ML083260056
| ML083260056 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | 05000083 (R-056) |
| Issue date: | 11/21/2008 |
| From: | Johnny Eads Research and Test Reactors Branch B |
| To: | Haghighat A Univ of Florida |
| Isaac P, NRC/NRR/DPR/PRTB, 301-415-1019 | |
| Shared Package | |
| ML082820040 | List: |
| References | |
| 50-83/OL-09-01 50-83/OL-09-01 | |
| Download: ML083260056 (30) | |
Text
November 21, 2008 Alireza Haghighat, PhD Professor and Chair Interim Director of UFTR Nuclear & Radiological Engineering Department 202 Nuclear Sciences Building University of Florida Gainesville, FL 32611
SUBJECT:
INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-83/OL-09-01, UNIVERSITY OF FLORIDA
Dear Dr. Haghighat:
During the week of October 27, 2008, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered operator licensing examination at your University of Florida reactor. The examination was conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2, published in June 2007. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed at the conclusion of the examination with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report.
In accordance with Title 10, Section 2.390 of the Code of Federal Regulations, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html (the Public Electronic Reading Room). The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. If you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Patrick Isaac at 301-415-1019 or via email at patrick.isaac@nrc.gov.
Sincerely,
/RA TBlount for/
Johnny Eads, Chief Research and Test Reactors Branch B Division of Policy and Rulemaking Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No. 50-83
Enclosures:
- 1. Examination Report No. 50-83/OL-09-01
- 2. Written Examination cc w/enclosures: Mr. Brian Shea, University of Florida
November 21, 2008 Alireza Haghighat, PhD Professor and Chair Interim Director of UFTR Nuclear & Radiological Engineering Department 202 Nuclear Sciences Building University of Florida Gainesville, FL 32611
SUBJECT:
INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-83/OL-09-01, UNIVERSITY OF FLORIDA
Dear Dr. Haghighat:
During the week of October 27, 2008, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered operator licensing examination at your University of Florida reactor. The examination was conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2, published in June 2007. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed at the conclusion of the examination with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report.
In accordance with Title 10, Section 2.390 of the Code of Federal Regulations, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html (the Public Electronic Reading Room). The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. If you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Patrick Isaac at 301-415-1019 or via email at patrick.isaac@nrc.gov.
Sincerely,
/RA TBlount for/
Johnny Eads, Chief Research and Test Reactors Branch B Division of Policy and Rulemaking Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No. 50-83
Enclosures:
- 1. Examination Report No. 50-83/OL-09-01
- 2. Written Examination cc w/enclosures: Mr. Brian Shea, University of Florida DISTRIBUTION w/ encls:
PUBLIC PRTB r/f JEads Facility File CHart (O12-D19)
ADAMS ACCESSION #: ML083260056 OFFICE PRTB:CE IOLB:LA PRTB:BC NAME PIsaac pi CRevelle crr TBlount for JEads DATE 11/21/08 11/21/08 11/21/08 OFFICIAL RECORD COPY
University of Florida Docket No. 50-83 cc:
Administrator Department of Environmental Regulation Power Plant of Siting Section State of Florida 2600 Blair Stone Road Tallahassee, FL 32301 State Planning and Development Clearinghouse Office of Planning and Budgeting Executive Office of the Governor The Capitol Building Tallahassee, FL 32301 William Passetti, Chief Bureau of Radiation Control Department of Health 4052 Bald Cypress Way Tallahassee, FL 32399-1741 Test, Research and Training Reactor Newsletter Director of Nuclear Facilities University of Florida 202 Nuclear Science Building Gainesville, FL 32611-8300
ENCLOSURE 1 EXAMINATION REPORT NO:
50-83/OL-09-01 FACILITY:
UNIVERSITY OF FLORIDA FACILITY DOCKET NO.:
50-83 FACILITY LICENSE NO.:
R-56 SUBMITTED BY:
_____/RA/________________
11/19/08 Patrick J. Isaac, Chief Examiner Date
SUMMARY
During the week of October 27, 2008, the NRC administered operator licensing examinations to one Reactor Operator (RO) and one Senior Reactor Operator (SRO) candidate. Both candidates passed the examinations.
