ML17172A701

Section 2 - North Anna 2016301 RO Written Draft - Delay Release 2 Years

ML17172A701
Person / Time
Site:	North Anna
Issue date:	06/21/2017
From:	NRC/RGN-II
To:	Virginia Electric & Power Co (VEPCO)
References
Download: ML17172A701 (165)

Text

01 - 007EA2.06 001/RO/T1/G1/4.3/4.5/NEW/SAMPLE QUESTION/

Given the following conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100% power

• A unit trip occured

• Safety Injection is not required Which ONE of the following completes both statements in accordance with 1-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip Response, step 8?

VERIFY ALL IRPIs - ___(1)___ STEPS OR LESS And If the answer to step 8 is NO, THEN the RNO will require the operator to ___(2)___.

A. (1) 10 (2) open the rod drive MG set ouput breakers B. (1) 12 (2) open the rod drive MG set ouput breakers C. (1) 10 (2) emergency borate D. (1) 12 (2) emergency borate Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect - The first part is correct. The procedure action is to verify all IRPIs are less then 10 steps. The second part is incorrect but plausible because this would cause a reactor trip if one did not occur as required.

B. Incorrect - The first part is incorrect but is plausible because the Technical Specifications require IRPIs to be within 12 steps of group step counters. The second part is incorrect but plausible because this would cause a reactor trip if one did not occur as required.

C. Correct - The first part is correct. The procedure action is to verify all IRPIs are less then 10 steps. The second part is correct. Emergency boration is required to ensure adequate shutdown margin.

D. Incorrect - The first part is incorrect but is plausible because the Technical Specifications require IRPIs to be within 12 steps of group step counters. The second part is correct. Emergency boration is required to ensure adequate shutdown margin.

Page 1 of 165

K/A:

007EA2.06 - Ability to determine or interpret the following as they apply to a reactor trip:

Occurrence of a reactor trip Technical

References:

1-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip Response References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

U12481 - Explain the following concepts concerning verifying that all control rods are fully inserted in 1-ES-0.0: Condition requiring emergency boration Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:55.41.b.7 Comments:

Page 2 of 165

02 - 008AK1.01 001/RO/T1/G1/3.2/3.7/BANK/SAMLE QUESTION/

Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a Reactor Trip occurs and the following conditions exist:

• 2-RC-SV-2551B, B Przr Safety, has failed open.

• Pressurizer pressure is 1020 psig.

• PRT pressure rises to 55 psig.

• Core Exit Thermocouples read 560°F.

Which one of the following completes the statements below?

2-RC-TI-2467, B Przr Safety Valve Line Temperature, will indicate approximately

___(1)___.

and 2-RC-LI-2459, Pressurizer Level Channel I, indication will be ___ (2)___.

A. (1) 546° (2) rising B. (1) 546° (2) lowering C. (1) 320° (2) lowering D. (1) 320° (2) rising Page 3 of 165

WOG Executive Guideline - During situations where a steam vent path is established from the pressurizer vapor space and where RCS subcooling is not indicated, pressurizer level may not be a true indication of RCS inventory. This can result from steam generated in the reactor vessel, passing through the pressurizer surge line and preventing the water inventory of the pressurizer from draining into the RCS loops. This holdup of water can result in a stable or even increasing indicated pressurizer level while RCS water inventory is actually decreasing. Pressurizer level should be relied on only with hot leg or core exit subcooling present. In SI termination steps in the ERGs, pressurizer level is only checked after adequate RCS subcooling is confirmed.

Distracter analysis A. Incorrect. First part is incorrect. Plausible if applicant believes that the temperature of the steam in the Pressurizer is the same temperature as the steam entering the PRT. 546°F is the approximate saturation temperature for 1035 psia. This was the error made at the TMI accident.

Second part is correct.

B. Incorrect. First part is incorrect (See above).

Second part is incorrect. This is initially true but in the scenario given, subcooling is lost in the core and a bubble is formed in the vessel upper head. This will result in the Pzr level rising instead of lowering as one would expect. Plausible since during a LOCA event the normal response is that Pzr level decreases.

C. Incorrect. First part is correct.

Second part is incorrect (See above).

D. Correct. First part is correct. Using the steam tables and the following pressures:

1020 psig + 15 = 1035 psia (RCS) 55 psig + 15 = 70 psia (PRT) ~320°F Second part is correct. Since the break is at the top of the pressurizer, the pressurizer level will be rising. This scenario was run on the desktop simulator. Pressurizer level was rising at 1020 psig.

Page 4 of 165

K/A:

008AK1.01 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to a Pressurizer Vapor Space Accident: Thermodynamics and flow characteristics of open or leaking valves Technical

References:

WOG Executive Backgrounds Steam Table References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

Objective 3507: Explain the following concepts with pressurizer Power oerated relief valves and safety valves Objective 14373: Describe the Three Mile Island accident including the following events and their consequences Question Source:

Farley 2013 NRC Exam Question History:

Farley 2013 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehensive 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

Comments:

Page 5 of 165

03 - 009EG2.4.21 001/RO/T1/G1/4.0/4.6/BANK//

Given the following conditions:

• Unit 1 tripped from 100% power

• CETCs indicate 618°F

• RCS pressure is 2,235 psig

• Containment pressure is 22 psia

• RVLIS full range indicates 45%

• RCPs are off Which ONE of the following identifies the appropriate Functional Restoration Procedure in accordance with 1-F-0, Critical Safety Function Status Trees?

A. 1-FR-C.2, Response to Degraded Core Cooling (Orange path)

B. 1-FR-C.1, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling (Orange path)

C. 1-FR-C.1, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling (Red path)

D. Core Cooling Critical Safety Function Satisfactory (Green path)

Distractor analysis:

A. Correct.

B. Incorrect. 1-FR-C.1 does not have an Orange path. Plausible because 1-FR-S.1, 1-FR-P.1 and 1-FR-Z.1 all can be entered as either Orange or Red path. The candidate must know the Orange and Red path entry conditions to determine the correct procedure.

C. Incorrect. This is plausible because with the given information the candidate must determine the status of the RCPs and must know the Orange and Red path entry conditions to determine the correct procedure.

D. Incorrect. This is plausible because with the given information the candidate must determine the status of the RCPs and must know the Orange and Red path entry conditions to determine the correct procedure. If they do not realize that adverse containment conditions exist then this would be the correct answer.

Page 6 of 165

K/A:

009EG2.4.21 Small Break LOCA Knowledge of the parameters and logic used to assess the status of safety functions, such as reactivity control, core cooling and heat removal, reactor coolant system integrity, containment conditions, radioactivity release control, etc.

Technical

References:

WOG ERG background documents 1-F-0 1-FR-C.2 1-FR-C.1 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

11670 List the following information associated with 1-FR-C.1, "Response to Inadequate Core Cooling."

• Purpose of the procedure

• Modes of applicability

• Entry conditions

• Major action categories

• Conditions that result in leaving the procedure 14306 Evaluate a set of plant conditions associated with the FR Procedures in light of the following issues:

• Procedure entry conditions

• Major action categories

• Step bases

• Proper procedure usage Question Source: Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.7/43.5 Comments:

Page 7 of 165

04 - 011EA1.09 001/RO/T1/G1/4.3/4.5/NEW//

Given the following:

• Unit 1 was at 100% power when a LOCA occurred

• 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant, is in progress

• The operating crew is currently performing step 22 - "Check if SI Accumulators should be isolated" Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements?

___(1)___ indication is used to determine if SI Accumulators will be isolated?

AND If the SI accumulator isolation valve cannot be closed then the accumulator will be vented to the ___(2)___.

A. (1) Safety Injection Accumulator Level (2) Process vents B. (1) Safety Injection Accumulator Level (2) Gas Stripper C. (1) RCS Hot leg temperature (2) Process vents D. (1) RCS Hot leg temperature (2) Gas Stripper Page 8 of 165

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but plausible because the reason is to prevent the SI accumulator form blowing down and injecting nitrogen into the RCS and creating a void in the vessel head. The second part is correct.

B. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but plausible because the reason is to prevent the SI accumualator form blowing down and injecting nitrogen into the RCS and creating a void in the vessel head. The second part is incorrect but plausible because other equipment such as the VCT is vented to the gas stripper. It also requires the candidate to know the flow path for venting the SI accumulators and it would be logical to capture anything vented from the containment following a LOCA into the the gas stripper which is then sent to the waste gas decay tanks.

C. Correct.

D. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect but plausible because other equipment such as the VCT is vented to the gas stripper. It also requires the candidate to know the flow path for venting the SI accumulators and it would be logical to capture anything vented from the containment following a LOCA into the the gas stripper which is then sent to the waste gas decay tanks.

K/A:

011EA1.09 Large Break LOCA Ability to operate and monitor the following as they apply to a Large Break LOCA:

Core flood tank initiation Technical

References:

1-E-1 WOG ERG background documants References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

13434 Explain the following concepts as they apply to isolating SI accumulators following a LOCA

• Criteria for isolating accumulators

• Why the accumulators are isolated during post-accident conditions

• Why unisolable accumulators are vented Question Source: New Question History: New Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.7 Comments:

Page 9 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

1. 05 - 022AA2.02 001/RO/T1/G1/3.2/3.7/NEW//

Unit 1 is at 100%

• The "C" charging pump is running powered from the 1J emergency bus (15J7)

• The "A" charging pump (1-CH-P-1A) is in AUTO

• The "B" charging pump (1-CH-P-1B) is in AUTO The "C" charging pump trips due to an electrical fault in the motor Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements?

___(1)___ charging pump(s) will automatically start AND The crew ___(2)___ have to restore letdown.

A. (1) Only B (2) will B. (1) Both A and B (2) will C. (1) Only B (2) will not D. (1) Both A and B (2) will not Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. First part is incorrect but plausible since the B pump is powered from the same bus as the C alternate pump and it could be assumed that only the pump associated with that bus will start. Second part is correct due to all charging pump breakers will be open at the same time..

B. Correct. Both CH pumps will receive an auto start signal and letdown will isolate due to all charging pump breakers being open at the same time before the standby pumps start.

C. Incorrect. First part is incorrect but plausible as noted above. Second part is incorrect but plausible since the examinee must realize that for a short period of time the circuitry will see no CH pumps running which will cause the letdown valves to close.

D. Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is incorrect but plausible since the examinee must realize that for a short period of time the circuitry will see no CH pumps running which will cause the letdown valves to close.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 1 Page 10 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

022AA2.02 Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup:

Charging pump problems Technical

References:

1-AP-49 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

347 List the interlocks associated with the following CH pump actions.

• Automatically starting each pump 320 List the following associated with the letdown orifice isolation valves

• Interlocks associated with the automatic closure of the valves Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.5 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 2 Page 11 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

2. 06 - 025AK1.01 001/RO/T1/G1/3.9/4.3/BANK/NAPS 2008/

Given the following:

• Unit 1 has just entered Mode 4 with cooldown to Mode 5 in progress.

• RHR Pump 1A is in service.

The OATC notes the following:

• RHR Pump 1A motor amps indicate 10 and stable.

• 1-RH-FCV-1605 is in automatic indicates 100% demand.

Which ONE of the following identifies the status of the 1-RH-FCV-1605, RHR Heat Exchanger Bypass Valve AND predicts the trend on Core Exit TCs?

A. 1-RH-FCV-1605 operating as designed; Core Exit TCs rising.

B. 1-RH-FCV-1605 operating as designed; Core Exit TCs lowering.

C. 1-RH-FCV-1605 failed; Core Exit TCs lowering.

D. 1-RH-FCV-1605 failed; Core Exit TCs rising.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 3 Page 12 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal A Correct. As given amps are low but stable indicating a sheared shaft. For low flow 1-RH-FCV-1605 would be expected to open to try and maintain flow. Inadequate flow would cause temperature to increase.

B Incorrect. The value of 10 and stable is indicative of a sheared shaft NOT a pump that is operating normally. For the sheared shaft 1-RH-FCV-1605 would be expected to open to try and maintain flow. Inadequate flow would cause temperature to increase.

Plausible since the candidate may conclude that the reason amps are low is the control valve failed closed (lower overall flow means less load on pump) and also the FCV failure would force more water thru the HCV causing temperature to decrease.

C Incorrect. Normal amps would be around 35, the value of 10 and stable is indicative of a sheared shaft. For the sheared shaft 1-RH-FCV-1605 would be expected to open to try and maintain flow. Inadequate flow would cause temperature to increase.

Plausible since the candidate may conclude that the reason amps are low is the control valve failed closed (lower overall flow means less load on pump) and also the FCV failure would force more water thru the HCV causing temperature to decrease.

D Incorrect. Similar to the above the candidate may conclude that the FCV is the cause of amps being low and may conclude that the lower flow would mean less heat removal resulting in core exit TCs increasing.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 4 Page 13 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

028AK1.01 Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Loss of Residual Heat Removal System:

Loss of RHRS during all modes of operation Technical

References:

AP-11, Pages 2-13 actions References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

U 12006 Given a set of plant conditions, evaluate RHR system operations in light of the following issues:

• Effect of a failure, malfunction, or loss of a related system or component on this system

• Effect of a failure, malfunction, or loss of components in this system on related systems

• Expected plant or system response based on RHR component interlocks or design features

• Impact on the Technical Specifications

• Response if limits or setpoints associated with this system or its components have been exceeded

• Proper operator response to the condition as stated Question Source: BANK Question History: North Anna 2008 RO Exam Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 5 Page 14 of 165

07 - 027AK2.03 001/RO/T1/G1/2.6/2.8/NEW//

Initial conditions:

• Rx heatup is in progress following a refueling outage

• All RCPs are running

• RCS pressure = 1800 psig

• The Przr PORVs and spray valves are in AUTO Current conditions:

• The Pressurizer Master Pressure Controller, 1-RC-PCV-1444J, output fails high Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements?

As a result of the failure, ___(1)___ will open.

AND In accordance with 1-AP-44, Loss of Reactor Coolant System Pressure, if 1-RC-PCV-1455A, A Przr Spray valve, cannot be closed then the first RCP that will be secured is ___(2)___.

A. (1) 1-RC-PCV-1455C and both Przr spray valves (2) 1-RC-P-1A B. (1) Both Przr spray valves only (2) 1-RC-P-1A C. (1) 1-RC-PCV-1455C and both Przr spray valves (2) 1-RC-P-1C D. (1) Both Przr spray valves only (2) 1-RC-P-1C Page 15 of 165

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. First part is incorrect. Spray valves will open but 1-RC-PCV-1455C will not open due to RCS pressure is below 2000 psig (P-11). Requires knowledge of operation fo the Przr pressure control system to determine which valves will be effected. Plausible if the examinee does not realize pressure is below P-11. The second part is incorrect but plausible because the A RCP supplies flow to the A spray valve but in accordance with 1-AP-44 the first pump to be secured is the C RCP. If pressure does not stop lowering after securing the C RCP then the A RCP is secured .

B. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect but plausible because the A RCP supplies flow to the A spray valve but in accordance with 1-AP-44 the first pump to be secured is the C RCP. If pressure does not stop lowering after securing the C RCP then the A RCP is secured .

C. Incorrect. First part is incorrect. Spray valves will open but 1-RC-PCV-1455C will not open due to RCS pressure is below 2000 psig (P-11). Requires knowledge of operation fo the Przr pressure control system to determine which valves will be effected. Plausible if the examinee does not realize pressure is below P-11. The second part is correct.

D. Correct.

Page 16 of 165

K/A:

027AK2.03 Pressurizer Pressure Control System (PZR PCS) Malfunction Knowledge of the interrelations between the Pressurizer Pressure Control Malfunctions and the following:

Controllers and positioners Technical

References:

1-AP-44 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

18046 Perform the following actions of 1-AP-44

• Explain the purpose

• Identify the modes of applicability and/or plant conditions

• Recognize symptoms and entry conditions

• List the immediate operator actions

• Apply applicable Tech Specs

• Explain the high level action

• Recognize plant conditions that result in a transition to or from 1-AP-44 Question Source:New Question History:None Question Cognitive Level:Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.7/45.7 Comments:

Page 17 of 165

08 - 029EK3.03 001/RO/T1/G1/3.7/3.6/MODIFIED//

Unit 1 was at 100% power when a reactor trip signal occurred The reactor failed to trip automatically or manually The crew is responding to an ATWS in accordance with 1-FR-S.1, Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS.

After initiating emergency boration flow, the crew determines that adequate negative reactivity insertion is NOT occurring due to control rods not inserting in AUTO or MANUAL.

Which ONE of the choices below describes the following:

(1) The method used to inject the BIT And (2) The reason this method is used.

A. (1) Manually initiate Safety Injection (2) Starts a second charging pump and injects the BIT more quickly than manually aligning the BIT B. (1) Manually inject the BIT (2) Prevents loss of emergency boration flow due to isolating normal charging C. (1) Manually initiate Safety Injection (2) Starts AFW pumps for heat removal D. (1) Manually inject the BIT (2) Prevents loss of MFW Page 18 of 165

Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect. Plausible if the examinee does not realize that initiating SI will cause a loss of Main FW which is not desired due to loss of heat sink concerns. The second part is incorrect but is plausible because SI will start a second CH pump and cause more flow to the RCS.

B. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect but is plausible because the examinee must know the flow path of emergency boration.

C. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect. Plausible if the examinee does not realize that initiating SI will cause a loss of Main FW which is not desired due to loss of heat sink concerns. Second part is incorrect but plausible because SI will start the AFW pumps.

D. Correct.

Page 19 of 165

K/A:

029EK3.03 Anticipated Transient Without Scram (ATWS)

Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as the apply to the ATWS:

Opening BIT inlet and outlet valves Technical

References:

References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

11586 Explain the following concepts associated with emergency borating in response to nuclear generation ATWS

• Why the BIT is aligned manually instead of initiating SI Question Source: Modified The crew is responding to an ATWS per 1-FR-S.1, Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS.

After initiating emergency boration flow, the crew determines that adequate negative reactivity insertion is NOT occurring.

Which ONE of the following describes the actions required and includes the basis?

A. Manually inject the BIT; ensures adequate negative reactivity insertion while avoiding initiating SI and unnecessarily isolating all MFW.

B. Manually inject the BIT; ensures adequate negative reactivity insertion while avoiding initiating SI and unnecessarily starting the EDGs.

C. Manually inject the BIT; ensures adequate negative reactivity insertion while avoiding initiating SI and unnecessarily dumping control room bottled air.

D. Manually initiate SI; injects the BIT more quickly than manually aligning the BIT, thereby ensuring adequate negative reactivity insertion.

Question History:None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.5/41.10/45.6/45.13 Comments:

Page 20 of 165

09 - 038EK3.03 001/RO/T1/G1/3.6/4/NEW/SAMPLE QUESTION/

Given the following conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100% power

• High capacity steam generator blowdown is in service

• A large tube leak occurs on the A Steam Generator

• 1-SS-RM-125, High Capacity SG Blowdown Radiation Monitor receives a High-High radiation alarm To protect against release of radiaton to the environment, which ONE of the following automatic actions occur due to the radiation alarm?

