUELQHUHDFWRUSRZHUPLVPDWFKRQURGFRQWURO
Question #26
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Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Incorrect - 1st part is incorrect. However, the applicant understands when Tavg lowers, then Pstm going to the Turbine lowers (Tref). The effect of the lowering Tavg will be greater than Tref.
Also plausible because the immediate action for a Dropped RCC is to place the rods in MAN.
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B. Incorrect - 1st part is incorrect. However, the applicant understands when Tavg lowers, then Pstm going to the Turbine lowers (Tref). The effect of the lowering Tavg will be greater than Tref.
Also plausible because the rod control demand is to have rods step out, but due to auto rod withdrawl being disabled the rods do not move. Without rod movement, the applicant leaves rods in Auto which is incorrect.
C. Correct - On a dropped rod, Tavg will lower. Rods are placed in manual to stabilize the plant and ensure SDM is maintained D. Incorrect - On a dropped rod, Tavg will lower. Rods are placed in manual to stabilize the plant and ensure SDM is maintained Technical Reference(s :2726)5RG&RQWURO0DOIXQFWLRQV5HY
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Importance Rating
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Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is the only actions that moves the plant away from the condition of PTS A. . Incorrect. Plausible because pressure is a concern in a PTS condition, however if the spray valve is open it would be reducing pressure which is the opposite of a PTS condition that is high pressure and low temperature.
B Correct. Pressurized thermal shock occurs when a low temperature and high pressure condition is achieved in the primary system. By closing a stuck open S/G ASD, the operator will be stopping an uncontrolled cooldown which could result in a PTS condition.
C. Incorrect. Plausible because pressure is a concern in a PTS condition and the candidate could incorrectly assume that lowering pressure is placing the plant closer to a PTS condition, however this is the opposite of the conditions for a PTS to occur with high pressure and low temperature.
D. Incorrect. Plausible if the candidate assumes that a stuck open FW reg valve will still allow feedwater to be admitted to the steam generators and thus causing a cooldown. Incorrect because the FWIVs are utilized to isolate a steam generator, and feedwater flow is isolated to the steam generator by the closing of the FWIVs, so isolating the failed FW reg valve will provide additional protection but not have a direct impact on the condition of the plant. FWIVs are closed by a FWIS which is generated by the reactor trip and lowering Tavg or S/G level.
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Importance Rating
Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the RCPS controls including: 6HDOIORZDQG'3
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Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Correct. If VCT pressure is NOT between 15 psig and 70 psig when Reactor Coolant Pumps are in service, RCP seal damage may occur. VCT pressure is used to provide back pressure to the RCP #1 Seal Return, As VCT pressure is lowered, the D/P between the #1 Seal Leakoff and the #1 Seal Return Line is increased causing #1 Seal Leak Return flow to Rise.
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B. Incorrect. VCT pressure is used to provide back pressure to the RCP #1 Seal Return, As VCT pressure is lowered, the D/P between the #1 Seal Leakoff and the #1 Seal Return Line is lowered causing #1 Seal Leak Return flow to Rise.
C. Incorrect. When reducing VCT Pressure, the pressure reduction should be done very slowly, at any VCT pressure, to ensure gases do not come out of solution at the suction of the charging pumps. The 15 psig limit only applies to RCP operation. With no RCPs in Operation CCPs can operate with VCT pressure as low as 5 psig.
D. Incorrect. When reducing VCT Pressure, the pressure reduction should be done very slowly, at any VCT pressure, to ensure gases do not come out of solution at the suction of the charging pumps. The 15 psig limit only applies to RCP operation. With no RCPs in Operation CCPs can operate with VCT pressure as low as 5 psig.
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Importance Rating
Knowledge of the purpose and function of major system components and controls.
Question #29
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Answer: C
Explanation: Per the UFSAR, Sufficient pump rotation inertia is provided by a flywheel, in conjunction with the impeller and motor assembly, to provide adequate flow during coastdown. This forced flow following an assumed loss of pump power, and the subsequent natural circulation effect provides the core with adequate cooling flow. The UFSAR further states that It is important to reactor protection that the reactor coolant flow is maintained for a short time after a pump trip in order to remove heat stored in the fuel elements of the core. In order to provide this flow after interruption of power to the pump, each reactor coolant pump is provided with a flywheel. The rotating inertia of the pump, motor, and flywheel is employed during the coastdown period to continue the reactor coolant flow.
A. Incorrect - This is the function of the RTC Trip function #7 2YHUSRZHU7WULS. Per Reference 3, This trip function ensures that the allowable heat generation rate (kW/ft) of the fuel is not exceeded.
B. Incorrect - the antirotation device engages at low very low pump shaft RPMs, The flywheel would delay engagement of this device but not prevent damage to it.
C. Correct - see explanation above.
D. Incorrect - Plausible because the flywheel does allow the RCP to coast down slowly, however this is not to protect the seals. Starting the lift oil pump prior to starting the RCP helps prevent damage to the RCP bearings and RCP seals upon startup.
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Importance Rating
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Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. BG LCV 112B received a close signal from VCT level channel BG LI-112, and would close if BG LI-112 failed low, but does not respond to a BG LI-185 failure. The action taken is correct for response to a failure which results in a VCT to RWST suction swap.
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B. Incorrect. BG LCV 112B received a close signal from VCT level channel BG LI-112, and would close if BG LI-112 failed low, but does not respond to a BG LI-185 failure. The action listed is in response to a VCT level channel BG LI-149 failure, which provides input to normal makeup to the VCT and level divert functions.
C. Correct. VCT level channel BG LT-185 provides input to BG LCV-112C and BN LCV-112E.
Upon failing low, a suction swap over occurs for the charging pumps causing BG FCV-112C to Close and BN LCV-112E to open allowing an uncontrolled boration from the RWST. In response to this failure OTO-BG-00004 directs action to Reduce charging to seals only in order to minimize the amount of boron added to the RCS and the impact of the uncontrolled boration.
D. Incorrect. BG LCV-112C will close, however the action listed is in response to a VCT level channel BG LI-149 failure, which provides input to normal makeup to the VCT and level divert functions.
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. RHR heatup and cooldown rates are controlled with EJ HIC-606. By raising the output the valve will close allowing less flow through the RHR heat exchanger which in turn will raise the temperature out of the RHR system which will cause the cooldown rate to lower. The common misconception that the RHR Heat Exchanger bypass valve will not respond to the changes in system flow, therefore by raising EJ HIC-606, it would be incorrectly assumed that system flow will lower.
B. Correct. RHR heatup and cooldown rates are controlled with EJ HIC-606. By raising the output the valve will close allowing less flow through the RHR heat exchanger which in turn will raise the temperature out of the RHR system which will cause the cooldown rate to lower. With the controller for EJ FK-618 in Automatic control, the valve will reposition to maintain a constant return flow to the RCS.
C. Incorrect. By lowering the output of the valve controller EJ HIC-606, it will cause the valve to open which will allow the RCS cooldown rate to rise. Using the same misconception stated in explanation A, system flow would rise as the heat exchanger outlet valve EJ HIC-606 controller output is lowered.
D. Incorrect. The cooldown rate will rise as EJ HIC-606 output is lowered, however flow will remain constant if EJ FK-618 is controlling the bypass flow in AUTOMATIC.
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Answer: A
Explanation: During the cooldown Steam Line Pressure SI and RCS Pressure SI signals are blocked, however the containment pressure SI is still Active and will initiate an automatic SI at 3.5 psig.
A. Correct. Because the initial RCS Pressure is less than 1000 psig and 350F the SI Accumulators have been isolated with power removed from the discharge valves, so on the SI they do not respond and levels will remain stable. Candidate must also determine that RHR is not yet in service for cooldown with RCS pressure greater than 425 psig. With RCS Pressure at 150 psig the RHR system will be injecting and as pressure continues to lower the discharge flow will rise.
B. Incorrect. Plausible if candidate believes that the SI accumulators are still aligned to the RCS and will discharge on an SI as pressure lowers. Also RHR flow is plausible to be at zero if the candidate believes that the RHR pumps will be discharging against the original pressure of 650 psig, which is greater than the shutoff head of the RHR pumps.
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C. Incorrect. Plausible because SI Accumulators are Isolated and level will remain stable, and if the candidate assumes that RHR pumps are discharging against the original pressure of 650 psig instead of the current value, they could assume that the RCS pressure is greater than the shutoff head of the RHR pumps.
D. Incorrect. Plausible if candidate believes that the SI accumulators are still aligned to the RCS and will discharge on an SI as pressure lowers. Also, the RHR system will respond to the lowering RCS pressure and will be discharging to the RCS with flow rising as RCS pressure is lowered.
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The PRT Rupture Disc is designed to rupture to relieve pressure between 86-100 psig in the PRT. 75 psig is the relief valves setpoint for VCT high pressure. In accordance with OTA-RK-00018 Add. 34E for PRT High Pressure, the high pressure should be addressed with OTN-BB-00004 to Vent the PRT to lower pressure.
B. Correct. The PRT Rupture Disc is designed to rupture to relieve pressure between 86-100 psig in the PRT. In accordance with OTA-RK-00018 Add. 34E for PRT High Pressure, the high pressure should be addressed with OTN-BB-00004 to Vent the PRT to lower pressure.