REPORT DETAILS
- 1.
Examiner: Patrick J. Isaac, Chief Examiner
- 2.
Results:
RO PASS/FAIL SRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAIL Written 1/0 1/0 2/0 Operating Tests 1/0 1/0 2/0 Overall 1/0 1/0 2/0
- 3.
Exit Meeting:
Brian Shea, Reactor Manager, UFTR William Vernetson, UFTR Patrick Isaac, NRC, Examiner The UFTR staff requested and the NRC Examiner agreed to make the following changes to the written examination:
Question B.12 - Accept answers b and d as correct Question C.13 - Change the correct answer from c to a The NRC Examiner thanked the facility for their support in the administration of the examinations.
ENCLOSURE 2 U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER INITIAL REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY:
University of Florida REACTOR TYPE:
Argonaut DATE ADMINISTERED:
October 30, 2008 CANDIDATE:
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:
Answers are to be written on the answer sheet provided. Attach the answer sheets to the examination. Points for each question are indicated in parentheses for each question. A 70%
in each section is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.
% OF CATEGORY % OF CANDIDATE'S CATEGORY VALUE TOTAL SCORE VALUE CATEGORY 20.00 36.4 A. REACTOR THEORY, THERMODYNAMICS AND FACILITY OPERATING CHARACTERISTICS 20.00 36.4 B. NORMAL AND EMERGENCY OPERATING PROCEDURES AND RADIOLOGICAL CONTROLS 15.00 27.3 C. FACILITY AND RADIATION MONITORING SYSTEMS 55.00 %
TOTALS FINAL GRADE All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.
Candidate's Signature
Section A Theory & Fac. Operating Characteristics A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)
If you change your answer, write your selection in the blank.
MULTIPLE CHOICE 001 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___
002 a b c d ___
003 a b c d ___
004 a b c d ___
005 a b c d ___
006 a b c d ___
007 a b c d ___
008 a b c d ___
009 a b c d ___
010 a b c d ___
011 a b c d ___
012 a b c d ___
013 a b c d ___
014 a b c d ___
015 a b c d ___
016 a b c d ___
017 a b c d ___
018 a b c d ___
019 a b c d ___
(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)
B. NORMAL/EMERG PROCEDURES & RAD CON A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)
If you change your answer, write your selection in the blank.
001 a b c d ___
002 a b c d ___
003 a b c d ___
004 a b c d ___
005 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___
006 a ___ b ___ c ___ d ___
007 a b c d ___
008 a b c d ___
009 a b c d ___
010 1 ___ 2 ___ 3 ___ 4 ___
011 a b c d ___
012 a b c d ___
013 a b c d ___
014 a b c d ___
015 a b c d ___
016 a b c d ___
017 a b c d ___
(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)
C. PLANT AND RAD MONITORING SYSTEMS A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)
If you change your answer, write your selection in the blank.
001 a b c d ___
002 a b c d ___
003 a b c d ___
004 a b c d ___
005 a b c d ___
006 a b c d ___
007 a b c d ___
008 a b c d ___
009 a b c d ___
010 a b c d ___
011 a b c d ___
012 a b c d ___
013 a b c d ___
014 a b c d ___
015 a b c d ___
(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)
(********** END OF EXAMINATION **********)
NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:
- 1.
Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.
- 2.
After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.
- 3.
Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.
- 4.
Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.
- 5.
Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each answer sheet.
- 6.
Mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.
- 7.
The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.
- 8.
If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.
- 9.
When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.
- 10.
Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your answer is on your answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.
- 11.
To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.
- 12.
There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.