A. Closes 1-BD-LCV-101, SG Blowdown Flash Tank Drain Cooler outlet B. Closes 1-BD-FCV-102A,B & C, SG High Capacity Blowdown flow control valves C. Closes 1-BD-TV-100A - F, SG Blowdown Containment Isolation trip valves D. Opens 1-BD-PCV-101, SG Blowdown flash Tank Outlet to Condenser Distractor Analysis:

A. INCORRECT BD-LCV-101, SG Blowdown Flash Tank Drain Cooler outlet will OPEN due to the hi-hi alarm to prevent a high level in the floash tank. This is plausible because it would be logical to close the outlet valve to prevent release to the environment.

B. CORRECT - All 3 High Capacity blowdown flow control valves close on a high radiation condition in the blowdown system.

C. INCORRECT - The containment isolation trip valves will close on phase A isolation signal and the inside valves will close on high flow signal. This is plausible because it will stop release of radiation from the SG.

D. INCORRECT BD-PCV-101 will close due to the hi-hi rad signal. This is plausible because it would vent the flash tank to the condenser which would subsequently be diverted to containment to prevent radioactive release..

Page 21 of 165

K/A:

038EK3.03 Steam Generator Tube Rupture (SGTR)

Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as the apply to the SGTR: Automatic actions associated with high radioactivity in S/G sample lines Technical

References:

UFSAR 10.4.6.2 - SG Blowdown UFSAR 11.4.2.14 - SG Blowdown Radiation Monitors NCRODP 37 - SG Blowdown System NCRODP 46 - Radiation Monitoring System References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

Objective 15971 Explain the following concepts associated with a High-Capacity SG Blowdown System trip:

• Purpose

• Initiating signals

• System response Question Source:New Question History:None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:55.41.b.7 Comments:

Page 22 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

3. 10 - 040AK2.01 001/RO/T1/G1/2.6/2.5/NEW//

Unit 2 is currently heating up following a refueling outage

• RCS Tavg = 520°F

• A Steam line break occurs on the B SG just downstream of the steam flow venturi

• The Main Steam Trip Valves receive an automatic close signal Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statement?

The signal that caused the Main Steam Trip Valves to close is ______.

A. High Steam flow coincident with Lo-Lo Tavg B. High Steam Line Differential Pressure C. High Steam flow coincident with Lo Steam Pressure D. Intermediate Hi-Hi Containment pressure Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. Plausible because this signal will cause the MS trip valves to close if the leak causes 2 MS lines to receive a Hi flow condition. Had the unit been at a higher power level then this would have occurred due to increased steam flow from the other 2 MS lines. The examinee must determine that the leak is upstream of the MS trip valves and non-return valves which will prevent this condition from occuring.

B. Incorrect. Plausible because this signal will be reached and cause an SI signal and Phase A isolation but will not close the MS trip valves.

C. Incorrect. Plausible because this signal will cause the MS trip valves to close if the leak causes 2 MS lines to receive a Hi flow condition. Had the unit been at a higher power level then this would have occurred due to increased steam flow from the other 2 MS lines. The examinee must determine that the leak is upstream of the MS trip valves and non-return valves which will prevent this condition from occuring.

D. Correct. The fault is inside containment which causes containment pressure to rise to 17.8 psia giving the MS isolation signal.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 6 Page 23 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

040AK2.01 Steam Line Rupture Knowledge of the interrelations between the Steam Line Rupture and the following:

Valves Technical

References:

NCRODP - 23, Main Steam NCRODP - 52, Safety Injection References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

4065 List the actuation signals that will initiate an automatic close signal to the main steam trip valve Question Source:New Question History:None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.7/45.7 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 7 Page 24 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

4. 11 - 054AG2.4.20 001/RO/T1/G1/3.8/4.3/NEW//

Unit 1 is at 65%

• A and B Main Feed pumps are running

• C Main Feed pump is tagged out

• The B Main Feed pump trips

• Main Feedwater Pump suction pressure is 290 psig and stable

• The crew is performing 1-AP-31, Loss of Main Feedwater Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements in accordance with 1-AP-31?

An additional Condensate Pump ___(1)___ required to be started AND Turbine ramp rates must be limited to ___(2)___ %/minute or less A. (1) is (2) 4 B. (1) is not (2) 4 C. (1) is (2) 5 D. (1) is not (2) 5 Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 8 Page 25 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect. The CAUTION in 1-AP-31 states ramp rates must be maintained <5%/minute.

B. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect. The procedure requires suction pressure to be

>300 psig and stable to be adequate or start and additional CN pump. This is plausible because the initial condition of stable pressure can be interpreted as being adequate since the subsequent ramp will cause the pressure to rise. The second part is correct.

C. Correct.

D. Incorrect. Both parts are incorrect as noted above.

K/A:

054AG2.4.20 Loss of Main Feedwater Knowledge of the operational implications of EOP warnings, cautions, and notes.

Technical

References:

References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

14561 List the following information associated with 1-AP-31

• Purpose of the procedure

• Modes of applicability

• Entry Conditions

• Immediate operator actions Question Source:New Question History:None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.10/43.5 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 9 Page 26 of 165

12 - 055EA1.02 001/RO/T1/G1/4.3/4.4/BANK//

Given the following:

• A station blackout event has occurred

• The crew is attempting to restore power to the 1H emergency bus in accordance with 1-ECA-0.0, "Loss of All AC Power."

• The 1H EDG is running but the output breaker (15H2) is not closed.

While performing attachment #5 of 1-ECA-0.0, which of the following items will prevent the operator from closing the output breaker manually?

A. Output voltage = 3980 volts B. Breaker 15H2 synchronizing switch in OFF C. Residual voltage on the 1H bus > 25%

D. emergency diesel generator speed at < 880 RPM Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. Plausible because EDG output voltage must be >95% to manually close the output breaker. A calculation must be performed to determine that the stated voltage is above the required voltage.

B. Correct.

C. Incorrect. Plausible because residual bus voltage must be <25% for an automatic closure of the output breaker and the candidate may believe that this would prevent manual operation.

D. Incorrect. Plausible because this would constitute an underfrequency condition which may be considered a conditon that would prevent manual operation of the breaker..

Page 27 of 165

K/A:

055EA1.02 Loss of Offsite and Onsite Power (Station Blackout)

Ability to operate and monitor the following as they apply to a Station Blackout:

Manual ED/G start Technical

References:

NCRODP - 55, Station EDG References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

6296 List the conditions required for the EDG output breaker to respond in each manner listed below:

• Close automatically

• Open automatically

• Close manually Question Source: Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

Comments:

Page 28 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

5. 13 - 056AK3.01 001/RO/T1/G1/3.5/3.9/BANK//

Given the following:

Unit 1 was in MODE 5 when a Loss of Offsite Power occurred All Emergency Diesel Generators start and re-energize the emergency busses When power is restored following the undervoltage condition, the Stub Bus breaker will automatically re-close after a ___(1)___ second time delay provided the associated

___(2)___ pump breaker is open A. (1) 30 (2) Residual Heat Removal B. (1) 30 (2) Component Cooling C. (1) 15 (2) Residual Heat Removal D. (1) 15 (2) Component Cooling Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. First part is incorrect. Plausible because there are numerous time delay sequencing setpoints from 10 to 120 seconds (i.e. 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35 & 120 seconds) for various peices of equipment. The candidate must determine the correct time delay from memory. The second part is correct, the RHR pump breaker must be open for the stub bus breaker to close.

B. Incorrect. First part is incorrect. Plausible because there are numerous time delay sequencing setpoints from 10 to 120 seconds (i.e. 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35 & 120 seconds) for various peices of equipment. The candidate must determine the correct time delay from memory. The second part is incorrect but plausible because the only equipment powered from the stub bus are the CC pumps and the RHR pumps. The candidate must know which component prevents the stub bus breaker from closing.

C. Correct D. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect but plausible because the only equipment powered from the stub bus are the CC pumps and the RHR pumps. The candidate must know which component prevents the stub bus breaker from closing.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 10 Page 29 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

056AK3.01 Loss of Offsite Power Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Offsite Power:

Order and time to initiation of power for the load sequencer Technical

References:

11715-ESK-5AQ, 5AR - Stub Bus Bkr References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

5520 List the following information associated with the Emergency Electrical Dist. system stub bus.

• Conditions required for a stub bus breaker to re-close automatically when power is restored following and undervoltage Question Source: Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level:Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 11 Page 30 of 165

14 - 057AA2.19 001/RO/T1/G1/4.0/4.3/BANK/SURRY 2012/

A loss of the 1-III Vital AC Bus has just occurred due to a fault on the bus.

Which ONE of the following describes the reason that 0-AP-10, Loss of Electrical Power, requires the operators to trip the reactor?

Losing the vital bus causes a loss of _______.

A. CC to the RCP lube oil coolers.

B. Condenser Vacuum.

C. RCP seal cooling D. Main and bypass Feed Regulating Valve Control.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct. Loss of vital bus 1-III would cause a loss of cooling to the RCPs.

B. Incorrect. Plausible because condenser vacuum would be lost if vital AC bus 1-I was lost.

C. Incorrect. Plausible since CC is lost to the RCP thermal barrier but does not require a Reactor trip if charging is operating to maintain seal cooling D. Incorrect. Plausible because a loss of the vital DC bus 1-III would cause all Main and Bypass Feed Reg valves to close.

Page 31 of 165

K/A:

057AA2.19 Loss of Vital AC Electrical Instrument Bus - Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Vital AC Instrument Bus:

The plant automatic actions that will occur on the loss of a vital ac electrical instrument bus Technical

References:

11715-ESK-6MC, 6MD References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

12019 Given a set of plant conditions, evaluate vital and Emergency Distribution System operations in light of the following issues:

• Effect of a failure, malfunction or loss of components in this system on related systems Question Source:Bank Question History: Surry 2012 Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:43.5 Comments:

Page 32 of 165

15 - 058AG2.4.11 001/RO/T1/G1/4.0/4.2/BANK//

Unit 1 is in Mode 3 following a loss of the 1-III Vital DC bus and subsequent trip.

The appropriate attachment of 0-AP-10, LOSS OF ELECTRICAL POWER, is being performed for the loss of the 1-III Vital DC bus.

In accordance with 0-AP-10, equipment powered from which ONE of the following 4160 volt electrical busses will have to be operated locally at the breaker due to loss of control power.

A. C Station Service bus B. 1J Emergency bus C. 1G bus D. 1H Emergency bus Distractor analysis:

The 1-III DC bus supplies control power to the A station service bus and the J emergency bus.

A. Incorrect. The C station service bus control power is supplied from the 1-I DC bus, the B station service bus control power is from the 1-II DC bus and the A Station service bus control power is supplied from the 1-III DC bus. Plausible because it would be logical if the bus control power corresponded to the DC bus number (i.e. 1-I for A bus, 1-II for B bus...)

B. Correct.

C. Incorrect. Plausible as stated above.

D. Incorrect. Plausible as stated above.

Page 33 of 165

K/A:

058AG2.4.11 Loss of DC Power Knowledge of abnormal condition procedures.

Technical

References:

0-AP-10, Loss of electrical power References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

5522 List the following information associated with the vital 125-volt DC batteries.

• Major loads supplied from each DC vital bus Question Source: Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level:Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10/43.5 Comments:

Page 34 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

6. 16 - WE04EK1.1 001/RO/T1/G1/3.5/3.9/BANK//

At 0835, Unit 1 experienced a LOCA outside of containment The crew has transitioned to 1-ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation, and is at the RNO step Establish minimum SI flow to remove decay heat.

The current time is 0950 Which ONE of the following states the minimum amount of SI flow required to remove decay heat.

Reference Provided A. 265 gpm B. 273 gpm C. 290 gpm D. 310 gpm Distractor analyasis:

A. Incorrect. Candidate must calculate time since trip and determine correct answer from a logrithmic graph. Plausible if wrong time since trip is calculated or wrong point on graph is picked.

B. Incorrect. Candidate must calculate time since trip and determine correct answer from a logrithmic graph. Plausible if wrong time since trip is calculated or wrong point on graph is picked.

C. Correct.

D. Incorrect. Candidate must calculate time since trip and determine correct answer from a logrithmic graph. Plausible if wrong time since trip is calculated or wrong point on graph is picked.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 12 Page 35 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

WE04EK1.1 LOCA Outside Containment Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the (LOCA Outside Containment)

Components, capacity, and function of emergency systems.

Technical

References:

1-ECA-1.1 References provided to applicants: Provide copy 1-ECA-1.1, Att. 3 Learning Objective:

9628 Explain why ECA-1.1 contains a continuous action for terminating or minimizing flow.

Question Source:Bank Question History:None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.8/41.10 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 13 Page 36 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

7. 17 - WE05EA1.1 001/RO/T1/G1/4.1/4.0/BANK//

Unit 1 was at 100% power when a loss of all Main and Auxilliary Feedwater flow has occurred 1-FR-H.1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, is in progress The crew is currently depressurizing Steam Generators (SG) to restore feedwater flow from the Condensate System The following indications are observed:

• Feed flows:

• 0.3 X 106 lbm/hr to "A" SG

• 0.4 X 106 lbm/hr to "B" SG

• 0.2 X 106 lbm/hr to "C" SG.

• SG pressures - 530 psig In accordance with 1-FR-H.1, which one of the following statements is correct concerning adequate heat sink?

(Assume that Reactor Coolant System bleed and feed has not been initiated and is not yet required.)

A. Total feed flow rate is 0.9 X 106 lbm/hr, secondary heat sink is restored.

B. SG depressurization will continue until either SG wide range levels rising OR Core Exit TCs lowering C. Continue SG depressurization until Feed flow to at least one SG is >0.7 X 106 lbm/hr D. Abandon attempts to restore flow from the Condensate System. Attempt to establish feedwater flow from the Fire Protection System or the Service Water System Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 14 Page 37 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. Plausible because total FW is >0.7x106 lbm/hr and the candidate may believe that adequate feed flow exists.

B.Incorrect. Plausible because the criteria is that BOTH core exits decreasing AND wide range levels increasing must exist to have adequate heat.

C. Correct D. Incorrect. Plausible because AFW can be supplied with FP or SW and the candidate may determine that the process is not working and the next procedure flow path should be selected.

K/A:

WE05EA1.1 Loss of Secondary Heat Sink Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the (Loss of Secondary Heat Sink)

Components, and functions of control and safety systems, including instrumentation, signals, interlocks, failure modes, and automatic and manual features.

Technical

References:

1-FR-H.1 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

11257 Explain the following concepts associated with establishing SG FW flow from the Main CN system in response to a loss of secondary heat sink.

• Why FW flow indication of less than 0.7x106 lbm/hr to an individual SG is considered to be zero lbm/hr with respect to the minimum required flow Question Source:Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 15 Page 38 of 165

18 - WE11EK2.2 001/RO/T1/G1/3.9/4.3/BANK//

Given the following conditions:

• A LOCA has occurred on Unit 1

• The crew is performing 1-ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation

• RWST level is 7% and slowly lowering

• Containment pressure is 19 psia

• The crew is at step 34 - Depressurize all intact SGs to inject SI accumulators as necessary Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements?

The ___(1)___ will be used to dump steam as required to maintain ___(2)___ level indication.

A. (1) SG PORVs (2) Pressurizer B. (1) SG PORVs (2) RVLIS C. (1) Main steam dumps (2) Pressurizer D. (1) Main steam dumps (2) RVLIS Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is correct. Containment pressure is above the intermediate HI-HI setpoint giving a MS line isolation signal and preventing use of the main steam dumps. The second part is incorrect. RVLIS level is used to monitor the injection of the SI accumulators into the RCS while depressurizing the SGs. Pressurizer level is plausible since the purpose of the action is to maintain water level in the RCS.

B. Correct. SG PORVs are the available steam flow path and RVLIS level is monitored during depressurization.

C. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect. Containment pressure is above the intermediate HI-HI setpoint giving a MS line isolation signal and preventing use of the main steam dumps. The second part is incorrect. RVLIS level is used to monitor the injection of the SI accumulators into the RCS while depressurizing the SGs. Pressurizer level is plausible since the purpose of the action is to maintain water level in the RCS.

D. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect. Containment pressure is above the intermediate HI-HI setpoint giving a MS line isolation signal and preventing use of the main steam dumps. The second part is correct.

Page 39 of 165

K/A:

WE11EK2.2 Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation Knowledge of the interrelations between the (Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation) and the following:

Facility*s heat removal systems, including primary coolant, emergency coolant, the decay heat removal systems, and relations between the proper operation of these systems to the operation of the facility.

Technical

References:

1-ECA-1.1 WOG background document References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

9627 Explain why SGs are depressurized in 1-ECA-1.1 once the RWST is depleted.

Question Source: Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.8/41.10 Comments:

Page 40 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

8. 19 - 028AK1.01 001/RO/T1/G2/2.8/3.1/BANK//

Unit 1 is operating at 100%

Pressurizer level control is in automatic and the level channel defeat switch is selected to the 459/460 position A small leak develops on the reference leg of 1-RC-LT-1459, Channel III Pressurizer level transmitter.

The crew enters 1-AP-3, Loss of Vital Instrumentation Which ONE of the choices below describes the response of the Pressurizer level control system and the actions that will be taken?

In accordance with 1-AP-3, the operator will place controller ___(1)___ in manual and depress the ___(2)___ button to restore pressurizer level to program.

A. (1) 1-RC-LCV-1459G (2) Lower B. (1) 1-RC-LCV-1459G (2) Raise C. (1) 1-CH-FCV-1122 (2) Lower D. (1) 1-CH-FCV-1122 (2) Raise Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect. 1-AP-3 states to place 1-CH-FCV-1122 in manual and control Przr level at program. Plausible because taking control of 1-RC-LC-1459G will control pressurizer level but is not in accordance with 1-AP-3 actions. The second part is incorrect. The reference leg leak will cause indicated level to rise and therefore cause charging flow to lower which requires the operator to raise flow in manual. Plausible because the examinee must determine the failure mode for a reference leg leak.

B. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect as stated above. The second part is correct.

C. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect as stated above.

D. Correct Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 16 Page 41 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

028AK1.01 Pressurizer (PZR) Level Control Malfunction Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to Pressurizer Level Control Malfunctions:

PZR reference leak abnormalities Technical

References:

1-AP-3 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

10656 Explain how the Pressurizer Level Control System would respond to a level channel failure.

Question Source: Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.8/41.10 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 17 Page 42 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

9. 20 - 032AA2.04 001/RO/T1/G2/3.1/3.5/NEW//

Unit 1 is in MODE 2 with a reactor start up in progress in accordance with 1-OP-1.5, Unit Startup From MODE 3 To MODE 2 The RO is verifying proper overlap between Source range and Intermediate range NIs Source range and Intermediate range NIs are indicating as follows:

• N-31 = 6x104 CPS

• N-32 = 1x104 CPS

• N-35 = 2x10-10 amps

• N-36 =1.5x10-10 amps Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements?