C. Incorrect. If the pressure increase is due to a level change, then draining the PRT is the correct method to lower level and pressure, however level is stable and therefore should be vented to maintain level while lowering pressure. 75 psig is the relief valves setpoint for VCT high pressure D. Incorrect. If the pressure increase is due to a level change, then draining the PRT is the correct method to lower level and pressure, however level is stable and therefore should be vented to maintain level while lowering pressure.
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Answer: A
Explanation:
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A. Correct. Based on the indications the candidate must conclude that the neither B or D CCW pumps are running. The D CCW pump will be manually started while performing attachment A.
The A CCW pump will continue to run supplying the A train CCW system which prevents the C CCW pump from starting.
B. Incorrect. Plausible because A Train CCW pump will continue to supply the A train, On the LOCA sequencer, D CCW pump should Automatically start if B fails to start, the annunciators for B/D pressure low is on the B Train CCW pump discharge header common to both B and D pumps, this is one of the Auto start signals to the D CCW pump, but is blocked with an SI signal present.
C. Incorrect. Plausible if the candidate assumes that all the pumps will receive a start signal on the SI, and that D failed to start. The A CCW pump will continue to run supplying the A train CCW system which prevents the C CCW pump from starting.
D. Incorrect. Plausible if the candidate assumes that all the pumps will receive a start signal on the SI, and that D CCW pump Automatically starts on the SI signal present if B CCW fails to start.
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Answer: D
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The fire protection system is an emergency makeup source that can be used to restore other systems such as the spent fuel pool, but is not a source for the makeup of CCW.
B. Incorrect. Normal Makeup water is supplied to the CCW surge tank by Demineralized water, however if the leak exceeds the capacity of Demineralized Water then the ESW system can be used as an emergency makeup source.
C. Incorrect. The reactor makeup water system is a subsystem of the Demineralized water system used primarily for makeup to the VCT for RCS volume control. It is a clean source of water compared to ESW making it a plausible choice for makeup.
D. Correct. Emergency Makeup water can be supplied directly to the pump suction header by the ESW system via motor operated valves that are operated from the control room.
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Answer: A
Explanation: the A PZR PORV indication and control is powered from NK01.
A. Correct B. Incorrect - NK02 is a safety related DC bus but does not support the A PZR PORV C. Incorrect - NK03 is a safety related DC bus but does not support the A PZR PORV D. Incorrect - the B PZR PORV is supplied from NK04 Technical Reference(s :2721./RVVRI9LWDO9'&%XV5HYLVLRQ$WWDFKPHQW
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Question #37
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. See explanation B.
B. &RUUHFW277VHWSRLQWLVFKDQJHGE\WKUHHYDULDEOHV; Tavg, Pressurizer Pressure, and AFD.
237 setpoint is changed by two variables; Tavg, and the rate of change of RCS Tavg.
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change. Based on the equation used to calculate the setpoint in the T/S bases this will cause the 277VHWSRLQWWRULVH
C. Incorrect. See explanation B.
D. Incorrect. See explanation B.
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Question #38
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Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. This is a temperature associated with the steam dump controller for the P-12 interlock, which allows continued cooldown only on the group 1 valves once 550F is reached.
B. Incorrect. Under normal conditions following a reactor trip, the B Trip breaker being open will make up the P-4 contact allowing the steam dumps to be controlled by the Reactor Trip controller which will modulate steam dumps to control at 557F. This is only driven off of the B RTB, with this breaker still closed, the circuit does not recognize the reactor trip and will not transfer to this controller.
C. Correct. With the B Reactor Trip Breaker still closed, the P-4 contact which would activate the Reactor Trip controller for steam dumps would not be met, and the controller will continue to operate on the Load Reject Controller. 7KH7DYH/RDG5HMHFW&RQWUROOHUKDVD)GHDGEand on the lower end for normal operations to allow rod motion without operation of the steam dumps, however this correlates to a lower temperature of 559F at which the controller will attempt to maintain temperature with a Tref signal of zero.
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D. Incorrect. 561F correlates to the saturation temperature of the steam generators at the lift setpoint for the S/G Atmospheric Steam Dumps. If the condenser steam dump system was not available, the S/G ASDs will cycle to maintain RCS Tavg at approximately 561F.
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Answer: D
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Containment Pressure has 3 channels that feed into the Safety Injection Actuation Circuit. Tech Spec Actions for a failed channel place the channel in Trip. This leaves two channels available to actuate SI on high containment pressure. Because one channel is already in the Trip condition, only 1 channel of the remaining 2 will initiate a Safety Injection.
B. Incorrect. Containment Pressure is monitored using 4 channels, 2/4 channels of High Containment Pressure will initiate a Containment Spray Actuation Signal. Therefore if it is incorrectly assumed that the low failure will actuate the bistable, or they may assume that T/S actions will place the channel in TRIP such as it will with the Safety Injection signal resulting in a 1 out of 3 logic.
C. Incorrect. If it is assumed that Containment Pressure is only monitored by 3 channels and the candidate knows that a low failure will NOT actuate the bistable, then the remaining coincidence will be 2 out of 2 remaining channels.
D. Correct. The containment spray system is actuated by 2 out of 4 containment pressure channels indicating HIGH, if a channel fails low with no action taken, the resultant coincidence will be 2 out of the remaining 3 channels.
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Answer: D
Explanation: Per OTN-GN-00001 Section 5.18 Containment Cooler Fan Malfunction if CTMT COOLER UNIT D, is tripped and RCS Temp is greater than 120°F, ENSURE the Pressurizer Cooling Fan is running per Section 5.10.
A. Incorrect - see above step 5.2.5 OPERATE containment coolers as required to maintain containment air temperature between 50°F and 120°F. is met and there is no need to shift fans to fast speed.
B. Incorrect - see above - the pressurizer fan is required to be in service.
C. Incorrect - see above - per section 5.7 2 CRDM are required to be in service and are. The temperature limit is 165F and indications given say no additional CRDM fans are required.
D. Correct - see above
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Answer: D
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The maximum expected value for the peak containment pressure per the safety analysis during a design basis LOCA is calculated to be 47.8 psig, however the Maximum design limit for containment is 60 psig. It is plausible, however incorrect, to assume that the TSP is added during the injection mode. Callaway has a system which is no longer used, but still in place, which was used to add NaOH to the containment spray pump suction path from the RWST during the injection mode in order to raise the pH of the spray for the intent of capturing iodine.
B. Incorrect. See A for (1). The TSP is added during the recirculation mode by means of baskets of dry TSP located in the containment sumps which will dissolve as the water fills the sumps following a steam line break or LOCA The TSP will raise the pH of the water in the sump which will be used to supply the containment spray system during the recirculation mode. The elevated pH (>7.1) will aid the spray system in capturing iodine released within containment during a LOCA and retaining it within the sump water.
C. Incorrect. The Containment Spray system is designed to maintain the pressure in containment less than the design limit of 60 psig. It is plausible, however incorrect, to assume
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that the TSP is added during the injection mode. Callaway has a system which is no longer used, but still in place, which was used to add NaOH to the containment spray pump suction path from the RWST during the injection mode in order to raise the pH of the spray for the intent of capturing iodine.
D. Correct. . The Containment Spray system is designed to maintain the pressure in containment less than the design limit of 60 psig. The TSP is added during the recirculation mode by means of baskets of dry TSP located in the containment sumps which will dissolve as the water fills the sumps following a steam line break or LOCA The TSP will raise the pH of the water in the sump which will be used to supply the containment spray system during the recirculation mode. The elevated pH (>7.1) will aid the spray system in capturing iodine released within containment during a LOCA and retaining it within the sump water.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
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A. Incorrect. Power will remain above the POAH providing negative reactivity feedback due to heating up the RCS.
B. Incorrect. Power will remain above the POAH providing negative reactivity feedback due to heating up the RCS. 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> is incorrect.
C. Correct. The ASD failing open will cause Tavg to lower resulting in a positive reactivity addition to the reactor. Power will rise above the POAH until the negative reactivity from the temperature feedback is provided due to the rising Tavg, at which point power will stabilize at a
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value corresponding to the steam demand from the open ASD. Tavg is below T/S 3.4.2 minimum temperature for criticality of 551)DQGWKHSODQWPXVWEHSODFHGLQ0RGHZLWK.HII ZLWKLQ
minutes.
D. Incorrect. See C for POAH explanation. T/S action is 30 minutes not 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />.
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Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Correct. For small break LOCA, RCPs are tripped based on an RCS pressure of less than 1425 psig with at least one high head ECCS pump injecting (Met with BIT flow) in order to minimize the RCS inventory loss through the break.
B. Incorrect. Stopping all RCPs is correct however the reason stated is incorrect for a small break LOCA, but is correct for a loss of secondary heat sink.
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C. Incorrect. RCPs should be secured, however RCPs will be left running if conditions are met for Degraded Core Cooling in which operators are directed to leave RCPs running to maintain forced flow to the Core for cooling.