EQUATION SHEET
( - )2 Q = m cp T Pmax = 2(k)
Q = m h SCR = S/(1-Keff)
Q = UA T CR1 (1-Keff)1 = CR2 (1-Keff)2 26.06 (eff)
(1-Keff)0 SUR =
M =
( - )
(1-Keff)1 SUR = 26.06/
M = 1/(1-Keff) = CR1/CR0 P = P0 10SUR(t)
SDM = (1-Keff)/Keff P = P0 e(t/)
Pwr = Wf m (1-)
P = Po
- = 1 x 10-5 seconds
= (*/) + [(-)/eff]
= */(-)
= (Keff-1)/Keff eff = 0.1 seconds-1
Keff/Keff 0.693 T1/2
= 0.0070 DR1D1 2 = DR2D2 2
DR = DRoe-t 6CiE(n)
DR =
DR R/hr, Ci Curies, E Mev, R feet R2 1 Curie = 3.7x1010 dps 1 kg = 2.21 lbm 1 hp = 2.54x103 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41x106 BTU/hr 1 BTU = 778 ft-lbf F = 9/5C + 32 1 gal H2O 8 lbm C = 5/9 ( F - 32)
Section A: Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics Page 11 QUESTION A.1 [2.0 points, 0.5 each]
Match each term in column A with the correct definition in column B.
Column A Column B
- a. Prompt Neutron
- 1. a neutron in equilibrium with its surroundings.
- b. Fast Neutron
- 2. a neutron born directly from fission.
- c. Thermal Neutron
- 3. a neutron born due to decay of a fission product.
- d. Delayed Neutron
- 4. a neutron at an energy level greater than its surroundings.
QUESTION A.2 [1.0 point]
You enter the control room and note that all nuclear instrumentation show a steady neutron level, and no rods are in motion. Which one of the following conditions CANNOT be true?
- a. The reactor is critical.
- b. The reactor is subcritical.
- c. The reactor is supercritical.
- d. The neutron source has been removed from the core.
QUESTION A.3 [1.0 point]
Which one of the following describes the MAJOR contributor to the production and depletion of Xenon respectively in a STEADY-STATE OPERATING reactor?
Production Depletion
- a. Radioactive decay of Iodine Radioactive Decay
- b. Radioactive decay of Iodine Neutron Absorption
- c. Directly from fission Radioactive Decay
- d. Directly from fission Neutron Absorption QUESTION A.4 [1.0 point]
Which factor of the Six Factor formula is most easily varied by the reactor operator?
- a. Thermal Utilization Factor (f)
- b. Reproduction Factor (0)
- c. Fast Fission Factor (,)
- d. Fast Non-Leakage Factor (Lf)
Section A: Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics Page 12 QUESTION A.5 [1.0 point]
Which of the following does NOT affect the Effective Multiplication Factor (Keff)?
- a. The moderator-to-fuel ratio.
- b. The physical dimensions of the core.
- c. The strength of installed neutron sources.
- d. The current time in core life.
QUESTION A.6 [1.0 point]
You perform two initial startups a week apart. Each of the startups has the same starting conditions, (core burnup, pool and fuel temperature, and count rate are the same). The only difference between the two startups is that during the SECOND one you stop for 10 minutes to answer the phone while the reactor is still subcritical. For the second startup, compare the critical rod height and count rate to the first startup.
Rod Height Count Rate
- a.
Higher Same
- b.
Lower Same
- c.
Same Lower
- d.
Same Higher QUESTION A.7 [1.0 point]
Reactor power decreases on a stable negative period after a reactor scram, following an initial prompt drop. Which ONE (1) of the following is the reason for this?
- a. This rate of power change is dependent on the MEAN lifetime of the longest lived delayed neutron precursor.
- b. This rate of power change is dependent on the MEAN lifetime of the shortest lived delayed neutron precursor.
- c. All prompt neutrons decay during the prompt drop, and the subsequent rate of power change is dependent ONLY on the half-life of the longest lived prompt gamma emitter.
- d. This rate of power change is dependent on the CONSTANT decay rate of prompt neutrons following a scram.
Section A: Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics Page 13 QUESTION A.8 [1.0 point]
Which one of the following atoms will cause a neutron to lose the most energy in an elastic collision?
- a. Uranium238
- b. Carbon12
- c. Hydrogen2
- d. Hydrogen1 QUESTION A.9 [1.0 point]
Keff for the reactor is 0.98. If you place an experiment worth +$1.00 into the core, what will the new Keff be?