In accordance with 1-OP-1.5, overlap between source range and intermediate range detectors ___(1)___ adequate And If N-32 failed high at this time, the reactor ___(2)___ trip A. (1) is (2) will not B. (1) is (2) will C. (1) is not (2) will not D. (1) is not (2) will Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 18 Page 43 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is correct. 1-OP-1.5 requires both IR instruments to be greater then 1x10-11 amps and both SR instruments on scale. The second part is incorrect but plausible because this is the point in the startup where SR instruments are blocked (>P-6) and it may be assumed that this has already occurred.

B. Correct.

C. The first part is incorrect. 1-OP-1.5 requires both IR instruments to be greater then 1x10-11 amps and both SR instruments on scale which is met. The second part is incorrect but plausible because this is the point in the startup where SR instruments are blocked (>P-6) and it may be assumed that this has already occurred.

D. The first part is incorrect. 1-OP-1.5 requires both IR instruments to be greater then 1x10-11 amps and both SR instruments on scale which is met. The second part is correct.

K/A:

032AA2.04 Loss of Source Range Nuclear Instrumentation Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the Loss of Source Range Nuclear Instrumentation:

Satisfactory source-range/intermediate-range overlap Technical

References:

1-OP-1.5 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

11980 Given a set of plant conditions, evaluate Ex-core NI System operations in light of the following issues:

• Expected plant or system response based on ex-core nuclear instrumentation interlocks or design features.

Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:43.5 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 19 Page 44 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

10. 21 - 033AK3.01 001/RO/T1/G2/3.2/3.6/NEW//

Unit 2 is in MODE 1 starting up in accordance with 2-OP-2.1, Unit Startup From MODE 2 To MODE 1 Power is currently stable at 8%

The control power fuse blows on Intermediate Range Channel N-36.

Which ONE of the following identifies the actions required to be taken and the reason.

A. Lower power to <P-6. N36 is not required below P-6.

B. Raise power to >P-10. N36 is not required above P-10.

C. Verify all rods are inserted due to reactor trip D. Stop Power increase and maintain power stable until N36 is repaired due to intermediate range rod block (C-1)

Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. Plausible because this is an allowed required action in accordance with Tech Specs.

B. Incorrect. Plausible because this is an alllowed required action in accordance with Tech Specs.

C. Correct. A blown control power fuse will cause a reactor trip signal to be generated at this point in the startup. The examinee must know the difference between the control power and instrument power fuses and the effect of each being blown.

D. Incorrect. Plausible because the first step in 1-AP-4.2, Loss of IR instrumentation, is to stop the power increase.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 20 Page 45 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

033AK3.01 Loss of Intermediate Range Nuclear Instrumentation Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Loss of Intermediate Range Nuclear Instrumentation:

Termination of startup following loss of intermediate range instrumentation Technical

References:

2-AP-4.2 Technical Specifications References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

11980 Given a set of plant conditions, evaluate Ex-core NI System operations in light of the following issues:

• Effect of a failure, malfunction, or a loss of components in this system on related systems

• Expected plant or system response based on ex-core nuclear instrumentation interlocks or design features.

• Impact on technical specifications Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.5, 41.10 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 21 Page 46 of 165

22 - 060AK2.01 001/RO/T1/G2/2.6/2.9/NEW//

Both Units are at 100% power.

In accordance with 0-OP-23.2, WGDT and Waste Gas Diaphragm Commpressors, nitrogen is being added to the "A" Waste Gas Decay Tank (WGDT) due to high oxygen level Due to a distraction, the WGDT is overpressurized causing the rupture disc to rupture and the relief valve to open The following annunciators are received on Unit 2:

• 2B-A5 - PROCESS VENT VNT STACK A&B LOW RAD MON ALERT/RAD

• 2B-B5 - PROCESS VENT VNT STACK A&B HI HI RADIATION Which one of the choices below completes the following statements?

The radiation monitor that alarmed due to this event is ___(1)___

And Once the release has been stopped and radiation levels return to normal, the affected radiation monitor ___(2)___ from the accident range back to the normal range.

A. (1) 1-RM-RMS-179, Vent Stack A Rad Monitor (2) will automatically swap B. (1) 1-RM-RMS-179, Vent Stack A Rad Monitor (2) must be manually swapped C. (1) 1-RM-RMS-180, Vent Stack B Rad Monitor (2) will automatically swap D. (1) 1-RM-RMS-180, Vent Stack B Rad Monitor (2) must be manually swapped Page 47 of 165

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but plausible becase the candidate must know which vent stack the WGDT reliefs are directed to. The second part is incorrect but plausible because these rad monitors are unique in that they will swap to an accident range instrument when a hi-hi signal is reached but must be manually reset to return to the normal range.

B. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but plausible becase the candidate must know which vent stack the WGDT reliefs are directed to. The second part is correct.

C. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The WGDTs relief valves flow to the Vent Stack B.

The second part is incorrect but plausible because these rad monitors are unique in that they will swap to an accident range instrument when a hi-hi signal is reached but must be manually reset to return to the normal range.

D. Correct.

K/A:

060AK2.01 Accidental Gaseous Radwaste Release Knowledge of the interrelations between the Accidental Gaseous Radwaste Release and the following:

ARM system, including the normal radiation-level indications and the operability status Technical

References:

NCRODP - 45, Gaseous Waste NCRODP - 46, Radiation Monitoring System 0-AP-5.2, MGP Rad Montoring System References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

4311 Explain the following information associated with waste gas tanks

• Where the discharge of the relief valves and rupture discs is directed Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.7 Comments:

Page 48 of 165

23 - 067AA1.05 002/RO/T1/G2/3.1/3.1/NEW//

A fire has occurred in the Main Control Room requiring evacuation.

The crew is performing 0-FCA-1, Control Room Fire.

Operators have been dispatched to perform attachment 9,Establish Auxiliary Building Ventilation Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statement on how the Appendix R flexible duct is routed?

The flexible duct is routed from the Appendix R ventilation locker ________.

A. to the ladder ways of the running charging pump on each unit B. to the ladder ways of all 3 charging pumps on each unit C. and connected to the ventilation duct supplying all charging pumps D. and connected to the ventilation duct supplying the running charging pump on each unit Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct B. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must know the capabilities of the App R ventilation and where the procedure directs the duct to be placed.

C. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must know the capabilities of the App R ventilation and where the procedure directs the duct to be placed.

D. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must know the capabilities of the App R ventilation and where the procedure directs the duct to be placed.

Page 49 of 165

K/A:

067AA1.05 Plant fire on site Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the Plant Fire on Site:

Plant and control room ventilation systems Technical

References:

0-FCA-1 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

4564 Describe the Appendix-R Ventilation System flow paths, including the following components.

Auxiliary building Appendix-R supply fans Auxiliary building flexible ducting Areas serviced by the Auxiliary Building Appendix-R Ventilation System Fuel building Appendix-R supply fan Areas serviced by the Fuel Building Appendix-R Ventilation System Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.7 Comments:

Page 50 of 165

24 - 068AK3.17 001/RO/T1/G2/3.7/4/MODIFIED//

Unit 2 was operating at 100% power The crew was forced to evacuate the main control room due to a spill of cleaning solvents.

The crew is performing 2-AP-20, Operation From The Auxiliary Shutdown Panel, and is at step 12 - Check If Emergency Boration Is Required An emergency boration will be required if ___(1)___ IRPI(s) indicate greater than 10 steps AND 2-CH-MOV-2350, Emergency Boration Valve, ___(2)___ be operated from the Auxiliary Shutdown Panel.

A. (1) at least 2 or more (2) can not B. (1) any ONE (2) can not C. (1) at least 2 or more (2) can D. (1) any ONE (2) can Page 51 of 165

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct.

B. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but is plausible since the safety analysis assumes that 1 control rod is stuck full out which would make any additional rod stuck out not within the analysis. Also, the procedure states "All IRPIs indicated - LESS THAN 10 STEPS WITHDRAWN", in the ACTION/EXPECTED RESPONSE column and the candidate must know that the RNO column requires 2 or more IRPIs >10 steps to require boration. The second part is correct.

C. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect but is plausible because they must have knowledge of the controls available in the aux shutdown panel.

The boric acid transfer pump is controlled in the ASD panel but the emergency boration valve must be locally operated.

D. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but is plausible since the safety analysis assumes that 1 control rod is stuck full out which would make any additional rod stuck out not within the analysis. Also, the procedure states "All IRPIs indicated - LESS THAN 10 STEPS WITHDRAWN", in the ACTION/EXPECTED RESPONSE column and the candidate must know that the RNO column requires 2 or more IRPIs >10 steps to require boration. The second part is incorrect but is plausible because they must have knowledge of the controls available in the aux shutdown panel. The boric acid transfer pump is controlled in the ASD panel but the emergency boration valve must be locally operated.

Page 52 of 165

K/A:

068AK3.17 Control Room Evacuation Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to the Control Room Evacuation:

Injection of boric acid into the RCS Technical

References:

2-AP-20 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

11097 Explain the following concepts associated with 1/2-AP-20, Operation from the Aux SD Panel.

• Action required if one or more control rods are not fully inserted Question Source: Modified Assume the following conditions.

Unit 2 was operating at 100% power A spill of cleaning solvents in the main control room forced its evacuation at 1735, Sunday evening The operating crew has successfully shut down the reactor and have been maintaining stable plant conditions at the auxiliary shutdown panel for 15 hours1.736111e-4 days <br />0.00417 hours <br />2.480159e-5 weeks <br />5.7075e-6 months <br /> in accordance with 2-AP-20, OPERATION FROM THE AUXILIARY SHUTDOWN PANEL The crew is at step 17 - Maintain Shutdown Margin 2-PT-10 (SHUTDOWN MARGIN DETERMINATION) is not available 2-AP-20 requires emergency boration for a minimum of ___(1)___ minutes and the reason for the boration is to ___(2)___.

A. (1) 194 (2) borate for Cold Shutdown conditions B. (1) 194 (2) compensate for Xenon decay C. (1) 50 (2) compensate for Xenon decay D. (1) 50 (2) borate for Cold Shutdown conditions Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.5, 41.10 Comments:

Page 53 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

11. 25 - 076AA2.03 001/RO/T1/G2/2.5/3/MODIFIED/SURRY 2014/

Unit 2 is shutdown and has been borated to Cold Shutdown boron concentration in preparation for Cooldown to Cold Shutdown for a Refueling outage.

A crud burst has been initiated in the RCS.

Which ONE of the choices below describes the following:

(1) The FIRST Radiation monitor that will detect the increased RCS Activity caused by the crud burst.

AND (2) The actions that should be taken to minimize dose during the outage.

A. (1) Letdown Radiation Monitor (2) Maximize letdown flow B. (1) Letdown Radiation Monitor (2) Minimize letdown flow C. (1) Auxiliary Building Control Area Radiation Monitor (2) Maximize letdown flow D. (1) Auxiliary Building Control Area Radiation Monitor (2) Minimize letdown flow Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 22 Page 54 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal Distractor analysis:

When the RCS crud burst begins, the increased RCS activity will be sensed on the Letdown RM. The Aux Bldg Control Area RM is located just outside the VCT cubicle in the Aux Bldg, since the RCS coolant with higher activity is flowing though the VCT, increased RM reading is probable. The crud will be transported throughout the RCS and into the letdown system. This will cause higher local dose rates in the auxiliary building but maximizing letdown flow is preferred to reduce overall dose rates during the refueling outage.

A. Correct.

B. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect. Plausible since minimizing letdown flow rates will reduce the activity in the letdown filters and demins and therefore reduce local dose rates in the aux building.

C. Incorrect - The first part is incorrect. Plausible since the Aux Bldg Control Area RM will see the effect of increased RCS activity, but will follow the trend of the Letdown RM.

The second part is correct.

D. Incorrect - Both parts are incorrect. Plausible since the Aux Bldg Control Area RM will see the effect of increased RCS activity, but will follow the trend of the Letdown RM and since minimizing letdown flow rates will reduce the activity in the letdown filters and demins and therefore reduce local dose rates in the aux building.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 23 Page 55 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

076AA2.03 High Reactor Coolant Activity - Ability to determine and interpret the following as they apply to the High Reactor Coolant Activity:

RCS radioactivity level meter Technical

References:

1-OP-3.2 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

12958 Explain the following concepts associated with Reactor Coolant System cleanup

• Why maximum letdown flow should be maintained during Reactor Coolant System cooldown Question Source: Modified from Surry 2014 exam Unit 2 is shutdown and has been borated to CSD boron concentration in preparation for Cooldown to CSD for a Refueling outage.

Chemistry has notified the Team that the RCS crud burst has been initiated.

Which ONE of the following describes:

1) The FIRST Radiation monitor that will detect the increased RCS Activity caused by the crud burst.

2) Which CVCS filter is monitored for differential pressure during the crud burst cleanup?

A. 1) Letdown Radiation monitor.

2) Reactor Coolant filter.

B. 1) Letdown Radiation Monitor.

2) Letdown filter.

C. 1) Auxiliary Building Control Area Radiation Monitor.

2) Reactor Coolant filter.

D. 1) Auxiliary Building Control Area Radiation Monitor.

2) Letdown filter.

Proposed Answer: A.

Question History: Surry 2014 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:43.5/45.13 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 24 Page 56 of 165

26 - WE08EA1.1 001/RO/T1/G2/3.8/3.8/BANK//

Given the following:

• Unit 1 was at 100% power

• A main steam line break occurred inside containment

• All systems operated as designed

• The operating crew is now in 1-FR-P.1, "Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock"

• They have been directed by the procedure to perform a "soak".

Which one of the following evolutions can be performed during the soak?

A. Place auxiliary spray in service B. Place Residual Heat Removal System in service C. Increase AFW flow D. Energize the pressurizer heaters.

Distractor Analysis:

Requires candidate to have knowledge of FR-P.1 soak period requirements and how operating equipment can negatively affect RCS temperature and pressure.

A. Correct. This action will depressurize the RCS and can cause a cooldown of the pressurizer but this is not the area of concern for a soak period.

B. Incorrect. This could cause the RCS to cooldown. Plausible because this is an action that will be required following the soak period to cool down to cold shudown conditions.

C. Incorrect. This would cause a cooldown of the RCS. Plausible because it is desired to raise SG level in order to transfer feed to the main FW system and stop the AFW pumps.

D. Incorrect. This would cause RCS pressure to rise. Plausible because it would add heat to the pressurizer.

Page 57 of 165

K/A:

WE08EA1.1 Pressurized Thermal Shock -

Ability to operate and / or monitor the following as they apply to the (Pressurized Thermal Shock):

Components, and functions of control and safety systems, including instrumentation, signals, interlocks, failure modes, and automatic and manual features.

Technical

References:

1-FR-P.1 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

12656 Explain the following concepts associated with 1-FR-P.1, "Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Condition."

• How to determine which actions from other guidelines may be performed during the Reactor Coolant System temperature soak Question Source: Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.7/45.5 Comments:

Page 58 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

12. 27 - WE09EG2.4.31 001/RO/T1/G2/4.2/4.1/NEW//

Unit 1 was at 100% power when a loss of all offsite power occurred.

The crew is responding in accordance with 1-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip Response, and has initiated attachment 2 to monitor natural circulation.

Which ONE of the following would be an indication of inadequate natural circulation flow?

(Consider each choice separately)

A. RCS THOT is 551°F and stable B. RCS TCOLD is 554°F with Steam Generator pressure at 1035 psig C. Core exit TCs are 560°F and stable D. Steam Generator pressure is 1050 psig and stable Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. Plausible because this temperature is above the normal temperature that steam dumps would maintain at 547°F if they were available.

B. Correct. The criteria is for RCS Cold leg temperature to be at saturation temperature for SG pressure. A pressure of 1050 PSIA would correlate to a saturation temperautre of 551.5°F.

C. Incorrect. Plausible because this temperature is above the expected temperature when SG PORVs are controlling. Core exit temperatures are expected to be greater than average RCS temperature during natural circulation conditions.

D. Incorrect. Criteria is SG pressures stable or lowering. This is plausible because it could be assumed that a higher SG pressure than expected is an idication of inadequate NC cooling.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 25 Page 59 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

WE09EG2.4.31 Natural Circulation Operations Knowledge of annunciator alarms, indications, or response procedures.

Technical

References:

1-ES-0.1 WOG background documents References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

13435 Explain how each of the following parameters are used to indicate that natural circulation exist

• RCS subcooliing

• SG pressure

• RCS hot leg temperature

• core exit TC temperature

• RCS cold leg temperature Question Source:New Question History:None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.10/45.3 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 26 Page 60 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

13. 28 - 003K5.02 001/RO/T2/G1/2.8/3.2/BANK//

Given the following conditions:

• Unit 1 is starting up following a mid-cycle forced outage.

• The crew has commenced slowly raising power in preparations for placing the unit on line

• At approximately 4% power, the B" RCP trips.

Which ONE of the following identifies the effect of the RCP trip on the Departure from Nucleate Boiling Ratio (DNBR), AND includes the action the crew will perform in response to the failure.

A. DNBR has decreased; insert Control Bank D rods to less than 5 steps then trip the reactor.

B. DNBR has decreased; immediately trip the reactor C. DNBR has increased; insert Control Bank D rods to less than 5 steps then trip the reactor.

D. DNBR has increased; immediately trip the reactor Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is correct. When the RCP trips it will cause DNBR to decrease due to lower flow through the core. The second part is incorrect but is plausible since this is an action in the 1-OP-1.5, mode 3 to mode 2 startup procedure and the Tech Spec action for not having 3 loops in operation is to be in Mode 3 in 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

B. Correct. DNBR will lower and in accordance with 1-AR-C-H6, RC LOOP 1B LO FLOW, the reactor will be tripped.

C. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect. Plausible since the candidate must be able to determine the effect of the RCP trip on DNBR. The second part is incorrect but is plausible since this is an action in the 1-OP-1.5, mode 3 to mode 2 startup procedure and the Tech Spec action for not having 3 loops in operation is to be in Mode 3 in 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

D. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect. Plausible since the candidate must be able to determine the effect of the RCP trip on DNBR. The second part is correct.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 27 Page 61 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

003K5.02 Reactor Coolant Pump System (RCPS)

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the RCPS:

Effects of RCP coastdown on RCS parameters Technical

References:

1-AR-C-H6, RC LOOP 1B LO FLOW 1-OP-1.5, Unit Startup from mode 3 to mode 2 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

12002 Given a set of plant conditions, evaluate Reactor Coolant System operations in light of the following issues.

Effect of a failure, malfunction, or loss of a related system or component on this system Effect of a failure, malfunction, or loss of components in this system on related systems Expected plant or system response based on reactor coolant component interlocks or design features Impact on the technical specifications Response if limits or setpoints associated with this system or its components have been exceeded Proper operator response to the condition as stated Question Source: Bank Question History: 2010 North Anna License Exam Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.5 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 28 Page 62 of 165

29 - 003K6.14 001/RO/T2/G1/2.6/2.9/NEW//

Unit 2 is in MODE 5 following a refueling outage

• The pressurizer is solid

• RCS temperature = 130°F

• RCS pressure = 300psig

• VCT pressure = 30psig Conditions have been established to start 2-RC-P-1C, C Reactor Coolant Pump, in accordance with 2-OP-5.2, Reactor Coolant Pump Startup and Shutdown.