D. Incorrect. RCPs should be secured, During the analysis of a Small Break LOCA RCPs are left running in the initial phases of the accident to maintain adequate mixed flow through the operational loops to maintain core cooling and minimize break flow until the point where a predetermined setpoint (<1425 psig in the RCS) is reached where it is determined that the RCS is at saturation and steam voids will occur in the steam generator u-tubes when RCPs are secured.
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Answer: B
Explanation: The CCW surge tank hi level alarm is a 87 inches (85.4%)
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A. Incorrect - A leak in the Seal Water heat exchanger would case CCW surge tank to lower. The conditions given indicate a high level in the CCW surge tank. A leak in the seal water HX would cause a flow of water from CCW into the reactor coolant causing a dilution and increase in reactor power NOT contamination of the CCW system.
B. Correct - A leak in the RCP D thermal barrier HX would cause CCW surge tank level to increase. This matches the condition given. A leak in the RCP D thermal barrier HX would cause contamination of the CCW system.
C. Incorrect - A leak in the Seal Water heat exchanger would case CCW surge tank to lower. The conditions given indicate a high level in the CCW surge tank. A leak in the seal water HX would cause a flow of water from CCW into the reactor coolant causing a dilution and increase in reactor power D. Incorrect - A leak in the RCP D thermal barrier HX would cause CCW surge tank level to increase. This matches the condition given. But A leak in the RCP D thermal barrier HX would cause contamination of the CCW system and NOT cause an increase in reactor power.
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Comments: The distractors are plausible because the seal water heat exchanger is cooled by CCW. The candidate must be able to differentiate the indication of a leak in the correct heat exchanger. Reactor power would increase if the leak was in the seal water heat
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Knowledge of the interrelations between the Large Break Loca and the following: Pumps.
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Answer: D
Explanation: Based on the given conditions, RCS pressure less than 1425 psig and Containment pressure greater than 27 psig, RCP should be secured. This is covered by both foldout page criteria and a step in E-0 prior to the transition to E-1. Based on the conditions given RHR pumps are secured during the performance of E-1 due to SI pumps running and maintaining RCS pressure greater than 325 psig.
A. Incorrect - See above B. Incorrect - See above C. Incorrect - See above D. Correct - See above Technical Reference(s :
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Importance Rating
Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup:+RZORQJ3=5OHYHOFDQEHPDLQWDLQHGZLWKLQOLPLWV
Question # 46
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. If the 20 gpm difference between charging and letdown, with the correct identified leakage rate of 10 gpm used, a time of 39 minutes is calculated for reaching 17% PZR level B. Correct. Calculating a net loss from the RCS at 42 gpm,(12 gpm for RCP leakoff, 10 gpm leakage at TS limit for identified leakage, and 20 gpm charging letdown difference),Current PZR level at 100% of 56%, and PZR heater trip setpoint of 17%, results in 58 minutes elapsing until the PZR heaters trip.
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C. Incorrect. If it is assumed incorrectly that identified TS limit is 1 gpm, the answer is calculated at 74 minutes.
D. Incorrect. If calculated net loss from the RCS is calculated at 30 gpm (10 identified leakage and 20 difference from charging and letdown) disregarding the RCP seal leakoff the time is 81 mintues.
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Question # 47
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Answer: D
Explanation:
A. Incorrect - Due to the elevation difference of the pressurizer and the vessel, the head of the water will not flow up into the pressurizer but will instead fill all the hot and cold legs first, since there is nothing to provide enough back pressure from the legs to force water into the pressurizer, this will not happen. It is plausible if the candidate does not understand the physical layout of the RCS with elevation relations for the Vessel/Legs/Pressurizer.
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B. Incorrect - If all Nozzle dams were installed this is a possible correct answer, however with the cold leg nozzle dams NOT installed, the pressure will be relieved through the cold legs and S/G manways preventing the pressure rise from displacing the nozzle dams.
C. Incorrect - The water displaced water from the steam formation will flow into the hot legs, but will not exit the manways with the Hotleg nozzle dams installed.
D. Correct - With the loss of RHR cooling, the long term effect of not restoring cooling will be the formation of a steam bubble in the Reactor head causing a rising pressure in the RCS system forcing coolant out of the vessel into the hot and cold legs. With the S/G nozzle dams on the Cold legs not installed, this expansion of coolant will follow the path of least resistance and exit the RCS through the S/G manways.
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Answer: B
Explanation: Motor Bearing Temperature limit is 195°F. Motor Stator Winding Temperature limit is 311°F 195-175=20°. 20/4 = 5 minutes until temperature limit for motor bearing is reached.
311-290=21. 21/3 = 7 minutes until temperature limit for stator winding is reached.
A. Incorrect see explanation above. Plausible if student does not remember 195 and applies the 185 bearing #
B. Correct see explanation above This is the shortest time in which the RCP is required to be secured.
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C. Incorrect see explanation above. Will this # is correct it is not the earliest time in which the RCP must be secured D. Incorrect see explanation above. Plausible because Attachment C step 1 says that if CCW is lost for 10 minutes to the RCP motor it must be secured.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. When operating under Cold Overpressure Protection (COMS) each PORV is provided Train specific inputs to open. If the operator assumes the PORVs are Train specific and the assumption that instrument BB PT-457 feeds the opposite PORV this answer could be selected.
B. Incorrect. When operating under Cold Overpressure Protection (COMS) each PORV is provided Train specific inputs to open. If the operator assumes the PORVs are Train specific and the assumption that instrument BB PT-457 feeds the opposite PORV this answer could be selected.
C. Correct. PZR PORVs are automatically opened when 2/4 pressure instruments are greater than 2335 psig and operating independent of the Master Pressure Controller and are not train specific during normal operation. With the controlling instrument for PZR pressure failing low, the
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Master Pressure Controller responds to RAISE RCS pressure by energizing heaters and closing spray valves. Because no operator action is taken the input to the Master Pressure controller is never seeing the rising pressure and therefore spray valves never open to restore pressure.
D. Incorrect. If the candidate assumes that the indicated pressure, low, is how the actual plant pressure would trend following the failure of BB PT-457, then the operator could assume that plant pressure would never reach a point that would open both PORVs. The candidate could also assume that the plant response would be that of an actual HIGH failure. IF this was the case, the overall RCS pressure would begin to lower due to the master pressure controller response until a reactor trip and safety injection occurred. Pressure would not rise to a point when PORVs would open until late in the transient following a Safety Injection when the PZR level rises to a point to fill the PZR at which time BOTH PORVs would open.
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Answer: D
Explanation: With the plant operating at 100% power, greater than P-9 (50%) power a turbine trip should result in an automatic reactor trip. When the turbine is tripped the reduction in steam load will result in steam generator pressure rising and a shrink effect in the steam generators causing level to lower. Pressure will rise initially until Steam Generator Atmospheric Steam Dumps and/or Safety Valves lift approximately 30 seconds, or more, later. This rise in pressure will result in Tcold temperatures rising and due to the Moderator Temperature Coefficient providing negative reactivity, this will lower reactor power. In addition to the MTC providing negative reactivity, the large difference in Tavg/Tref after the turbine is tripped, will result in a rod motion demand to insert rods at the maximum speed 72 steps/min, which will also reduce reactor power.
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A. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate could conclude that with no turbine or steam dumps available due to the loss of condenser vacuum, that there would be no reason for steam generator level to lower, and could assume that the reactor power will rise as temperature rises in the RCS. Temperature will rise, but the MTC will add negative reactivity as the temperature rises.
B. Incorrect. See Explanation and A C. Incorrect. See Explanation and A D. Correct. - See Explanation Technical Reference(s :)565HVSRQVHWR1XFOHDU3RZHU*HQHUDWLRQ$7:6
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Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Correct. Upon receipt of a HI HI Alarm, the rad monitor BM-RE-52 generates a BSPIS (Steam Generator Blowdown and Sample Process Isolation Signal). This signal in turn will close the Outer containment Isolation valves BM-HV-5,6,7,8, and Blowdown Isolation valves BM-HV-1,2,3,4.
B. Incorrect. Plausible because this valve does receive an automatic isolation signal. The Radiation monitor only actuates a BSPIS, a Separate Signal SGBSIS (Steam Generator Blowdown System Isolation Signal) is generated by a Safety Injection, Undervoltage on NB01 or NB02, or a Motor Driven AFW pump Actuation Signal (AFAS). This signal will close Lower Sample Isolation Valves, BM-HV-35,36,37,38, Upper Sample Isolation Valves, BM-HV-19,20,21,22, and Outer Containment Isolation Valves BM-HV-65,66,67,68.
C. Incorrect. See explanation B.
D. Incorrect. See explanation B.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
The Pressurizer Pressure is below the SI setpoint of 1849 psig, therefore the ESW system will realign based on a Safety Injection. A reactor trip has occurred due to a valid SI signal.
A. Incorrect. Plausible because on a Safety Injection the ESW system aligns to discharge to the UHS cooling tower, however the UHS cooling tower bypass valve does not reposition on the SI signal alone, and will only close if ESW return temperature exceeds 84F and the ESW pumps have been running for 5 minutes. Incorrect because it is not an IMMEDIATE response of the ESW system.