- a. 0.982
- b. 0.987
- c. 1.013
- d. 1.018 QUESTION A.10
[1.0 point]
About two minutes following a reactor scram, period has stabilized, and is decreasing at a CONSTANT rate. If reactor power is 10-5 % full power what will the power be in three minutes.
- a. 5 H 10-6 % full power
- b. 2 H 10-6 % full power
- c. 10-6 % full power
- d. 5 H 10-7 % full power
Section A: Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics Page 14 QUESTION A.11
[1.0 point]
A reactor contains three safety blades and a regulating blade. Which one of the following would result in a determination of the excess reactivity of this reactor?
- a. The reactor is critical at a low power level, with all safety blades full out and the regulating blade at some position. The reactivity remaining in the regulating blade (i.e. its worth from its present position to full out) is the excess reactivity.
- b. The reactor is shutdown. Two safety blades are withdrawn until the reactor becomes critical. The total blade worth withdrawn is the excess reactivity.
- c. The reactor is at full power. The total worth of all blades withdrawn is the excess reactivity.
- d. The reactor is at full power. The total worth remaining in all the safety blades and the regulating blade (i.e. their worth from their present positions to full out) is the excess reactivity.
QUESTION A.12
[1.0 point]
INELASTIC SCATTERING is the process by which a neutron collides with a nucleus and
- a. recoils with the same kinetic energy it had prior to the collision.
- b. is absorbed, with the nucleus emitting a gamma ray, and the neutron with a lower kinetic energy.
- c. is absorbed, with the nucleus emitting a gamma ray.
- d. recoils with a higher kinetic energy than it had prior to the collision with the nucleus emitting a gamma ray.
QUESTION A.13
[1.0 point]
For most materials the neutron microscopic cross-section for absorption Fa generally
- a. increases as neutron energy increases
- b. decreases as neutron energy increases
- c. increases as target nucleus mass increases
- d. decreases as target nucleus mass increases
Section A: Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics Page 15 QUESTION A.14
[1.0 point]
Which one of the following conditions would INCREASE the shutdown margin of a reactor?
- a. Inserting an experiment adding positive reactivity.
- b. Lowering moderator temperature if the moderator temperature coefficient is negative.
- c. Depletion of a burnable poison.
- d. Depletion of uranium fuel.
QUESTION A.15
[1.0 point]
Which one of the following is the MAJOR source of energy released during fission?
- a. Kinetic energy of the fission neutrons.
- b. Kinetic energy of the fission fragments.
- c. Decay of the fission fragments.
- d. Prompt gamma rays.
QUESTION A.16
[1.0 point]
As primary coolant temperature increases, rod worth:
- a. increases due to higher reflector efficiency.
- b. decreases due to higher neutron absorption in the moderator.
- c. increases due to the increase in thermal diffusion length.
- d. remains the same due to constant poison cross-section of the control rods.
QUESTION A.17
[1.0 point]
The term PROMPT JUMP refers to
- a. the instantaneous change in power due to withdrawal of a control rod.
- b. a reactor which has attained criticality on prompt neutrons alone.
- c. a reactor which is critical on both prompt and delayed neutrons.
- d. a negative reactivity insertion which is less than $eff.
Section A: Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics Page 16 QUESTION A.18
[1.0 point]
Which one of the following factors has the LEAST effect on Keff?
- a. Fuel burnup.
- b. Increase in moderator temperature.
- c. Increase in fuel temperature.
QUESTION A.19
[1.0 point]
Which one of the following is the correct reason that delayed neutrons enhance control of the reactor?
- a. There are more delayed neutrons than prompt neutrons.
- b. Delayed neutrons increase the average neutron generation time.
- c. Delayed neutrons are born at higher energies than prompt neutrons and therefore have a greater effect.
- d. Delayed neutrons take longer to reach thermal equilibrium.
Section B: Normal/Emerg. Procedures & Rad Con Page 17 Question B.1 [1.0 point]
In order to ensure the health and safety of the public, in an emergency, 10CFR50 allows the operator to deviate from Technical Specifications. What is the minimum level of authorization needed to deviate from Tech. Specs?