Which ONE of the following conditions would require the crew to trip the RCP after it is started?

A. RCS pressure lowers to 220 psig B. Proximity vibrations rise to 6 mils C. Motor Stator temperature rises to 230°F D. Motor current is 900 amps Distractor analysis:

A. Correct. 2-OP-5.2 "RCS pressure less than 240 psig" as a trip criteria.

B. Incorrect. Proximity vibration trip criteria is 20 mils. Plausible because there is a trip criteria for "seismic" vibration at 5 mils. Candidate must know trip criteria for each parameter.

C. Incorrect. Plausible because there is a trip criteria for RCP pump bearing >225°F.

D. Incorrect. The trip criteria is "RCP starting current not decreasing within 30 seconds after breaker closure". Plausible because the normal motor amps is 750 amps at NOT/NOP but are elevated at cold shutdown conditions.

Page 63 of 165

K/A:

003K6.14 Reactor Coolant Pump System (RCPS)

Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following will have on the RCPS:

Starting requirements Technical

References:

2-OP-5.2, RCP startup and shutdown References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

9845 Explain the following concepts associated with starting a reactor coolant pump with a Westinghouse seal package.

• Parameters that are monitored following the start of a pump (1-OP-5.2) 9840 List the following information associated with reactor coolant pump vibration instrumentation.

• Setpoints for the RCP 1A (1B/1C) VIBRATION ALERT/DANGER alarm 9572 List the motor and bearing temperature limits that require tripping the reactor coolant pump.

Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.7 Comments:

Page 64 of 165

30 - 004A2.22 001/RO/T2/G1/3.2/3.1///

Unit 2 has been ramped down to 50% power for equipment repairs Tave is being maintained high in accordance with the ramp plan for subseqent ramp back to 100%

• Tave is 568°F

• Tref is 564°F

• Charging flow is 64 gpm

• Letdown flow is 79 gpm

• Seal injection flows are:

- A = 8.1 gpm, B = 7.9 gpm, C = 8.2 gpm

• RCP Seal leak off flows are:

- A = 2.4 gpm, B = 2.2 gpm, C = 2.6 gpm

• RCS total leak rate is 0.12 gpm Based on the current conditions, which ONE of the choices below completes the following statement?

Pressurizer level will ___(1)___

AND Current Pressurizer program level is ___(2)___

A. (1) rise (2) 50.8%

B. (1) rise (2) 46.5%

C. (1) lower (2) 50.8%

D. (1) lower (2) 46.5%

Page 65 of 165

Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct. With the given flow rates, there is an excess charging flow of about 2 gpm.

The Przr program level goes from 28.4% to 64.5% as Tave rises from 547° to 580.8°.

(64.5%-28.4%)/(580.8°-547°) x (568°-547°) + 28.4% = 50.8%

B. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect but is plausible if the candidate believes that Przr level is based on power or Tref.

C. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but is plausible since the candidate must calculate the difference between what is going into the RCS and what is coming out to determine the Przr level trend.

D. Incorrect. Both parts are incorrect but plausible as noted above.

K/A:

004A2.22 Chemical and Volume Control System (CVCS)

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the CVCS; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

Mismatch of letdown and charging flows Technical

References:

NCRODP Chemical and Volume control NCRODP Presurizer Control References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

8837 List the following setpoints associated with pressurizer level control.

No-load pressurizer level Full-load pressurizer level Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehensive/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.5, 43.5 Comments:

Page 66 of 165

31 - 005A1.07 001/RO/T2/G1/2.5/3.1/NEW/SAMPLE QUESTION/

Unit 1 is defueled and preparing for core on load The RO is performing 1-PT-78.4, Valve Inservice Inspection (RHR System), for post maintenance testing. with the following stroke times.

1-RH-MOV-1700, RHR Inlet Isolation Valve - 1 minute 55 seconds 1-RH-MOV-1701, RHR Inlet Isolation Valve - 1 minute 27 seconds 1-RH-MOV-1720A, RHR Outlet Isolation Valve - 35 seconds 1-RH-MOV-1720B, RHR Outlet Isolation Valve - 26 seconds Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements?

The acceptance criteria ___(1)___ met AND During valve stroke timing, the stopwatch is started when ___(2)___.

(Reference provided)

A. (1) is (2) when the OPEN (RED) indicating light comes on B. (1) is (2) the OPEN button is depressed C. (1) is not (2) when the OPEN (RED) indicating light comes on D. (1) is not (2) the OPEN button is depressed Distractor analysis:

A. INCORRECT. The first part is incorrect. This is plausible because the stroke times have to be compared to the acceptance criteria to determine if they are within the band.

The candidate may misinterpret the graph and use the reference value for acceptance instead of the Required time or use the wrong valve data. The second part is incorrect but plausible because the stroke time is stopped when the RED open light goes out.

B. INCORRECT. The first part is incorrect. This is plausible because the stroke times have to be compared to the acceptance criteria to determine if they are within the band.

The candidate may misinterpret the graph and use the reference value for acceptance instead of the Required time or use the wrong valve data. The second part is correct.

C. INCORRECT. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect but plausible because the stroke time is stopped when the RED open light goes out.

D. CORRECT.

Page 67 of 165

K/A:

005A1.07 Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the RHRS controls including:

Determination of test acceptability by comparison of recorded valve response times with Tech-Spec requirements Technical

References:

1-PT-78.4, Valve Inservice Inspection (RHR System)

TRM TSR 3.7.8.2 References provided to applicants:

1-PT-78.4, Valve Inservice Inspection (RHR System)

Learning Objective:

Objective 17507:

Explain the following concepts associated with the RHR System - Operating TRM and bases (TR-3.7.8_

• Tech Requirement

• Applicability

• Required actions

• Surveillance requirements Question Source: NEW Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehensive 10 CFR Part 55 Content:55.41(b)(5)

Comments:

Page 68 of 165

32 - 005A2.01 001/RO/T2/G1/2.7/2.9/BANK//

The following conditions exist:

• Unit 1 is in mode 5

• RHR is in service maintaining a stable RCS temperature

• 1-CC-MOV-100A and 1-CC-MOV-100B (CC to the RHR heat exchangers) are throttled open approximately 5%

• The RHR flow control valve (1-RH-FCV-1605) is controlling in MANUAL

• An instrument technician inadvertently isolates air to the RHR heat exchanger outlet valve (1-RH-HCV-1758).

Which ONE of the following describes the effect of this failure on the RHR system?

RHR outlet temperature will ___(1)___ and the operator will ___(2)___ 1-RH-FCV-1605 output to maintain a stable flow rate.

A. (1) Rise (2) Raise B. (1) Rise (2) Lower C. (1) Lower (2) Lower D. (1) Lower (2) Raise Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. 1-RH-FCV-1605 fails closed. The candidate could mistakenly think that 1-RH-HCV-1758 also fails closed. This assumption would make this answer correct.

B. Incorrect. RHR temperature will decrease since 1758 fails open. 1-RH-FCV-1605 output will be lowered to throttle the valve closed in order to restore RHR flow to normal.

Candidate could mistakenly think that 1758 failed closed and that 1605 is a reverse acting valve.

C. Correct. 1-RH-HCV-1758 fails open. This will cause full flow through the heat exchanger(s). RHR outlet temperature will decrease. 1-RH-FCV-1605 output will be lowered to throttle the valve closed in order to restore RHR flow to normal.

D. Incorrect. 1-RH-FCV-1605 output will be lowered to throttle the valve closed in order to restore RHR flow to normal.

Page 69 of 165

K/A:

005A2.01 Residual Heat Removal System (RHRS)

Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the RHRS, and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

Failure modes for pressure, flow, pump motor amps, motor temperature, and tank level instrumentation Technical

References:

1-AP-11 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

12006 Given a set of plant conditions, evaluate Residual Heat Removal System operations in light of the following issues (SOER-88-3).

Effect of a failure, malfunction, or loss of a related system or component on this system Effect of a failure, malfunction, or loss of components in this system on related systems Expected plant or system response based on residual heat removal component interlocks or design features Question Source: Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.5, 43.5 Comments:

Page 70 of 165

33 - 006K5.07 001/RO/T2/G1/2.7/3.0/MODIFIED//

Unit 1 has been operating at 100% power for approximately 150 days A large break LOCA occurs.

All emergency equipment operates as designed.

In accordance with the Safety Injection System design criteria contained in 10-CFR-50.46, which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements?

Peak clad temperature will not exceed ___(1)___°F AND Maximum Cladding Oxidation shall not exceed ___(2)___ % of the total of cladding thickness prior to the oxidation.

A. (1) 2200 (2) 17 B. (1) 2000 (2) 17 C. (1) 2200 (2) 1 D. (1) 2000 (2) 1 Page 71 of 165

Distractor Analysis:

There are five criteria used to evaluate the system's design (10-CFR-50.46):

• Peak Clad temperature shall not exceed 2200°F.

• Maximum Cladding Oxidation shall not exceed 0.17 of the total of cladding thickness prior to the oxidation.

• Maximum Hydrogen Generation from chemical reaction, of the clad, shall not exceed 0.01 of the amount generated if all the clad were to be oxidized.

• A coolable geometry of the core must be maintained.

• Long term cooling must be maintainable so we can remove the cores decay heat.

A. Correct.

B. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must know the criteria as stated above C. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must know the criteria as stated above D. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must know the criteria as stated above Page 72 of 165

K/A:

006 K5.07 Emergency Core Cooling System Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to ECCS:

Expected temperature levels in various locations of the RCS due to various plant conditions Technical

References:

UFSAR 1-CFR-50.46 WOG backgrounds References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

3881 List the following information associated with the Safety Injection System.

• Four accidents that the system is designed to mitigate

• Five criteria which are used to evaluate the system's design (10-CFR-50.46)

Question Source: Modified Unit 1 has been operating at 100% power for approximately 150 days when an automatic reactor trip and safety injection actuates due to a large-break LOCA. In accordance with the Safety Injection System design criteria contained in 10-CFR-50.46, if all equipment operated properly, __________.

A. peak fuel clad temperature will not exceed 2,200°F B.at least one steam generator will be available to maintain long-term core cooling C. the maximum hydrogen concentration in the containment will not exceed 0.17 (17%) due to all forms of hydrogen generation D.the maximum fuel clad oxidation will not exceed 0.02 (2%) of the total thickness of the clad Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.5 Comments:

Page 73 of 165

34 - 006K6.05 001/RO/T2/G1/3.0/3.5/NEW//

Unit 2 was at 100% power when a LOCA occurred inside containment RCS pressure is 450 psig and slowly lowering Containment pressure peaked at 24 psia and is slowly lowering Containment radiation has remained less than 1 R/hr RWST level is 70%

A complete loss of Service Water occurs and cannot be immediately restored Which ONE of the following identifies the status of Safety Injection and Containment Depressurizatiion equipment due to the loss of service water?

A. Low Head SI pumps are currently supplying adequate flow to maintain core cooling, the charging pumps can be secured B. The Charging pumps will be cycled to prevent overheating until alternate cooling water can be established.

C. The Recirc Spray heat exchangers will not have cooling water flow when the RS pumps automatically start D. Quench Spray is currently providing adequate containment cooling Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. The LHSI pumps shut off head is below the given RCS pressure and will not have adequate flow to cool the core. Plausible because it requires the candidate to know the operating parameters of the LHSI and determine flow is inadequate.

B. Correct. In accordance with 0-AP-12, Ch pumps will be cycled to prevent overheating until another cooling water source can be aligned.

C. Incorrect. The RS pumps will receive an auto start signal if a CDA signal has been received (Containment pressure >27.75 psia) and RWST level <60%. Plausible because the candidate must determine that RS pumps will not auto start given the current conditions.

D. Incorrect. The QS pumps will auto start if a CDA signal occurs or are manually started in accordance with 1-E-0 if containment radiation exceeds 1R/hr. Plausible because the candidate must determine that QS pumps will not be running given the current conditions.

Page 74 of 165

K/A:

006K6.05 Emergency Core Cooling System (ECCS)

Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction on the following will have on the ECCS:

HPI/LPI cooling water Technical

References:

0-AP-12 1-E-0 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

18011 Perform the following actions of 0-AP-12, Loss of Service Water

• Explain the high level actions, major action categories, key mitigating strategies, and their basis Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.7 Comments:

Page 75 of 165

35 - 007G2.1.20 001/RO/T2/G1/4.6/4.6/NEW//

Given the following:

Unit 1 is at 100% power 1-RC-SV-1551A, A Pressurizer Safety Valve, is leaking by requiring the PRT to be drained and vented every 2 weeks.

In accordance with 1-OP-5.7, Operation of the PRT, the PRT will be vented directly to the

___(1)___ and the minimum PRT pressure is ___(2)___ psig.

A. (1) Process vents (2) 8 B. (1) Gas stripper (2) 12 C. (1) Gas stripper (2) 8 D. (1) Process vents (2) 12 Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but plausible because the PRT can be vented to using the PRT gas space sample line which is then directed to the process vents but cannot be directly vented to the process vents.

B. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect but plausible because 12 psig is the maximum required pressure during normal operations.

C. Correct.

D. Incorrect The first part is incorrect but plausible because the PRT can be vented to using the PRT gas space sample line which is then directed to the process vents but cannot be directly vented to the process vents. The second part is incorrect but plausible because 12 psig is the maximum required pressure during normal operations.

Page 76 of 165

K/A:

007G2.1.20 Pressurizer Relief Tank / Quench Tank System Ability to interpret and execute procedure steps.

Technical

References:

1-OP-5.7, Operation of the PRT References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

3512 Describe the following pressurizer relief tank flow paths, including all major components.

• Normal tank vent Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.10/43.5 Comments:

Page 77 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

14. 36 - 008K2.02 001/RO/T2/G1/3.0/3.2/NEW//

Both units are at 100%

1-CC-P-1A and 2-CC-P-1A are running 1-CC-P-1B and 2-CC-P-1B are in Auto after Stop The C Reserve Station Service Transformer (RSST) deenergizes due to a fault in the transformer All equipment operates as designed Which one of the choices below lists the CC pumps that will be running ONE (1) minute after the loss of the C RSST?

A. 1-CC-P-1B and 2-CC-P-1A ONLY B. 1-CC-P-1A, 1-CC-P-1B and 2-CC-P-1A ONLY C. 1-CC-P-1A, 2-CC-P-1A and 2-CC-P-1B ONLY D. All 4 CC pumps Distractor Analysis:

The CC pumps receive an auto start signal if an undervoltage condition occurs on either emergency bus on that unit. If the pump is in Auto then it will start immediately upon a UV condition on the other bus on that unit. It will also start in Auto 15 seconds after a UV condition clears on it's own bus. If the pump was running prior to the UV condition on it's bus then it will trip and restart 15 seconds after the bus is reenergized by it's associated EDG.

When the C RSST deenergizes, the 1H and 2J emergency busses will deenergize.

1-CC-P-1A will trip, 1-CC-P-1B will auto start immediately and 2-CC-P-1A will remain running. The EDGs will start and reenergize the busses. 15 seconds after their associated bus UV condition clears, 1-CC-P-1A will restart and 2-CC-P-1B will start.

A. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must determine which emergency busses will de-energize and then determine which CC pumps will auto start.

B. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must determine which emergency busses will de-energize and then determine which CC pumps will auto start.

C. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must determine which emergency busses will de-energize and then determine which CC pumps will auto start.

D. Correct Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 29 Page 78 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

008K2.02 Component Cooling Water System (CCWS)

Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following:

CCW pump, including emergency backup Technical

References:

NCRODP-51, Coponent Cooling System 11715-ESK-5P,5Q - CC pump elect schematic References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

3656 List the following information associated with the component cooling water pumps.

• Interlocks associated with automatically starting a pump Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.7 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 30 Page 79 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

15. 37 - 010K6.02 001/RO/T2/G1/3.0/3.2/BANK//

Unit 2 is in MODE 3 An event occurs that causes Pressurizer level to lower Pressurizer heaters will deenergize when Pressurizer level goes below a setpoint of

___(1)___ %

and the ___(2)___ group heaters require operator action to re-energize when level is restored.

A. (1) 15 (2) backup B. (1) 15 (2) control C. (1) 5 (2) backup D. (1) 5 (2) control Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect but is plausible because the backup heaters powered from the staion service busses will re-energize automatically following a loss of power.

B. Correct.

C. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but is plausible because 5% level in the pressurizer does have an automatic actuation associated with it and will cause an automatic letdown isolation. The second part is correct.

D. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but is plausible because 5% level in the pressurizer does have an automatic actuation associated with it and will cause an automatic letdown isolation. The second part is incorrect but is plausible because the backup heaters powered from the staion service busses will re-energize automatically following a loss of power.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:53:59 PM 31 Page 80 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

010K6.02 Pressurizer Pressure Control System Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following will have on the PZR PCS:

PZR Technical

References:

1-AP-3 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

10647 Explain the following concepts concerning the operation of the pressurizer heaters.

• How the heaters respond to a low pressurizer level.

• How the heaters are restored following a low pressurizer level condition.

Question Source:Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.5 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 32 Page 81 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

16. 38 - 012K4.04 001/RO/T2/G1/3.1/3.3/NEW//

Unit 2 is at 100% power The crew is performing 2-PT 36.1A, Train A Reactor Protection And ESF Logic Actuation Logic Test A Reactor trip occurs during the test The Reactor trip and bypass breaker positions indicate as follows:

Reactor Trip Breaker A (RTA) - GREEN light lit.

Reactor Trip Breaker B (RTB) - RED light lit Bypass Trip Breaker A (BYA) - RED light lit Bypass Trip Breaker B (BYB) - GREEN light lit Which of the choices below completes the following statements?

The Reactor ___(1)___ tripped And The train A P-4 Reactor Trip signal ___(2)___ satisfied.

A. (1) is (2) is B. (1) is not (2) is not C. (1) is (2) is not D. (1) is not (2) is Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 33 Page 82 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must know what breaker positions are required to cause a reactor trip and which breakers are required for a P-4 Reactor trip signal. The A train trip signal goes to RTA and BYB and the B train trip signal goes to RTB and BYA. The P-4 signal is from RTA and BYA for train A and RTB and BYB for train B.