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B. Incorrect. Plausible because the containment cooler bypass valve does receive an automatic reposition signal on a Safety Injection to OPEN, not Close.
C. Correct. Upon receipt of a Safety Injection signal, the CCW heat exchanger inlet valve EF-HV-51 will automatically OPEN to supply increased flow for the increased heat loads on the CCW system due to the ECCS actuation.
D. Incorrect. Plausible because EF HV-59 automatically repositions on a Safety Injection signal.
However the valve CLOSES upon receipt of the SI Signal in order to maximize flow to the containment coolers.
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
Tier #
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Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following 6HUYLFHZDWHU
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Answer: C
Explanation: Pump power supplies are as follows: PB121 supplies A Circ Water Pump and A Service Water Pump; PB122 supplies B Circ Water Pump and B Service Water Pump; and PB123 supplies power to C Circ Water Pump and C Service Water Pump.
A. Incorrect. For the conditions given, PB122 will automatically cross tie to PB121.
B. Incorrect. PB122 will only receive power from PB121 on the cross tie, however will supply power to PB123 automatically if the same conditions mentioned in explanation C are met for PB123.
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C. Correct. With no bus fault on PB122, and the feeder breakers for both circwater pump and service water pump open, PB122 will automatically cross tie only to PB121 in the event of a 13.8kv feeder breaker trip or Transformer lockout.
D. Incorrect. PB122 will only automatically cross tie to PB123 if the fault occurs on XPB123 and power is being supplied from PB122, otherwise PB122 will always tie to PB121.
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The service sir system is automatically isolated at 110 psig, however the lag air dryer inlet and outlet valves will open and place the standby air dryer in service at 105 psig.
B. Correct. The instrument air and service air systems are normally connected. The service air system is automatically isolated at 110 psig by closure of KA PV0011, Compress Air Sys Serv Air Sply Press Strl Vlv.
C. Incorrect. KAPV0011 does not receive any automatic open signals, only auto close signals, and it isolates the service air header to assist in maintaining the instrument air header pressure.
D. Incorrect. KAPV0011 does not receive any automatic open signals, only auto close signals, and it isolates the service air header to assist in maintaining the instrument air header pressure.
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. - Plausible because having this fan running or the damper closed prevents the spread of contamination to other buildings (ie. the control building) The question is specifically asking to prevent the spread of contamination to the Aux Building.
B. Correct - With neither Aux Building Normal Exhaust fan, CGL03A nor CGL03B, running one of the dampers must be closed to prevent a flow path that would allow the spread of contamination to other parts of the building C. Incorrect - The Mini Purge system is not allowed to be run when the Shutdown purge system is in operation, however the reason is based in the accident analysis of large mass and energy releases to containment. The accident analysis includes the possibility that mini-purge is in service and accounts for the change in containment volume assuming the flow rate of approximately 4000 scfm the mini-purge system supplies. The shutdown purge system is
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designed to supply 20000 scfm flow through containment using the same duct work as the mini-purge system. With both systems in operation simultaneously, it is not analyzed that either system will perform its function adequately, and cannot be analyzed for an accident situation..(FSAR 6.2.1.5, and 9.4.6)
D. Incorrect - Containment purge can be run without an Aux Building Normal Exhaust fan running IF either GL HIS-32, damper for CGL03A, or GL HIS-33, damper for CGL03B, is closed Technical Reference(s :271*76HFWLRQ)6$5
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Answer: C
Explanation: At a difference of 3°F rods begin to step in a 8 steps/min. The rod speed is then ramped to a maximum of 72 steps/min when a difference of 5°F is reached. The circuitry uses the highest Tavg channel NOT the average.
A. Incorrect - This is the speed for a 3° difference. If the candidate incorrectly uses the average Tavg this is the answer they would compute.
B. Incorrect -32 steps per minutes is half of the difference between 8 steps and 72 steps ( i.e.
72-8 = 64 / 2 = 32) If the candidate did not add 8 to the 32 steps/min this is the answer they would compute.
C. Correct - 4° difference would yield 32 steps/min plus the 8 steps/min yield 40 steps/min D. Incorrect - this is the maximum speed. If the candidate incorrectly calculates 4° difference as the maximum instead of 5°difference this is the answer they would compute.
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Answer: A
Explanation: The thermocouples are enclosed in removable stainless steel sheaths. These sheaths are routed in guide tubes which position the thermocouple at the exit of the fuel assemblies. The guide tubes extend from the selected core location to the reactor vessel head seal assemblies. The individual thermocouple guide tubes are enclosed in 1 of 4 thermocouple port columns which protrudes through the reactor head.
The movable detectors are driven into the reactor core through 58 conduits extending from the bottom of the reactor vessel to a thimble seal table. The conduit forms an extension of the primary system pressure boundary.
A. Correct - This is the correct location and number of penetrations.
B. Incorrect - This is the correct number of penetrations, however the incorrect location.
C. Incorrect - This is the number of movable incore detector penetrations but it is the correct locations for the location of the incore temperature monitor.
D. Incorrect - This is the number and location of movable incore detector penetrations.
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Answer: B
Explanation: In accordance with OTN-GS-00001, step 5.5.1 IF containment hydrogen volumetric concentration is greater than or equal to 4%, do NOT place an ETHR in service. Therefore, 4% is correct as it is the LOWEST that would prevent the ETHR from being placed in service per the procedure.
A. Incorrect B. Correct, C. Incorrect D. Incorrect Technical Reference(s :271*65HY
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Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Correct. A High High signal on Either GT RE-22 or GT RE-33 will actuate a CPIS.
B. Incorrect. Though either GT RE-22 or GT RE-33 will actuate a CPIS, the question is asking for the MINIMUM detector response, therefore the requirement of BOTH makes this an incorrect answer.
C. Incorrect. GT RE-31 and GT RE-32 are Containment Atmospheric Radiation monitors that provide alarms and indications but do not cause any automatic actuations.
D. Incorrect. GT RE-31 and GT RE-32 are Containment Atmospheric Radiation monitors that provide alarms and indications but do not cause any automatic actuations.
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
Tier #
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K/A # .
Importance Rating
Knowledge of design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following:
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Question #60
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Answer: D
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. There is no trip on low level for the Fuel pool skimmer pump, however the skimmer is limited by the length of the hose. If level lowers below the length of the hose (approx.. 6 feet) then then pump will run without suction and damage to the pump will occur.
B. Incorrect. There is no trip on low level for the Fuel pool cleanup pump. This pump does have a low flow alarm, however it has no automatic trips C. Incorrect. RHR pumps do not take a suction from the spent fuel pool. This is a plausible distractor due to the actions taken during LOCA. Also Plausible because when the Refuel Pool is connected to the SFP then RHR pump cavitation could occur if level gets too low. The operators are directed to isolate the SFP heat exchanger to maximize CCW flow to the RHR heat exchangers. If the operator does not understand the reason for isolating SFP heat exchangers and securing the SFP pumps, this distractor becomes plausible.
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D. Correct. The Spent fuel pool cooling pumps trip on low level in the fuel pool. The low level is at -22 inches. The condition above indicates -24 inches. At this point the spent fuel cooling pump should have tripped.
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
Tier #
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K/A # .
Importance Rating
Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following will have on the S/GS
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Plausible because multiple signals in the steam generator level control system upon failing low will cause an error such that the system will respond to raise level, (level, feed flow, pressure) However if the setpoint fails low, the steam generator will see actual level High and then try to lower the level by reducing feed flow.
B. Correct. The two controlling channels for S/G level are averaged and the output is fed into the S/G level control circuitry. When one channel fails low, the average is lowered resulting in a negative error which causes the system to respond by trying to raise level to the program setpoint.
C. Incorrect. Plausible because if a Steam Pressure channel fails low, this would give a false HI Mass Flow Rate, which would result in the system attempting to make up for the increased loss of inventory in the steam generator and raising level. However if the steam flow transmitter fails low, it would have the opposite effect. To try to match steam flow (now low) and feed flow the steam generator will reduce feed flow which will lower level. With the digital feedwater system, three channels are used to determine steam flow, with one failing low, the system will then reject the failed signal and average the remaining two signals, which will result in no change in S/G water level.
D. Incorrect. Plausible because if a Steam Pressure channel fails high, this would give a false HI Mass Flow Rate, which would result in the system attempting to make up for the increased loss of inventory in the steam generator and raising level.
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Answer: D
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Plausible if the candidate believes the solenoid is normally energized and is deenergized to actuate and ARM the steam dump system, making 1092 psig or NO LOAD pressure plausible as this is the pressure that the condenser steam dumps will control at for a NO
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LOAD Tavg. It is incorrect because the ARMING solenoid must be energized to ARM the steam dumps, therefore the condenser steam dumps are not available with this failure.
B. Incorrect. Plausible because the condenser steam dumps are not available therefore the S/G ASDs will control RCS Tavg and S/G Pressure. 1092 psig is the NO LOAD setpoint for the S/Gs and corresponds to an RCS Tavg of 557F. Under this situation the RCS will heat up due to no steam load and excessive heat following a reactor trip until the S/G ASD setpoint of 1125 psig is reached and the ASDs will open controlling pressure.