- a. USNRC
- b. Reactor Supervisor
- c. Licensed Senior Reactor Operator.
- d. Licensed Reactor Operator.
Question B.2 [1.0 point]
Power level at any flow rate shall not exceed 119 kw This is an example of a:
- a. safety limit.
- b. limiting safety system setting.
- c. limiting condition for operation.
- d. surveillance requirement.
Question B.3 [1.0 point]
Which one of the following statements defines the Technical Specifications term "Channel Test?"
- a. The adjustment of a channel such that its output corresponds with acceptable accuracy to known values of the parameter which the channel measures
- b. The qualitative verification of acceptable performance by observation of channel behavior
- c. The introduction of a signal into a channel for verification of the operability of the channel
- d. The combination of sensors, electronic circuits and output devices connected to measure and display the value of a parameter
Section B: Normal/Emerg. Procedures & Rad Con Page 18 Question B.4 [1.0 point]
The UFTR technical specification requiring that the reactor vent system be operated until the stack monitor indicates less than 10 cps is based on:
- a. Maintaining a negative cell pressure.
- b. Eliminating N-16 high energy gammas.
- c. Maintaining an exhaust flow rate of 10,000 cfm.
- d. Ar-41 build-up.
Question B.5 [2.0 points, 0.4 each]
Match the letter of the power level on the right with the action on the left. (NOTE: Some power levels may be used more than once or not at all.)
- a. Neutron source required
- 1.
400 cps
- 2.
200 cps
- b. Equipment pit must be closed
- 3.
10 cps
- 4.
<2 cps
- c. PuBe source shall be removed
- 5.
>1 watt
- 6.
10 watts
- d. Extended range out
- 7.
1 kW
- 8. 10 kW
- e. Automatic control is first allowed Question B.6 [2.0 points, 0.5 each]
Match the radiation reading from column A with its corresponding radiation area classification (per 10 CFR 20) listed in column B.
COLUMN A COLUMN B
- a. 10 mRem/hr
- 1. Unrestricted Area
- b. 150 mRem/hr
- 2. Radiation Area
- c. 10 Rem/hr
- d. 550 Rem/hr
- 4. Very High Radiation Area
Section B: Normal/Emerg. Procedures & Rad Con Page 19 Question B.7 [1.0 point]
A radioactive source generates a dose of 100 mr/hr at 10 feet. Using a two inch thick sheet of lead for shielding the reading drops to 50 mr/hr at 10 feet. What is the minimum number of sheets of the same lead shielding needed to drop the reading to less than 5 mr/hr at a distance of 10 ft?
- a. 1
- b. 3
- c. 5
- d. 7 Question B.8 [1.0 point]
Which one of the following is the 10 CFR 20 definition of TOTAL EFFECTIVE DOSE EQUIVALENT (TEDE)?
- a. The sum of the deep dose equivalent and the committed effective dose equivalent.
- b. The dose that your whole body receives from sources outside the body.
- c. The sum of the external deep dose and the organ dose.
- d. The dose to a specific organ or tissue resulting from an intake of radioactive material Question B.9 [1.0 point]
A room contains a source which, when exposed, results in a general area dose rate of 175 mr/hr. This source is scheduled to be exposed continuously for 25 days. Select an acceptable method for controlling radiation exposure from the source within this room.
- a. Post the area with words Danger-Radiation Area.
- b. Equip the room with a device to visually display the current dose rate within the room.
- c. Equip the room with a motion detector that will alarm in the control room.
- d. Lock the room to prevent inadvertent entry into the room.
Section B: Normal/Emerg. Procedures & Rad Con Page 20 Question B.10
[2.0 points, 0.5 each]
Match the requirements (10 CFR 55) for maintaining an active operator license in column A with the correct time period from column B. (NOTE: Some time frame may be used more than once or not at all.)
Column A Column B
- 1. Renewal of license
- a. 4 months
- 2. Medical examination
- b. 1 year
- 3. Console manipulation evaluation
- c. 2 years
- 4. Requalification exam (written)
- d. 6 years Question B.11
[1.0 point]
Which one of the following statements describes a reactivity limitation imposed on experiments?