B. Correct.

C. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must know what breaker positions are required to cause a reactor trip and which breakers are required for a P-4 Reactor trip signal. The A train trip signal goes to RTA and BYB and the B train trip signal goes to RTB and BYA. The P-4 signal is from RTA and BYA for train A and RTB and BYB for train B D. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must know what breaker positions are required to cause a reactor trip and which breakers are required for a P-4 Reactor trip signal. The A train trip signal goes to RTA and BYB and the B train trip signal goes to RTB and BYA. The P-4 signal is from RTA and BYA for train A and RTB and BYB for train B K/A:

012K4.04 Reactor Protection System Knowledge of RPS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following:

Redundancy Technical

References:

2-PT-36.1A NCRODP - 77, Reactor Protection References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

8969 Explain the following concepts as they apply to the reactor trip bypass breakers.

• Why the breaker that bypasses the train A reactor trip breaker is opened by a train B reactor trip signal Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.7 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 34 Page 83 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

17. 39 - 013A4.01 001/RO/T2/G1/4.5/4.8/MODIFIED//

Given the following conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100% power.

• A large-break LOCA occurs.

• RWST level decreases as expected and automatic swapover to containment suction commences at the required level.

• 1-SI-MOV-1885C, LHSI Pump "A" Recirc Valve, breaker trips and the valve fails to close during the automatic swapover sequence Based on these conditions, which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements?

Swapover to Recirc Mode automatically occurs below a level setpoint of ___(1)___%

level in the RWST and

___(2)___ Low Head Safety Injection pump(s) will automatically align to containment suction A. (1) 23 (2) Both B. (1) 23 (2) Only the "B" C. (1) 16 (2) Both D. (1) 16 (2) Only the "B" Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 35 Page 84 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but is plausible because 1-E-1 directs the crew to transition to 1-ES-1.3, transfer to cold leg recirc, at 23%. The second part is correct.

B. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but is plausible because 1-E-1 directs the crew to transition to 1-ES-1.3, transfer to cold leg recirc, at 23%. The second part is incorrect but is plausible because the candidate may believe that both recirc valves are required to be closed when only one recirc valves in each train is required for auto swapover to occur.

C. Correct.

D. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect but is plausible because the candidate may believe that both recirc valves are required to be closed when only one recirc valves in each train is required for auto swapover to occur.

K/A:

013A4.01 Engineered Safety Features Actuation System (ESFAS)

Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:

ESFAS-initiated equipment which fails to actuate Technical

References:

1-E-1 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

3411 List the interlocks associated with the following low-head safety injection flow path components' automatic actions (GSI-191).

• Switchover from the injection mode to the recirculation mode Question Source: Modified Given the following conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100% power.

• The breaker for 1-SI-MOV-1885C, LHSI Pump "A" Recirc Valve, was found open.

• The crew was not able to re-close the breaker.

• The crew locally verified 1-SI-MOV-1885C to be open.

• A large-break LOCA occurs.

• RWST level decreases as expected.

• The RWST level is 15%, but the crew is not able to take any local actions.

Based on these conditions, which ONE of the following identifies the final alignment of the LHSI pumps?

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 36 Page 85 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal A. Both LHSI pumps will align to Recirc Mode.

B. ONLY the "A" LHSI pump will align to Recirc Mode.

C. ONLY the "B" LHSI pump will align to Recirc Mode.

D. Neither LHSI pump will align to Recirc Mode.

Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.7 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 37 Page 86 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

18. 40 - 022K4.03 001/RO/T2/G1/2.6/2.7/BANK/NAPS 2009/

Given the following conditions:

• The crew has tripped Unit 1 and initiated Safety Injection due to a loss of RCS inventory

• Conditions continue to degrade and CDA automatically actuates Based on the above conditions, which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements?

The Containment Air Recirc Fans (CARF) tripped when ___(1)___ was initiated and Cooling water to the CARFs isolated when ___(2)___ was initiated.

A. (1) Safety Injection (2) Safety Injection B. (1) Safety Injection (2) CDA C. (1) CDA (2) Safety Injection D. (1) CDA (2) CDA Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 38 Page 87 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. Plausible since neither the CARFs nor the CRDM fans are needed for accident mitigation.

B. Incorrect. Plausible since the candidate may mistakenly assume that cooling water to CARFs are phase A valves, these are in fact Phase B valves that will remain open until CDA.

C. Incorrect. Plausible since as noted above CARFs are not needed for accident mitigation, additionally they trip on UV/DV on their associated emergency bus and candidate may conclude that under SI conditions the CARFs would be tripped; cooling water isolation is correct.

D. Correct. Actuation of CDA will result in CARFs tripping and cooling water isolation.

K/A:

022K4.03 Containment Cooling System (CCS)

Knowledge of CCS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following:

Automatic containment isolation Technical

References:

NCRODP - 47, Primary ventilation References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

4478 List the following information as it applies to the containment air recirculation units.

• Interlock conditions which will automatically stop a fan Question Source: Bank Question History: North Anna 2009 exam Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.7 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 39 Page 88 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

19. 41 - 026A1.06 001/RO/T2/G1/2.7/3.0/NEW//

Given the following conditions:

• Unit 2 is at 100% power

• A large break LOCA occurs inside containment Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements?

The Outside RS pumps start ___(1)___ upon 60% level in the RWST And NPSH to the Outside RS pumps is maintained by water from the ___(2)___ system.

A. (1) after a 120 second time delay (2) Quench spray B. (1) after a 120 second time delay (2) Casing cooling C. (1) immediately (2) Quench spray D. (1) immediately (2) Casing cooling Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but plausible because the time delay for the inside RS pumps is 120 seconds. The second part is incorrect but plausible because QS supplies the inside recirc spray pumps with flow to help NPSH.

B. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but plausible because the time delay for the inside RS pumps is 120 seconds. The second part is correct.

C. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect but plausible because QS supplies the inside recirc spray pumps with flow to help NPSH.

D. Correct.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 40 Page 89 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

026A1.06 Containment Spray System (CSS)

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the CSS controls including:

Containment spray pump cooling Technical

References:

NCRODP - 54, Recirc Spray References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

6278 List the following information associated with the Unit-1 inside recirculation spray pumps.

Time delay associated with starting the pump following an undervoltage condition 6238 Explain the following concepts associated with the outside recirculation spray pumps.

How the net positive suction head is physically increased Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.5 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 41 Page 90 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

20. 42 - 039K5.08 001/RO/T2/G1/3.6/3.6/BANK/HARRIS 2011/

Given the following plant conditions:

• A Unit startup is in progress following a mid-cycle outage

• The Reactor is critical at 10-8 amps

• The Bypass MFRVs are in manual

• 1-MS-PCV-101A ("A" SG PORV) fails open Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements?

The "A" SG level will initially ___(1)___ after the MS PORV opens and The final Reactor power will be ___(2)___.

(Assume NO operator actions have been taken by the operating crew)

A. (1) lower (2) at the Point of Adding Heat B. (1) lower (2) above the POAH C. (1) rise (2) at the Point of Adding Heat D. (1) rise (2) above the POAH Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 42 Page 91 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but plausible if the candidate believes that with feed flowcontrol in manual the level will lower and does not take into account the effects of SG swell due to increased steam flow. The second part is incorrect. The power will be above the POAH in order for MTC and FTC to offset the positive reactivity added by the cooldown. Plausible because the candidate may think that power will stabilize at the POAH.

B. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but plausible if the candidate believes that with feed flowcontrol in manual the level will lower and does not take into account the effects of SG swell due to increased steam flow. The second part is correct.

C. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect. The power will be above the POAH in order for MTC and FTC to offset the positive reactivity added by the cooldown. Plausible because the candidate may think that power will stabilize at the POAH.

D. Correct.

K/A:

039K5.08 Main and Reheat Steam System Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as the apply to the MRSS:

Effect of steam removal on reactivity Technical

References:

Reactor theory References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

11992 Given a set of plant conditions, evaluate Main Steam System operations in light of the following issues Effect of a failure, malfunction, or loss of components in this system on related systems Question Source: Bank Question History: Harris 2011 exam Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.5 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 43 Page 92 of 165

43 - 059A3.02 001/RO/T2/G1/2.9/3.1/MODIFIED/NAPS 2002/

Given the following conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100%

• Rod control is in MANUAL

• Steam generator level control is in AUTO

• Steam generator level control inputs (steam flow, feed flow, turbine first stage pressure) are selected to channel III

• 1-MS-PT-1446, Turbine First Stage Pressure, fails to 10%

With NO OPERATOR ACTION, which one of the following conditions describes the effect on plant operation due to the instrument failure?

A. The Main Feed Regulating Valves will modulate to control SG level at 33% level.

B. The Main Feed Regulating Valves will close and the unit will trip on Lo-Lo SG level C. The Main Feed Regulating Valves will modulate to control SG level at 38% level.

D. There will no effect on SG water level control.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. Plausible because the program level is 33% - 44% from 0% to 20% first stage pressure. Candidate must determine the program level that will be produced with a 10% first stage pressure output.

B. Incorrect. Plausible because the valves will recieve a signal to throttle closed but should not go full closed as is the case with other instrument failures in the SG level control system. The candidate may believe that the valves will not open back up in time to prevent the Lo-Lo trip from occurring which happens with other failures.

C. Correct.

D. Incorrect. Plausible because this would occur if the channel IV first stage pressure failed instead of channel III.

K/A:

059A3.02 Main Feedwater (MFW) System Ability to monitor automatic operation of the MFW, including:

Programmed levels of the S/G Technical

References:

Westinghouse logic diagram References provided to applicants: None Page 93 of 165

Learning Objective:

8812 Explain the following concepts as they apply to the Steam Generator Level Control and Protection System.

• Why the programmed level setpoint for hot-zero power is 33%

• Why the programmed level setpoint is increased as turbine power increases to 20%

8818 Explain how the following instrument failures affect automatic operation of the feedwater bypass valves 12015 Given a set of plant conditions, evaluate Steam Generator Level Control and Protection System operations in light of the following issues.

Question Source: Modified The following plant conditions exist:

-Reactor power is 100%

-Rod control is in AUTO -Steam generator level control is in AUTO

-Steam generator level control inputs (steam flow, feed flow, turbine first stage pressure) are selected to channel III With NO OPERATOR ACTION, which one of the following conditions describes the effect on plant operation when channel III steam pressure in "A" low?

A. Increased feed flow results in steam generator shrink, steam stabilizes at a slightly higher level.

B. Decreased feed flow results in steam generator swell, steam stabilizes at a slightly lower level.

C.' Decreased feed flow results in a reactor trip.

D. Increased feed flow results in a Hi-Hi steam generator level.

Question History: NAPS 2002 Question Cognitive Level: comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.7 Comments:

Page 94 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

21. 44 - 061K2.01 001/RO/T2/G1/3.2/3.3/NEW//

Given the following conditions:

• Unit 2 is at 100%

• A loss of all offsite power occurs

• The 2J EDG fails to start

• No SI has occurred

• All other equipment starts as required Which one of the choices below completes the following statements concerning Auxiliary Feedwater (AFW)?

There will be NO AFW flow to the ___(1)___ SG And AFW flow to the A SG ___(2)___ be controlled from the control room (Assume no operator actions have occurred)

A. (1) B (2) can B. (1) B (2) can not C. (1) C (2) can D. (1) C (2) can not Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 44 Page 95 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal Distractor analysis:

AFW pumps are aligned to flow to the SGs as follows:

2-FW-P-3A (A motor driven) is aligned to feed the C SG through HCV-200C 2-FW-P-3B (B motor driven) is aligned to feed the B SG through MOV-200B 2-FW-P-2 (turbine driven) is aligned to feed the A SG through MOV-200D The A and B SG AFW flow is controlled by MOVs and the C SG AFW flow is controlled by an HCV. The MOVs are both powered from the 2J bus.

A. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must determine which AFW pump is lost due to the loss of 2J bus and then is required to know which AFW pump is aligned to each SG and must know that the MOV for controllling the A SG has lost power and cannot be controlled from the control room.

B. Correct.

C. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must determine which AFW pump is lost due to the loss of 2J bus and then is required to know which AFW pump is aligned to each SG and must know that the MOV for controllling the A SG has lost power and cannot be controlled from the control room.

D. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must determine which AFW pump is lost due to the loss of 2J bus and then is required to know which AFW pump is aligned to each SG and must know that the MOV for controllling the A SG has lost power and cannot be controlled from the control room.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 45 Page 96 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

061K2.01 Auxiliary / Emergency Feedwater (AFW) System Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following:

AFW system MOVs Technical

References:

References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

5967 List the following information associated with the Auxiliary Feedwater System discharge paths.

• Steam generator to which each auxiliary feedwater pump is normally aligned

• Discharge valve that is normally used to control flow from each auxiliary feedwater pump to its respective steam generator 11965 Given a set of plant conditions, evaluate Auxiliary Feedwater System operations in light of the following issues.

• Effect of a failure, malfunction, or loss of a related system or component on this system Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.7 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 46 Page 97 of 165

45 - 062A2.11 001/RO/T2/G1/3.7/4.1/NEW//

Given the following conditions:

• Unit 1 is in Mode 5

• 1H EDG PT is in progress with EDG load at 2550 KW and VARS at 0

• A Loss of offsite power occurs

• After all automatic equipment actuations are complete and load has stabilized on the 1H bus, VARS are reading 1000 kVARS out Which ONE of the choices below correctly completes the following statements?

Following any automatic load changes, 1H EDG load will be ___(1)___ than 2550 kw AND VARS ___(2)___ be adjusted using voltage control A. (1) LESS (2) can B. (1) LESS (2) cannot C. (1) GREATER (2) can D. (1) GREATER (2) cannot Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is correct. Load will be less than 2550 kw without all emergency SI and CDA equipment running. The second part is incorrect but is plausible because during a PT the VARS are adjusted using the voltage regulator control.

B. Correct.

C. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but is plausible because there are several pieces of equipment that will load onto the emergency bus following a loss of offsite power (i.e. CH pumps, CC pumps, AFW pumps & SW pumps). The second part is incorrect but is plausible because during a PT the VARS are adjusted using the voltage regulator control.

D. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but is plausible because there are several pieces of equipment that will load onto the emergency bus following a loss of offsite power (i.e. CH pumps, CC pumps, AFW pumps & SW pumps). The second part is correct.

Page 98 of 165

K/A:

062A2.11 A.C. Electrical Distribution Ability to (a) predict the impacts of the following malfunctions or operations on the ac distribution system; and (b) based on those predictions, use procedures to correct, control, or mitigate the consequences of those malfunctions or operations:

Aligning standby equipment with correct emergency power source (D/G)

Technical

References:

References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

12019 Given a set of plant conditions, evaluate Vital and Emergency Electrical Distribution System operations in light of the following issues.

• Expected plant or system response based on vital and emergency electrical distribution component interlocks or design features 6306 Explain how each of the following parameters is controlled, both in parallel and non-parallel diesel generator operations

• Reactive load (vars)

Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

Comments:

Page 99 of 165

46 - 062G2.4.11 001/RO/T2/G1/4.0/4.2/BANK//

Given the following conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100% power

• The 1H 4160-Volt emergency bus normal feeder breaker 15H11 tripped open

• The 1H EDG has started and re-energized the bus.

After diagnosing the electrical system, the crew began configuring 1H bus loads using 0-AP-10, Loss of Electrical Power, attachment 21.

Configuring 1H bus loads is done as a high priority in order to __________.

A. facilitate restoration of the emergency bus from the normal feeder B. ensure that charging flow is maintained in the event that off-site power is lost to the 1J bus C. prevent EDG overload if SI/CDA are subsequently initiated D. restore operability of load sequencing timers Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. Plausible because the logical next step is to transfer the emergency bus back to the normal feeder.

B. Incorrect. Plausible because part of the procedure to configure loads is to start the CH pump on the bus that has an EDG as the sole source of power.

C. Correct. Loads are configured onto the bus that has an EDG as the sole source of power to prevent overloading the EDG if SI/CDA are actuated.

D. Incorrect. Plausible because it requires the candidate to know that the load sequencing timers are inoperable when the EDG is connected to the bus.

Page 100 of 165

K/A:

062G2.4.11 AC Electrical Distribution System Knowledge of abnormal condition procedures.

Technical

References:

References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

18009 Perform the following actions of 0-AP-10, "Loss of Electrical Power."

Explain the purpose Explain the high level actions, major action categories, key mitigating strategies, and their basis Question Source: Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level:Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10/43.5 Comments:

Page 101 of 165

47 - 063K3.01 001/RO/T2/G1/3.7/4.1/BANK/NAPS 2008/

Given the following:

• A lightning strike has occurred resulting in a loss of the North Anna Switchyard.

• Simultaneously with loss of offsite power, the 1J EDG Battery and Battery Charger are BOTH lost.

• 125 Vital DC Bus 1-I is lost.

• A spurious SI occurs.

• The crew has entered 1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, and manually actuated SI.

Which ONE of the following describes the reason that no J Train ESF equipment is running?

A. 1J EDG did NOT start due to loss of the DC fuel oil pump.

B. 1J EDG started, but the EDG output breaker did NOT close due to loss of DC field flash capability.

C. 1J EDG did NOT start due to loss of power to both start circuits.

D. 1J EDG started and the EDG output breaker is closed, but no control power is available to 1J Bus load breakers.

A Incorrect. Plausible since although the EDG Aux Fuel Oil pump is not needed to start the EDG the candidate who is unfamiliar with the EDG System may assume this constitutes a valid reason for the EDG not starting.

B Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate may assume that the EDG is capable of starting but that DC for field flash is unavailable. While the later part is true, as discussed above the EDG will not attempt to start based on the total loss of DC support.

C Correct. Without the EDG Battery or Battery Charger there is no power available to the start circuits and thus the EDG will not attempt to start despite the presence of automatic start signals.

D Correct. Plausible because the candidate may assume that the EDG is capable of starting and obtaining required voltage and frequency. The candidate who is unfamiliar with DC control power to the ESF busses may conclude that this is a logical reason for none of the ESF equipment to be loaded. The control power to 1J Bus is from DC Bus 1-III.

Page 102 of 165

K/A:

063K3.01 D.C. Electrical Distribution Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the DC electrical system will have on the following:

ED/G Technical

References:

References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

6310 State the following information concerning the diesel generator batteries.

• Purpose

• Major loads supplied

• Source of charging power Question Source: Bank Question History: North Anna 2008 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.7 Comments:

Page 103 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

22. 48 - 064A4.01 001/RO/T2/G1/4.0/4.3/BANK//

Given the following conditions.