C. Incorrect. Plausible if the candidate believes the solenoid is normally energized and is deenergized to actuate and ARM the steam dump system, 1125 psig is correct for controlling on the ASDs, If the candidate incorrectly assumes the pressure will be controlled on the Load Reject controller, as it would if the P-4 failure of the Steam Dumps system had occurred, and does not convert psia to psig from the steam tables, then 1125 can be obtained incorrectly.
D. Correct. With condenser steam dumps unavailable, the S/G pressure and subsequently RCS Tavg, will be controlled with the S/G ASDs at their normal setpoint of 1125 psig.
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
Tier #
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Importance Rating
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Answer: D
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Plausible because the RM-23 Process Rad Monitors have a key pad with a C/S pushbutton to perform a source check of the Process Rad Monitor. Incorrect because the Area Radiation Monitors do not have key pad controls.
B. Incorrect. Plausible because each color indicating light is also a push button that serves a specific purpose. Incorrect because the red indicating light will reset the HIGH alarm and turn off the local flashing light when rad levels decrease below the setpoint.
C. Incorrect. Plausible because each color indicating light is also a push button that serves a specific purpose. Incorrect because the amber indicating light will reset the ALERT alarm when rad levels decrease below the setpoint.
D. Correct. To ensure the operability of each detector channel, each detector assembly contains its own SR/Y 90 check source. This source is positioned near the detector by energizing the check source solenoid on the monitor in the Control Room. The check source is performed by depressing the normal light on the monitor and watching for system response.
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
Tier #
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Importance Rating
Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the circulating water system, and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:/RVVRI
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Question #64
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Answer: B
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Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Plausible because Turbine Setback is correct, however rods should NOT be placed in manual.
B. Correct. When the HP condenser vacuum is being maintained greater than 4 HgA, the condenser Circ Pump Setback is Enabled. This feature of the Circulating Water system prevents a loss of vacuum in the condenser in the event a circulating water pump trips during operation by automatically reducing turbine load to approximately 75% power. In response to this event the crew should enter OTO-MA-00001, Turbine Load Rejection, and verify rods are responding to the Tavg/Tref mismatch caused by the load rejection.
C. Incorrect. Plausible because a Rod Control Malfunction will provide many of the same indications accompanied by an NI failure or Turbine impulse pressure alarm. The correct action for a rod control malfunction per OTO-SF-00001, Rod Control Malfunctions, is to place rods in manual.
D. Incorrect. Plausible because a Rod Control Malfunction will provide many of the same indications accompanied by an NI failure or Turbine impulse pressure alarm.
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Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Correct. A cross-zoned detector circuit. Sixteen detectors in a 4 by 4 array are connected so that adjacent detectors are on different circuits, or "zones". In order for the Halon system to automatically actuate, detectors in both loops must sense a fire or a detector in one loop senses a fire while a trouble signal is present on the other loop. Detection of a fire by one loop without a detection or trouble signal in the other loop will give an alarm only.
B. Incorrect. See explanation A.
C. Incorrect. See explanation A.
D. Incorrect. See explanation A.
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Tier #
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Importance Rating
Ability to use procedures related to shift staffing, such as minimum crew complement, overtime limitations, etc.
Question #66
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Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Plausible because this is the average minimum number of days off required for an individual working an average 8 hour9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> schedule.
B. Incorrect. Plausible because this is the average minimum number of days off required for an individual working an average 10 hour1.157407e-4 days <br />0.00278 hours <br />1.653439e-5 weeks <br />3.805e-6 months <br /> schedule.
C. Correct. For Operations personnel, this is the average minimum number of days off required for an individual working a 12 hour1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> shift schedule.
D. Incorrect. Plausible because this is the average minimum number of days off required for Security personnel working an average 12 hour1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br /> schedule.
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Importance Rating
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Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Correct. IAW APA-ZZ-00802, when entry into a Permit Required Confined Space is performed, the Attendant must always be present when entrants are in the space, and the Fire Brigade will serve as the Rescue Team if a non-entry retrieval can NOT be performed.
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B. Incorrect. Plausible because the Attendant must be present, and the MERT is briefed of the entry prior to entry, however the Fire Brigade (comprised of operations personnel) serves as the Rescue Team for emergency retrieval. The MERT is comprised of Security personnel who are certified as EMT responders. At Callaway, the MERT and Fire Brigade are two separate entities and one is not a subset of the other.
C. Incorrect. Plausible because the Entry Supervisor has the responsibility to ensure all individuals are qualified and briefed on the confined space entry, however he is not required to remain present during the entry. The Fire Brigade will serve as the Rescue Team and enter if a non-entry retrieval can NOT be performed.
D. Incorrect. Plausible because the Entry Supervisor has the responsibility to ensure all individuals are qualified and briefed on the confined space entry, however he is not required to remain present during the entry. The MERT is briefed of the entry prior to entry, however the Fire Brigade (comprised of operations personnel) serves as the Rescue Team for emergency retrieval. The MERT is comprised of Security personnel who are certified as EMT responders. At Callaway, the MERT and Fire Brigade are two separate entities and one is not a subset of the other.
Technical Reference(s :$3$==&RQILQHG6SDFH3URJUDP5(9
References to be provided to applicants during examination:1RQH
Learning Objective:76\VWHPV/32EM),QDFFRUGDQFHZLWK$3$==
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Question History:/DVW15&([DPBBBB1$BBBBBBBB
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
Tier #
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K/A #
Importance Rating
Knowledge of primary and secondary plant chemistry limits.
Question #68
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Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Correct. T/S 3.7.18 states the specific activity of the secondary coolant shall be < 0.10 Ci/gm Dose Equivalent I-131.
B. Incorrect. Plausible because this is the limit for the T/S RCS Dose Equivalent I-131 limit.
C. Incorrect. Plausible because this is a T/S action limit value for RCS Dose Equivalent I-131.
D. Incorrect. Plausible because this is the T/S Dose Equivalent Xe-133 limit for the RCS.
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10 CFR Part 55 Content:
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
Tier #
(TXLSPHQW&RQWURO Group # *HQHULF
K/A #
Importance Rating
Knowledge of less than or equal to one hour Technical Specification action statements for systems.
Question #69
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Answer: D
A. Incorrect - Plausible if the candidate looks at -15%, then AFD is within the limit at this power level, However at +15% AFD is outside the limit.
B. Incorrect - Plausible if the candidate looks at -15%, then AFD is within the limit at this power level, However at +15% AFD is outside the limit. There is no 30 minute requirement to restore AFD to preclude a xenon oscillation.
C. Incorrect - Plausible because AFD is outside the limit, however the requirement to reduce power by 3% for every 1% outside limit is the T/S requirement if QPTR is outside the limit.
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D. Correct - AFD is outside the limits for this power level. The correct action is to Restore AFD to within limits or reduce reactor power to less than 50% within 30 minutes.
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
Tier #
Equipment Control Group # *HQHULF
K/A #
Importance Rating
Knowledge of tagging and clearance procedures.
Question #70
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Answer: D
Explanation: Per the technical reference, the waiver of an IV is allowed when radiation exposures is expected to be greater than 10mR.
A. Incorrect. There is no specific limit on airborne activity.
B. Incorrect. The value for general dose rates is 25mR/hr.
C. Incorrect. There is no specific limit on area contamination.
D. Correct Technical Reference(s :2'3==5HY1RWHRQSDJHWKDWVWDWHVµ7KHZDLYHURIDQ
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References to be provided to applicants during examination:1RQH
Learning Objective:7$/3:3$
A. ODP-ZZ-00310, WPA and Caution Tagging 1. DISCUSS the Responsibilities of the following:
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a. Shift Manager/Control Room Supervisor 1. Discus when an Independent Verification may be waived.
Question Source: %DQNBB;5BBBB
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
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Importance Rating
Knowledge of the process used to track inoperable alarms
Question #71 7KH&RQWURO5RRPFUHZKDVGHFLGHGWRGHIHDWDQQXQFLDWRU$5+5+;$&&:
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Incorrect - per 2'3==VWHSHQJLQHHULQJFRQFXUUHQFHLVRQO\QHHGHGLIGHIHDWLQJ
DQQXQFLDWRU $3&63:5)$,/
B. Correct - per 2'3==VWHS,)DQQXQFLDWRUWREHGHIHDWHGLVXVHGLQSHUIRUPDQFH
RIRIIQRUPDORUHPHUJHQF\RSHUDWLQJSURFHGXUHV5HIHU7R$SSHQGL[2II1RUPDO$QG
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C. Incorrect - Due to this annunciator being listed in ODP-ZZ-00017 APP01, OFF-NORMAL AND EMERGENCY OPERATION PROCEDURE RELATED ANNUNCIATORS additional administrative actions are needed per step 4.5.1 of ODP-ZZ-00017 D. Incorrect - This action is not required per ODP-ZZ-00017, ODP-ZZ-00003, SHIFT RELIEF AND TURNOVER or ODP-ZZ-00001 ADDENDUM 02, BRIEFS
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References to be provided to applicants during examination:1RQH
Learning Objective:/376'HILQLWLRQV2'3==2'3==2'3==
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Question Source: %DQNBB/BBBB
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0HPRU\RU)XQGDPHQWDO.QRZOHGJH BB;BBB
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10 CFR Part 55 Content:
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Comments:
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
Tier #
5DGLDWLRQ&RQWURO Group # *HQHULF
K/A #
Importance Rating
Knowledge of radiation exposure limits under normal or emergency conditions.