- a. The reactivity worth of a nonsecured experiment shall not exceed 0.4% delta-K/K.
- b. An experiment which will not cause a positive 20-sec period can be inserted in the core when the reactor is at power.
- c. When determining the absolute reactivity worth of an experiment, the reactivity effects associated with the moderator temperature is to be considered.
- d. No experiment shall be inserted or removed unless all control blades are fully inserted.
Question B.12
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following is an abnormal occurrence?
- a. During a fuel inspection, a deep scratch is noted on a fuel plate with swipes taken and a spectrum analysis showing no significant presence of fission products.
- b. During the quarterly calibration check, the reactor manager discovers that the limiting safety system setting on the primary coolant flow rate had been set to 34 gpm during the previous quarterly check.
- c. A small graphite matrix is inserted into the CVP on a string and is suspended 2 feet above the core centerline. The string breaks dropping the sample into the core and putting the reactor on a 120 second positive period for which the operator immediately compensates.
- d. While performing a four hour irradiation, the RO notices that the NORTH and EAST area monitors are no longer operating. He decides to complete the final 10 minutes of the irradiation with an extra ion chamber set up monitoring radiation levels. The reactor is then promptly shut down and secured.
Section B: Normal/Emerg. Procedures & Rad Con Page 21 Question B.13
[1.0 point]
The reactor vent system must be IMMEDIATELY secured if:
- a. the stack monitor indicates less than 10 counts per second.
- b. the stack monitor recorder is inoperable.
- c. air flow is less than 400 cfm.
- d. the absolute filter is dirty.
Question B.14
[1.0 point]
Which one of the following does NOT require NRC approval for changes?
- a. Facility License
- b. Requalification plan
- c. Emergency Implementation Procedures
- d. Emergency Plan Question B.15
[1.0 point]
In the event of an emergency evacuation without securing the reactor and reentry not allowed, which one of the following breakers on the main AC distribution panel in the northwest corner of the radiochemistry laboratory may be used to trip the reactor?
- a. Breaker No. 1
- b. Breaker No. 7
- c. Breaker No. 9
- d. Breaker No. 22
Section B: Normal/Emerg. Procedures & Rad Con Page 22 Question B.16
[1.0 point]
The Emergency Planning Zone (EPZ) for the UFTR is established at the...
- a. Site Boundary
- b. Operations Boundary
- c. UF Campus
- d. Room 108 NSC Question B.17
[1.0 point]
It is April 1, 2008. You have stood watch for the following hours during the last quarter:
Jan. 11, 2008 0.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> Feb. 24, 2008 1.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> Mar. 16, 2008 1.0 hours0 days <br />0 hours <br />0 weeks <br />0 months <br /> What requirements must you meet in order to stand an RO watch today?
- a. None. You've met the minimum requirements of 10 CFR 55.
- b. You must perform 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br /> of shift functions under the direction of a licensed operator or licensed senior operator as appropriate.
- c. You must perform 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br /> of shift functions under the direction of a licensed operator or licensed senior operator as appropriate.
- d. You must submit a new application form to the NRC requesting a waiver to reactivate your license.
(*** End of Section B ***)
Section C Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 23 QUESTION C.1 [1.0 point]
Match the means of gamma discrimination of the detector signal for each detector.
- a. Fission Chamber and B-10 Detector (WR)
- 1. Intrinsic
- 2. Pulse Height Discrimination
- b. Fission Chamber in Ion Chamber Mode (WR)
- 3. Active Gamma Compensation
- 4. None
- c. Fission Chamber in Campbelling Mode (WR)
- 5. Photo ionization
- d. Compensated Ion Chamber QUESTION C.2 [1.0 point]
Which one of the following is NOT an input signal to the Auto Flux Controller?
- a. Setpoint.
- b. Period.
- c. Power level.
- d. Regulating Blade position.
QUESTION C.3 [1.0 point]
Which one of the following is NOT a purpose of the shield tank?
- a. Source of demineralized water for the primary system.