• The operating crew is completing a periodic test of the 1J emergency diesel

• The diesel ran for the required amount of time and the crew has just shut it down

• The operator dispatched to roll the diesel with air enters the 2H diesel room by mistake Which one of the following statements describe the effect on the 2H emergency diesel if the operator opens the emergency diesel generator (EDG) air start SOV using its manual override?

A. The diesel will start and the EDG generator field will flash.

B. The diesel will not start, due to the air vent SOV is open.

C. The diesel will not start, due to the fuel racks are in the shutdown position.

D. The diesel will start but the EDG generator field will not flash due to no auto start signal Distractor analysis:

A. Correct. Rolling the EDG with air will cause the EDG to start without a start signal B. Incorrect. Plausible because the air vent SOV downstream of the air start SOVs will be de-energized and open. The candidate must know that there is an orifice in the vent line to restrict loss of air start pressure if the vent SOV is not close.

C. Incorrect. Plausible because the fuel racks are in the min fuel position while the EDG is shutdown. The candidate must know that air is ported to an air/oil piston on the governor to cause it to open the fuel racks when the air SOVs open.

D. Incorrect. Plausible if the candidate believes that there must be a start signal present to flash the generator field.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 47 Page 104 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

064A4.01 Emergency Diesel Generators (ED/G)

Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:

Local and remote operation of the ED/G Technical

References:

Fairbanks Morris EDG tech manual References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

9130 For a given plant condition, describe the response of the emergency diesel if the air-start valve is manually overridden (bypassed).

6342 Explain how the diesel generator would respond to a failure of the air-start vent valve to close.

Question Source: Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level:

10 CFR Part 55 Content:Comprehension/Analysis Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 48 Page 105 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

23. 49 - 064K3.03 001/RO/T2/G1/3.6/3.9/NEW//

Given the following conditions:

• Both units were at 100% power when a loss of all offsite power occurred

• All Emergency Diesel Generators started and energized their respective busses

• The 1H EDG subsequently developed a coolant leak and was secured

• The crew is preparing to reenergize the 1H bus with the SBO diesel in accordance with 0-OP-6.4, Operation Of The SBO Diesel (SBO Event)

Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements:

The flow path to reenergize the 1H bus is from the M bus to the (1)

AND When power is restore to the 1H bus from the SBO diesel, equipment (2) onto the bus A. (1) L bus to the F bus to the 1H bus (2) is allowed to automatically sequence B. (1) L bus to the F bus to the 1H bus (2) must be manually loaded C. (1) F bus to the 1H bus (2) is allowed to automatically sequence D. (1) F bus to the 1H bus (2) must be manually loaded Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 49 Page 106 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but plausible because the other 2 transfer busses are powered from the L bus. Only the F transfer bus is powered directly from the M bus. The second part is incorrect since the loads are procedurally placed in pull to lock before loading the SBO onto the bus but is plausible because when the emergency busses are repowered from the EDGs the loads will sequence onto the bus automatically.

B. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but plausible because the other 2 transfer busses are powered from the L bus. Only the F transfer bus is powered directly from the M bus. The second part is correct.

C. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect since the loads are procedurally placed in pull to lock before loading the SBO onto the bus but is plausible because when the emergency busses are repowered from the EDGs the loads will sequence onto the bus automatically.

D. Correct Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 50 Page 107 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

064K3.03 Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the ED/G system will have on the following:

ED/G (manual loads)

Technical

References:

References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

10782 List the following electrical distribution subsystem components in the sequence required to supply power from the station blackout (SBO) diesel generator to 1H emergency bus.

• SBO diesel generator output breaker 05M1

• SBO 0M bus to "F" transfer bus feeder breaker 05M2

• "F" transfer bus SBO feeder breaker 15F5

• "F" transfer bus to 1H emergency bus feeder breaker 15F3

• 1H emergency bus normal feeder breaker 15H11 Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.7 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 51 Page 108 of 165

50 - 073K1.01 002/RO/T2/G1/3.6/3.9/MODIFIED//

Unit 1 was at 100% power when a LOCA occurs inside containment Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements concerning the Recirculation Spray Heat Exchanger service water return radiation monitor sample pumps.

The Recirculation Spray Heat Exchanger service water return radiation monitor sample pumps (1-SW-P-5, 6, 7 and 8) will automatically start ___(1)___ seconds after a Phase B signal AND The RECIRC SPRAY HEAT EXCHANGER 1A-1B-1C-1D RM PP LO FLOW annunciator will alarm if flow is not detected for ___(2)___ seconds after the pump starts.

A. (1) 120 (2) 30 B. (1) 30 (2) 30 C. (1) 30 (2) 120 D. (1) 120 (2) 30 Distractor analysis:

There is a 2 minute time delay after the Phase B signal to allow SW to fill the RS heat exchanger piping due to the SW side is maintained empty for corrosiion concerns. The low flow alarm has a 30 second time delay. Plausible because the candidate must remember the 2 times.

A. Correct B. Incorrect. Plausible as stated above C. Incorrect. Plausible as stated above D. Incorrect. Plausible as stated above Page 109 of 165

K/A:

073K1.01 Process Radiation Monitoring (PRM) System Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the PRM system and the following systems:

Those systems served by PRMs Technical

References:

11715-ESK-6JP References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

5245 List the following information as it applies to the recirculation spray heat exchanger service water return radiation monitors.

Interlocks associated with automatically starting the sample pumps Means provided in the control room to determine sample pump low flow Question Source: Modified The Recirculation Spray Heat Exchanger service water return radiation monitor sample pumps (1-SW-P-5, 6, 7 and 8) will automatically start _________ after the receipt of a A. 2 minutes, Phase B signal B. 30 seconds, Phase B signal C. 30 seconds, Phase A signal D. 2 minutes, Phase A signal Question History:None Question Cognitive Level:Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.2 Comments:

Page 110 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

24. 51 - 076A3.02 001/RO/T2/G1/3.7/3.7/NEW//

Given the following conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 100% power when a large-break LOCA occurrs

• All automatic actions have occurred.

Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements?

The Service Water supply and return MOVs for the Recirc Spray Heat Exchangers will open when a ___(1)___ signal is received AND The status of the recirc spray heat exchanger service water supply valves (1-SW-MOV-103A/B/C/D) will indicate ___(2)___ on the safeguards panel.

A. (1) SI (2) full open.

B. (1) CDA (2) mid-position C. (1) SI (2) mid-position D. (1) CDA (2) full open.

Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but is plausible because an SI signal will cause other SW actions (i.e. SW pump start, spray array MOVs, spray bypass MOVs). The second part is correct. The MOVs will indicate full open even though they are in a throttled condition.

B. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect but is plausible because the physical position of the valve is stopped in mid-position when opened to provide throttling of the SW flow.

C. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but is plausible because an SI signal will cause other SW actions (i.e. SW pump start, spray array MOVs, spray bypass MOVs). The second part is incorrect but is plausible because the physical position of the valve is stopped in mid-position when opened to provide throttling of the SW flow.

D. Correct.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 52 Page 111 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

076A3.02 Service Water System (SWS)

Ability to monitor automatic operation of the SWS, including:

Emergency heat loads Technical

References:

1-PT-75.6 - SW flow balance References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

7676 Explain the following concepts concerning the service water supply and return motor-operated isolation valves for the recirculation spray heat exchangers.

• Normal position of each valve (1-SW-MOV-101s, 102s, 103s, 104s, 105s, and 106s)

• Expected positions of each valve during accident conditions

• How a heat exchanger tube leak would be isolated during an accident

• How 1-SW-MOV-103A, 103B, 103C, and 103D aid in preventing run-out of a service water pump during accident conditions Question Source:New Question History:None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.7 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 53 Page 112 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

25. 52 - 076A4.01 001/RO/T2/G1/2.9/2.9/BANK//

Given the following conditions:

• Both units at 100%

• 1-SW-P-1A and 2-SW-P-1A pumps are running

• A Large Break LOCA inside containment on Unit 1

• The B train of SI fails to actuate automatically or manually Which ONE of the choices below lists SW pumps that will be running?

(assume no further operator actions have occurred)

A. All 4 SW pumps running B. 1-SW-P-1A and 2-SW-P-1A ONLY C. 1-SW-P-1A, 2-SW-P-1A and 2-SW-P-1B ONLY D. 1-SW-P-1A, 1-SW-P-1B and 2-SW-P-1A ONLY Distractor Analysis:

Safety injection from either unit will start all four SW pumps (with LOCAL-REMOTE transfer switch in REMOTE). The SI signal is train specific:

Unit 1 A train SI starts the A and B SW pumps on unit 1, and the A SW pump on unit 2.

Unit 1 B train SI starts the A and B SW pumps on unit 1, and the B SW pump on unit 2.

Unit 2 A train SI starts the A and B SW pumps on unit 2, and the A SW pump on unit 1.

Unit 2 B train SI starts the A and B SW pumps on unit 2, and the B SW pump on unit 1.

A. Incorrect. Plausible since the candidate must know which SI signal starts the pumps.

B. Incorrect. Plausible since the candidate must know which SI signal starts the pumps.

C. Incorrect. Plausible since the candidate must know which SI signal starts the pumps.

D. Correct.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 54 Page 113 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

076A4.01 Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:

SWS pumps Technical

References:

References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

7670 Explain the following concepts concerning the service water pumps.

Automatic start signals Question Source: Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.7 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 55 Page 114 of 165

53 - 078G2.1.31 001/RO/T2/G1/4.6/4.3/MODIFIED//

Given the following conditions:

• Both Units are at 100% power

• 1-IA-C-1, Unit 1 IA Compressor is running in HAND (AUTO button is NOT depressed)

• 2-IA-C-1 is in AUTO standby If the Unit 1 OATC placed 1-IA-C-1 HAND control switch in OFF, the compressor will

___(1)___.

And The Unit 2 IA compressor will start ___(2)___.

A. (1) unload and trip after a 4 second time delay (2) immediately B. (1) unload and trip after a 4 second time delay (2) when IA pressure lowers to 98 psig C. (1) run unloaded for 20 minutes, then trip (2) immediately D. (1) run unloaded for 20 minutes, then trip (2) when IA pressure lowers to 98 psig Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect but is plausible because it would be logical for the standby piece of equipment to start as soon as the running equipment is stopped which is true for other pieces of equipment throughout the plant (i.e.

CH pumps).

B. Correct.

C. The first part is incorrect but is plausible because this is what occurs when the compressors are placed from hand to auto. The second part is incorrect but is plausible because it would be logical for the standby piece of equipment to start as soon as the running equipment is stopped which is true for other pieces of equipment throughout the plant (i.e. CH pumps).

D. The first part is incorrect but is plausible because this is what occurs when the compressors are placed from hand to auto. The second part is correct.

Page 115 of 165

K/A:

078G2.1.31 Instrument Air System (IAS)

Ability to locate control room switches, controls, and indications, and to determine that they correctly reflect the desired plant lineup.

Technical

References:

References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

4271 Explain the following concepts associated with the instrument air compressor's controls.

How each position of the compressor control switch in the control room affects compressor operation 4270 Explain the following concepts associated with the instrument air compressors.

How compressor responds when control switch placed to the OFF position, including the time delay Question Source: Modified If the Unit 1 OATC placed the running (in HAND) Instrument Air Compressor (1-IA-C-1) control switch in OFF, the compressor would __________.

A. unload and trip after a 4 second time delay B. run unloaded for 20 minutes, then trip C. trip immediately D. be unaffected since OFF only works with the control switch in AUTO Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehensive 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.10 Comments:

Page 116 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

26. 54 - 078K1.05 001/RO/T2/G1/3.4/3.5/MODIFIED/NAPS 2012/

Select the choice that completes the description of how Instrument Air (IA) is provided for Main Steam Trip Valves and the effect of losing IA to one trip valve.

The SOVs ___(1)___ to vent IA to close the MSTVs AND If IA was vented from one main steam trip valve while the unit is at 100% power, the SI signal that would be generated is ___(2)___.

A. (1) energize (2) High steam flow coincident with low steam pressure B. (1) de-energize (2) High steam flow coincident with low steam pressure C. (1) energize (2) High steam line differential pressure D. (1) de-energize (2) High steam line differential pressure Distractor analysis:

A. Correct.

B. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but is plausible since most safety related functions are de-energize to actuate wheras the MS trip valves are energize to actuate.

The second part is correct. Closing of one MS trip valve will cause a High flow in the other 2 steam lines coincident with a low steam pressure.

C. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect but plausible since it will cause a differential pressure between the line with the closed trip valve and the other 2 lines but it is in the wrong direction since the effected line will be higher pressure and the SI is caused when one line is at a lower pressure than the other 2 lines.

D. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but is plausible since most safety related functions are de-energize to actuate wheras the MS trip valves are energize to actuate.

The second part is incorrect but plausible since it will cause a differential pressure between the line with the closed trip valve and the other 2 lines but it is in the wrong direction since the effected line will be higher pressure and the SI is caused when one line is at a lower pressure than the other 2 lines.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 56 Page 117 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

078K1.05 Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the IAS and the following systems:

MSIV air Technical

References:

References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

4067 Explain the following concepts associated with the main steam trip valve's pneumatic operator.

How the valve fails on a loss of instrument air 18031 Perform the following actions of 1-AP-28, "Loss of Instrument Air."

Explain the high level actions, major action categories, key mitigating strategies, and their basis Question Source:Modified Select the choice that completes the description of how instrument air is provided for B Main Steam Trip Valve, 2-MS-TV-201 B.

Instrument air is supplied to B Main Steam Trip Valve, 2-MS-TV-201 B, via

____solenoid operated valves (SOVs), and

_________________ any one of the SOVs will close 2-MS-TV-201 B.

A. 2 ; energizing B. 2; de-energizing C. 6 ; energizing

0. 6; de-energizing Question History: NAPS 2012 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.2 - 41.9 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 57 Page 118 of 165

55 - 103K1.03 001/RO/T2/G1/3.1/3.5/BANK//

Given the following conditions:

• Unit 2 is in Mode 6

• Core off-load is in progress

• Containment equipment hatch is open

• Containment Purge is in service with one supply fan and two exhaust fans running The Containment Purge supply fan trips, but the exhaust fans continue to run.

Which ONE of the following describes the initial plant response to this event?

(Assume NO operator actions.)

A. Reactor cavity water level lowers.

B. Unmonitored release of containment atmosphere via containment equipment hatch.

C. Spent Fuel Pool water level lowers.

D. Containment gaseous and particulate radiation monitor is rendered non-functional.

Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must determine the effect of losing the supply fan will have on cavity water level.

B. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must determine the effect of losing the supply fan will have on containment pressure and resulting air flow through the equipment hatch.

C. Correct.

D. Incorrect. Plausible because a loss of containment air recirc fans will cause the containment rad monitor to become inoperable.

Page 119 of 165

K/A:

103K1.03 Containment System Knowledge of the physical connections and/or causeeffect relationships between the containment system and the following systems:

Shield building vent system Technical

References:

References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

9040 Explain the possible effect on spent fuel pit and reactor cavity level due to the following conditions during refueling operations.

• Decreasing the number of containment exhaust fans

• Decreasing the number of fuel building exhaust fans Question Source:Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.2 to 41.9 Comments:

Page 120 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

27. 56 - 002K5.10 001/RO/T2/G2/3.6/4.1/NEW//

Due to an equipment problem, Unit 1 was ramped down from 100% power for repairs.

Operators are maintaining power less that 5%.

The following indications are noted by the RO:

• Main steam flow - 0.2 x 106 LBM/HR and stable

• Steam Dump demand - 4% and stable

• Intermediate range NIs - 8 x 10-7 amps and slowly lowering

• Loop DeltaT - 3% and stable Which one of the choices below completes the following statement?

Reactor power is currently ___(1)___ and the crew will be required to ___(2)___.

A. (1) 3%

(2) dilute to maintain power B. (1) below the point of adding heat (2) withdraw control rods to raise power C. (1) 3%

(2) withdraw control rods to maintain power D. (1) below the point of adding heat (2) commence reactor shutdown Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 58 Page 121 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal Distractor analysis:

At low pwer levels, Delta T will falsely indicate that the reactor is at power due to decay heat and RCP work energy being added to the RCS.

A. Incorrect. Plausible because there are several indications including Delta T which show the Unit is at 3% power and stable. The candidate must determine that these indications are due to core decay heat and RCP work. Diluting to maintain power is a valid evolution to offset negative reactivity from rising Xenon concentration following the ramp.

B. Incorrect. Plausible because withdrawing control rods will add required positive reactivity to raise reactor power back to 3% but this is not allowed by procedures due to the reactor being subcritical and a start up has not been authorized.

C. Incorrect. Plausible because there are several indications including Delta T which show the Unit is at 3% power and stable. The candidate must determine that these indications are due to core decay heat and RCP work. withdrawing control rods to maintain power is a valid evolution to offset negative reactivity from rising Xenon concentration following the ramp.

D. Correct. The IR NIs indicate that the reactor is subcritical and must be shut down.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 59 Page 122 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

002K5.10 Reactor Coolant System (RCS)

Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to the RCS:

Relationship between reactor power and RCS differential temperature Technical

References:

1-OP-2.2, Unit pwer operation from mode 1 to mode 2 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

17376 Explain the required operator response if reactor power goes below the Point of Adding Heat (SEN-253).

If reactor power goes below the POAH power must be maintained below the POAH.

This procedure is written for unit shutdown and does not provide guidance for a reactor startup.

Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.5 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 60 Page 123 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

28. 57 - 011K4.05 001/RO/T2/G2/3.7/4.1/MODIFIED//

Given the following conditions:

• Unit 1 is at 7% power

• 1-RC-LT-1460, Przr level channel II, failed and was placed in trip

• Pressurizer level control is in automatic and controlling on program

• 1-RC-LT-1459, Przr level channel I, fails high Which one of the following actuations will occur due to this condition?

(Assume no operator actions)

A. Przr Hi level Reactor trip B. Przr Hi pressure Reactor trip C. Przr Low pressure Reactor trip D. No Reactor trip signals will be generated Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. Plausible since the Przr High level trip coincidence will be met but power is less than P-7 which blocks the at power trips.

B. Incorrect. Plausible since actual Przr level will lower until letdown isolates then rise until the Przr is solid but the high pressure trip will not be reached due to the Przr PORVs lifting to limit pressure.

C. Incorrect. Plausible since actual Przr level will lower which can cause pressure to lower but the low pressure trip is also blocked below P-7.

D. Correct.

K/A:

011K4.05 Pressurizer Level Control System (PZR LCS)

Knowledge of PZR LCS design feature(s) and/or interlock(s) which provide for the following:

PZR level inputs to RPS Technical

References:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 61 Page 124 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

8841 List the following information associated with pressurizer level protection Interlock that will block the high-level reactor trip 8964 List the automatic reactor trips including the following information as it applies to each of them.

Interlocks associated with enabling and/or disabling the trip 16182 Explain the following concepts associated with the low power reactor trips block, P-7 reactor trip system interlock function of the reactor trip system (RTS) instrumentation technical specification and bases Question Source: Modified The following plant conditions exist.