Question #72
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Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Correct. Only the Senior Vice President/CNO, Vice President of Nuclear Operations, Emergency coordinator, or Recovery Manager have the authority to authorize exceeding the federal dose limits of 10CFR20.1201 under specific conditions delineated in APA-ZZ-01000, and HDP-ZZ-01450.
B. Incorrect. Plausible because the Director, Nuclear Operations is responsible for the safe, legal, and efficient operation of the Callaway plant and oversight of all operations personnel.
C. Incorrect. Plausible because the Radiation Protection Manager has the final say for multiple radiation protection processes and procedures, however they cannot authorize an individual to exceed the federal dose limits.
D. Incorrect. Plausible because the Senior Director of Nuclear Operations may authorize the waiving of radiological requirements (ie. not maintaining respirator fit qualification current) of our site procedures for specific personnel with valid reason. However the Plant director has no authority to allow exceeding the federal dose limits.
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10 CFR Part 55 &RQWHQW:
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Question #73
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Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Plausible because this would prevent any releases due to the ASD opening, however if an actual overpressure condition occurs in the S/G this will cause a challenge to the S/G safety valves, potentially resulting in a larger release than if the ASD opened. This is also the RNO action if the ASD is open while below the selected setpoint for Automatic Control.
B. Incorrect. Plausible because 1160 psig is the desired pressure to control the S/G ASD at, however Manual control is not desired due to the attention it requires the operator place on the single parameter which could distract from the overall goal of E-3 to cool down the plant to minimize the effects of the S/G tube rupture.
C. Correct. In accordance with E-3, The ruptured steam generator is isolated to minimize radiation releases, including adjusting the steam generator ASD setpoint to 1160 psig to minimize the cycling of the ASD while keeping the lift setpoint below that of the SG Safety valves. Though it is not explicitly directed to be placed in AUTO, it is implied in that the setpoint adjustment only controls the ASD in the Automatic mode. If the ASD is not closed below the selected setpoint, then the RNO action is to place the controller in Manual and close the ASD.
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D. Incorrect. Plausible because 1185 psig is the setpoint for the first S/G Safety valve opening.
The candidate could believe that setting the ASD equal to the Safety valve will prevent inadvertent release, while still maintaining S/G integrity. Incorrect because the ASD is adjusted to 1160 psig to prevent Inadvertant release while also preventing the S/G safety from opening.
Technical Reference(s :(6WHDP*HQHUDWRU7XEH5XSWXUH5HY
References to be provided to applicants during examination:1RQH
Learning Objective:7'/3'2EM,2XWOLQHWKHSURFHGXUDOIORZSDWKLQFOXGLQJPDMRU
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
Tier #
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K/A #
Importance Rating
Knowledge of RO tasks performed outside the main control room during an emergency and the resultant operational effects.
Question #74
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Answer: D
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Plausible if the candidate assumes that A Train components are operated from the ASP. A MDAFW pump is locally inhibited from starting. Control at the ASP is for the B train components including the B MDAFW pump. The B S/G level will increase however it is being fed from the TDAFW pump.
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B. Incorrect. Plausible if candidate assumes the A train components are operated from the ASP.
A MDAFW pump is locally inhibited from starting. C S/G is isolated and not used for the plant cooldown therefore level will not be rising in the C S/G.
C. Incorrect. Plausible because B MDAFW pump will be running and is capable of feeding A S/G, however only the B train components are operated from the ASP, therefore only B & D S/G ASDs can be controlled to control the plant cooldown, therefore A S/G is isolated and level will not be rising.
D. Correct. OTO-ZZ-00001, directs the operators to locally align plant equipment to support plant cooldown with a desired final lineup of B MDAFW pump supplying D S/G, and the TDAFW pump supplying the B S/G, A & C S/G ASDs are manually isolated preventing the need to feed A or C S/G.
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Tier #
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Importance Rating
Knowledge of emergency communications systems and techniques.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Plausible because it is an emergency communication device available in the control room. The plant radio system is used for normal communications from the control room to operators in the field, and other security personnel.
B. Incorrect. Plausible because it is an emergency communication device available in the control room. The satellite phone is used as a last resort backup to the telephone and radio systems.
C. Correct. The BURS is an 800 MHz system used to communicate with the State and EPZ Counties when SENTRY is unavailable.
D. Incorrect. Plausible because this is a communication device that is available in the control room. The commercial telephone system is used for standard communications over the open commercial lines. EIP-ZZ-00201 directs the use of the BURS if Sentry is not available.
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Ability to prioritize and interpret the significance of each annunciator or alarm.
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A. Incorrect - Foldout page action takes priority, and PZR level is to low for SI termination B. Incorrect - Foldout page action takes priority, C. Correct - See above D. Incorrect - Foldout page action takes priority, and while actions in E-0 step 11 may lead you to E-1 due to stuck open PZR PORV the foldout page takes priority. Also the PRT indication may result in a candidate taking this path due the E-0 step #21 directs only to evaluate the cause of the abnormal indications Technical Reference(s :
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level SRO Rev 1
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Importance Rating
Ability to evaluate plant performance and make operational judgments based on operating characteristics, reactor behavior, and instrument interpretation.
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A. Incorrect - This would be the correct action if seal leakage was greater then 6 gpm B. Incorrect - This would be the correct action if reactor power was greater than 48% when the event started.
C. Incorrect - RCS pressure would be controlled with the Loop 2 PZR spray.
D. Correct -The correct action to take is to defeat 7DYJ$QG7)RU,GOH RCS Loop. Per TS the unit must be placed in MODE 3 with less than the required operable RCS loops in MODE 1.
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level SRO Rev 1
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Importance Rating
2.2.12 Knowledge of surveillance procedures.
Question #78
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Answer: B
Explanation: Per technical specifications bases page B 3.8.1 - 2 and 3, an assumed loss of all offsite or all onsite AC power is included in the analysis as an initial condition of DBA
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and transient analyses. The load tap changers are not applicable as the loss of offsite power is an initial assumption. The LTC transformers ensure off-site source operability for grid conditions that would reduce voltage to 95% of nominal or 328KV and plant conditions are below this reading. Per OSP-NE-00001, step 3.3.3.a the shift manager shall declare the offsite source INOPERABLE based on the data provided (category 8 alarm).
This is a K/A match as the knowledge of offsite power operability is from this operations Surveillance Procedure (OSP). Operability determinations are a SRO function.
A. Incorrect - offsite power shall be declared INOPERABLE B. Correct - see above explanation C. Incorrect - offsite power shall be declared INOPERABLE and the load tap changers are not apart of the safety analysis and voltages are below where the load tap changers can function to restore NB01/02 volts.
D. Incorrect - the load tap changers are not apart of the safety analysis and voltages are below where the load tap changers can function to restore NB01/02 volts.
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level SRO Rev 1
Tier #
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K/A # $$
Importance Rating
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Answer: D
Explanation:
Attachment P, Loss of NN04 A. Incorrect - During a loss of NN01 or NN02, if the Turbine impulse pressure channel of the associate bus is lost, then a demand signal is generated to result in rods stepping in, however upon loss of power to the PRNI, the instrument fails low. The inputs to Rod Control from NIs are
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auctioneered High, and therefore have no impact on the rod control system. CREVS will be inoperable, see explanation D.
B. Incorrect - During a loss of NN01 or NN02, if the Turbine impulse pressure channel of the associate bus is lost, then a demand signal is generated to result in rods stepping in, however upon loss of power to the PRNI, the instrument fails low. The inputs to Rod Control from NIs are auctioneered High, and therefore have no impact on the rod control system. CREVS will be inoperable, see explanation D.
C. Incorrect - Plausible because the CCP suction will swap to the RWST, however a Note in Attachment P states that Emergency Diesel NE02, ESW Pump PEF01B, Control Room AC unit SGK04B, CREVS, and Train B UHS Cooling Tower Train are Inoperable when NN04 is deenergized. CREVS is also inoperable if NN01 is deenergized, but remains Operable during a loss of NN02 or NN03.
D. Correct - Attachment R, when NN04 is deenergized, power is lost to VCT level transmitter BG LI-185, which causes the instrument to fail low resulting in a swap over signal of the CCP suction from the VCT to the RWST. A Note in Attachment P states that Emergency Diesel NE02, ESW Pump PEF01B, Control Room AC unit SGK04B, CREVS, and Train B UHS Cooling Tower Train are Inoperable when NN04 is deenergized.
Technical Reference(s :
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References to be provided to applicants during examination:1RQH
Learning Objective:7%/3%2EMHFWLYH&Given a set of plant conditions or parameters indicating a Loss of Safety Related Instrument Power, ANALYZE the correct procedure(s) to be utilized and the required actions to stabilize the plant.