- b. Heat sink for experiments.
- c. Shielding.
- d. Irradiation location.
QUESTION C.4 [1.0 point]
Which one of the following is automatically secured upon initiation of the evacuation siren?
- a. Stack dilute fan.
- b. Primary coolant pump.
- c. AMS4 air particulate detector.
- d. AIM 3BL air particulate detector.
Section C Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 24 QUESTION C.5 [1.0 point]
The reactor is at 10 KW when the rupture disc accidentally ruptures. Which one of the following conditions will first cause a reactor trip? (Assume no operator actions)
- a. Reduction of primary coolant level
- b. PC pump off
- c. Reduction of primary coolant flow (fill line)
- d. High temperature primary coolant return from the reactor.
QUESTION C.6 [1.0 point]
Which of the following will cause a FULL Trip?
- a. Manual scram bar trip.
- b. Loss of power to control console.
- c. Core water level less than 42.5 inches.
- d. Loss of power to the ventilation system.
QUESTION (C.7)
[1.0]
Which ONE of the following does NOT open the Dump valve?
- a. console key to off with one control blade at 150 units.
- b. loss of power to the dump valve.
- c. nuclear instrumentation trip with 2 control blades fully out.
- d. loss of high voltage power supply 2 when at full power.
QUESTION (C.8)
[1.0]
Which of the following is the most accurate neutron instrumentation channel for reactor control?
- a. Safety Channel 1
- b. Safety Channel 2
- c. Wide range logarithmic
- d. Linear Channel
Section C Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 25 QUESTION (C.9)
[1.0]
Which of the following reactor control system features will remain functional while the Regulating Blade is being operated by the Auto Flux Control System?
- a. Multiple safety blade interlock.
- b. Ten second period interlock.
- c. Regulating blade up drive limit switch.
- d. Regulating blade down drive control.
QUESTION (C.10)
[1.0]
Select the secondary coolant flow that must be maintained from the well system or the city water system when the reactor is greater than 1 kW.
Well system City Water system
- a. 8 gpm 60 gpm
- b. 18 gpm 30 gpm
- c. 30 gpm 18 gpm
- d. 60 gpm 8 gpm QUESTION (C.11)
[1.0]
The reactor is in the Automatic Flux Control Mode and reactor power is 100 kW. If all four control blade switches are pushed simultaneously to shut down the reactor, which of the following will be the result?
- a. Three safety blades do NOT move, the regulating blade inserts.
- b. Three safety blades insert, the regulating blade does NOT move.
- c. Three safety blades insert, the regulating blade withdraws.
- d. All control blades insert.
Section C Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 26 QUESTION C.12 [1.0 point]
Which feature of the primary coolant system helps eliminate air entrapment in the coolant?
- a. Coolant storage tank vent line.
- b. Aluminum bucket baffle.
- c. Fuel boxes vent line vacuum breaker.
- d. Primary coolant pump bleed valve.
Question C.13
[1.0 point]
All liquid waste from the UFTR is pumped or drained directly into the:
- a. hold-up tanks
- b. deep rock well
- c. reactor sink
- d. city sewage system Question C.14
[1.0 point]
Pick the right combination that will fill in the blanks.
The UFTR control Blades are housed in a shroud made of ____________, are constructed of
____________ and contains ____________ for the neutron absorber material.
Section C Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 27 Question C.15
[1.0 point]
Which ONE of the following statements is FALSE
- a. Safety Channel 2 produces a blade motion inhibit interlock for blade in manual control when CALIBRATE switch is out of normal.
- b. Safety Channel 2 produces a blade motion inhibit interlock for blade in manual control when TRIP TEST switch is out of normal.
- c. The multiple blade interlock is not in effect for the regulating blade when reactor power level control is in automatic.
- d. In manual operation, a period of 10 second or faster produces a blade removal inhibit interlock.
(*** End of Examination ***)
Section A: Theory, Thermo & Fac. Operating Characteristics Page 28 A.1 a, 2; b, 4; c, 1; d, 3 REF: Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, § 2.5, p. 2-36.
A.2 c
REF: Standard NRC question A.3 b
REF: Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, §§ 8.1 - 8.4, pp. 8-3 8-14.
A.4 a
REF: Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, § 3.2, pp. 3-13 3-18.
A.5 c
REF: Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, § 3.3.4, p. 3-21.
A.6 d
REF: Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, § 5.7, pp. 5-28 5-38.
A.7 a
REF: Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, § 4.7, p. 4-21.
A.8 d
REF: Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, § 2.5.3 p. 2-45.
A.9 b
REF: SDM = (1-keff)/keff = (1-0.98)/0.98 = 0.02041 or 0.02041/.0075 = $2.72. Adding +$1.00 new SDM
= $2.72 - $1.00 = $1.72, or.0129081 )K/K Keff = 1/(1+SDM) = 1/(1 + 0.0129081) = 0.987 A.10 c
REF: P = P0 e-T/J = 10-5 H e(-180sec/80sec) = 10-5 H e-2.25 = 0.1054 H 10-5 = 1.054 H 10-6 A.11 a
REF: Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, §§ 6.2.1, pp. 6-2.
A.12 b
REF: Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, § 2.4.5 p. 2-28.
A.13 b
REF: Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, § 2.5.1 p. 2-36.
A.14 d
REF: Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, § 6.2.3, p. 6-4.
A.15 b
REF: Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, § 3.2.1, p. 3-4.
A.16 c
REF: Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, § 3.3.2, p. 3-18 A.17 a
REF: Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1988, § 4.7, p. 4-21 A.18 c
REF: Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, § 3.3.2, p. 3-18.
A.19 b
REF: Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, § 3.2.4, p. 3-12.
Section B Normal/Emerg. Procedures & Rad Con Page 29 B.1 c
REF: 10CFR50.54(y)
B.2 b
REF: TS 2.2 B.3 c
REF: TS 1.0 B.4 d
REF: TS 3.3 B.5 a - 4; b - 8; c - 7; d - 1; e - 5 REF: UFTR Standard Operating Procedures - Q & A Bank, Question 93 B.6 a - 2; b - 3; c - 3; d - 4 REF: 10 CFR 20.1003, Definitions B.7 c
REF: Two inches = one-half thickness (T1/2). Using 5 half-thickness will drop the dose by a factor of (1/2)5 = 1/32 100/32 = 3.13 B.8 a
REF: 10 CFR 20.1003 Definitions B.9 d
REF: 10 CFR 20.1601 B.10 1 d 2 c 3 b 4 c REF: 10CFR55 B.11 b
REF: T.S. 3.5.3 B.12 b, d REF: UFTR Requal Exam B.13 b
REF: UFTR TS 3.3.1.(1) and pg 11, 3.4.2. table 3.3 B.14 c
REF: 10 CFR 50.54 q; 10 CFR 50.59; 10 CFR 55.59 B.15 c
REF: UFTR Standard Operating Procedures - Q & A Bank, Question 213 B.16 b
REF: Emergency Plan B.17 c
REF: 10CFR55.53(e) & (f)
Section C: Plant and Rad Monitoring Systems Page 30 C.1 a - 2; b - 3; c - 1; d - 3 REF FSAR Nuclear Instrumentations C.2 d
REF FSAR Nuclear Instrumentations and Controls C.3 a
REF SOP-E.3 C.4 a
REF SOP-A.1 C.5 a
REF Training Material on UFTR Design & Operating Characteristics, Fig, 5.1 C.6 b
REF: UFTR specifications for reactor safety system trips. TS table 3.1 C.7 a
REF: UFTR SAR C.8 d
REF: TS 9. 3.2.4. Bases C.9 a
REF: Requal exam bank I & C pg 7, ques 27 & 29, Fig 1-5 & 7-1 C.10 d
REF: UFTR I&C Lecture notes, pg 3, TS LSSS C.11 c
REF: UFTR I&C requal exam ques # 15, C.12 b
REF: UFTR SAR 5.1.1 C.13 a
REF: UFTR SAR 11.2 C.14 b
REF: UFTR SAR C.15 b
REF: UFTR SAR
(***** End of Examination *****)