The unit is operating at 100% power PRESS LEVEL CHANNEL DEFEAT switch is in the 459/460 position Pressurizer level channel 1-RC-LT-1459 has just failed low Select the response that correctly describes the unit's response to this failure. (assume no operator action)

A.Letdown isolates, backup heaters de-energize, charging flow increases, actual level increases, and the reactor trips on high pressurizer level.

B. Letdown isolates, backup heaters turn on, charging flow decreases, actual level decreases, and the reactor trips on low pressurizer pressure.

C. Letdown temperature increases, backup heaters turn on when actual level increases above program, charging flow decreases, and the reactor trips on high pressurizer level.

D. Letdown temperature increases, backup heaters de-energize when actual level decreases below program, charging flow decreases, and the reactor trips on low pressurizer pressure.

Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.7 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 62 Page 125 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

29. 58 - 014A1.02 001/RO/T2/G2/3.2/3.6/BANK//

Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statement:

In order to ensure adequate shutdown margin during operations at various power levels, control rod insertion limits must be constantly monitored. This monitoring is accomplished by comparing rod position from the output of the ___(1)___ and comparing it to the insertion limit that is derived from ___(2)___.

A. (1) pulse-to-analog converter (2) Tave B. (1) individual rod position indicators (2) Tave C. (1) pulse-to-analog converter (2) Delta T D. (1) individual rod position indicators (2) Delta T Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. The first part is correct. The second part is incorrect but is plausible since Tave is used in most control systems.

B. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but is plausible since the pupose of the insertion limits is to ensure that actual rod position is adequate to maintain shutdown margin following a trip. The second part is incorrect but is plausible since Tave is used in most control systems.

C. Correct.

D. Incorrect. The first part is incorrect but is plausible since the pupose of the insertion limits is to ensure that actual rod position is adequate to maintain shutdown margin following a trip. The second part is correct Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 63 Page 126 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

014A1.02 Rod Position Indication System (RPIS)

Ability to predict and/or monitor changes in parameters (to prevent exceeding design limits) associated with operating the RPIS controls, including:

Control rod position indication on control room panels Technical

References:

References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

6540 List the following information associated with the control rod insertion limits.

Input signals Question Source: Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.5 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 64 Page 127 of 165

59 - 017K6.01 001/RO/T2/G2/2.7/3.0/BANK/VOGTLE 2011/

Given the following conditions:

• Unit 1 was at 100% power when a loss of offsite power occurred

• The crew has transitioned to 1-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip Response

• Natural circulation verification is in progress.

• 2 Core Exit Thermocouples (CETC) are failed due to open circuits.

Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statement:

The input from these CETCs to the Subcooling Monitor are failed ___(1)___ and the calculated subcooling will be ___(2)___

A. (1) low (2) lower B. (1) low (2) unaffected C. (1) high (2) lower D. (1) high (2) unaffected Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. Indication fails low but the subcooling monitor only uses the 5 highest reading CETCs for the calculation. The candidate must determine which direction the CETCs will be failed and the effect on the RCS subcooling.

B. Correct.

C. Incorrect. An RTD fails high on an open circuit. In this case the thermocouple indication fails low but the subcooling monitor only uses the 5 highest reading CETCs for the calculation. The candidate must determine which direction the CETCs will be failed and the effect on the RCS subcooling.

D. Incorrect. An RTD fails high on an open circuit. In this case the thermocouple indication fails low but the subcooling monitor only uses the 5 highest reading CETCs for the calculation. The candidate must determine which direction the CETCs will be failed and the effect on the RCS subcooling.

Page 128 of 165

K/A:

017K6.01 In-Core Temperature Monitor System (ITM)

Knowledge of the effect of a loss or malfunction of the following ITM system components:

Sensors and detectors Technical

References:

References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

7735 Explain the following concepts as they apply to the Core Exit Temperature Monitoring Subsystem.

• How a thermocouple is used to generate a temperature signal 7737 Explain the purpose of the following inputs to the Subcooled Margin Monitor Subsystem microprocessor.

Average of five highest thermocouples Question Source: Bank Question History: Vogtle 2011 Question Cognitive Level: Comprehensive 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

Comments:

Page 129 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

30. 60 - 027K2.01 001/RO/T2/G2/3.1/3.4/BANK/NAPS 2012/

The Containment Iodine Filtration Fans are powered from ___(1)___ and are placed in operation to ___(2)___ .

A. (1) Emergency Busses (2) reduce airborne radioactivity in Containment prior to opening Containment for outages B. (1) Emergency Busses (2) minimize release during a postulated fuel handling accident inside Containment.

C. (1) Station Service Busses (2) reduce airborne radioactivity in Containment prior to opening Containment for outages.

D. (1) Station Service Busses (2) minimize release during a postulated fuel handling accident inside Containment.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. First part incorrect but plausible since some things (like flux mapper drives) that aren't required to function during an accident do receive power from emergency busses because of the benefits that can be derived by using them if conditions permit. Second part is correct, these fans were supplied based on the potential for buildup of Iodine in Containment from minor RCS leakage.

B. Incorrect. First part incorrect as discussed above. Second part is incorrect but plausible since procedures such as FR-Z.3, Response to High Containment Radiation Level, mention the ability to use these based on recommendations from Health Physics and other members of plant staff; the candidate who lacks detailed knowledge of the design basis document may conclude that they are installed for the reason given in this distractor.

C. Correct. First part is correct there are 2 fans, each one receiving power from a seperate station service motor control center (MCC), one or both can be operated as a time. Second part is correct as discussed in "A".

D. Incorrect. First part is correct as noted above. Second part is incorrect but plausible as discussed in "B".

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 65 Page 130 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

027K2.01 Containment Iodine Removal System (CIRS)

Knowledge of bus power supplies to the following:

Fans Technical

References:

References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

4489 List the following information as it applies to the containment iodine filtration unit components.

Question Source: Bank Question History: North Anna 2012 exam Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.7 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 66 Page 131 of 165

61 - 029K1.05 001/RO/T2/G2/2.9/3.2/NEW//

Given the following conditions:

• Unit 2 is in Mode 6

• Core off-load is ready to commence

• The Core Alterations Checklist verifies that at least one Containment air recirculation fan is in service.

Which of the following describes why this verification is performed.

A. Maintain automatic isolation function of containment purge and exhaust B. Checks cooling fan running to maintain containment temp < 115 degress prior to commencing core off-load C. Verify the digital containment Partial Air Pressure indicators are operable D. To allow installation of PDTT vent hose to an in-service containment exhaust purge duct Page 132 of 165

Distractor Analysis:

This requires the examinee to know 1-RM-RMS-159 / 160 receives its sample flow from the Containment Air Recirc fan duct work. If no containment recirc fans are in service, Then 1-RM-RMS-159/160 are not operable.

A) CORRECT Maintain automatic isolation function of containment purge and exhaust, 1-RM-RMS-159 / 160 "Containment gases and particulate Radiation Monitors" initiate automatic fuctions which affects the purge and exhaust system. High radiation levels in containment will close the containment purge system butterfly valves.

The containment gases and particulate Radiation Monitors take a suction from the Containment air recirc fan duct work so at least one containment Air Recirc fan must be in operation to provide a representative sample for 1-RM-RMS-159 / 160 B) INCORRECT Checks cooling fan running to maintain containment temp < 115 degrees prior to commencing core off-load Plausible because this is the third step in 1-AP-35 "Loss if containment air recirculation cooling" Containment average air temperature is an initial condition used in the DBA analyses that establishes the containment enviromental qualifications for both pressure and temperature. Based on the given information Mode 6, In Modes 5 and 6 the consequences of an event that would violate the upper temperature limit is reduced due to RCS pressure and temperature limitations and therfore not required.

C) INCORRECT Verify the digital containment Partial Air Pressure indicators are operable.

Plausible because the first step in 1-AP-35 "Loss of containment air recirculation cooling" directs the operator to declare the partial air pressure indicators inoperable. In Modes 1,2,3, and 4, a DBA could cause a release of radioactive material to containment. And is essential to ensure contaiment pressure is within its designed limits. Based on the given information Mode 6 , In Modes 5 and 6 the consequences of these events are reduced due to RCS pressure and temperature limitations and therfore not required.

D) INCORRECT To allow installation of PDTT vent hose to an in-service containment exhaust purge duct Plausible because Opeator may think a containment air recirculation fan needs to be in service to install PDTT vent hose. This operation is performed during the outage by 1-OP-5.4 "Draining the Reactor Coolant System" This is done prior to draining the RCS, to allow proper draining into the PDTT. The installation of the vent hose is from the PDTT level column vent and routed to a containment exhaust purge duct.

Page 133 of 165

K/A:

029K1.05 Containment Purge System (CPS)

Knowledge of the physical connections and/or cause-effect relationships between the Containment Purge System and the following systems:

Containment air cleanup and recirculation system Technical

References:

0-AP-35, Loss of Containment Recirculation Cooling 1-OP-4.1, Controlling procedure for refueling TRM 3.9.5 Containment Purge and Exhaust Isolation System TRM 3.9.5 Bases 11715-FM-82N-3 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

U 4477 Containment Air Recirculation Fan Flowpath U 17522 (TRM 3.9.5)

U 10705 Automatic action RM-159/160 U 16259 RM-159/160 operability Question Source: New Question History:

Question Cognitive Level: Memory or Fundamental Knowledge 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

Comments:

Page 134 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

31. 62 - 033G2.2.3 001/RO/T2/G2/3.8/3.9/NEW//

Both units are at 100% power.

1-FC-P-1A, A Spent Fuel Cooling Pump, trips due to a fault Spent Fuel Pool temperature reaches the High temperature alarm setpoint Which one of the choices below completes the following statements?

The annunciator for SFP High temperature is located on Unit ___(1)___ panel.

and 1-FC-P-1B, B Spent Fuel Cooling Pump, can be started from Unit ___(2)___ vertical board.

A. (1) 1 (2) 1 B. (1) 2 (2) 2 C. (1) 1 (2) 2 D. (1) 2 (2) 1 Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must know that the SFP cooling pump controls are located on both units (A pump switch on Unit 1 and B pump switch on Unit

2) whereas the alarms are only on Unit 1.

B. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must know that the SFP cooling pump controls are located on both units (A pump switch on Unit 1 and B pump switch on Unit

2) whereas the alarms are only on Unit 1.

C. Correct.

D. Incorrect. Plausible because the candidate must know that the SFP cooling pump controls are located on both units (A pump switch on Unit 1 and B pump switch on Unit

2) whereas the alarms are only on Unit 1.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 67 Page 135 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

033G2.2.3 Spent Fuel Pool Cooling System:

(multi-unit license) Knowledge of the design, procedural, and operational differences between units.

Technical

References:

References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

3755 List the following information associated with the spent fuel pool cooling pump components.

Normal power supply for each pump 3749 List the following information associated with the spent fuel pool Means provided in the control room to determine abnormal spent fuel pool temperature Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:00 PM 68 Page 136 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

32. 63 - 035A4.02 001/RO/T2/G2/2.7/2.8/BANK//

A loss of Main and Auxiliary feed water has occurred on Unit 1 Reactor Coolant system bleed and feed has been established using 1-FR-H.1 "Response to loss of Secondary Heat Sink".

The following plant conditions exist:

• Core Exit Thermocouples are decreasing

• RCS Th's are reading 580°F

• S/G wide range levels are:

A = 12%

B= 5%

C= 5%

Auxiliary feedwater capability has just been restored Which ONE of the following describes how AFW flow should be re-established?

A. As quickly as possible at maximum available flow rate in order to mitigate the possibility of core damage.

B. To only one generator at a time, at maximum available flow rate to confine any tube failures to one steam generator C. To only one generator at a time, and limit feed flow to 100 gpm to preclude thermal shock to the steam generators D. As quickly as possible with a total flow of > to 340 gpm so that RCS bleed and feed can be terminated.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:01 PM 69 Page 137 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal Distractor Analysis Conditions for a hot, dry steam generator are listed on 1-FR-H.1 "Response to loss of secondary heat sink" CAP page and is defined as:

Wide Range level < 13% [22%]

AND RCS Hot leg temperature > 550 degrees IF CETC's are decreasing then to prevent failure of the Steam Generator due to excessive thermal stress resulting form introduction of cold FW to the hot Steam Generator, feedwater flow is limited to 100gpm.

A) INCORRECT As quickly as possible at maximum available flow rate in order to mitigate the possibility of core damage.

CETC's are decreasing then to prevent failure of the Steam Generator due to excessive thermal stress resulting from introduction of cold FW to the hot Steam Generator, feedwater flow is limited to 100gpm. Had CETC been increasing then feed flow is not limited and should be established at the maximum rate. If all SG's are hot/dry, flow FW flow should be introduced to only on SG at a time to limit excessive thermal stresses to one S/G B) INCORRECT To only one generator at a time, at maximum available flow rate to confine any tube failures to one steam generator CETC's are decreasing so to prevent failure of the Steam Generator due to excessive thermal stress resulting from introduction of cold FW to the hot Steam Generator, feedwater flow is limited to 100gpm.

C) CORRECT To only one generator at a time, and limit feed flow to 100gpm to preclude thermal shock to the steam generators D) INCORRECT As quickly as possible with a total flow of > to 340 gpm so that RCS bleed and feed can be terminated.

RCS feed and bleed termination is determined by having at least on S/G narrow range

> 11% along with CETC's and Th temperatures decreasing. CETC's are decreasing so to prevent failure of the Steam Generator due to excessive thermal stress resulting from introduction of cold FW to the hot Steam Generator, feedwater flow is limited to 100gpm.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:01 PM 70 Page 138 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

035A4.02 Steam Generator System (S/GS)

Ability to manually operate and/or monitor in the control room:

Fill of dry Steam Generator Technical

References:

1-FR-H.1 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

U 11303 List the definition of hot,dry steam generator associated with restoration of feedwater flow during the response to a loss of secondary heat sink (1-FR-H.1)

U 11304 Explain concept associated with restoration of feedwater flow during the response to a loss of secondary heat sink (1-FR-H.1)

Given a set of plant conditions, evaluate 1-FR-H.1 in light of the following issues:

• Effect of a failure, malfunction, or loss of a related system or component on a system.

• Effect of a failure, malfunction, or loss of components in a system or related systems

• Impact on plant equipment

• Response if limits or setpoints associated with a system or its components have been exceeded

• Proper operator response to the condition as stated Question Source: Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.7 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:01 PM 71 Page 139 of 165

64 - 055K3.01 001/RO/T2/G2/2.5/2.7/MODIFIED//

Given the following conditions:

The B waterbox is being removed from service for leak repairs in accordance with 1-MOP-48.31, Main Condenser - B Waterbox.

The operator inadvertently closes 1-VP-3, Condenser To CN Air Ejector VP Isol Valve, for the A waterbox.

1-VP-4, Condenser To CN Air Ejector VP Isol Valve, for the B waterbox, remains open.

CW flow through the B waterbox is isolated per the MOP.

Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements concerning the effect on air ejectors and condenser vacuum?

The ___(1)___ air ejector will become steam bound and vacuum will degrade in ___(2)___.

A. (1) "A" (2) "A" condenser only B. (1) "A" (2) Both condensers C. (1) "B" (2) "B" condenser only D. (1) "B" (2) Both condensers Distractor analysis:

The A air ejector takes suction from the A and B waterboxes which are located in the A condenser. The B air ejector takes suction from the C and D waterboxes which are located in the B condenser. The 2 air ejectors can be cross connected but the valve is closed during normal operations. When CW is isolated from the B waterbox, the A air ejector will start to draw steam into the line which blankets the air ejector and causes a loss of vacuum in both condensers due to the steam space connection between the two condensers. The candidate must know and understand the physical connections of the air ejectors with the waterboxes and determine the expected results of the valve misposition event.

A. Incorrect. Plausible as noted above.

B. Correct.

C. Incorrect. Plausible as noted above.

D. Incorrect. Plausible as noted above.

Page 140 of 165

K/A:

055K3.01 Condenser Air Removal System (CARS)

Knowledge of the effect that a loss or malfunction of the CARS will have on the following:

Main condenser Technical

References:

1-MOP-48.31 11715-FM-72A sh. 1 References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

4048 Explain how removing a condenser water box from service affects the following parameters.

Main condenser pressure, if circulating water flow is secured prior to closing the affected water box's air ejector suction isolation valve Question Source: Modified Given the following conditions:

The A waterbox is being removed from service for leak repairs The operator inadvertently closes 1-VP-4, A air ejector suction from B waterbox, instead of 1-VP-3, A air ejector suction from A waterbox CW flow through A waterbox is isolated per the MOP Which ONE of the following is correct concerning the affect of this on air ejectors and condenser vacuum?

A. A air ejector only will become steam-bound and vacuum will degrade in both "A" and "B" condensers.

B. A air ejector only will become steam-bound and vacuum will degrade in only "A" condenser.

C. "B" air ejector only will become steam-bound and vacuum will degrade in only "B" condenser.

D. A and "B" air ejectors will both become steam-bound and vacuum will degrade in both "A" and "B" condensers.

Question History: None Question Cognitive Level:Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.7 Comments:

Page 141 of 165

65 - 068A3.01 001/RO/T2/G2/2.5/2.4/NEW//

During operation of the Boron Evaporators, the evaporator feed pumps take suction from the __(1)__ and pressure is automatically maintained in the evaporators by controlling

__(2)__ flow through the evaporator overhead condenser.

A. (1) Boron Recovery Tanks (2) Component Cooling Water B. (1) Boron Recovery Test Tanks (2) Component Cooling Water C. (1) Boron Recovery Tanks (2) Chilled Water D. (1) Boron Recovery Test Tanks (2) Chilled Water Distractor analysis:

A. Correct.

B. Incorrect. First part is incorrect but is plausible because the boron evaporator distillate is discharged to the BRTTs. Second part is correct.

C. Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is incorrect but is plausible because chilled water is used in the gas stripper system to cool the vent chillers.

D. Incorrect. First part is incorrect but is plausible because the boron evaporator distillate is discharged to the BRTTs. Second part is incorrect but is plausible because chilled water is used in the gas stripper system to cool the vent chillers.

Page 142 of 165

K/A:

068A3.01 Liquid Radwaste System (LRS)

Ability to monitor automatic operation of the Liquid Radwaste System including:

Evaporator pressure control Technical

References:

0-OP-10.4 NCRODP - 42, Boron Recovery System References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective: None Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.7 Comments:

Page 143 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

33. 66 - G2.1.14 001/RO/T3//3.1/3.1/NEW//

In accordance with OP-AA-100, Conduct of Operations, which ONE of the operations below requires a Plant Announcement to be made prior to performing?