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level SRO Rev 1
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Importance Rating $$
Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Instrument Air
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Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Correct. C Air compressor is cooled by chilled water supplied by the Central Chillers so with no chillers running and no cooling water, the air compressor will trip on High Air Temperature. In response to the loss of instrument air the crew will enter OTO-KA-00001, Loss of Instrument Air,
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which will direct a down power in accordance with OTO-KA-00001, Attachment A, Load Reduction.
B. Incorrect. Plausible because A and B Air compressors are cooled by ESW, so it could be believed that the C Air compressor is not affected by the loss of the chiller units. The candidate can assume that with a loss of the B Air compressor and the unit being greater than 80% power, a down power may be required to support continued operation on C Air compressor Only.
C. Incorrect. Plausible because C Air compressor will trip on High Air Temperature due to the loss of cooling water. OTO-KA-00001, Attachment E, Restoration is entered with the assumption that air compressors are running an any leak in the system has been isolated. This attachment aligns the plant in a safe condition for the reintroduction of air to specific instrument components such that a transient is not induced when the air in introduced. OTO-KA-00001, Attachment E, Restoration will also direct the service air system to be restored in accordance with OTN-KA-00001, Compressed Air System. This procedure will direct starting an air compressor assuming all conditions are met to start one and realigning the system for normal operations. This cannot be done because there is no air compressor that meets all the conditions to start the compressor.
D. Incorrect. Plausible because the A and B Air compressors are cooled by ESW, so it could be believed that the C air compressor is not affected by the loss of the chiller units. Restoration of the Servcie Air system is correct assuming a loss of air has occurred due to the trip of the B air compressor, but can be restored if the C Air compressor is still running.
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Answer: B
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B. Correct - step 3b of ECA 1.2, direct the operator to transition to E-1 since step 3.a checks to see if RCS pressure is rising (indication that the LOCA outside Containment has been isolated)
C. Incorrect - the RNO is only performed if RCS Pressure is Lowering D. Incorrect - Transition to ES-1.2 is only transitioned to from E-1 or ES-1.1. All conditions are met to enter ES-1.2, however this transition is only made from ES-1.1 after completing actions of E-1.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
T/S 3.3.1 Condition F is the applicable T/S for this malfunction. Per this action statement power must be raised above P-10 or lowered below P-6. OTO-SE-00001, Nuclear Instrumentation Malfunction, for this malfunction after power has been adjusted, the malfunctioning IR channel is bypassed by placing the level trip switch in Bypass.
A. Incorrect. In this condition if the bistable for N36 is tripped the reactor will trip. This is a plausible distractor because it is the action to take for a similar malfunction for a Power Range NI, and this is the correct power level to raise power to in this condition.
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B. Incorrect. In this condition if the bistable for N36 is tripped the reactor will trip. This is a plausible distractor because it is the action to take for a similar malfunction for a Power Range NI, however this is the incorrect power level to lower power to in this condition. This value is a
-10 common value used to take critical data. Lowering below the P-6 setpoint of 1x10 amps is a correct action for this failure.
C. Correct. This is the correct action and power level for this condition per T/S 3.3.1 condition F, and OTO-SE-00001, Nuclear Instrument Malfunction.
D. Incorrect. This is a correct action per OTO-SE-00001, however this is the incorrect power level to lower power to in this condition. This value is a common value used to take critical data.
-10 Lowering below the P-6 setpoint of 1x10 amps is a correct action for this failure.
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Answer: D
Explanation:
A. Incorrect - while there is an UE due to Ann 98E on and the earthquake felt at the site, it is NOT the highest EAL that exists B. Incorrect - while there is an UE due to low SFP level (less than -4 inches), it is NOT the highest EAL that exists C. Incorrect - Control Room Dose rates are 1 mr/hr which is less than the EAL threshold of 15mr/hr.
D. Correct - GGRE27 and 28 are in HI HI alarm resulting in an Alert (RA2.1) due to damage to irradiated fuel assemblies.
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Answer: D
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A. Incorrect - The CHARMs provide the indication of containment radiation levels. The student may choose this is they think that a secondary verification of containment rad levels is needed.
This is not the basis of FR-Z.2. Containment High radiation is covered in FR-Z.3, Response to High Containment Radiation Levels.
B. Incorrect - This is the bases of step #1 of FR-Z.2.
C. Incorrect - RERP plan utilizes gaseous activity release values to perform Dose Assessments.
The was no indication that a release has occurred.
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level SRO Rev 1
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Importance Rating
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Answer: B
Explanation:
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A. Incorrect. EJ FCV-619 will respond to the reduced flow through the system by OPENING to raise flow out of the RHR system.
B. Correct. EJ FCV-611 will open when flow is reduced to approximately 783 to 816 gpm, temperature dependent, and recirculate flow to the suction of the RHR pump at approximately 600 gpm.
C. Incorrect EJ FCV-619 will respond to the reduced flow through the system by OPENING to raise flow out of the RHR system. If the A train RHR is not available, then OTO-EJ-00001, , will direct evacuating containment and initiating containment closure to be complete within 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />.
D. Incorrect This is the correct response of EJ FCV-611. If the A train RHR is not available, then OTO-EJ-00001, Attachment 2, will direct evacuating containment and initiating containment closure to be complete within 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Plausible because the valve is associated with A train, however to maintain both trains operable, each train must be able to inject into all four loop cold legs. When this valve closes each train is only capable of injecting to two cold legs making both trains Inoperable. If the candidate assumes that only A train is effected, T/S 3.5.2 for ECCS operating verifies an
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equivalent of 100% flow capability on the opposite train of that component is available, and then directs the crew to restore the system to operable status within 72 hours8.333333e-4 days <br />0.02 hours <br />1.190476e-4 weeks <br />2.7396e-5 months <br />.
B. Incorrect. Plausible because the valve is associated with A train, however to maintain both trains operable, each train must be able to inject into all four loop cold legs. When this valve closes each train is only capable of injecting to two cold legs making both trains Inoperable. If other RHR system valves had failed to a position other than specified for standby lineup, then they would be restored to standby lineup in accordance with OTN-EJ-00001, Add 5 or 6 for trains A and B.
C. Correct. To maintain both trains operable, each train must be able to inject into all four loop cold legs. When this valve closes each train is only capable of injecting to two cold legs making both trains Inoperable With both trains inoperable entry into T/S 3.0.3 is made and the plant must be placed in Mode 3 within 7 hours8.101852e-5 days <br />0.00194 hours <br />1.157407e-5 weeks <br />2.6635e-6 months <br />.
D. Incorrect. Plausible because B train is also inoperable, EJ HV8716B is normally open in the standby lineup but if it is believed that the two cross connect valves are in parallel and not in series, then opening EJ HV8716B would restore the cross connect capability and therefore operability.
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Answer: B
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AFP START, will alarm.
Per OTS-SA-00001, Operation of Engineered Safety Feature Actuation System, De-energizing only make the AFAS Manual Initiation and Auxiliary Feedwater Pump Suction Transfer on low suction pressure functions INOPERABLE.
A. Incorrect - This alarm will actuate, however the Turbine Trip on SG high water level function is INOPERABLE if Channel 1 or 4 is de-energized B. Correct - This alarm will actuate, Per OTS-SA-00001, Operation of Engineered Safety Feature Actuation System, De-energizing only make the AFAS Manual Initiation and Auxiliary Feedwater Pump Suction Transfer on low suction pressure functions INOPERABLE.
C. Incorrect - This alarm will actuate however the Turbine Trip on SG high water level function is INOPERABLE if Channel 1 or 4 is de-energized D. Incorrect - This alarm will actuate Per OTS-SA-00001, Operation of Engineered Safety Feature Actuation System, De-energizing only make the AFAS Manual Initiation and Auxiliary Feedwater Pump Suction Transfer on low suction pressure functions INOPERABLE.
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Answer: A
Explanation: Per T/S 3.8.7, in order to be considered operable the inverters be powered
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from a 125 VDC station battery, and supply power to the associated Vital bus.
A. Correct -NN14 is INOPERABLE until it is supplying the 120V AC Vital Bus NN04 from the battery. NN04 will remain OPERABLE if it is energized from the bypass source per T/S 3.8.9.
T/S 3.8.7 for the INOPERABLE inverter is the only T/S entered.
B. Incorrect - The inverter NN14 is INOPERABLE, however NN04 will remain OPERABLE if it is energized from the bypass source. T/S 3.8.7 for the INOPERABLE inverter is the only T/S entered.
C. Incorrect - NN14 is INOPERABLE until it is supplying the 120V AC Vital Bus NN04 from the battery. NN04 will remain OPERABLE if it is energized from the bypass source per T/S 3.8.9.
T/S 3.8.7 for the INOPERABLE inverter is the only T/S entered. T/S 3.8.9 is referenced from T/S 3.8.7 to be entered ONLY if NN04 is deenergized. In this case NN04 is energized from the bypass source.