A. Starting an auxiliary building supply fan B. Diverting letdown to the gas stripper C. Cross-connecting the 1A1 480 volt bus to the 1C2 480 volt bus D. Starting a LP Heater Drain Pump uncoupled Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:01 PM 72 Page 144 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal Distractor analysis:

OP-AA-100 Plant Announcements Standard Operations personnel make plant announcements to alert personnel working in the plant of changing conditions.

Expectations Starting or stopping plant equipment (Large 480 volt loads or greater)

Major plant equipment is defined as large 480 volt loads or greater that are operated from the Control Room. It is NOT expected that changes in running status be announced for minor loads such as process radiation monitor fans, sump pumps, Turbine Building vent fans, etc. SM/US discretion can be applied.

When starting or stopping plant equipment, Operations personnel will announce the planned activity with direction for plant personnel to stand clear of the equipment. For equipment with electrical switchgear 480 volts or greater, the announcement includes direction to stand clear of its associated electrical switchgear.

Changing radiological conditions When ongoing activities have the potential to create changing radiological conditions, Operations personnel will announce the planned activity with direction that personnel stand clear of areas potentially impacted. A subsequent announcement will be made when normal area access is restored.

A. Incorrect but plausible because the aux bldg supply fans are 480 volt equipment operated from the control room but are not considered large enough to require announcment prior to starting as noted above.

B. Incorrect. Plausible because diverting letsown to the gas stripper will cause a change in radiological conditions but this only requires contacting the HP shift superviser.

C. Incorrect. Plausible because cross connecting two 480 volt busses would be considered a large 480 volt load but this operation is performed locally in the switchgear room and an announcement is not required.

D. Correct. Even though the motor is disconnected from the pump it is still announced prior to starting.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:01 PM 73 Page 145 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

G2.1.14 Knowledge of criteria or conditions that require plant-wide announcements, such as pump starts, reactor trips, mode changes, etc.

Technical

References:

OP-AA-100, Conduct of Operations References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective: None Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10, 43.5 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:01 PM 74 Page 146 of 165

67 - G2.1.36 001/RO/T3//3.0/4.1/MODIFIED//NO Given the following conditions:

• Unit 2 is in Mode 6

• Core off-load is in progress

• A loss of vital AC bus 2-II occurs Which of the following actions per T.S. and 2-AP-4.1 "Malfunction of SR instrumentation" should be performed?

A. core off-load may continue provided redundant source range NI is operable B. core off-load may continue provided both gamma-metric neutron detectors are operable.

C. Immediately suspend core off-load and any positive reactivity additions D. Immediately suspend any positive reactivity additions core off-load may continue Page 147 of 165

Distractor Analysis Core Alteration is defined in Tech Specs as the movement of any fuel sources, or reactivity control components, within the reactor vessel with the vessel head removed and fuel in the vessel. Suspension of CORE ALTERATIONS shall not preclude completion of movement of a component to a safe condition.

2-AP-4.1 is the abnormal Procedure providing the guidlines for malfuntion of source range nuclear instrumentation.

This requires the examinee to know that Core off-load meets the definition of a CORE ALTERATIONS, and that two source range instruments are required to be operable to ensure that redundant monitoring capability is available A)INCORRECT "Core off-load may continue provided redundant source range NI is operable" Vital bus 2-II is the power source for Source Range instrument N-32. T.S. 3.9.3 Two source range neutron flux monitors shall be operable in Mode 6 and with one SR inoperable the required action is to suspend core alterations and suspend positive reactivity additions.

Also step 3 and step 4 of 2-AP-4.1 repeat the required actions.

B) INCORRECT "Core off-load may continue provided both gamma-metric neutron detectors are operable.

Core off load mets the T.S. definition of Core Alterations and should be stopped immediately, Neither T.S. or 2-AP-4.1 allows Gama-Metrics be used as an alternate indication, also one channel of Gama-Metrics C) CORRECT "Immediately suspend core off-load and any positive reactivity additions" As per T.S 3.9.3 and 2-AP-4.1 D) INCORRECT "Immediately suspend any positive reactivity additions and core off-load my continue" Core off load mets the T.S. definition of Core Alterations and should be stopped immediately K/A:

G2.1.36 Knowledge of procedures and limitations involved in core alterations.

Technical

References:

2-AP-4.1, Malfunction of Source Range Nuclear instrumentation T.S. 3. 9.3, Nuclear Instrumentation T.S. 3.9.3, Bases 2-OP-4.1 Controlling procedure for refueling T.S. 1.1 Definitions References provided to applicants: None Page 148 of 165

Learning Objective:

16310 Explain the following concepts associated with the nuclear instrumentation - mode 6 technical specification and bases (TS-3.9.3).

Limiting condition for operation Applicability Required actions Question Source: Modified Given the following conditions:

Unit 1 is in Mode 6.

Core off-load is in progress.

A loss of Vital Bus 1-I occurs.

Which ONE of the following lists required actions per Technical Specifications, and 1-AP-4.1, Malfunction of Source Range Nuclear Instrumentation?

A. Immediately suspend core alterations and any evolution that would dilute RCS boron concentration to below TS-3.9.1 requirements; Verify audible Source-Range indication available in containment.

B. Core alterations and any evolution that would dilute RCS boron concentration to below TS-3.9.1 requirements may continue provided the redundant Source-Range NI is operable; Immediately initiate action to restore N-31 to operable.

C. Immediately suspend core alterations and any evolution that would dilute RCS boron concentration to below TS-3.9.1 requirements; Place N-31 Level Trip switch in BYPASS.

D. Core alterations and any evolution that would dilute RCS boron concentration to below TS-3.9.1 requirements may continue provided the redundant Source-Range NI is operable; Within one hour, initiate action to restore N-31 to operable.

Question History: None Question Cognitive Level:

10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10, 43.6 Comments:

Page 149 of 165

68 - G2.2.20 002/RO/T3//2.6/3.8///

In accordance with MA-AA-103, Conduct of Troubleshooting, how are these troubleshooting activities defined?

(1) Clamp on ammeter readings (2) Lifting leads for voltmeter readings (3) Vibration diagnostic equipment readings (4) Temporary pressure gage connected to plant system A. (1) Intrusive (2) Intrusive (3) Nonintrusive (4) Intrusive B. (1) Nonintrusive (2) Intrusive (3) Nonintrusive (4) Intrusive C. (1) Nonintrusive (2) Intrusive (3) Intrusive (4) Nonintrusive D. (1) Nonintrusive (2) Nonintrusive (3) Nonintrusive (4) Intrusive A Incorrect but is plausible as connecting temporary test gages is intrusive and clamp on ammeters could be considered intrusive.

B Correct. Per MA-AA-103 lifting leads and connecting temporary test gages are intrusive activities.

C Incorrect but is plausible as lifting leads is intrusive and connecting temporary test gages could be non intrusive as they are connected to existing test valves.

D Incorrect but is plausible as connecting gages is intrusive. And lifting leads for voltage readings could be non intrusive. A recent change to the trouble shooting procedure changed connecting voltmeters to a non intrusive activity but lifting leads for voltmeter readings is still Page 150 of 165

K/A:

G2.2.20 Knowledge of the process for managing troubleshooting activities.

Technical

References:

MA-AA-103, Conduct of Troubleshooting References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

Question Source: Bank Question History: Seabrook 2013 Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10, 43.5 Comments:

Page 151 of 165

69 - G2.2.40 001/RO/T3/H/3.4/4.7/BANK//NO Given the following conditions:

• Unit 2 is at 50% power

• The 2H EDG has been declared inoperable due to mechanical failure According to technical specifications, with one emergency diesel inoperable, 0-PT-80 , AC Sources operability verification must be performed ___(1)___ the operability declaration, and at least once per ___(2)___ hours thereafter.

A. (1) within one hour of (2) 8 B. (1) immediately upon (2) 8 C. (1) within one hour of (2) 12 D. (1) immediately upon (2) 12 Page 152 of 165

Distractor Analysis T.S. 3.8.1 AC Sources-Operating is required in Modes 1,2,3, and 4 (b) Two emergency diesel generators (EDGs) capable of supplying the onsite Class IE power distrubution system, To ensure a highly reliable power source remains with an inoperable EDG, it is necessary to verify the availability of the offsite circuits on a more frequent basis.

0-PT-80 "AC SOURCES OPERABILITY VERIFICATION" purpose is to provide instructions for verifying two qualified circuits between the offsite transmission network and the onsite Class IE AC electrical distribution system as required by SR 3.8.1.1 This requires the examinee to know how and when applicable actions associated with technical specifications should be applied.

A)Correct Within one hour of; 8.

Condition B is entered for a inoperable EDG, to ensure a highly reliable power source remains with an ioperable EDG, it is necessary to verify the availability of the offsite circuits on a more frequent basis.

B) INCORRECT immediately upon; 8 The requirement of T.S. 3.8.1 is to perform SR 8.8.1.1 for the required offsite circuits within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> and once per 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> thereafter C) INCORRECT within one hour of; 12 The requirement of T.S. 3.8.1 is to perform SR 8.8.1.1 for the required offsite circuits within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> and once per 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> thereafter D) INCORRECT immdedately upon; 12 The requirement of T.S. 3.8.1 is to perform SR 8.8.1.1 for the required offsite circuits within 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br /> and once per 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br /> thereafter Page 153 of 165

K/A:

G2.2.40 Ability to apply Technical Specifications for a system.

Technical

References:

T.S. 3.8.1 0-PT-80, AC Sources operability verification (Test Frequency)

TRM 3.8.1 Bases 11715-FE-1BB References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

16298 Explain the following concepts associated with the AC sources - operating technical specification and bases (TS-3.8.1).

• Accident/transient for which protection is afforded

• Limiting condition for operation

• Applicability

• Required actions

• Surveillance requirements Question Source: Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.10, 43.2, 43.5 Comments:

Page 154 of 165

70 - G2.3.11 001/RO/T3//3.8/4.3/BANK/SAMLE QUESTION/

In accordance with 1-OP-22.2, Operation of Low Level Waste Drain Tanks, which ONE of the choices below completes the following satements?

When the Low Level Liquid Waste Tanks (LLLWT) are aligned for Continuous Discharge (Sampling Not Required) the contents are sampled ___(1)___.

When the LLLWTs are aligned for Normal Fill and Discharge (Sampling Required) and the radioactivity in the LLLWT is too high to release, then the contents are transferred to the ___(2)___.

A. (1) Weekly (2) High Level Liquid Waste Tanks B. (1) Daily (2) High Level Liquid Waste Tanks C. (1) Weekly (2) Clarifier Hold up tanks D. (1) Daily (2) Clarifier Hold up tanks Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct.

A. Incorrect. First part incorrect but is plausible since daily samples would be logical for releasing liquid waste. Second part is correct.

C. Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is incorrect but plausible since the LLLWTs are normally pumped to the clarifier when radiation levels are low enough.

Requires candidate to know the normal method of discharging a LLLWT with high activity.

D. Incorrect. First part incorrect but is plausible since daily samples would be logical for releasing liquid waste. Second part also incorrect but plausible since the LLLWTs are normally pumped to the clarifier when radiation levels are low enough. Requires candidate to know the normal method of discharging a LLLWT with high activity.

Page 155 of 165

K/A:

G2.3.11 Ability to control radiation releases.

Technical

References:

1-AP-13, Loss of one or more circulating water pumps References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

Objective 11410 Explain the purpose of the following high-level action steps associated with 1-AP-13 Question Source: BANK Question History:North Anna 2010 Exam Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:

Comments:

Page 156 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

34. 71 - G2.3.12 001/RO/T3//3.2/3.7/BANK//

An operator has received a skin dose of 15 Rem this year.

Which ONE of the following identifies the maximum additional exposure to the skin that could be received this year without exceeding 10 CFR 20 dose limits?

A. 60 Rem B. 0 Rem C. Worker has already exceeded the limit.

D. 35 Rem Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. Plausible because the total dose would be 75 rem which is the limit for non-lifesaving emergency dose.

B. Incorrect. Plausible because 15 rem is the limit for lens of the eye.

C. Incorrect. Plausible because the limit for TEDE has been exceeded.

D. Correct. The limit for annual skin dose is 50 rem.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:01 PM 75 Page 157 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

G2.3.12 Knowledge of radiological safety principles pertaining to licensed operator duties, such as containment entry requirements, fuel handling responsibilities, access to locked high-radiation areas, aligning filters, etc.

Technical

References:

10CFR20 VPAP-2101 - Radiation Protection Program References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

13583 List the following information associated with the radiation protection program (VPAP-2102)

• 10CFR20 dose limits Question Source: Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.12 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:01 PM 76 Page 158 of 165

72 - G2.3.15 001/RO/T3//2.9/3.1/NEW//

An operator is entering the Auxiliary building to verify a tag out on a CC pump. The proper dosimetry has been obtained prior to entering the Radiological Controlled Area (RCA).

Which ONE of the following lists the types of radiation that is detected by an electronic Digital Alarming Dosimeter (DAD)?

A. Gamma only B. Beta and Gamma only C. Gamma and Neutron only D. Beta, Gamma and Neutron Distractor Analysis:

A. Correct. DADs detect only gamma radiation.

B. Incorrect. Plausible since the candidate must remember that there is no Beta window on a DAD.

C. Incorrect. Plausible since the candidate must remember that there is no neutron detector on a DAD.

D. Incorrect. Plausible since a TLD detects Beta, Gamma and Neutron radiation.

K/A:

G2.3.15 Knowledge of radiation monitoring systems, such as fixed radiation monitors and alarms, portable survey instruments, personnel monitoring equipment, etc.

Technical

References:

Nuclear Employee Training References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

Question Source: New Question History:

Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.12/43.4 Comments:

Page 159 of 165

73 - G2.4.14 001/RO/T3//3.8/4.5/BANK//

Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements in accordance with OP-AP-104, Emergency and Abnormal Operating Procedures?

A Continuous Acton Step is marked with ___(1)___

AND Unless stated otherwise, ___(2)___.

A. (1) Brackets ( [ ] )

(2) NOTEs and CAUTIONs at the beginning of a procedure apply throughout the procedure.

B. (1) an Asterisk ( * )

(2) NOTEs and CAUTIONs at the beginning of a procedure apply throughout the procedure.

C. (1) Brackets ( [ ] )

(2) NOTEs apply to all subsequent steps, whereas CAUTIONs apply only to the step they precede.

D. (1) an Asterisk ( * )

(2) NOTEs apply to all subsequent steps, whereas CAUTIONs apply only to the step they precede.

Distractor Analysis:

A. Incorrect. Plausible because Brackets denote immediate operator action step.

B. Correct.

C. Incorrect. Plausible because Brackets denote immediate operator action steps and candidate must know when Notes and Cautions are applicable.

D. Incorrect. Plausible because candidate must know when Notes and Cautions are applicable.

Page 160 of 165

K/A:

G2.4.14 Knowledge of general guidelines for EOP usage.

Technical

References:

OP-AP-104, Emergency and Abnormal Operating Procedures References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

12115 List the following information concerning the emergency response guideline procedures.

• Type of information provided on procedure cover sheet

• Type of information conveyed by a note

• Type of information conveyed by a caution

• How the immediate operator actions are identified

• How the immediate operator actions are intended to be performed 12447 Explain the following concepts concerning emergency response guideline procedure usage.

• How continuous action steps are identified Question Source: Bank Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.10 Comments:

Page 161 of 165

74 - G2.4.26 001/RO/T3//3.1/3.6/NEW//

Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements In accordance with TR 7.3, Fire Brigade.

A Fire Brigade of at least ___(1)___ members shall be maintained onsite AND The Fire Brigade Scene Leader and at least ___(2)___ brigade members shall have sufficient knowledge of safety-related systems to understand the effects of the fire and fire suppressants on safe shutdown capability.

A. (1) 4 (2) 1 B. (1) 4 (2) 2 C. (1) 5 (2) 1 D. (1) 5 (2) 2 Distractor analysis:

TR 7.3 A Fire Brigade of at least 5 members shall be maintained onsite.

NOTES

1. The Fire Brigade Scene Leader and at least two brigade members shall have sufficient training in or knowledge of safety-related systems to understand the effects of fire and fire suppressants on safe shutdown capability.

2. The Fire Brigade shall not include the minimum shift crew required by Technical Specification Section 5.2.2 or any personnel required for other essential functions during a fire emergency.

A. Incorrect. First part is incorrect but plausible because the fire brigrade is comprised of 1 scene leader and 4 brigade team members. Second part is incorrect but plausible.

B. Incorrect. First part is incorrect but plausible because the fire brigrade is comprised of 1 scene leader and 4 brigade team members. Second part is correct.

C. Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is incorrect but plausible.

D. Correct.

Page 162 of 165

K/A:

G2.4.26 Knowledge of facility protection requirements, including fire brigade and portable fire fighting equipment usage.

Technical

References:

T.R. 7.3, Fire Brigade References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

17538 Explain the following concepts associated with the Fire Brigade technical requirement and bases (TR-7.3)

Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Memory 10 CFR Part 55 Content: 41.10, 43.5 Comments:

Page 163 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal

35. 75 - G2.4.39 001/RO/T3//3.9/3.8/NEW//

Given the following:

• A large break LOCA occurred.

• A Site Area Emergency was declared.

• The 15 minute average wind direction displayed on PCS is 480°.

• You are assigned the duties of State and Local Communicator In accordance with EPIP-2.01, Notification of State and Local Governments, which ONE of the choices below completes the following statements?

The wind direction is the direction that the wind is ___(1)___

AND The wind direction that will be reported is ___(2)___.

A. (1) coming from (2) 480° B. (1) coming from (2) 120° C. (1) going to (2) 480° D. (1) going to (2) 120° Distractor analysis:

A. Incorrect. First part is correct. Second part is incorrect but is plausible the range on the MET tower wind direction is 0° - 540° to prevent the direction from jumping back and forth on the chart when the direction is oscillating from the north. The candidate must know to subtract 360 from any reading over 360°.

B. Correct.

C. Incorrect. First part is incorrect but plausible because the protected sectors given for a PAR are in the direction that the wind is going to. Second part is incorrect but is plausible the range on the MET tower wind direction is 0° - 540° to prevent the direction from jumping back and forth on the chart when the direction is oscillating from the north. The candidate must know to subtract 360 from any reading over 360°.

D. Incorrect. First part is incorrect but plausible because the protected sectors given for a PAR are in the direction that the wind is going to. Second part is correct.

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:01 PM 77 Page 164 of 165

QUESTIONS REPORT for RO Exam Jan Submittal K/A:

G2.4.39 Knowledge of RO responsibilities in emergency plan implementation.

Technical

References:

EPIP-2.01, Notification of State and Local Governments References provided to applicants: None Learning Objective:

Question Source: New Question History: None Question Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Analysis 10 CFR Part 55 Content:41.10 Comments:

Wednesday, January 27, 2016 1:54:01 PM 78 Page 165 of 165