D. Incorrect - NN14 is INOPERABLE until it is supplying the 120V AC Vital Bus NN04. NN04 will remain OPERABLE if it is energized from the bypass source. T/S 3.8.7 for the INOPERABLE inverter is the only T/S entered. T/S 3.8.9 is referenced from T/S 3.8.7 to be entered if NN04 is deenergized. In this case NN04 is energized from the bypass source.
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Answer: B
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A. Incorrect - The EAL is correct. If the candidate does not apply the stipulation of not applying the RCP trip criteria after starting the cooldown, then this is a plausible distractor.
B. Correct - See Explanation Above.
C. Incorrect - Steam Generators are NOT considered Faulted If the candidate does not apply the stipulation of not applying the RCP trip criteria after starting the cooldown, then this is a plausible distractor. If the candidate incorrectly applies the Containment barrier criteria of EAL table F-1, they could determine that a SGTR of >10 gpm would result in a loss of 2 barriers, RCS System and Containment, and come to the conclusion that a Site Area Emergency is the correct EAL classification. However this SGTR >10 gpm is only applicable with a SG that is also Faulted outside of containment, making this an incorrect determination.
D. Incorrect - This is the correct action for the RCPs. If the candidate incorrectly applies the Containment barrier criteria of EAL table F-1, they could determine that a SGTR of >10 gpm would result in a loss of 2 barriers, RCS System and Containment, and come to the conclusion that a Site Area Emergency is the correct EAL classification. However this SGTR >10 gpm is only applicable with a SG that is also Faulted outside of containment, making this an incorrect determination.
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Importance Rating
Knowledge of conditions and limitations in the facility license.
Question #91
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Answer: A
Explanation:
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A. Correct - see above B. Incorrect - it is operable C. Incorrect the accuracy per Annunciator 80B is +10, -4 steps D. Incorrect - it is operable, Plausible if the student assumes that both channels of DRPI are required for determining Rod Position Indication with DRPI, or if they assume that only one channel feeds an individual rod and the rods are divided up to be channel specific.
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Learning Objective:76\VWHPV/35RG&RQWURO
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10 CFR Part 55 Content:
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level RO Rev 1
Tier #
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K/A # $
Importance Rating
Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the Spent Fuel Pool Cooling System; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:,QDGHTXDWH
6'0
Question #92
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Plausible because the first part of the answer is correct (0.95 Keff is correct). ONLY irradiated fuel assemblies is plausible because this is the action listed for water level NOT within limits.
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B. Correct. TS 3.7.16 requires 2165 ppm boron and the basis is to mainitain Keff less than or equal to 0.95. With the TS not satisfied it requires suspension of movement of fuel assemblies.
C. Incorrect. Plausible because 0.99 Keff is the reactor requirement when in Modes 3 through 5.
ONLY irradiated fuel assemblies is plausible because this is the action listed for water level NOT within limits.
D. Incorrect. Plausible because 0.99 Keff is the reactor requirement when in Modes 3 through 5.
The second part of the answer is correct action - suspend movement of fuel assemblies.
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10 CFR Part 55 Content:
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level SRO Rev 1
Tier #
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K/A # .
Importance Rating
Knowledge of design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following:)XHOPRYHPHQW
Question #93
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Incorrect -. OTS-KE-00013 specifies the interlocks associated with the Bridge stating that Bridging right/left with the hoist less than full up and loaded is limited to specific areas, including a 2 inch square area above the Upender. If the bridge is near the edge of the 2 inch square boundary, the bridge will not move until the hoist in the hoist up position, However bridge relocation itself will not allow the trolley to be moved.
B. Correct - OTS-KE-00013 specifies the interlocks associated with the Trolley stating that Trolley forward/reverse with the hoist less than full up and loaded is limited to specific areas, including a 2 inch square area above the Upender. If the trolley is near the edge of the 2 inch square boundary, the trolley will not move until the hoist in the hoist up position.
C. Incorrect -.Plausible because the Mast being within 6 inches of the Temporary Zone will cause the Bridge and Trolley speed to slow to 3 fpm, and will stop bridge or trolley movement when at the boundary of the zone, however rotation of the Mast is not interlocked with Trolley movement.
D. Incorrect - Plausible because the interlock preventing movement of the Trolley outside the
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specified zones with the hoist not in the hoist up position can be bypassed using the Interlock Bypass Key Switch, which is a different interlock bypass than the Load Bypass pushbutton which allows the HOIST to be lowered when a slack cable condition occurs.
Technical Reference(s :276.(5HIXHOLQJ0DFKLQH5(9
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10 CFR Part 55 Content:
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Comments: SRO #7
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level SRO Rev 1
Tier #
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K/A #
Importance Rating
Knowledge of the fuel-handling responsibilities of SROs.
Question #94
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Answer: A
Explanation: 6WHSRI276.(VWDWHVWKDW³:KHQLQWHUORFNVDUHE\SDVVHGWKHV\VWHP
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A. Correct B. Incorrect - the Reactor Engineering representative is not an SRO licensed individual. At Callaway No members of the Reactor Engineering Group are Licensed SROs.
C. Incorrect - the Westinghouse Nuclear Fuel Division representative is not an SRO licensed individual. However at Callaway movement of nuclear fuel is contracted out to an off site organization, but is supervised by a Callaway Refueling SRO. It is plausible that the candidate could determine that offsite organizations involved in the fuel movement would have authority on fuel handling equipment.
D. Incorrect - the Westinghouse Nuclear Fuel Division representative is not an SRO licensed individual and while the Shift Managerr is a licensed individual and may provide concurrence, this individual is not directly in charge of the fuel moves and should not request to bypass the interlocks. This is the responsibility of the Refueling Supervisor. However at Callaway movement of nuclear fuel is contracted out to an off site organization, but is supervised by a Callaway Refueling SRO. It is plausible that the candidate could determine that offsite organizations involved in the fuel movement would have authority on fuel handling equipment.
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Technical Reference(s :
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Learning Objective:7(/LFHQVH5HIXHOLQJ7UDLQLQJ/3)XHO+DQGOLQJV\VWHPV
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10 CFR Part 55 Content:
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level SRO Rev 1
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Importance Rating
Knowledge of facility requirements for controlling vital/controlled access Question #95
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Answer: D
Explanation: Per ODP-ZZ-00001 Step 4.4.4.c The On-Shift/On-Coming Operations Crew and Resident NRC Inspectors may enter the "AT THE CONTROLS AREA" without obtaining permission from the SM/CRS. Additional permission is required to enter the "IMMEDIATELY ADJACENT TO THE CONTROL PANELS AREA". Radiation Protection Technicians, Radiation Protection Tech Support, RTOs, Chemistry Technicians and I&C Technicians are considered to be part of the On-Shift Operations Crew.
A. Incorrect - The NRC Resident Inspector does not require permission to enter the At the Controls area, but must obtain permission to enter the Immediately Adjacent to the Control Panels Area.
B. Incorrect - The On-Shift I&C technician is considered part of the On-Shift Operations Crew and does not require permission to enter the AT the Controls Area, however a Non-Shift technician would require permission.
C. Incorrect - The Oncoming SM does not require permission to enter for Turnover, however a SM who is not part of the On-Shift Crew or On-Coming Crew must still obtain permission to enter.
D. Correct - The Security department personnel do not require permission to enter the Control Room at any time, however to enter the At The Controls Area, the CRS/SM must grant permission to enter for all Security Personnel.
Technical Reference(s :2'3==2SHUDWLRQ'HSDUWPHQW&RGHRIFRQGXFW5HY
References to be provided to applicants during examination:1RQH
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10 CFR Part 55 Content:
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level SRO Rev 1
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Question #96
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Answer: B
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A. Incorrect - Wrong person for approval B. Correct as explained above C. Incorrect - Wrong level and approval person D. Incorrect - Wrong level Technical Reference(s :
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References to be provided to applicants during examination:1RQH
Learning Objective:1RQH
Question Source: %DQNBBBBBB
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Question History:/DVW15&([DPBBBB1$BBBBBBBB
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10 CFR Part 55 Content:
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level SRO Rev 1
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Importance Rating
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Question #97
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1 "B" also correct per post-exam Answer: C comments and analysis
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A. Incorrect B. Incorrect C. Correct See explanation above D. Incorrect.
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Importance Rating
Ability to approve release permits.
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Answer: D
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A. Incorrect as both (1) and (2) are incorrect
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B. Incorrect as the flow minimum is wrong C. Incorrect as the approval authority is wrong D. Correct Technical Reference(s :
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Question Cognitive Level:
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Examination Outline Cross-reference: Level SRO Rev 1
Tier #
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Importance Rating
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Question #99
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Answer: A
Explanation: The 15 minute time requirement specified in the Fire and Explosion EAL starts at the alarm or other indication of a fire and the clock stops when the alarm is verified to be spurious or the fire is verified out.
A. Correct B. Incorrect - The fire causing spurious operation of safety related equipment results in an ALERT declaration.
C. Incorrect - This condition would result in an ALERT declaration D. Incorrect - 15 minute time is allowed to extinguish the fire prior to making the declaration.
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10 CFR Part 55 Content:
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Question #100
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Answer: B
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Question Cognitive Level:
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10 CFR Part 55 Content:
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Comments:
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10 CFR Part 55 Content:
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Comments: